Test 2

2
 Test 2
QUESTION 1) Consider the following (2) Both the Public Account Committee and
statements with regard to the office of Speaker: Committee on Public Undertaking submit their
reports to the Parliament by the President.
(1) She decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or
not. (3) Both the Public Account Committee and
Committee on Public Undertaking consist of 22
(2) She is not allowed to vote during the voting members each of which not more than 15
on any issue in the House. belongs to the Lok Sabha and not more than 7
(3) She is the final interpreter of the provisions belongs to the Rajya Sabha.
of the Constitution of India in the House. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
correct? (A) Only one
(A) Only one (B) Only two
(B) Only two (C) All
(C) All (D) None
(D) None

QUESTION 4) Consider the following offices

QUESTION 2) If Rohan has attained the age wherein a person elected to that office shall not
of 32 years in India, than he is eligible to be be disqualified under the Tenth Schedule if he
elected as gives up the membership of the political party to
which he belonged immediately before such
(1) Prime Minister of India election and re-joins the political party after he
ceases to hold such office?
(2) Vice-President of India
(1) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(3) Member of Rajya Sabha
(2) Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(4) Governor of a State
(3) The Chairman of State Legislative Council
(5) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(4) Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Select the incorrect answer using the code given
below: Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(A) Only one
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) Only two
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) Only four
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) None
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

QUESTION 3) Consider the following

statements regarding financial committees of the QUESTION 5) Which of the following Cabinet
parliament: Committees are headed by the Prime Minister of
India?
(1) Both the Public Account Committee and
Committee on Public Undertaking scrutinize the (1) Political Affairs Committee
reports submitted by the Comptroller and
Auditor General of India. (2) Economic Affairs Committee
(3) Parliamentary Affairs Committee
(4) Appointments Committee
 Test 2
Select the incorrect answer using the code given (2) The Amendment Bill does not require prior
below. permission of the President.
(A) Only one (3) An amendment of the Constitution can be
initiated only by the introduction of a bill in Lok
(B) Only two Sabha.
(C) All Which of the statements given above is/are
(D) None correct?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
QUESTION 6) With regard to the Special
Officer for Linguistic Minorities, consider the (C) All
following statements:
(D) None
(1) He is appointed by the President of India.
(2) His service conditions have not been
specified by the Constitution. QUESTION 9) According to the Constitution
of India, it is the duty of the President of India to
(3) His office was created by an amendment in cause to be laid before the Parliament which of
the Constitution. the following?
Which of the statements given above is/are
(1) The Recommendations of the Union Finance
incorrect? Commission
(A) Only one (2) The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
(B) Only two (3) The National Human Right Commission
(C) All (4) The Report of the National Commission for
(D) None Scheduled Castes
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below
QUESTION 7) Which of the following are not (A) Only one
included in the electoral college of the election of
the President? (B) Only two
(A) Elected members of both the Houses of (C) Only three
Parliament.
(D) None
(B) Elected members of the Legislative
Assemblies of the states.
(C) Elected members of the Legislative Councils QUESTION 10) Who among the following is
of the states. involved in the election of vice president
(D) Elected members of the legislative (1) Elected members of all state legislature
assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and
Puducherry. (2) Elected members of Lok Sabha
(3) Elected members of Rajya Sabha
(4) All the Nominated Members of parliament
QUESTION 8) Consider the following
statements: Which of the above statement is incorrect?

(1) The Parliament cannot amend those (A) Only one

provisions which form the ‘basic structure’ of the (B) Only two
Constitution.
 Test 2
(C) All. (C) LIC vs Union of India Case
(D) Minerva Mills Case
(D) None.

QUESTION 15) Consider the following

QUESTION 11) Which of the following statements
Commite was headed by the first Prime Minister (1) The 97 th CAA, 2011 gave a constitutional
of India. status and protection to co-operative societies.
(1) Union Powers Committee (2) 73rd and 74th CAA, 1992 have added a third-
(2) Rules of Procedure Commite tier of government (local) which is not found in
any other constitutions of the world.
(3) Drafting Committee
(3) The 86th CAA, 2002 added one more
(4) States Commite fundamental duty.
Select the correct statements Choose the correct statements
(A) only 1 statement is correct (A) 1 only
(B) Only 2 statements are correct (B) 1 and 2 only
(C) Only 3 statements are correct (C) 2 and 3 only
(D) None of the above statements are correct (D) All of the above

QUESTION 12) What is the significance of QUESTION 16) Consider the following
the date ‘22 January, 1947’? statements with reference to the Council of
(A) Cabinet Mission Was launched Ministers :
(B) Constituent Assembly was Constituted
(C) Objective Resolution was adopted (1) Any person, who may or may not be a
(D) National Flag was adopted member of the Parliament, if preferred by the
party having a majority in the Lok Sabha, can
become the Prime Minister.
QUESTION 13) Match the following pairs
(2) The constitution explicitly states that the
Features of constitution -Source council of ministers is collectively responsible to
the Parliament.
(1) Judiciary- US Constitution
(3) The Administrative reforms commission
(2) Emergency Provision - Government of India recommended replacing the oath of secrecy for
Act,1935 the ministers with the oath of transparency.
(3) DPSP- USSR Constitution Which of the statements given above are correct
(4) Rule of law- British Constitution ?

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly (A) Only one

matched? (B) Only two
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 (C) Only three
(C) 2 and 3
(D) None
(D) 2 and 4

QUESTION 14) In which of the following QUESTION 17) Which of the following pairs of
judgements SC held that ‘the Indian Constitution offices have different age requirements as their
is founded on the bedrock of the balance qualification criteria?
between the Fundamental Rights and the DPSPs :
(A) Keshavananda Bharti Case (1) President and Vice President
(B) Golaknath Case (2) Vice President and Member of Rajya Sabha
 Test 2
(3) President and Member of Lok Sabha (B) He can bring about the collapse of the
council of ministers by resigning from office.
(4) Member of Lok Sabha and Member of
Panchayat Raj Institutions (C) He can recommend dissolution of the Lok
Sabha to President at any time.
Select the incorrect answer using the code given
below : (D) He can recommend dissolution of the Rajya
Sabha to President at any time.
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) Only three QUESTION 21) According to which
amendment act, the total number of number of
(D) None ministers, including the Prime minister, shall not
exceed fifteen percent of the total member of
the house of the people?
QUESTION 18) Consider the following (A) 91st amendment act, 2003
statements regarding Parliament’s power to
reorganise the states: (B) 52nd amendment act, 1985
(1) A Bill contemplating reorganisation of any (C) 42nd amendment act, 1976
state requires prior recommendation of the
Governor of state before introduction in the (D) 24th amendment act, 1971
Parliament.
(2) The law made for reorganising the states is
not considered to be a constitutional
amendment under Article 368.
QUESTION 22) Which of the following
statements is/are correct regarding to the Model
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? Code of Conduct Relating to Elections?
(A) 1 only (1) There shall be no appeal to caste or
(B) 2 only communal feelings for securing votes.
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 (2) Except The Voters, no one without valid pass
from the Election Commission shall enter the
polling booths.
QUESTION 19) In which among the following (3) Posters issued by one party shall not be
cases does the Prime Minister advise the removed by workers of another party.
President?
(1) Proroguing of the sessions of the Parliament Select the correct answer using the code given
(2) Dissolution of the LokSabha below:
(3) Appointment of Comptroller and Auditor
(A) Only one
General of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given (B) Only two
below.
(A) Only one (C) All
(B) Only two (D) None
(C) All
(D) None

QUESTION 23) Which of the following

QUESTION 20) With reference to the powers statements is/are correct regarding the American
enjoyed by the Prime Minister which of the President?
following is incorrect?
(1) He is both the head of the State and the
(A) He advises the President with regard to head of government.
summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the
Parliament.
 Test 2
(2) He can be removed by impeachment for a QUESTION 26) Which one of the following
grave unconstitutional act. countries does not border the Siliguri Corridor?
(3) He possess membership in the Congress and (A) Bhutan
attend its sessions.
(B) Nepal
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: (C) Bangladesh

(A) Only one (D) Myanmar

(B) Only two

(C) All QUESTION 27) With reference to the NETRA
(D) None Project, consider the following statements:
(1) It is an early warning system in space to
detect debris and other hazards to Indian
QUESTION 24) Consider the following satellites.
statements: (2) It has the capability to identify, follow, and
(1) The voting of demands for grants is the record objects measuring as tiny as 10 cm from a
exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha. distance of up to 3,400 km.

