01/04/2025 Phase-2_Code-C

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, Incuspaze Campus-2, Plot No. 13, Sector-18,
Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana - 122015, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 Final Test Series(P2)-2024-25_Test-02C Time : 180 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics: Electromagnetic Induction, Alternating Current, Electromagnetic Waves, Ray Optics and Optical Instruments, Wave Optics
Chemistry: Thermodynamics, Equilibrium, Redox Reactions
Botany: Morphology of Flowering Plants, Anatomy of Flowering Plants
Zoology: Human Health and Disease, Biotechnology: Principles and Processes, Biotechnology and Its Applications

General Instructions :
Duration of Test is 3 hrs.
The Test consists of 180 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
There are four parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology having 45 questions in each part of equal
weightage.
Each question carries +4 marks. For every wrong response, –1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unanswered/unattempted
questions will be given no marks.
Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
Dark only one circle for each entry.
Dark the circle in the space provided only.
Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white fluid or any other rubbing material on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS

1. The magnetic flux linked with a coil is given by ϕ (Wb) = 3t2 3. If a current of 5 A flowing in a coil of self inductance 2 mH is
cut off in 10 ms, then change in magnetic flux, is
+ 4t + 8, (where t is in s) then magnitude of the induced emf
in the coil at t = 2 s will be (1) 10–2 Wb
(1) 4 V
(2) 1 Wb
(2) 2 V
(3) 100 Wb
(3) 8 V
(4) 0.1 Wb
(4) 16 V
4. Read the following statements.
2. In the given figure direction of induced current in circular (a) Magnetic flux is a vector quantity
conducting loop will be (b) The SI unit of magnetic flux is T m–2
(c) The dimensional formula for magnetic flux is [ML2T–2A–
1]
The incorrect statement(s) is/are
(1) (a) only
(2) (b) only
(1) Clockwise
(2) Anticlockwise (3) (a) and (b) only

(3) No induced current (4) All (a), (b) and (c)

(4) First clockwise and then anticlockwise

1
Final Test Series(P2)-2024-25_Test-02C

5. The instantaneous value of emf and current in an AC circuit 10. → →

–
If E and B are the electric and magnetic field vectors of
are;
π 1
E = 5√2 sin (200πt −
3
), I =
√2
sin (200πt)
electromagnetic wave then the direction of propagation of
The impedance of the circuit will be?? wave is along the direction of

(1) 0.1 Ω (1) E

⃗

(2) 1 Ω (2) ⃗
B

(3) 10 Ω
(3) ⃗
E ×B
⃗

(4) 0.01 Ω
(4) ⃗ ⃗
6. The power factor of an AC circuit having resistance R and B×E

inductance L connected in series is [Assume the angular 11. The displacement current through a capacitor at steady
frequency of source to be equal to ω] state is (Symbols have their usual meaning)
(1) R

ωL
(1) Zero
R
(2) ε0
dϕB

(2) 2
√R + (ωL)
2
dt

(3)
dϕB
μr ε0
(3)
ωL dt

R
(4) 4πε0
dϕB

dt

(4) √R2 − ω2 L2

12. Electromagnetic waves are produced due to

7. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as (1) A charge at rest
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): In series LCR circuit at resonance the (2) A charge moving with constant velocity
impedance is equal to the ohmic resistance. (3) A charge moving with constant speed in a straight line
Reason (R): At resonance, the inductive reactance is equal
to the capacitive reactance. (4) An accelerated charge
In the light of the statements, choose the correct answer
from the options given below: 13. A paraxial beam is incident on a convex spherical glass
(refractive index = 1.5) surface of radius of curvature R = 10
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the cm in air as shown. The distance of point of convergence
(1)
correct explanation of the assertion from the pole of the spherical surface is
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not
(2)
the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
8. The core of any transformer is laminated so as to
(1) Make it lightweight
(1) 10 cm
(2) Reduce the energy losses due to eddy currents
(2) 20 cm
(3) Make it robust and strong
(3) 30 cm
(4) To increase secondary voltage
(4) 40 cm
9. The phase difference between magnetic field and electric
field vectors in EM wave is 14. A thin prism of 4° angle of prism is made of refractive index
(1) 90°
3

2
. The deviation caused by it for small angle of incidence
is
(2) 180°
(1) 1°
(3) 0°
(2) 2°
(4) 45°
(3) 6°
(4) 3°

2
Final Test Series(P2)-2024-25_Test-02C

15. Which of the following statement is correct? 20. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
(1) On refraction, the velocity of light do not change Assertion A : Interference obeys the law of conservation of
On refraction, the frequency of light changes but energy.
(2) Reason R : Energy is created during constructive
wavelength of light do not change
interference and it is destroyed during destructive
On refraction, both the velocity as well as the interference.
(3) wavelength of light change but the frequency do not In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
change answer from the options given below:
(4) Both (1) & (2) (1) Both A & R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
16. If two plane mirrors are kept at 60° to each other, then the Both A & R are true but R is not the correct explanation
number of images formed by them is (2)
of A
(1) 5 (3) A is true statement but R is false
(2) 6 (4) Both A and R are false statements
(3) 7 21. Two coherent lights of intensities I and 4I are superimposed,
(4) 8 then difference between maximum and minimum intensity
in interference pattern is
17. In Young's double slit experiment, if the intensity at the
β
(1) 9I
centre of screen is I0, then intensity at a distance from the
4
(2) 8I
central maxima is (here, β = fringe width)
(3) 4I
(1) I0
(4) 2I
I0
(2) 2
22. The axis of two polaroids are perpendicular to each other. If
now one of them is rotated through 30° and unpolarised
(3)
I0

3 light of intensity I0 is incident on first polaroid, then intensity

I0
of transmitted light is
(4) 4

(1)
I0

18. Angular width of central maxima of diffraction pattern due to

8

a single slit depends upon

(2)
3I0

(1) Wavelength of light used

(3)
3I0

(2) Distance between slit and screen 8

(3) Width of the slit (4)

I0

(4) Both (1) and (3)

23. The network shown in the figure is a part of a complete
19. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as circuit. If at a certain instant, the current i = 1 A and potential
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). at point A and B are equal, then the value of ∣∣ ∣∣is
di

Assertion (A): Diffraction is more common in sound as dt

compared to light.
Reason (R): Usually, wavelength of light is greater than
sound.
In the light of the statements, choose the correct answer
from the options given below: (1) 400 A/s

Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the (2) 300 A/s
(1)
correct explanation of the assertion (3) 800 A/s
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not (4) 200 A/s
(2)
the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

3
Final Test Series(P2)-2024-25_Test-02C

24. Consider the following statements. 29. In a Young’s double slit experiment, a student observed N1
Statement I: The self inductance of the coil depends on its fringes in a certain segment of screen when a
geometry and on the permeability of the medium. monochromatic light of 600 nm is used. If the wavelength of
Statement II: Inductance is a scalar quantity. light is changed to 400 nm, the number of fringes observed
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
is N2 in same region of screen. The ratio would be
N1

appropriate answer from the options given below. N2

equal to
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (1) 3

(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) 2

(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

(3) 3

5
25. A transformer is used on a 2000 V input line to deliver 20 A
at 120 V at the secondary coil. If the power efficiency of the (4) 5

3
transformer is 80%, then the current drawn from the input
line is 30. A light ray falls on a glass surface of refractive index, μ such
(1) 3 A that, μ = tan(ip ) where ip is the polarizing angle for the pair
of media. The angle between the reflected and refracted
(2) 2 A rays when angle of incidence is equal to ip, would be
(3) 1.5 A
(1) 90º
(4) 1.25 A
(2) 120º
26. The EM wave with longest wavelength among the following (3) 30º
is
(4) 60º
(1) Microwaves
31. Ligh travels a distance x in time t1 in air while 4x in time t2
(2) Ultraviolet rays
in another denser medium. The critical angle for this
(3) x-rays medium will be
(4) Gamma rays 4t2
(1) sin
–1
(
t1
)

27. Light with intensity, I falls on a perfectly reflecting surface at

normal incidence. If the surface area is A, then the average t1
(2) sin
–1
( )
force exerted on surface is (where c denotes speed of light 3t2

in vacuum)
4t1
(3) sin
–1
( )
(1) IA

c
t2

3t1

(2) 2I A (4) sin

–1
(
t2
)
c

(3) IA

2c
32. An equiconvex lens has a focal length in air 3
times the
4

radius of curvature of either surface. The refractive index of

(4)
IA

3c material is
28. Which of the following is not a Maxwell's equation? (1) 3

→ →
(1) ∮ E ⋅d l = 0 (2)
5

→
(3)
5
(2) →
∮ B ⋅d s =
qen c
3
∈0

→ → (4) 7

(3) ∮ E ⋅d l =
–dϕB 5

dt

(4) Both (1) and (2)

4
Final Test Series(P2)-2024-25_Test-02C

33. The variation of current (I) with time (t) is shown below. 36. Figure shows a circular area of radius R where a uniform
→
magnetic field (B ) is going into the plane of paper and

increasing at a constant rate.

The average value of current for the above variation in one

time period (T) will be
I0
(1) √2

(2)
I0

Which of the following graph correctly shows the variation of

(3) Zero induced electric field (E) with distance (r) from centre?
2I0
(4) √3

34. If z1 and z2 are the impedances of the given circuits (a) and (1)
(b) as shown, then choose the correct option.

(2)

(1) z1 = z2 (3)
(2) z1 > z2

(3) z1 < z2

(4) z1 + z2 = 30 Ω
(4)
35. A rod of length l is translating at a velocity v making an
angle θ as shown. A uniform magnetic field B exists in
direction perpendicular to plane of motion. The induced emf
in the rod will be 37. Which of the given expression is correct for refractive index
of a medium? (All the symbols have their usual meaning)
−−−−
(1) √μ0 ε0

1
(2) √μ0 ε0

−−−−
(3) √μr εr

1
(4) √μr εr

(1) Blv

(2) Bl v

sin θ

(3) Blv sinθ

(4) Blv cosθ

5
Final Test Series(P2)-2024-25_Test-02C

38. The oscillating magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic 42. A ray of light is incident on a prism having refracting angle
wave is given as (all symbols have their usual meaning) equal to 60º. If the angle of incidence is equal to angle of
By = 8×10–6 sin(500πx – 3×1010πt) emergence, each equal to 60º, then the angle of minimum
deviation will be
The correct expression for electric field associated with
given electromagnetic wave is (All the quantities are in S.I (1) 30º
unit)
(2) 60º
(1) 480 sin(500πx – 3×1010πt) V/m (3) 45º
(2) 240 sin(500πx – 3×1010πt) V/m (4) 37º

(3) 480 sin(500πx + 3×1010πt) V/m 43. The rms voltage of the sinusoidal ac source is equal to
(1) –
times the peak value of ac source
(4) 240 sin(500πx + 3×1010πt) V/m √2

39. Two coherent sources of light interfere and produce fringe (2)
1

√2
times the peak value of ac source
pattern on screen. For first minima, the phase difference
between the two waves will be, (3) 2 times the peak value of ac source
(4) Peak value of ac source
(1)
π

44. A small signal voltage V(t) = V0sin(ωt) is applied across an

(2) Zero
ideal inductor having inductance L, then (All symbols have
(3) π their usual meaning)

(4) 3π
(1) Current leads voltage by 180º
2

(2) Current lags voltage by 90º

40. A beam of light coming from a distant source having
wavelength λ, falls on a single slit having width d1 . The Over the whole cycle, the inductor consumes no energy
(3)
resulting diffraction pattern is observed on screen at a from voltage source
distance d2. The distance between first dark fringes on
(4) Both option (2) and (3) are correct
either side of central bright fringe would be
45. An applied ac voltage is given as, V = V0sin(ωt). Based on
2λd2
(1) d1
this information, match the given two columns.