(2) Policy cut motion represents the disapproval Which of the statements given above is/are
of the policy underlying the demand. correct?

(3) Token cut motion represents the economy (A) 1 only

that can be affected in the proposedexpenditure. (B) 2 only
Which of the statement given above is/are (C) Both 1 and 2
correct?
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(A) 1and2only
(B) 2and3only
(C) 1and3only QUESTION 28) Which statementis correct
about the "Leader of opposition" in either house
(D) 1,2and3 of Parliament is
(1) The Leader of all the Parliamentary
Committees
QUESTION 25) Who take the Decisions of the
binding on the Council of Ministers? (2) Appointed by the Speaker of the House

(1) Supreme Court and High Courts (A) 1 only

(2) Vice-President of India acting in his capacity (B) 2 only

(3) Union Public Service Commission (C) Both 1 and 2

(A) Only one (D) None

(B) Only two

(C) All QUESTION 29) Consider the following
statements with reference to the process of
(D) None electing the President of India:
(1) An elector cannot propose or second the
nomination of more than one candidate.
 Test 2
(2) A vote cast by each MP or MLA has equal (2) A member who is elected to Rajya Sabha
value. retains his membership for six years under any
circumstances.
(3) The Presidential candidate secures victory by
getting the highest votes among the polled votes. (3) There is no process of Bye-election to fill the
vacant membership of the Rajya Sabha.
(4) In the recently held Presidential election, only
the Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir, Which of the statements given above is/are not
Delhi and Puducherry participated in the voting. correct ?
Which of the statements given above is/are (A) Only one
incorrect ?
(B) Only two
(A) Only one
(C) All
(B) Only two
(D) None
(C) Only three
(D) 1, 2 and 4
QUESTION 32) Select the most appropriate
statement regarding the “Law Commission of
India”
QUESTION 30) Which of the following
statements is/are correct with reference to the (1) It is a statutory body.
Lok Sabha general elections?
(2) It acts as the legal representative of the
(1) Candidates have to mention details about Government in court hearings
their Social Media accounts (if any) at the time of
filing nominations. (3) The Law Secretary to the Union Government
is the ex-officio member of the Commission.
(2) Any political content in the form of photos or
videos uploaded on the self-accounts on the (A) Only one
website will not be treated as political (B) Only two
advertisements.
(C) All
(3) Representation of the People Act, 1951 does
not prohibit the conduct of Exit polls and (D) None
dissemination of their results by means of
electronic media.
Select the correct answer using the code given QUESTION 33) In which situation president
below : can be removed from office by a process of
impeachment for
(A) Only one
(A) Not following the advice of the Vice-
(B) Only two President
(C) All (B) Violation of the Constitution
(D) None (C) Approving decisions that impinge on public
interest
(D) Speaking against the Council of Ministers
QUESTION 31) Consider the following
statements with reference to the RajyaSabha :
(1) The name ‘Rajya Sabha’ for the Council of QUESTION 34) Which of the following
States was proposed by Shri G.V.Mavalanker. statements are correct About the term
“Adjournment”
(1) It only terminates a sitting of the House.
 Test 2
(2) It is done by the President of India. (A) Only one
(3) It does not affect the bills pending before (B) Only two
the House.
(C) All
(A) Only one
(D) None
(B) Only two
(C) All
QUESTION 37) Choose the correct
(D) None statements about Estimates Committee?
(1) The Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have equal
representation in this committee.
QUESTION 35) Consider the following
statements with reference to the Indian (2) The chairman of the committee is appointed
Parliamentary Group (IPG): by the Speaker from the ruling party.
(1) It was formed in 2005 through an act passed (3) A minister cannot be elected as a member of
by the Parliament of India. the committee.
(2) Former members of the Parliament can (A) Only one
become associate members of the Group.
(B) Only two
(3) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is the ex
officio president of the Group. (C) All

(4) It can discuss questions of public importance (D) None

that are likely to come up before the Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? QUESTION 38) Which statement(s) is/are
incorrect regarding the motion of no confidence?
(A) Only one
(1) It can be moved both in the Lok Sabha and
(B) Only two the Rajya Sabha.
(C) All (2) It can be moved by any member of the
House.
(D) None
(3) It can be moved against an individual
minister.
QUESTION 36) With reference to the (4) Its passage leads to the resignation of the
Constitution of India, which of the following council of ministers.
is/are not correct ?
(A) Only one
(1) The Prime Minister makes rules for the
allocation of the business of the Government of (B) Only two
India among the Ministers. (C) Only three
(2) The total number of ministers in the Council (D) None
of Ministers shall not exceed 10% of the total
strength of the Lok Sabha.
(3) The Supreme Court is empowered to inquire QUESTION 39) Consider the following
into any advice tendered by the Central Council statements regarding the ‘President’s Rule’?
of Ministers to the President on the ground of
malafide intent. (1) The President is empowered by the
Constitution to proclaim ‘State Emergency’ if
Select the correct answer using the codes given he/she is satisfied that the state cannot be
below.
 Test 2
carried on in accordance with the directions from (C) Only three
the Union Government.
(D) None
(2) President can proclaim the State Emergency
that requires mandatory approval of the
Parliament.
QUESTION 42) Consider the following
(3) Maximum period of President’s rule is 3 statements regarding the office of Speaker in the
years. Lok Sabha:
Select the incorrect answer using the following (1) He is responsible for formulating the rules of
code: the joint sitting of the house after consultation
with Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
(A) Only one
(2) He must resign from his party membership
(B) Only two upon joining the office to ensure
(C) All nonpartisanship.

(D) None (3) He cannot suspend a member of the Lok

Sabha without calling for adoption of motion.
Which of the statements given above is correct?
QUESTION 40) With respect to the Universal (A) Only 1
Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR), consider
the following statements: (B) Only 2 and 3
(1) India took an active part in drafting of the (C) Only 3
UDHR.
(D) None of the above
(2) UDHR can create legal obligations for
countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are QUESTION 43) Consider the following
correct? statements:
(A) 1 only (1) The date of election of both the Speaker and
the Deputy Speaker is decided by the President.
(B) 2 only
(2) An appeal against a ruling given by the
(C) Both 1 and 2 Deputy Speaker when presiding Lok Sabha, lies
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 with the Speaker.
(3) The Deputy Speaker is independent of the
Speaker, not subordinate to him.
QUESTION 41) In which of the following Which of the statements given above is/are
conditions, the Parliament can make laws on correct?
subjects enumerated in State List?
(A) Only one
(1) When a state makes a request
(B) Only two
(2) To fulfil an International Agreement
(C) All
(3) During Financial emergency
(D) None
(4) When Rajya Sabha passes a resolution
Select the incorrect answer using the code given
below: QUESTION 44) In which of the following cases
(A) Only one a legislator is disqualified from being a Member
of Parliament?
(B) Only two
 Test 2
(1) If he/she is not a citizen of India. (2) India is a part of US led ‘Mineral Security
Partnership’ to secure supply of Critical minerals.
(2) If he/she holds any office of profit under the
Union or state government. (3) India has faced international sanctions in the
past for its nuclear weapons program as it is not
(3) If he/she is convicted and sentenced to a member of ‘Nuclear Non-Proliferation treaty’.
imprisonment for 6 months and above.
Which of the following statements is/are not
(4) If he/she voluntarily gives up the membership correct?
of the political party.
(A) Only one
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: (B) Only two
(A) 1 and 2 only (C) All
(B) 1, 2 and 4 only (D) None
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 3 and 4 only QUESTION 47) Which of the following
statements best describes USTTAD Scheme?
(A) It aims at preserving the rich heritage of
QUESTION 45) With reference to the traditional skills of indigenous
Constitution of India, Rajya Sabha has equal
artisans/craftsmen.
powers with the Lok Sabha in which of the
following matters ? (B) It aims promoting skill development in the
country by providing free short duration skill
(1) Approval of proclamation of all three types of training
emergencies by the President
(C) It aims at promoting cultural and heritage
(2) Removal of the Comptroller and Auditor value of the country
General
(D) It aims at providing quality education in
(3) Approval of ordinances issued by the Madrasas
President
(4) Consideration of the reports of the Finance
Commission QUESTION 48) Which of the following
Select the correct answer using the code given amendments are not considered as an
below : Amendment of the Constitution under Article
368 ?
(A) 1 and 3 only
(1) Lists in the Seventh schedule
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(2) Conferment of more jurisdiction on the
(C) 2 and 4 only Supreme Court
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (3) Amendments to the Procedure of
Amendment of the constitution
(4) Representation of states in Parliament
QUESTION 46) Consider the following
statements regarding India’s membership of Select the correct answer using the code given
agreements related to nuclear power and critical below :
minerals: (A) Only one
(1) India is a member of the ‘Nuclear suppliers' (B) Only two
group’.
(C) All
 Test 2
(D) None QUESTION 51) Consider the following
functional Cabinet Committees:
(1) Cabinet committee on accommodation
QUESTION 49) In which of the cases the
members of the Parliament is/are not (2) Cabinet committee on Investment and
disqualified under anti defection law? growth