2λd1
Column I Column II
(2) d2

a. I = I0cos(ωt) (i) Pure resistive circuit

λd2
(3) d1 b. I = I0sin(ωt) (ii) Pure capacitive circuit
λd1
(4) d2
c. I = I0sin(ωt –π/6) (iii) May be a R – C circuit

41. If the maximum magnifying power of a simple microscope is d. I = I0sin(ωt +π/6) (iv) May be a L – R circuit
9, then the minimum magnifying power of this simple
microscope is (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(1) 8 (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(2) 7 (3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(3) 5 (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(4) 3

CHEMISTRY

6
Final Test Series(P2)-2024-25_Test-02C

46. Match the ‘underlined atom’ in List I with their ‘oxidation 50. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
state’ in List II. Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
List I List II Assertion (A) : Fe3O4 is a mixed oxide of iron.
Reason (R) : Oxidation state of Fe in Fe3O4 is either +3 or
(a) SO
2–
(i) +4
¯
4
+4.
(b) C O
2–
(ii) +6 In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
3
answer from the options given below:
(c) H2 S (iii) +5 Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the
(1)
correct explanation of the assertion
(d) N O– (iv) –2
3
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not
The correct match is (2)
the correct explanation of the assertion
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) 51. E∘
cell
of the cell, Ni(s) ∣
∣ Ni
2+
(aq) ∣∣
∣∣ Au
3+
(aq) ∣
∣ Au(s) will be
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(Given: E°
Ni / Ni
2+ = +0. 25 V and E°
Au
3+
/ Au
= 1. 4 V)

47. Based on given data

Au3+ + 3e- →Au(s) E° = 1.40V (1) 1.65 V
Ag+ + e- → Ag(s) E° = 0.80V (2) 1.15 V
Cu2+ + 2e- → Cu(s) E° = 0.34V (3) –1.65 V
The correct order of oxidising power is
(4) –1.15 V
(1) Au3+ > Cu2+ > Ag+
52. Which of the following can act as an oxidising agent as well
(2) Cu2+ > Ag+ > Au3+ as a reducing agent?
(a) H2O2
(3) Au3+ > Ag+ > Cu2+ (b) H2S
(c) SO2
(4) Cu2+ > Au3+ > Ag+
(d) HNO2
48. Which indicator is used in iodometric titration reaction?
(1) (a) only
(1) Methyl orange
(2) (a) and (b) only
(2) Phenolphthalein
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only
(3) Freshly prepared sodium nitroprusside solution
(4) (b), (c) and (d) only
(4) Freshly prepared starch solution
53. Which of the following is a disproportionation reaction?
49. If oxidation number of X, Y and Z in a compound are –3, +5
and –1 respectively then possible formula of compound will (1) 2KClO 3 → 2KCl + 3O2

be (2) CuSO4 + Zn → Cu + ZnSO4

(1) X2(YZ)2 (3) − 2− 2−

S8 + 12OH → 4S + 2S2 O3 + 6H2 O

(2) X3(YZ2)2
(4) 2 F2 + 2OH
−
→ 2 F
−
+ OF 2 + H2 O

(3) X(Y2Z)2
54. pH of pure water at 37°C is
(4) X(YZ4)3 (assume Kw = 2.0 × 10–14) (log 2 = 0.30)

(1) 6.55
(2) 7.0
(3) 7.25
(4) 6.85

7
Final Test Series(P2)-2024-25_Test-02C

55. Given below are two statements : 59. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : At equilibrium, concentration of reactants and Statement I: No work is done during reversible free
products become constant. expansion of an ideal gas in vacuum.
Statement II : A catalyst does not alter the equilibrium Statement II: Bomb calorimeter is used to calculate the
constant of a reaction. enthalpy change at constant pressure.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below: answer from the options given below.
(1) Both statements I and II are true (1) Both statements I and II are true
(2) Both statements I and II are false (2) Both statements I and II are false
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false (3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is true (4) Statement I is false but statement II is true
56. The pH of mixture having 0.5 M NH4OH and 1.0 M NH4Cl is 60. Which of the following is path function?
(Kb NH4OH = 1 × 10–5) (1) Work

(1) 8.7 (2) Enthalpy

(2) 5.3 (3) Internal energy

(3) 5 (4) Entropy

(4) 9 61. A system on absorbing heat of 1000 cal does work

equivalent to 2000 cal by expanding aganist atmospheric
57. Match List I with List II and choose the correct option. pressure. The change in internal energy of the system is
List I List II
(1) + 1000 cal
a. 2HI(g) ­⇌ H2(g) + I2(g)
Kp
(i) Kc
= RT
(2) + 3000 cal
4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) ⇌ 4NO(g) + Kp (3) – 3000 cal
b. (ii) = 1
6H2O(g) KC

(4) – 1000 cal

c. N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
Kp
⇌ (iii) KC
= (RT)
−1

62. The heat of formation of xy(g) is –70 kJ mol–1. If the bond

dissociation enthalpy of x2(g) and y2(g) are 20 and 30 kJ
d. 2NO(g) + Cl2(g) 2NOCl(g)
Kp
⇌ (iv) = (RT)
−2

mol–1 respectively, then the bond dissociation enthalpy of

KC

The correct option is

xy(g) (in kJ mol–1) is
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(1) 95
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(2) 55
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(3) 120
(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(4) 20
58. Match process in List-I with thermodynamic property in List-
II 63. When 2 mole of monoatomic ideal gas changes volume
from 2L to 4L at constant temperature, the entropy change
List-I List-II
will be
a. Isothermal process (i) q=0
(1) 4R ln2
b. Adiabatic process (ii) ΔP = 0
(2)
3

c. Isobaric process (iii) ΔT = 0 2

R ln 2

d. Isochoric process (iv) ΔV = 0 (3) 2 R ln2

The correct match is
(4) R ln 2
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)

8
Final Test Series(P2)-2024-25_Test-02C

64. Consider the following statements 69. Out of following, the example of homogeneous equilibrium
(a) Density and internal energy are intensive properties is
(b) Standard molar enthalpies of formation of C(graphite)
Δ
and Br2(l) is zero. (1) CaCO3 (s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2 (g)

(c) For Na(s) → Na(g); the enthalpy of atomization is same

as the enthalpy of sublimation.
The correct statement(s) is/are (2) H2 O(l) ⇌ H2 O(g)

(1) (c) only

(3) 3+ – 2+
Fe (aq) + SCN (aq) ⇌ [Fe(SCN)] (aq)
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (b) only (4) CO2 (g) + C(s) ⇌ 2 CO(g)

(4) (a) only

70. At 298K, the equilibrium constant of
65. The heat of combustion of P4(white) to P4O10(s) ls –x kJ 24
2 SO2 (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2 SO3 (g) is 4×10 . The equilibrium
mol–1. The heat released upon formation of 142 g of
P4O10 is constant of SO3 (g) ⇌ SO2 (g) +
1
O2 (g) is
2