(1) If a nominated member joins any political (3) Cabinet committee on Employment and skill
party after the expiry of six months from the development
date on which he takes his seat in the House. (4) Cabinet committee on Parliamentary affairs
(2) If not less than 2/3rd members of a Political (5) Appointment committee of the Cabinet.
Party break away and merge with another
political party. Which of the following committees are headed
by the Prime minister?
(3) If there is split in the legislature party by one-
third members of the party in the House. (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the codes given (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
below.
(C) 2, 3, and 5 only
(A) Only 1 and 2
(D) 3, 4 and 5 only
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 2 and 3
QUESTION 52) Consider the following
(D) Only 1 and 3 statements with respect to Parliamentary
Committee on Subordinate Legislation ?
(1) The Committee examines representations
QUESTION 50) Consider the following made to it in regard to rules, regulations, bye-
statements: laws, etc., made or required to be made under
(1) If a person is elected to both the Houses of an Act.
Parliament, he must intimate within 10 days in (2) The Committee shall consist of not more than
which House he desires to serve. fifteen members, who shall be nominated by the
(2) If a sitting member of one House is also Speaker.
elected to the other House, his seat in the first (3) The term of office of members of the
House becomes vacant. Committee shall not exceed one year.
(3) If a person is elected to two seats in a House, Select the incorrect answer from the code given
he should choose one .Otherwise, both seats below :
become vacant.
(A) Only one
(4) If a member of state legislature is elected to
Parliament, his seat in the parliament becomes (B) Only two
vacant if he does not resign his seat in the state
legislature within 30 days. (C) All

Which of the statements given above is/are (D) None

correct?
(A) Only 1, 3 and 4
QUESTION 53) Consider the following
(B) Only 1, 2 and 4 statements
(C) Only 1, 2 and 3 (1) No tax can be levied or collected except
under the authority and with the approval of
(D) All of the Above President.
 Test 2
(2) The enactment of the budget by the QUESTION 56) With reference to ‘Estimates
Parliament legalises the receipts and expenditure Committee’, consider the following statements:
of the government for the ensuing financial year.
(1) It has 30 members.
(3) The ‘rule of lapse’ facilitates effective
financial control by the Parliament. (2) The Rajya Sabha has no representation in this
committee.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (3) The first Estimates Committee in the post-
independence era was constituted in 1950 on the
(A) Only 1 and 2 recommendation of C D Deshmukh.
(B) Only 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above is/are
(C) Only 1 and 3 incorrect?

(D) All of the above (A) Only one

(B) Only two
(C) All
QUESTION 54) With reference to Bharat Parv,
consider the following statements: (D) None

(1) It's an initiative of Ministry of Culture to

celebrate India’s unity in diversity.
QUESTION 57) Which of the following are
(2) Its objective is to make India a hub of correct in respect to compositions of
civilization, culture and spirituality. Parliamentary Forum.
Which of the statements given above is/are (1) Each Forum consists of not more than 31
correct? members (excluding the President, Co-President
(A) 1 only and Vice-Presidents) out of whom not more than
21 are from the Lok Sabha and not more than 10
(B) 2 only are from the Rajya Sabha.
(C) Both 1 and 2 (2) A member of any Parliamentary Forum may
resign from the forum by writing to the
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
concerned Union Minister.
(3) The first Parliamentary Forum on Water
Conservation and Management was constituted
QUESTION 55) With reference to presiding
in the year 2005.
officer of the Rajya Sabha, consider the following
statements: Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(1) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides over a (A) Only 1 and 2
joint sitting of two Houses of Parliament.
(B) Only 2 and 3
(2) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha can be
removed from his office only if he is removed (C) Only 1 and 3
from the office of the Vice-President. (D) All of the Above
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(A) Only 1 QUESTION 58) Consider the following
statements:
(B) Only 2
(1) The President of India can summon a session
(C) Both 1 and 2 of the Parliament at such place as he/she thinks
fit.
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
 Test 2
(2) The Constitution of India provides for three QUESTION 61) Choose the wrong statements
sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not about the Council of Ministers
mandatory to conduct all three sessions.
(1) They are collectively responsible to the
(3) There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament.
Parliament is required to meet in a year.
(2) Nominated members of Parliament cannot
(A) 1 only be part of the Council of Ministers.
(B) 2 only (3) The Constitution puts a limit on the size of
(C) 1 and 3 only the Council of Ministers.

(D) 2 and 3 only (A) Only one

(B) Only two
(C) All
QUESTION 59) Consider the following
statements: (D) None

(1) Unified Payment Interface (UPI) was

developed by the National Payments Corporation
of India in 2016. QUESTION 62) With reference to the
Parliament of India, consider the following
(2) Recently, the UPI and Paynow were statements :
integrated for facilitating ease of doing business
between India and Bangladesh. (1) A Private member bill is introduced by a
legislator who is not acting on behalf of the
Which of the statements given above is/are executive branch.
correct?
(2) Any member of the Parliament can introduce
(A) 1 only a Constitutional Amendment bill.
(B) 2 only (3) A Private member cannot introduce more
(C) Both 1 and 2 than four bills during a session.

(D) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above is/are

incorrect ?
(A) Only one
QUESTION 60) With reference to Vostro (B) Only two
Accounts, sometimes mentioned in the news,
consider the following statements: (C) All

(1) Under this, the exchange rate between the (D) None
currencies of the trading partner countries would
be market-determined.
(2) It can play an important role in making the QUESTION 63) Consider the following
country less vulnerable to external shocks. statements :

Which of the statements given above is/are (1) Parliamentary law made in the concurrent list
correct? should be executed by states.

(A) 1 only (2) The President of India can exercise absolute

veto if the cabinet resigns before the bill gets
(B) 2 only his/her assent.
(C) Both 1 and 2 (3) Since the enactment of the Constitution of
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 India, the pocket veto has not been exercised by
the President.
 Test 2
Which of the statements given above is/are QUESTION 66) Consider the following
incorrect ? statements regarding Nominated members in
(A) Only one Rajya Sabha:

(B) Only two (1) They are not allowed to vote in the election
of the Vice-President.
(C) All
(2) They can not join any political party as
(D) None technically they are independent members.
(3) They can take part in the proceedings of the
House.
QUESTION 64) Consider the following
statements with regard to Universal Adult Which of the statements given above is/are
Franchise in India: incorrect?