(1) 1000 xJ
(1) 2×1012
(2) 250 xJ
(2) 2×10–12
(3) 100 xJ
(4) 500 xJ (3) 4×10–13

66. If heat at constant volume for combustion of methane at (4) 5×10–13

100°C is –20 kJ mol–1, then heat at constant pressure will
be 71. If one mole of NH3 in 1L closed vessel, dissociates 50% at
equilibrium then Kc of the reaction,
(1) –20 kJ mol–1
2 NH3 (g) ⇌ N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) will be
(2) –41.66 kJ mol–1
(1) 0.347
(3) +20 kJ mol–1
(2) 0.124
(4) +13.79 kJ mol–1 (3) 0.421
67. In which case change in entropy is positive? (4) 0.296
(1) Compression of gas at constant temperature 72. Given below are two statements:
(2) 2H(g) → H2(g) Statement I: If Kc > 103; products predominate over
reactants at equilibrium state.
(3) Stretching of rubber
Statement II: If Kc < 10–3; reactants predominate over
(4) Boiling of egg products at equilibrium state.
68. If a process is spontaneous at only low temperature, then In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below.
(1) ΔH < 0 and ΔS > 0
(1) Both statement I and statement II are true
(2) ΔH > 0 and ΔS > 0
(2) Both statement I and statement II are false
(3) ΔH < 0 and ΔS < 0
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(4) ΔH > 0 and ΔS < 0
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is true

73. The K of Ag CrO is 1.1×10–12 at 298 K. The solubility

sp 2 4
of Ag2CrO4 in a 0.2 M AgNO3 solution is (in mol/L)

(1) 2.75×10–11

(2) 5.5×10–12

(3) 1.5×10–10

(4) 6.5×10–10

9
Final Test Series(P2)-2024-25_Test-02C

74. Consider the following statements 79. Consider the following redox reaction
(a) H PO and HPO are conjugate acid base pair.
3 4
2−

4
a SO3
2– –
+ b MnO4 + c H
+
→d Mn
2+ 2–
+ e H2 O + f SO4

(b) pH of 10–4 M NaOH is 10 at 25ºC Coefficients a, b and c respectively for the balanced
(c) H2O and AlCl3 both are Lewis acid equation are
(d) If Kc < Qc, the reaction proceeds in backward direction (1) 3, 2 and 7
The correct statements are (2) 5, 2 and 6
(1) (a), (b) and (d) only (3) 2, 5 and 8
(2) (b) and (d) only (4) 5, 1 and 7
(3) (b) and (c) only
80. If pH of a saturated solution of a diacidic base B(OH)2 is 8
(4) (a), (b) and (c) only then the solubility product, Ksp of B(OH)2 is
75. The percent ionisation of 0.02 M formic acid in 0.1 M HCl (1) 10–12
will be nearly (Ka of formic acid is 1.8×10–4)
(2) 5 × 10–12
(1) 0.07%
(3) 10–19
(2) 0.09%
(3) 0.35% (4) 5 × 10–19
(4) 0.18% 81. In closed system : P(s) ⇌2Q(g) + 3R(g)
if the partial pressure of R is tripled then partial pressure of
76. Given below are two statements.
Q will become
Statement (I): Oxidation state of terminal Br in Br3O8 is + 7.
Statement (II): Average oxidation state of Br in Br3O8 is (1) Half of its original pressure
+16

3
. (2) Twice of the original pressure
In the light of the above statements, choose the most 1
times the original pressure
(3)
appropriate answer from the options given below. 3√3

(1) Statement (I) is correct but statement (II) is incorrect (4) –

2√2 times its original pressure
(2) Statement (I) is incorrect but statement (II) is correct 82. At T K temperature, A2(g) is 50% dissociated into B(g) and
(3) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are correct C(g) to attain equilibrium as per the reaction A2(g) ⇌B(g) +
C(g) at 1 atm pressure. The standard Gibbs energy change
(4) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are incorrect
at this temperature is
77. The number of mole(s) of K2Cr2O7 required to oxidise two
(1) –RT ln3
moles of ferrous oxalate in acidic medium is
(2) RT ln3
(1) 1

6
(3) –2.303 RTln3
(2) 1 (4) 2.303 RTln3
(3) 2

3 83. Standard molar entropy of X2, Y2 and XY3 are 60, 40 and

(4) 3 50 J K–1 mol–1 respectively.

For the reaction, X + Y → XY , ΔH = –30 kJ. To be at
1
2
3
2 3
78. Consider the following statements. 2 2

equilibrium, the temperature will be

Statement I: A negative E means that the redox couple
⊝

is weaker reducing agent than the H+/H2 couple. (1) 1000 K

Statement II: A positive E means that the redox couple is
⊝
(2) 1250 K
a stronger reducing agent than the H+/H2 couple. (3) 450 K
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below: (4) 750 K

(1) Both statement I and statement II are true 84. 2 moles of an ideal gas compressed reversibly and
isothermally from 100 L to 10 L at 300 K. The value of q for
(2) Both statement I and statement II are false the process is (in kcal)
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false (1) 2.76
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is true (2) –2.76
(3) 1.38
(4) –1.38

10
Final Test Series(P2)-2024-25_Test-02C

85. The energy required to raise the temperature of 25 g of 88. Which one of the following conditions will favour maximum
copper from 35°C to 80°C is extent of forward reaction?
(specific heat of copper = 0.39 J g–1 °C–1) A2(g) + 2 B(s) 2 AB(g), ΔrH = x kJ

(1) 625.25 J (1) High temperature and low pressure

(2) 438.75 J (2) Low temperature and high pressure
(3) 375.31 J (3) Low temperature and low pressure
(4) 875.25 J (4) High temperature and high pressure

86. Consider the given statements: 89. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : If enthalpy of atomisation of methane 1665 kJ Statement I: Aqueous solution of sodium acetate is basic
mol–1 then mean bond enthalpy of C – H bond is 416.25 kJ Statement II: In case of CH3COONH4, pH is independent
of the concentration of solution
mol–1.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
Statement II : In methane, all the four C – H bonds are
answer from the option given below.
equal in bond length and the energies required to break the
individual C – H bonds in each successive step will also be (1) Statement I is true but statement II is false
the same.
In the light of above statements choose the correct option. (2) Statement I is false but statement II is true

(1) Both the statements I and II are correct (3) Both statement I and statement II are true