(1) President has the authority to decide the (A) Only one
minimum age for voting in the elections to State (B) Only two
as well as Union legislature.
(C) All
(2) All citizens of India above the age of 18 years
are eligible to vote in the elections to the Lok (D) None
Sabha.
(A) 1 only
QUESTION 67) Which of these statements
(B) 2 only are correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 (1) The resolution for removal of Vice President
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 can be initiated in Rajya Sabha only.
(2) Unlike the President, there is no process of
impeachment of the Vice President.
QUESTION 65) Consider the following
(A) 1 only
statements regarding Parliamentary Committees:
(B) 2 only
(1) All Bills other than Money Bills are
automatically referred to the Parliamentary (C) Both 1 and 2
Committees.
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(2) Recommendations of the Parliamentary
Committees are not binding in nature.
(3) Parliamentary standing committees are QUESTION 68) With reference to the Eighth
permanent and are constituted every five years. Schedule in the Indian Constitution, consider the
following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are
incorrect? (1) It is a list of the official languages of the
republic of India.
(A) Only one
(2) It provides a commission appointed by the
(B) Only two President for the promotion of tribal languages.
(C) All Which of the statements given above is/are
(D) None correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
 Test 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 (2) The Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana
provides financial support to farmers who agree
to monetize their land.
QUESTION 69) Which of the following (3) The monetization of land can lead to social
countries border the Black Sea: and environmental consequences, such as
displacement of communities and loss of natural
(1) Russia
resources.
(2) Kazakhstan
Which of the above statements are correct?
(3) Lithuania (A) 1 and 2 only
(4) Georgia (B) 2 and 3 only
(5) Turkey
(C) 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code given (D) 1, 2 and 3
below:
(A) Only one
(B) Only two QUESTION 72) Which of the following
statements is/are correct regarding the
(C) Only three role/powers of the Deputy Speaker?
(D) None (1) The Deputy Speaker is subordinate to the
Speaker.
(2) Whenever the Deputy Speaker is appointed
QUESTION 70) Which of the following as a parliamentary committee member, he
statements about the Pro Tem Speaker are automatically becomes its Chairman.
correct?
(3) He does not preside over the joint sitting of
(1) He is not appointed for the newly constituted both Houses of Parliament, in case the Speaker is
State Legislative Assemblies. absent from such a sitting.
(2) He can be appointed only when the offices of Choose the correct answer from the options
both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker fall given below
vacant.
(A) Only one
(3) The Pro Tem Speaker for the newly
constituted Lok Sabha is appointed by the (B) Only two
President. (C) All
Select the correct answer using the code given
(D) None
below:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only QUESTION 73) Which of the following
suggestions were given by the IMF in its “nine-
(C) 2 and 3 only point action plan for countries to treat crypto
(D) None of the above assets”?
(1) Granting cryptocurrency legal status for
better regulation of currency.
QUESTION 71) Consider the following (2) Establishing international collaborative
statements regarding land monetisation in India: arrangements to enhance supervision and
(1) Land Monetisation means transferring the enforcement of crypto asset regulations.
revenue rights of the asset to a private player for
a specified period of time.
 Test 2
Select the correct answer using the code given QUESTION 76) Which of the following
below: statements with respect to the pardoning power
(A) 1 only of the President is/are incorrect?

(B) 2 only (1) It is a discretionary power of the President.

(C) Both 1 and 2 (2) He is bound to give reasons for his decisions.

(D) Neither 1 nor 2 (3) It is not subject to judicial review.

Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
QUESTION 74) With reference to Vivad Se (A) 1 and 2 only
Vishwas Scheme, consider the following
statements: (B) 3 only

(1) It is for a one-time settlement of contractual (C) 2 and 3 only

disputes in which an arbitral award is under (D) 1, 2 and 3
challenge.
(2) It will cover all organisations where the
central government has a shareholding of 50%. QUESTION 77) Which of the following
(3) The scheme will also cover selective Private statement(s) is/are correct about the Central
entities for dispute resolution. Council of Ministers?

Which of the statements given above are (1) The Council of Ministers shall be collectively
incorrect? responsible to both the Houses of the
Parliament.
(A) Only one
(2) The Council of Ministers ceases to hold office
(B) Only two when the Lok Sabha is dissolved.
(C) All Select the correct answer using the code given
(D) None below.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
QUESTION 75) Which of the following is/are
features of Indian parliamentary system? (C) Both 1 and 2

(1) Majority party rule (D) Neither 1 nor 2

(2) Presence of real and nominal Executive

(3) Membership of the ministers in the QUESTION 78) In which of the following
legislature subjects, both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
Select the correct answer using the code given enjoy equal powers?
below. (1) Introduction and passage of ordinary bills
(A) 1, 2 and 3 and constitutional amendment bills.

(B) 1 and 2 only (2) Making a recommendation to the President

for the removal of judges of the high courts.
(C) 2 and 3 only
(3) Passing of resolution for the discontinuance
(D) 1 only of the national emergency.
Select the incorrect answer using the codes given
below.
 Test 2
(A) Only one (A) A newly found fossil
(B) Only two (B) Name of newly discovered crocodile skeleton
(C) All (C) A newly found plant species
(D) None (D) None of the above

QUESTION 79) Which of the following QUESTION 82) With reference to the
statements is/are correct about the Estimates economic survey, consider the following
Committee? statements:
(1) All the members if this Committee are from (1) It is an annual document released by the
the Lok Sabha only. Ministry of Finance.
(2) It examines the budget estimates before they (2) It represents the current state of the Indian
are voted upon by the Parliament. economy including trade and inflation.
Select the correct answer using the code given Which of the statements given above is/are
below: correct?
(A) 1 only (A) 1 only
(B) 2 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

QUESTION 80) In which of the following QUESTION 83) Consider the following
situations, the President can exercise the powers statements:
using his/her own discretion?
(1) The Public Accounts Committee examines
(1) Sending back the advice given by the Council the annual receipts and disbursements of the
of Ministers and ask the Council to reconsider Union Government.
the decision.
(2) The Chairman of the Committee on Public
(2) Appointment of the Prime Minister after the Undertakings is appointed from the Lok Sabha
Lok Sabha elections. only.
(3) Keeping a Bill pending for an indefinite time- (3) Both the Estimates Committee and
period. Committee on Public Undertakings work under
the expert guidance of the Comptroller and
Select the correct answer using the code given AuditorGeneral of India.
below:
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
(A) 1 and 2 only incorrect?
(B) 2 and 3 only (A) Only one
(C) 1 and 3 only (B) Only two
(D) 1, 2 and 3 (C) All
(D) None
QUESTION 81) Which one of the following
best describes the term “Funcusvermis gilmorei”
sometimes seen in news?
 Test 2
QUESTION 84) Consider the following (5) Armenia
statements regarding Sardar Swaran Singh Select the correct answer using the code given
committee, 1976 on fundamental duties: above:
(1) All the duties recommended by the (A) Only one
committee were included under Fundamental
duties of Indian constitution. (B) Only three
(2) It provided for the implementation of (C) Only five
fundamental duties to be kept out of the judicial
review. (D) None

Which of the following statements is/are

incorrect?
QUESTION 87) Consider the following
(A) 1 only statements with reference to the Anti-Defection
Law:
(B) 2 only
(1) The law applies to both the Members of the
(C) Both 1 and 2 Parliament and State Assemblies.
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 (2) It does not penalise political parties for
encouraging or accepting defecting legislators.
(3) The Speakers should decide on a defection
QUESTION 85) With reference to BHASHINI, petition within three months under the law.
consider the following statements:
(4) It does not restrict a legislator from voting in
(1) Its mission is to ensure that more Indians can line with his conscience, judgement and interests
access global content in their own languages. of his electorate.
(2) Its aim is to provide Artificial Intelligence (AI) Which of the statements given above are
and Natural Language Processing (NLP) resources incorrect ?
to only large enterprises.
(A) Only one
(3) It will create an ecosystem involving
Central/State government agencies to provide (B) Only two
innovative products and services in Indian
languages. (C) All

Which of the statements given above is/are (D) None

incorrect?
(A) Only one
QUESTION 88) Consider the following
(B) Only two statements with reference to the Leader of the
Opposition :
(C) All
(1) Until 1977, there were no emoluments
(D) None attached to the position of Leader of the
Opposition.
(2) The Leader of the opposition in the houses of
QUESTION 86) Which of the following the Indian Parliament is a statutory post.
countries borders Caspian Sea:
(3) In general, the Chief Whip of the opposition
(1) Russia party will be appointed as the Leader of the
(2) Turkmenistan Opposition in the House.