(2) Both the statements I and II are incorrect (4) Both statement I and statement II are false

(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct 90. The pH of the solution containing 0.4 M CH3COOH and 0.2
M (CH3COO)2 Ca is (pKa of CH3COOH = 4.7)
(4) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(1) 5.9
87. Given below are two statements.
Statement I: A spontaneous process is an irreversible (2) 5.7
process.
Statement II: For spontaneous process, ΔStotal > 0. (3) 4.7
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct (4) 3.8
answer from the options given below.
(1) Statement I is incorrect but statements II is correct
(2) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

BOTANY

91. A compound leaf differs from a simple leaf as the former 92. Guard cells
(a) Have chloroplast
(1) Bears axillary buds in axil of its leaflets (b) Enclose stomatal pore
(2) Has reticulate venation (c) Are usually dumb-bell shaped in dicots
(d) Regulate opening and closing of stomata
Has a number of leaflets as incisions of the lamina The incorrect one(s) is/are
(3)
reach upto the midrib
(4) Bears a bud in the axil of the petiole (1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (c) only
(3) (c) and (d) only
(4) (b) and (d) only

11
Final Test Series(P2)-2024-25_Test-02C

93. Sclerenchyma fibres 98. Examine the figure given below and select the incorrect
(a) Are thick walled, elongated and pointed. w.r.t. the labelled parts (A - C).
(b) Are usually found associated with xylem and phloem of
vascular bundles.
(c) Provide mechanical support to the organs
The correct ones are
(1) Only (a) and (b)
(2) Only (b) and (c)
(3) Only (a) and (c)
(4) All (a), (b) and (c)

94. Thorns differ from spines as the former (1) ‘B’ is a part of embryo

(1) Protect the plants from browsing animals (2) ‘C’ is radical present at one end of embryonal axis

(2) Are modification of axillary buds (3) ‘B’ is rich in reserve food material

(3) Are pointed, prickly structures (4) ‘A’ is coleoptile

(4) Prevent water loss by transpiration 99. How many among the following features is/are true for
Solanum nigrum?
95. Vascular bundles in dicot stem are considered open (a) Both calyx and corolla shows valvate aestivation.
because (b) Stamens are attached to the sepals of the flower.
(1) Xylem is present towards the periphery (c) More than one carpel are present and they are free.
(d) Flower shows bilateral symmetry.
(2) Cambium is present between xylem and phloem (e) Flowers are hypogynous.
Select the correct option
(3) Xylem and phloem are surrounded by bundle sheath
(1) Three
(4) Protoxylem is present towards centre
(2) Four
96. A typical angiospermic seed consists of all, except
(3) Two
(1) Embryo
(4) One
(2) Seed coat
100.In which of the following medicinal plants, papilionaceous
(3) Endosperm
corolla is found?
(4) Pericarp
(1) Muliathi
97. Trichomes in plants may be (2) Aloe
(a) Branched
(b) Soft (3) Belladonna
(c) Involved in transport of water in the stem
(4) Ashwagandha
(d) Secretory in nature
Choose the option for correct ones. 101.Choose the incorrectly matched pair.
(1) (a), (b) and (d) (1) Protoxylem – Vessel with narrow diameter
(2) Only (b) and (c) (2) Exarch xylem – Protoxylem at periphery
(3) Only (a) and (d) (3) Endarch xylem – Found in stem
(4) Only (a) and (b) (4) Metaxylem – Absent in monocot roots

12
Final Test Series(P2)-2024-25_Test-02C

102.Read the below given statements of assertion (A) and 108.Identify label A and B, and mark the correct option.
reason (R) and select the correct option.
Assertion (A) : Water molecules are unable to move across
the endodermis of root in the areas of casparian strips.
Reason (R) : Casparian strips are special thickenings of
water impermeable, waxy material suberin in the radial and
tangential walls of endodermal cells.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(1)
explanation of the (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(2)
explanation of the (A).
(3) (A) is true statement but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false statements.
103.Bulliform cells are concerned with
A – Region of elongation
(1)
(1) Conversion of glucose into starch B – Root hairs

(2) Rolling of leaves during drought A – Region of maturation

(2)
B – Root cap
(3) Storage of food material
A – Region of meristematic activity
(4) Synthesis of resins and tannins (3)
B – Region of maturation
104.Select the statement that is odd one out w.r.t intercalary A – Root tip
meristem. (4)
B – Root hairs
These meristems are intercalated between permanent 109.In silk cotton
(1)
tissues.
A number of leaves are present on the midrib, which
These meristems are responsible for addition to length (1)
(2) forms a common axis.
of plant.
More than two leaves arise at each node and form a
These meristems help to regenerate the parts removed (2)
(3) whorl or a circle.
by grazing herbivores.
The leaflets are attached to a common point at the tip of
These meristems are not separated from the apex of the (3)
(4) the petiole.
organ by mature tissue
The leaf blade is not broken into distinct leaflets, and the
105.Which of the following is not a function of “living” permanent (4)
incisions do not touch the midrib.
tissues?
110.Read the following statements and select the
(1) Secretion of substance like resin, oil, nectar etc. incorrect statement w.r.t primary meristems.
Providing mechanical support to young stem and petiole Shoot apical meristem occupies the distant most region
(2) (1)
of a leaf. of the stem axis.
(3) They take part in process of photosynthesis. Some cells ‘left behind’ from intercalary meristems, form
(2)
They provide gritty texture to fruits like guava, pear and the axillary buds
(4)
sapota. Axillary buds are present in the axil of the leaves and
(3)
are capable of forming a branch or a flower.
106.Phloem parenchyma is usually absent in a particular class
of angiosperms. One of the member of that class is Intercalary meristems appear early in life of a plant and
(4)
contribute to the formation of primary plant body.
(1) Pea
(2) Mustard 111. Find the odd one with regards to lateral meristems.