(3) Kyrgyzstan Which of the statements given above is/are

incorrect ?
(4) Iran
 Test 2
(A) Only one (B) Only two
(B) Only two (C) All
(C) All (D) None
(D) None

QUESTION 91) The 86th constitutional

amendment inserted/ changed articles in which
QUESTION 89) Which of the following of the following parts of the constitution?
Parliamentary Committees are represented
jointly with the members of both the House of (1) Part III
Parliament ?
(2) Part V
(1) Committee on Office of Profit
(3) Part IV-A
(2) Committee on Public Accounts
Select the correct answer using the code given
(3) Committee on Government Assurances below.
(4) Committee on Public Undertakings (A) 1 only
(5) Committee on Private members bills and (B) 1 and 2 only
resolutions
(C) 1 and 3 only
(6) Committee on Members of Parliament Local
Area Development (MPLAD) Scheme (D) 1, 2 and 3

(7) Committee on Ethics

Select the correct answer from the code given QUESTION 92) The 91st amendment of the
below : Constitution is associated with
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6 only (1) Limiting the size of the Council of Ministers.
(B) 2, 3 and 7 only (2) Barring the appointment of a person
disqualified under the anti-defection law as a
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only minister.
(D) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
correct?
(A) 1 only
QUESTION 90) Which of the following
statement(s) is/are correct regarding the 42nd (B) 2 only
Amendment Act of 1976?
(C) Both 1 and 2
(1) It made, for the first time, a distinction
between Union and State laws based on their (D) Neither 1 nor 2
constitutionality.
(2) It immunized the Constitutional Amendment
Acts from being challenged in a court of law.
QUESTION 93) With reference to the powers
and functions of the Prime Minister, consider the
(3) It abolished the fundamental right to following statements:
property under Article 19 (1) (f) and Article 31
(2). (1) He appoints other ministers.
(2) He allocates and reshuffles various portfolios
Select the correct answer using the codes given
among the ministers.
below:
(3) He presides over the meetings of the council
(A) Only one
of ministers.
 Test 2
Which of the statements given above are QUESTION 96) With reference to the Veto
incorrect? power of Indian President, consider the following
(A) Only one statements:

(B) Only two (1) The suspensive veto of the President can be
overridden by a re-passage of the bill with the
(C) All simple majority.
(D) None (2) The President does not possess the power of
suspensive veto in the case of money bills and
private member”s bill.
QUESTION 94) Consider the following Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
statements regarding fundamental duties as correct?
provided under Indian Constitution:
(A) 1 only
(1) Constitution authorizes Parliament for
enforcement of the fundamental duties. (B) 2 only

(2) While some fundamental duties are (C) Both 1 and 2

applicable to citizens, few are applicable to (D) Neither 1 nor 2
foreigners and private organizations.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? QUESTION 97) The Prime Minister recently
(A) 1 only unveiled the National Emblem cast on the roof of
the New Parliament Building. Which of the
(B) 2 only following statements are correct regarding the
National Emblem of India ?
(C) Both 1 and 2
(1) It is an adaptation of the Lion Capital of Asoka
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 at Sarnath.
(2) It was adopted on January 26, 1950.
QUESTION 95) With reference to the Cultural (3) The abacus of the emblem has a Dharma
and Educational Rights of minorities, considerthe Chakra in the Centre, a galloping horse on the
following statements: left and a bull on the right.
(1) Only the religious and linguistic minorities (4) The motto ‘Satyameva Jayate’ also forms part
have the right to establish and administer of the emblem.
educational institutions.
Select the correct answer using the code given
(2) Only the rights of religious and linguistic below :
minorities have been constitutionally
safeguarded to preserve their distinct culture. (A) Only one

Which of the statements given above is/are (B) Only two

correct? (C) All
(A) 1 only (D) None
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
QUESTION 98) We adopted the post of the
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 Vice President based on the model of the United
States of America, but how does our model differ
from that model?
 Test 2
(1) The term of the Vice President of India differs (3) All doubts and disputes arising in connection
from the term of the Vice President of the United with the election of the Vice-President are
States of America. enquired by the Supreme Court of India.
(2) The Vice President of India is indirectly Which of the statements given above is/are
elected, while the Vice President of the United incorrect?
States of America is directly elected.
(A) Only one
(3) In the United States of America, when the
office of President falls vacant, the Vice President (B) Only two
becomes President and remains President for the (C) All
remaining term of President.
(D) None
Select the incorrect answer using the code given
below :
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All
(D) None

QUESTION 99) consider the following

statements about 73rd Amendment Act of 1992 :
(1) It has added the Part IX and the Eleventh
Schedule to the Constitution of India.
(2) It has brought panchayati raj institutions
under the purview of the justiciable part of the
Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is
incorrect?
(A) 1 only
(B) None
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 2 only

QUESTION 100) With reference to Vice

President of India , consider the following
statements:
(1) The Vice-President of India is elected by an
electoral college consisting of members of Rajya
Sabha only .
(2) The Election Commission of India conducts
the election to the office of the Vice-President.
Test 2

2
 Test 2
QUESTION 1) Consider the following Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha
statements with regard to the office of Speaker: The Parliamentary precedents
(1) She decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or The Speaker is elected by the assembly itself
not. from amongst its members. Usually, the Speaker
(2) She is not allowed to vote during the voting remains in office during the life of the assembly.
on any issue in the House. However, he vacates his office earlier in any of
the following three cases:
(3) She is the final interpreter of the provisions
of the Constitution of India in the House. If he ceases to be a member of the assembly;

Which of the statements given above is/are If he resigns by writing to the deputy speaker;
correct? and

(A) Only one If he is removed by a resolution passed by a

majority of all the then members of the
(B) Only two assembly. Such a resolution can be moved only
(C) All after giving 14 days advance notice.

(D) None Power and duties the Speaker:

(1) (A) Ensure smooth proceedings of the house,
EXPLANATION ) B
(B) Maintain discipline in the Lok Sabha,
(C) Fix the Agenda of the House,
Statement 1 is correct. Article 110 (3) of the
Constitution of India states that ‘if any question (D) Permission to ask questions,
arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the
decision of the Speaker of the House of the (E) Conduct the business of the House,
People thereon shall be final’. (F) Interpretation of Rules of Procedure and
A Money Bill can be introduced in Lok Sabha (G) Power to adjourn the House.
only. If any question arises whether a Bill is a
Money Bill or not, the decision of Speaker (2) Speaker decides the questions of
thereon is final. The Speaker is under no disqualification of a member of the assembly,
obligation to consult any one in coming to a arising on the ground of defection under the
decision or in giving certificate that a Bill is a provisions of the Tenth Schedule.
Money Bill. The Speaker’s certificate on a Money (3) Speaker can allow a ‘secret’ sitting of the
Bill once given is final and cannot be challenged. House at the request of the leader of the House.
A Money Bill cannot be referred to a Joint
Committee of the Houses. (4) Speaker appoints the chairman of all the
committees of the assembly and supervises their
Statement 2 is incorrect. Speaker can cast a functioning. He himself is the chairman of the
casting vote.Under the constitutional provisions Business Advisory Committee, the Rules
(article 100), Speaker does not vote in the first Committee and the General-Purpose Committee.
instance. But he can exercisea casting vote in the
case of a tie. Thus, he can vote only when the
House is divided equally on any question.
QUESTION 2) If Rohan has attained the age
Such a vote is called casting vote, and its purpose of 32 years in India, than he is eligible to be
is to resolve a deadlock. elected as
Statement 3 is correct. Speaker is the final (1) Prime Minister of India
interpreter on the following provisions within the
House: (2) Vice-President of India

The Constitution of India (3) Member of Rajya Sabha

The Rules of Procedure (4) Governor of a State

 Test 2
(5) Speaker of the Lok Sabha (3) Both the Public Account Committee and
Committee on Public Undertaking consist of 22
Select the incorrect answer using the code given members each of which not more than 15
below: belongs to the Lok Sabha and not more than 7
(A) Only one belongs to the Rajya Sabha.