(3) China rose (1) They are cylindrical meristems

(4) Triticum aestivum (2) They produce woody axis

(3) They help in elongation of internodes
107.Cymose inflorescence is found in
They occur in mature region of roots and shoots of
(1) Mustard (4)
plants
(2) Trifolium
(3) Solanum
(4) Sunhemp

13
Final Test Series(P2)-2024-25_Test-02C

112.Water containing cavities in the vascular bundles are found 116.In Primrose
in
Ovules are borne on central axis and septa are absent
(1)
(1) Sun flower in the ovary
(2) Maize (2) Ovary is one-chambered but false septum is present
(3) Mustard (3) Ovules develop on the inner wall of the ovary
(4) Tomato (4) Placenta forms a ridge along the ventral suture of ovary
113.Match List-I with List -II 117.Composite fruit
List-I List-II (a) Develops from the entire inflorescence
(b) Develops from the syncarpous ovary of the single flower
a. Stilt roots (i) Roots, which come with or without parts.
out of the ground (c) Develops from polycarpellary, apocarpous ovary, where
vertically upwards each carpel develops into a fruitlet and all fruitlets together
to get oxygen for form the fruit.
respiration (d) Is exemplified by pineapple and fig.
b. Pneumatophores (ii) Arise from lower The correct one(s) is/are
nodes of the stem (1) (a) and (d) only
to support the main
axis and enter the (2) (b) and (c) only
soil obliquely.
(3) (b) only
c. Phyllode (iii) Modified, flattened
or fleshy cylindrical (4) (a), (c) and (d) only
stem, which
118.Read the following assertion(A) and reason(R) statements
functions as a
and choose the correct option.
photosynthetic
Assertion(A): The companion cells help in maintaining the
structure. pressure gradient in the sieve tubes.
d. Phylloclade (iv)Petiole gets Reason(R): Pit fields present in the sieve plates help in
modified to form transfer of materials between sieve tubes and companion
flat, green-coloured cells.
leaf-like structure.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation
Select the correct answer from the following options (1)
of (A)
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(2)
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) explanation of (A)

(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (3) (A) is true but (R) is false

(4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (4) Both (A) and (R) are false

114.How many the following plants show axile placentation? 119.Select the correct statement w.r.t. bast fibres.
Lemon, Petunia, Tulip, Sunflower, Mustard, Dianthus (1) They are formed of living mechanical tissue.
Belladonna
(2) They are much elongated and branched fibres
(1) 5
(3) The fibres have pointed, needle-like apices.
(2) 4 (4) These fibres are generally present in primary phloem.
(3) 6
120.Which of the following xylary elements is not found in
(4) 3 gymnosperms?
115.Racemose inflorescence differs from cymose inflorescence, (1) Vessels
as in the former (2) Tracheid
(1) Main axis terminates into a flower (3) Xylem fibre
(2) The shoot axis has a limited growth (4) Xylem parenchyma
(3) Only male flowers are present
Younger flowers are present towards the apex and the
(4)
older flower are present at the base.

14
Final Test Series(P2)-2024-25_Test-02C

121.T.S. of a plant part shows the following features 127.“Flower is the A unit of angiosperms. Floral whorls are
(i) Ring arrangements of vascular bundles. ¯¯¯¯¯
arranged on swollen end of stalk called B .”
(ii) Pericycle consists of semi-lunar shaped patches and is ¯¯¯¯¯
made of sclerenchymatous cells. Choose the option which correctly fills the blanks A and B.
Based on the given features, identify the plant part and A B
select the correct answer.
(1) Vegetative Pedicel
(1) Dicot root (2) Reproductive Thalamus
(2) Monocot stem (3) Vegetative Thalamus
(3) Dicot stem (4) Reproductive Pedicel

(4) Monocot root (1) (1)

122.In dicotyledonous plants, lateral roots arise from (2) (2)
(1) Cortex (3) (3)
(2) Medullary rays (4) (4)
(3) Endodermis 128.The vascular bundle shown in the diagram is present in
(4) Pericycle
123.Select the incorrect match from the following.
(1) ⊕ – Actinomorphic flower
(2) C – Calyx
(3) % – Zygomorphic flower
(4) ¯¯
G – Inferior ovary
¯ (1) Dicot leaf
(2) Monocot stem
124.Vessel differs from tracheid as the former is
(3) Dicot root
(1) A continuous tube-like structure made-up of many cells
(4) Dicot stem
(2) Made up of only one cell
(3) Present in all vascular plants 129.In vexillary aestivation, the smallest anterior petals are
called
(4) Primarily involved in providing mechanical support.
(1) Keel
125.Floral formula of Liliaceae family is
(2) Standard

(1) (3) Wings

(4) Vexillum
(2) 130.Symbol of epitepalous stamens is

(1) C A
(3)
(2) K(n)
(4) (3) C(n)

126.The anatomical features which are common to both (4) P A
monocot stem and dicot leaf are the presence of
(1) Endodermis and sub-stomatal cavity
(2) Conjoint and closed vascular bundle
(3) Palisade and spongy mesophyll parenchyma
Phloem parenchyma and water containing cavities in
(4)
vascular bundles

15
Final Test Series(P2)-2024-25_Test-02C

131.Two plants A and B belonging to different families show 133.Among Cucumber, sunhemp, brinjal, tomato, sunflower,
following features: Aloe, Lupin and Petunia, how many plants have
Plant A: Zygomorphic, bisexual flower with non- hypogynous flowers.
endospermous seed.
Plant B: Persistent calyx, adhesion of stamens with petals (1) 5
and endospermous seeds. (2) 6
Identify plants ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively and select the correct
answer (3) 7
Plant A Plant B (4) 4
(1) Aloe Mustard 134.How many of the given features are related to plant family to
(2) Pea Asparagus which Indigofera belongs?
(3) (a) Diadelphous stamens
Gram Petunia
(b) Bicarpellary ovary
(4) Sunhemp Lupin (c) Vexillary aestivation
(d) Polypetalous corolla
(1) (1) (e) Non endospermic seeds
(2) (2) (1) 5
(3) (3) (2) 4
(4) (4) (3) 2
132.Flowers having radial symmetry are found in (4) 3
(1) Chilli 135.Find the odd one w.r.t. the common functions of the roots.
(2) Cassia (1) Absorption of water and minerals from soil
(3) Canna (2) Provide anchorage to plant parts
(4) Bean Development of new plants from the buds present at the
(3)
nodes
(4) Synthesis of plant growth regulators

ZOOLOGY

136.Upon introduction of Gambusia in ponds, spread of which of 139.“The integration of natural science and organisms, cells,
the following diseases will remain unaffected? parts thereof, and molecular analogues for products and
services.”
(1) Dengue
The above definition of biotechnology was given by
(2) Chikungunya (1) EFB
(3) Elephantiasis (2) GEAC
(4) Tetanus (3) NDRI
137.The mechanism of RNA interference prevents a targeted (4) CDRI
gene from expressing by the process of
140.All of the following are steps included under downstream
(1) RNA splicing processing, except
(2) Reverse transcription
(1) Separation of protein
(3) Post translational gene silencing (2) Purification of protein
(4) Post transcriptional gene silencing
(3) Preservation of product
138.Consider the following options w.r.t cocaine and select the (4) Expression of gene
incorrect one.
141.While isolating genomic DNA, purified DNA can be
(1) Often used for the treatment of insomnia ultimately precipitated out by the addition of
(2) Obtained from a plant native to South America
(1) Proteases
Similar to Atropa belladona in being hallucinogenic
(3) (2) Ribonucleases
when used in excess amount
(3) Chilled ethanol
(4) Interferes with the transport of dopamine

16
Final Test Series(P2)-2024-25_Test-02C

142.A disadvantage of traditional hybridisation procedure 148.Subsequent encounter with the same pathogen elicits a
involves highly intensified anamnestic response. It is primarily due to
presence of
(1) Preservation of genetic information
(1) Memory cells
Inheritance of undesirable genes along with desirable
(2)
genes (2) IgM antibodies
(3) Recombination of only desirable genes (3) Macrophages
(4) Elimination of both desirable and undesirable genes (4) Mast cell
143.If an alien piece of DNA is inserted in restriction site of Pst I 149.Select the incorrect match w.r.t. the treatment of cancer.
in pBR322, then the resultant recombinants will be
Radiotherapy – Tumor cells are lethally irradiated by
(1)
(1) Ampicillin resistant gamma radiations
(2) Tetracycline and ampicillin resistant Chemotherapy – Use of drugs like vinblastine and
(2)
vincristine to kill cancerous cells
(3) Tetracycline susceptible
Immunotherapy – Use of biological response modifiers
(4) Ampicillin susceptible (3)
such as α-interferons to suppress immune system
144.Transgenic animals can be produced by all of the following (4) Surgery – Surgical removal of tumour
techniques, except
150.A gene has been ligated to the plasmid vector to prepare a
(1) Retrovirus-mediated gene transfer recombinant DNA during bacterial transformation. After
(2) Embryonic stem cell generated gene transfer formation of recombinant DNA, an exonuclease was added
to the tube accidentally.
(3) Selective breeding within the same species Choose the option which most likely represents the
(4) DNA micro-injection consequence of the above given scenario.

145.The main challenge for production of insulin using rDNA (1) Recombinant DNA will be degraded
technique was (2) No effect on the experiment
Its modification after translation by the addition of sugar (3) Alien DNA will not be transferred into the host
(1)
molecules
(4) Degeneration of gene of interest
Getting insulin assembled into a mature form with
(2) 151.Select the correct statement w.r.t malaria.
optimal activity
(3) Transformation of proinsulin in the host E.coli Flagellated protozoan parasite causing malaria
(1) reproduces asexually in liver cells and sexually in RBCs
(4) Screening of transformed E.coli by blue-white selection of infected human host
146.Green revolution occurred due to all of the following, Malarial parasite multiplies within mosquito's body to
except (2)
form sporozoites that are stored in its gut
(1) Agriculture using high yielding varieties Sexual stages called gametocytes develop in the red
(2) Farming of improved crop varieties (3) blood cells of an infected human host and are taken up
by female Anopheles mosquito with blood meal
(3) Agrochemical based agriculture
Fertilization and development of parasite is followed by
(4) Herbicide and pesticide resistant farming (4) escape of mature infective stages from salivary glands
of female Aedes mosquito
147.If a circular DNA possesses 6 restriction sites for BamHI
then how many fragments will be produced upon their
digestion with same restriction enzyme?
(1) 6
(2) 7
(3) 8
(4) 9

17
Final Test Series(P2)-2024-25_Test-02C

152.How many of the statement(s) given below are true? 157.Select the incorrect statement.
(a) In 1999, the first transgenic cow, Rosie, produced
human protein-enriched milk. William Harvey disapproved the good humor hypothesis
(b) ELISA is based on the principle of antigen-antibody (1) by demonstration of normal body temperature in
interaction. persons with blackbile using thermometer.
(c) In 1983, Eli Lilly an American company prepared two Antibodies against cancer-specific antigens are used for
DNA sequences corresponding to A and B chains of human (2)
the detection of certain cancers.
insulin.
(d) In 1992, the first clinical gene therapy was given to a 4- Tumor cells have been shown to avoid detection and
(3)
year-old girl with adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency. destruction by immune system.
Select the correct option. Nicotine stimulates the adrenal medulla to release
(1) Two (4) catecholamines that decrease the strength of ventricular
contraction.
(2) Three
158.Assertion (A): Benign tumors are highly invasive and
(3) One infiltrative in nature but usually they are not life-threatening.
(4) Four Reason (R): Benign tumors neither exhibit uncontrolled
growth nor they metastasize to other parts of the body.
153.The component of immune system that is categorised under In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.
the physiological barrier of innate immunity is
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
(1)
(1) Mucus membrane explanation of (A)
(2) Circulating lymphocyte Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct
(2)
explanation of (A)
(3) Anti-microbial protein in tears
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false
(4) NK cell
(4) (A) is true; (R) is false
154.Choose the option that represents the correct difference
between active and passive immunity. 159.Select the incorrect option w.r.t spleen
Latter involves formation of antibodies in the individual's (1) Large bean-shaped organ
(1)
body via natural infection of disease
(2) Acts as the reservoir of erythrocytes
Former can be induced by administering preformed
(2) (3) Contains phagocytes along with other formed elements
antibodies for the treatment after dog bite
It is the site where lymphocytes differentiate into
(3) Latter provides immediate protection against an antigen (4)
antigen-sensitive lymphocytes
(4) Former produces a short-lived transient response
160.Emphysema can be treated with the help of
155.Read the following statements:
(1) β-1 trypsin
Statement A: HIV replicates and produces progeny viruses
inside TH cells. (2) α-1-antitrypsin
Statement B: Treatment of AIDS with anti-retroviral drugs is
(3) α-lactalbumin
fully effective by blocking the conversion of retroviral RNA
into DNA and curing the patient. (4) β-lactalbumin
Choose the correct option.
161.Read the following statements:
(1) Both statements A and B are correct Statement A: A and B polypeptides of human insulin can
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect be made in bacteria yet their structure will remain
absolutely identical to that extracted from human pancreas.
(3) Only statement A is correct Statement B: In gene therapy, viruses that can integrate
their genetic material into the DNA of host cell naturally, can
(4) Only statement B is correct
be used as vectors to transfer healthy genes after
156.The side-effects of the use of anabolic steroids in human disarming.
females do not include Choose the correct option.