(B) Only two Which of the statements given above is/are

incorrect?
(C) Only four
(A) Only one
(D) None
(B) Only two
EXPLANATION ) B
(C) All
(D) None
If Rohan has attained the age of 32 years in India,
than he is eligible to be elected as EXPLANATION ) A
(1) Member of Lok sabha - Minimum age
required is 25 Years ● Statement 1 is correct: Public Account
(2) Prime Minister of India - Minimum age Committee (PAC) scrutinizes the Audit Report on
required is 25 Years. Hence, statement 1 is Appropriation Account and the Audit Report on
correct. Finance Account as submitted by Comptroller
and Auditor General of India (CAG). On the other
(3) Member of Rajya Sabha - Minimum age hand, the Committee on Public Undertaking
required is 30 Years. Hence, statement 3 is (CPA) scrutinizes the Audit Report on Public
correct. Undertaking as submitted by the CAG. PAC
(4) Speaker of the Lok Sabha - Minimum age examines the accounts showing the
required is 25 Years. Hence, statement 5 is appropriation of the sums granted by the House
correct. to meet the Expenditure, the annual Finance
Accounts of the government and, Such other
If Rohan has attained the age of 32 years in India, accounts laid before the House as the Committee
than he is not eligible to be elected as may think fit.
(1) President of India - Minimum age required is ● Statement 2 is incorrect: Both PAC and CPA do
35 Years. submit reports to Parliament but directly and not
via the President.
(2) Vice-President of India - Minimum age
required is 35 Years. Hence, statement 2 is ● Statement 3 is correct: Both PAC and CPA
incorrect. consist of 22 members of which not more than
15 belong to Lok Sabha and not more than 7
(3) Governor of a State - Minimum age required
belong to the Rajya Sabha. Further members are
is 35 Years. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
elected by the respective houses on the basis of
proportional representation by means of a single
transferable vote. Thus, all parties get due
QUESTION 3) Consider the following representation in it.
statements regarding financial committees of the
parliament: The term of office of the members is One year.

(1) Both the Public Account Committee and

Committee on Public Undertaking scrutinize the
QUESTION 4) Consider the following offices
reports submitted by the Comptroller and
wherein a person elected to that office shall not
Auditor General of India.
be disqualified under the Tenth Schedule if he
(2) Both the Public Account Committee and gives up the membership of the political party to
Committee on Public Undertaking submit their which he belonged immediately before such
reports to the Parliament by the President.
 Test 2
election and re-joins the political party after he ● if he, having given up by reason of his election
ceases to hold such office? to such office his membership of the political
party to which he belonged immediately before
(1) Speaker of the Lok Sabha such election, re-joins such political party after
(2) Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha he ceases to hold such office.

(3) The Chairman of State Legislative Council

(4) Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha QUESTION 5) Which of the following Cabinet
Committees are headed by the Prime Minister of
Which of the statements given above is/are India?
correct?
(1) Political Affairs Committee
(A) 1 and 4 only
(2) Economic Affairs Committee
(B) 2 and 4 only
(3) Parliamentary Affairs Committee
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(4) Appointments Committee
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Select the incorrect answer using the code given
EXPLANATION ) D below.
(A) Only one
About disqualifications under the Tenth (B) Only two
Schedule:
(C) All
● The Anti-Defection Law was passed through
the 52nd amendment in 1985 to the (D) None
Constitution. It added the 10th Schedule to the
Indian Constitution with the main intent of the EXPLANATION ) A
law being to combat “the evil of political
defections”.
Statement 1 is correct. Political Affairs
● Tenth Schedule states that a person who has Committee - It is chaired by the Prime Minister of
been elected to the office of - India. It deals with all policy matters pertaining to
o the Speaker or domestic and foreign affairs. It is the most
powerful of all the Cabinet Committees, often
o the Deputy Speaker of the House of the People described as a “Super-Cabinet”.
or Statement 2 is correct. Economic Affairs
Committee - It is chaired by the Prime Minister of
o the Deputy Chairman of the Council of States
India. It directs and coordinates the
or governmental activities in the economic sphere.
o the Chairman or the Deputy Chairman of the
Statement 3 is incorrect. Parliamentary Affairs
Legislative Council of a State or Committee - It is chaired by the Home Minister
o the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker of the of India, not by the Prime Minister of India. It
Legislative Assembly of a State shall not be looks after the progress of government business
disqualified under this Schedule if in the Parliament.

● If he, by reason of his election to such office, Statement 4 is correct. Appointments Committee
voluntarily gives up the membership of the - It is chaired by the Prime Minister of India. It
political party to which he belonged immediately decides all higher-level appointments in the
before such election and does not, so long as he Central Secretariat, Public Enterprises, Banks and
continues to hold such office thereafter, re-join Financial Institutions.
that political party or become a member of
another political party; or
 Test 2
QUESTION 6) With regard to the Special The Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is a
Officer for Linguistic Minorities, consider the constitutional body. The Seventh Constitutional
following statements: Amendment Act of 1956 inserted a new Article
350-B in Part XVII of the Constitution, established
(1) He is appointed by the President of India. the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
(2) His service conditions have not been
specified by the Constitution.
QUESTION 7) Which of the following are not
(3) His office was created by an amendment in included in the electoral college of the election of
the Constitution. the President?
Which of the statements given above is/are (A) Elected members of both the Houses of
incorrect? Parliament.
(A) Only one (B) Elected members of the Legislative
(B) Only two Assemblies of the states.

(C) All (C) Elected members of the Legislative Councils

of the states.
(D) None
(D) Elected members of the legislative
EXPLANATION ) D assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and
Puducherry.

Statement 1 is correct. There should be a Special EXPLANATION ) C

Officer for Linguistic Minorities is appointed by
the President of India. It is the duty of the Special
Officer to investigate all matters relating to the The President is elected not directly by the
safeguards provided for linguistic minorities people but by members of electoral college
under the Constitution. He reports to the consisting of:
President upon those matters at such intervals as
1) The elected members of both the Houses of
the President may direct.
Parliament
The President should place all such reports 2) The elected members of the legislative
before each House of Parliament and send it to assemblies of the states
the governments of the states concerned.
3) The elected members of the legislative
Statement 2 is correct. The Constitution does not assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and
specify the qualifications, tenure, salaries and Puducherry
allowances, service conditions and procedure for
removal of the Special Officer for Linguistic The nominated members of both of Houses of
Minorities. Parliament, the nominated members of the state
legislativeassemblies, the members (both elected
Statement 3 is correct. Originally, the and nominated) of the state legislative councils
Constitution of India did not make any provision (in case of the bicameral legislature) and the
with respect to the Special Officer for Linguistic nominated members of the Legislative
Minorities. Later, the States Reorganization Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry do not
Commission (1953-55) made a recommendation participate in the election of the President.
in this regard. Accordingly, the Seventh
Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 inserted
a new Article 350-B in Part XVII of the
Constitution. In pursuance of the provision of QUESTION 8) Consider the following
Article 350-B of the Constitution, the office of the statements:
Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities was (1) The Parliament cannot amend those
created in 1957. provisions which form the ‘basic structure’ of the
Constitution.
 Test 2
(2) The Amendment Bill does not require prior (B) Only two
permission of the President.
(C) Only three
(3) An amendment of the Constitution can be
(D) None
initiated only by the introduction of a bill in Lok
Sabha. EXPLANATION ) B
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
The Reports and Statements get by President to
(A) Only one be laid before parliament are as follows:
(B) Only two (1) Annual Financial Statement
(C) All (2) Reports of Auditor General
(D) None (3) Annual report of UPSC
EXPLANATION ) B (4) Reports of Finance Commission
(5) Reports of Special officers of SC & ST
Article 368 provides for two types of (6) Report of the Special officers of Linguistic
amendments, that is, by a special majority of Minorities and Backward Classes.
Parliament and also through the ratification of
half of the states by a simple majority. The report of NHRC is submitted to Central
Government which in turn submits to
However, the Parliament cannot amend those parliament.
provisions which form the ‘basic structure’ of the
Constitution. This was ruled by the Supreme
Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973).
QUESTION 10) Who among the following is
An amendment of the Constitution can be involved in the election of vice president
initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the
(1) Elected members of all state legislature
purpose in either House of Parliament and not in
the state legislatures. (2) Elected members of Lok Sabha
The bill can be introduced either by a minister or (3) Elected members of Rajya Sabha
by a private member and does not require prior
permission of the president. (4) All the Nominated Members of parliament
Which of the above statement is incorrect?
(A) Only one
QUESTION 9) According to the Constitution
of India, it is the duty of the President of India to (B) Only two
cause to be laid before the Parliament which of
the following? (C) All.

(1) The Recommendations of the Union Finance (D) None.

Commission
EXPLANATION ) A
(2) The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
(3) The National Human Right Commission
The Vice-President, like the president, is elected
(4) The Report of the National Commission for not directly by the people but by the method of
Scheduled Castes indirect election. He is elected by the members
of an electoral college consisting of the members
Select the correct answer using the codes given of both Houses of Parliament. Thus, this Electoral
below College is different from the Electoral College for
(A) Only one the election of the President in the following two
respects:
 Test 2
(1) It consists of both elected and nominated •Jawaharlal Nehru moved this historic resolution
members of the Parliament (in the case of in Dec 13, 1946 in the Assembly.•It contained the
president, only elected members). fundamentals & philosophy of Constitutional
structure.
(2) It does not include the members of the state
legislative assemblies (in the case of President, •This resolution was adopted on Jan 22, 1947 by
the elected members of the state legislative Assembly.
assemblies are included).
•Preamble is modified version of Objective
Resolution.

QUESTION 11) Which of the following

QUESTION 13) Match the following pairs
Commite was headed by the first Prime Minister
of India. Features of constitution -Source
(1) Union Powers Committee (1) Judiciary- US Constitution
(2) Rules of Procedure Commite (2) Emergency Provision - Government of India
Act,1935
(3) Drafting Committee
(3) DPSP- USSR Constitution
(4) States Commite
(4) Rule of law- British Constitution
Select the correct statements
(A) only 1 statement is correct Which of the following pairs is/are correctly
(B) Only 2 statements are correct matched?
(C) Only 3 statements are correct (A) 1 only
(D) None of the above statements are correct (B) 1 and 2
EXPLANATION ) B (C) 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 4
MAJOR COMMITTEES EXPLANATION ) D
(1) Union Powers Committee, Union Constitution Source- Features Borrowed
Committee & States Committee was headed by
Jawaharlal Nehru. (A) Govt. of India Act,1935-Federal scheme,
Governor’s office, Judiciary, Public Service
(2) Rules of Procedure Committee & Steering Commission, Emergency Provisions and
Committee headed by Dr. Rajendra Prasad. administrative details.
(3) Provincial Constitution Committee by Sardar (B) British Constitution- Parliamentary govt., Rule
Patel. of Law, Single Citizenship, Cabinet System,
(4) Drafting Committee by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Parliamentary privileges, Bicameralism,
prerogative writs.
(5) Advisory Committee on FRs, Minorities &
Tribal & Excluded Areas à Sardar Patel. (C) US Constitution- Fundamental Rights,
Independent Judiciary, Impeachment of
President, Judicial review, Removal of supreme
QUESTION 12) What is the significance of court and high court judges and post of vice-
the date ‘22 January, 1947’? president.
(A) Cabinet Mission Was launched (D) USSR Constitution- Fundamental Duties and
(B) Constituent Assembly was Constituted the ideal of justice (social, economic and
(C) Objective Resolution was adopted political) in the Preamble.
(D) National Flag was adopted
EXPLANATION ) C QUESTION 14) In which of the following
judgements SC held that ‘the Indian Constitution
OBJECTIVES RESOLUTION is founded on the bedrock of the balance
between the Fundamental Rights and the DPSPs :
(A) Keshavananda Bharti Case
 Test 2
(B) Golaknath Case QUESTION 16) Consider the following
(C) LIC vs Union of India Case statements with reference to the Council of
(D) Minerva Mills Case Ministers :
EXPLANATION ) D
(1) Any person, who may or may not be a
Minerva Mills Ltd. and Ors. vs. Union Of India and member of the Parliament, if preferred by the
Ors. is a landmark decision of the Supreme Court party having a majority in the Lok Sabha, can
of India that applied and evolved the basic become the Prime Minister.
structure doctrine of the Constitution of India. In (2) The constitution explicitly states that the
the Minerva Mills case, the Supreme Court council of ministers is collectively responsible to
provided key clarifications on the interpretation the Parliament.
of the basic structure doctrine.
(3) The Administrative reforms commission
MINERVA MILLS CASE (1980): SC held that ‘the recommended replacing the oath of secrecy for
Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the ministers with the oath of transparency.
the balance between the Fundamental Rights
and the DPSPs – Basic Structure. Which of the statements given above are correct
?
QUESTION 15) Consider the following (A) Only one
statements
(B) Only two
(1) The 97 th CAA, 2011 gave a constitutional
status and protection to co-operative societies. (C) Only three

(2) 73rd and 74th CAA, 1992 have added a third- (D) None
tier of government (local) which is not found in
any other constitutions of the world.
EXPLANATION ) B
(3) The 86th CAA, 2002 added one more
fundamental duty. Any person who is not a member of Parliament
can be appointed as Prime Minister when he/she
Choose the correct statements
holds a majority in the house. A person
(A) 1 only
appointed in such a manner will have to get
(B) 1 and 2 only
himself/herself elected for either house of
(C) 2 and 3 only
Parliament within six months of his/her
(D) All of the above
appointment. So, Statement 1 is correct.
EXPLANATION ) D
Article 75(3) of the Constitution of India explicitly
th
The 97 CAA, 2011 gave a constitutional status mentions that “The Council of Ministers shall be
and protection to co-operative societies. It made collectively responsible to the House of the
the right to form co-operative societies a FR (Art. People and not to the entire Parliament.” So,
19) + added a new DPSP on promotion of co- Statement 2 is not correct.
operative societies (Art. 43B) + added a new part
The Second Administrative Reform Committee
IX-B in the constitution entitled as “The
recommended that “As an affirmation of the
Cooperative Societies” (Art. 243-ZH to 243-ZT).
importance of transparency in public affairs,
The 73rd and 74th CAA, 1992 have added a third- Ministers on the assumption of office may take
tier of government (local) which is not found in an oath of transparency along with the oath of
any other constitutions of the world. The 73rd office and the requirement of administering the
CAA of 1992 gave constitutional recognition to oath of secrecy should be dispensed with.”
Panchayats by adding a new part IX and a new
Initially, the recommendation for replacing an
schedule 11 to the constitution.
oath of transparency in place of an oath of
The 86th CAA, 2002 added one more fundamental secrecy was provided by The National
duty. Commission to Review the Working of the
Constitution (NCRWC), while examining the Right
to Information. So, Statement 3 is correct.
 Test 2
COUNCIL OF MINISTERS
Constitutional Provision QUESTION 17) Which of the following pairs of
Article 74 - Council of Ministers to aid and advise offices have different age requirements as their
President. qualification criteria?

Article 75 - Other provisions as to Ministers. (1) President and Vice President

About (2) Vice President and Member of Rajya Sabha

The Council of Ministers includes the Cabinet (3) President and Member of Lok Sabha
ministers, state ministers, and deputy ministers (4) Member of Lok Sabha and Member of
with PM, as its head. Panchayat Raj Institutions
According to Article 74, There shall be a Council Select the incorrect answer using the code given
of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head below :
to aid and advise the President who shall, in the
exercise of his functions, act by such advice. The (A) Only one
question on any advice tendered by Ministers to (B) Only two
the President shall not be inquired into in any
court. (C) Only three
Sub-clause 1A has been inserted into Article 75, (D) None
which provides the total number of ministers
along with the Prime Minister shall not exceed EXPLANATION ) A
15% of the total number of the members of the
House of People.
A citizen of India who has completed the age of
Members of the Council of Ministers are 35 years is qualified for the election of both
appointed by the President on the advice of the President and Vice President. So, Statement 1 is
Prime Minister. Prime Minister is free to choose not correct.
anyone to be a member of the Council of
Ministers. For a person to be qualified for the election of
Vice president he must have completed the age
The PM can take in a person, who is not a of 35 years. But for a person to be qualified for
Member of Parliament, but in such cases, the election to be a member of the Rajya Sabha he
person has to contest and win an election to a must have completed the age of 30. So,
parliamentary seat within six months of Statement 2 is correct.
assumption of office.
For a person to be qualified for the election of
Powers and Functions president he must have completed the age of 35
All the executive powers of the President are years.
exercised by the Cabinet/Council of Ministers But for a person to be qualified for election to be
with Prime Minister. a member of Lok Sabha he must have completed
It prepares all the internal and external policies. the age of 25. So, Statement 3 is correct.