(1) Increased aggressiveness (1) Both the statements A and B are correct

(2) Abnormal menstrual cycles (2) Both the statements A and B are incorrect

(3) Breast enlargement (3) Only statement A is correct

(4) Enlargement of clitoris (4) Only statement B is correct

18
Final Test Series(P2)-2024-25_Test-02C

162.In pBR322 vector, Sal I site is found in 167.Match column I and column II w.r.t enzymes used for
isolation of genetic material.
(1) ampR gene
Column I Column II
(2) tetR gene
a. Bacteria (i) Chitinase
(3) Ori gene b. Plants (ii) Lysozyme
(4) rop gene
c. Fungi (iii) Cellulase
163.How many of the following are applications of Choose the correct option
biotechnology?
(A) Genetic testing and diagnostics (1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii
(B) Production of bio-fuels (2) a-iii, b-i, c-ii
(C) Using bacteria to remove water pollutants
(D) Production of processed food (3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
(E) Production of vaccines
Choose the correct option. (4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i

(1) Four 168.Select the incorrect match.

(2) Three Ethidium bromide – A dye used for visualizing DNA

(1)
fragments after gel electrophoresis
(3) Two
Recombinant protein – Any protein encoding gene
(4) Five (2)
expressed in a homologous host
164.Complete the analogy by selecting the correct option. Elution - Separated bands of DNA are cut out from the
(3)
Lepidopterans : Armyworms :: Coleopterans : ______ agarose gel and extracted
(1) Tobacco budworm Sparged stirred-tank bioreactor - Sterile air bubbles are
(4)
sparged
(2) Beetles
(3) Flies 169.DNA fragments are resolved based on their size in gel
electrophoresis through sieving effect. This separation of
(4) Mosquitoes fragments is based on the property of
165.Select the incorrect statement w.r.t bioreactors. (1) Presence of sugar moieties
In a continuous culture system, used medium is drained (2) Positively charged DNA fragments
(1) out from one side while fresh medium is added from the
other side (3) Negative charge on DNA molecules

The most commonly used bioreactors are of stirring (4) Double helical structure
(2)
type. 170.Under which of the following cancer diagnosis methods, a
A stirred-tank reactor is always rectangular in shape to piece of the suspected tissue is cut into thin sections,
(3) stained and then examined under microscope?
facilitate the mixing of the reactor's contents.
Aeration and agitation ensures optimum oxygen levels (1) Biopsy
(4)
for aerobic fermentation. (2) Radiography
166.The enzyme that facilitates the joining of sticky ends, (3) MRI
obtained after restriction digestion of a desired DNA, is
placed under which class of enzymes? (4) Computed tomography

(1) Class IV
(2) Class V
(3) Class III
(4) Class VI

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Final Test Series(P2)-2024-25_Test-02C

171.In PCR, __A_ _ bonds break during denaturation step, 176.Assertion (A): Probes are dsDNA/RNA that can be used for
___B_ __ bonds are formed during annealing step disease detection by identifying specific DNA/RNA
between primer and template strand and __C __ bonds are sequences in clinical samples.
formed by Taq polymerase in extension step. Identify A, B Reason (R): Probes are labelled with fluorescent tags,
and C and choose the correct option. which bind specifically to the mutant gene sequence
A B C allowing for rapid detection of infectious diseases, without
performing autoradiography.
(1) Hydrogen Hydrogen Phosphodiester In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.
Sugar- Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the true explanation
(2) Phosphodiester Hydrogen phosphate (1)
of (A)
sugar
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the true
Sugar-phosphate (2)
(3) Phosphodiester Hydrogen explanation of (A)
sugar
(4) Phosphodiester Hydrogen Hydrogen (3) Both (A) and (R) are false
(4) (A) is true; (R) is false
(1) (1)
177.Consider the segment of the DNA shown in the figure given
(2) (2)
below.
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

172.If we want to recover many copies of desired DNA, then it

should be cloned in a vector having The labelled sites A, B and C represent restriction sites for
Pvu I, Sma I and Pvu II respectively.
(1) Large number of selectable markers
Now, if we perform complete restriction digestion of the
(2) Large number of cloning sites given segment with only Sma I and Pvu II, then, which of the
following will correctly represent the results obtained after
(3) Many antibiotic resistance genes performing gel electrophoresis?
(4) An ori site which supports high copy number

173.Genetically modified plants have been proven to be (1)

beneficial as these modifications have been responsible for
all of the following, except
(1) Increased their dependency on chemical pesticides
(2)
(2) Increased their ability to utilize minerals more effectively
(3) Fortified crops with more nutritional content
Enhanced their ability to withstand environmental
(4)
challenges (3)

174.Select the odd one w.r.t monomeric antibody structure.

Light chains are shorter in length as compared to the
(1)
heavy chains
(4)
(2) Only light chains constitute antigen binding site
The constant region of heavy chains is located towards
(3) 178.Choose the correct option w.r.t PCR
the C-terminal
(4) Strong covalent disulfide bonds stabilize their structure (1) Can detect HIV in suspected patients
(2) Is not a temperature dependent process
175.All of the following diseases are caused by pathogens that
are categorized under the same group, except (3) Cannot detect gene mutations
(1) Typhoid (4) Oligonucleosides are to be used as the primer
(2) Diphtheria
(3) Plague
(4) Dengue

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Final Test Series(P2)-2024-25_Test-02C

179.All of the following are true w.r.t Taq polymerase, except

(1) Isolated from bacterium
(2) Thermolabile in nature
(3) Used in extension of DNA strand
(4) Is a DNA dependent DNA polymerase

180.Basmati rice is distinct for its unique aroma and flavour.

How many documented varieties of Basmati are grown in
our country?
(1) 200
(2) 2,00,000
(3) 27
(4) 127

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