The Cabinet/Council of Ministers prepares the For a person to be qualified for election to be a
agenda for the session of the Parliament. member of Lok Sabha he must have completed
the age of 25. But for a person to be qualified for
It prepares the text of the Presidential address. election to be a member of Panchayat he must
have completed the age of 21. So, Statement 4 is
The Cabinet/Council of Ministers is responsible
for the issuance of Ordinances at the time when correct.
parliament is not in session.
Even the sessions of the Parliament are QUESTION 18) Consider the following
convened as per the advice of the statements regarding Parliament’s power to
Cabinet/Council of Ministers. reorganise the states:
 Test 2
(1) A Bill contemplating reorganisation of any (3) Appointment of Comptroller and Auditor
state requires prior recommendation of the General of India.
Governor of state before introduction in the Select the correct answer using the code given
Parliament. below.
(2) The law made for reorganising the states is (A) Only one
not considered to be a constitutional (B) Only two
amendment under Article 368. (C) All
Which of the statements given above is/are (D) None
correct? EXPLANATION ) C
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only Prime Minister enjoys the following powers:
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 He advises the President with regard to
EXPLANATION ) B summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the
Parliament. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Article 3 authorises the Parliament to: He can recommend dissolution of the LokSabha
to President at any time. Hence, statement 2 is
form a new state by separation of territory from correct.
any state or by uniting two or more states or
parts of states or by uniting any territory to a He advises the President with regard to the
part of any state, appointment of important officials like Attorney
General of India, Comptroller and Auditor
increase the area of any state, General of India, Chairman and members of the
UPSC, election commissioners, chairman and
diminish the area of any state, members of the finance commission and so on.
alter the boundaries of any state, and Hence, statement 3 is correct.

alter the name of any state.

QUESTION 20) With reference to the powers
However, Article 3 lays down two conditions in enjoyed by the Prime Minister which of the
this regard: following is incorrect?
one, a bill contemplating the above changes can (A) He advises the President with regard to
be introduced in the Parliament only with the summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the
prior recommendation of the President; and two, Parliament.
before recommending the bill, the President has
to refer the same to the state legistature (B) He can bring about the collapse of the
concerned for expressing its views within a council of ministers by resigning from office.
specified period.
(C) He can recommend dissolution of the Lok
Moreover, the Constitution (Article 4) itself Sabha to President at any time.
declares that laws made for admission or
establishment of new states (under Article 2) (D) He can recommend dissolution of the Rajya
and formation of new states and alteration of Sabha to President at any time.
areas, boundaries or names of existing states EXPLANATION ) D
(under Articles 3) are not to be considered as
amendments of the Constitution under Article
368. This means that such laws can be passed by
a simple majority and by the ordinary legislative The Prime Minister is the leader of the Lower
process. House. In this capacity, he enjoys the following
powers:
QUESTION 19) In which among the following •He advises the President with regard to
cases does the Prime Minister advise the summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the
President? Parliament.
(1) Proroguing of the sessions of the Parliament
(2) Dissolution of the LokSabha
 Test 2
•He can recommend dissolution of the Lok Sabha QUESTION 22) Which of the following
to President at any time. statements is/are correct regarding to the Model
•He announces government policies on the floor Code of Conduct Relating to Elections?
of the House. (1) There shall be no appeal to caste or
•He can bring about the collapse of the council communal feelings for securing votes.
of ministers by resigning from office. (2) Except The Voters, no one without valid pass
from the Election Commission shall enter the
polling booths.
QUESTION 21) According to which (3) Posters issued by one party shall not be
amendment act, the total number of number of removed by workers of another party.
ministers, including the Prime minister, shall not
exceed fifteen percent of the total member of Select the correct answer using the code given
the house of the people? below:
(A) 91st amendment act, 2003 (A) Only one
(B) 52nd amendment act, 1985 (B) Only two
(C) 42nd amendment act, 1976 (C) All
(D) 24th amendment act, 1971 (D) None

EXPLANATION ) A EXPLANATION ) C

The Constitution (91st Amendment) Act, 2003 Statement 1 is correct. When the Model Code of
inserted clause 1A in Article 164, which says “the Conduct is in operation, there shall be no appeal
total number of Ministers, including the Chief to caste or communal feelings for securing votes.
Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a State Mosques, Churches, Temples or other places of
shall not exceed 15% of the total number of worship shall not be used as forum for election
members of the Legislative Assembly of that propaganda.
State.
Statement 2 is correct. Excepting the voters, no
It also provided that the number of Ministers, one without a valid pass from the Election
including the Chief Minister in a State shall not Commission shall enter the polling booths. The
be less than twelve”. Election Commission is appointing Observers. If
the candidates or their agents have any specific
Similar amendments were also made under complaint or problem regarding the conduct of
Article 75. elections, they may bring the same to the notice
According to it, the PM shall be appointed by the of the Observer.
President and the other Ministers shall be Statement 3 is correct. Political parties and
appointed by the President on the advice of the candidates shall ensure that their supporters do
PM. not create obstructions in or break up meetings
oThe total number of ministers, including the and processions organized by other parties.
Prime Minister, in the COM shall not exceed 15% Workers or sympathisers of one political party
of the total strength of the Lok Sabha. shall not create disturbances at public meetings
organized by another political party by putting
The purpose of the 91st Amendment was to questions orally or in writing or by distributing
prevent jumbo Cabinets and the resultant drain leaflets of their own party. Processions shall not
on the public exchequer. be taken out by one party along places at which
meetings are held by another party. Posters
issued by one party shall not be removed by
workers of another party.
 Test 2
QUESTION 23) Which of the following (3) Token cut motion represents the economy
statements is/are correct regarding the American that can be affected in the proposedexpenditure.
President? Which of the statement given above is/are
(1) He is both the head of the State and the correct?
head of government. (A) 1and2only
(2) He can be removed by impeachment for a (B) 2and3only
grave unconstitutional act.
(C) 1and3only
(3) He possess membership in the Congress and
attend its sessions. (D) 1,2and3
Select the correct answer using the code given EXPLANATION ) A
below:
(A) Only one
Statement 1 is correct. The voting of demands
(B) Only two for grants is the exclusive privilege of the Lok
(C) All Sabha, that is, the Rajya Sabha has no power of
voting the demands. The voting is confined to
(D) None the votable part of the budget– the expenditure
charged on the Consolidated Fund of India is not
EXPLANATION ) B submitted to the vote (it can only be discussed).
Statement 3 is incorrect. Economy Cut Motion
Unlike the Indian Constitution, the American represents the economy that can be affected in
Constitution provides for the presidential form of the proposed expenditure. It states that the
government. The features of the American amount of the demand be reduced by a specified
presidential system of government are as amount (which may be either a lumpsum
follows: reduction in the demand or omission or
reduction of an item in the demand).
Statement 1 is correct. The American President is
both the head of the State and the head of Token Cut Motion ventilates a specific grievance
government. As the head of State, he occupies a that is within the sphere of responsibility of the
ceremonial position. As the head of government, Government of India. It states that the amount of
he leads the executive organ of government. the demand be reduced by ₹100.

Statement 2 is correct. The President is elected

by an electoral college for a fixed tenure of four QUESTION 25) Who take the Decisions of the
years. He cannot be removed by the Congress binding on the Council of Ministers?
except by impeachment for a grave
unconstitutional act. (1) Supreme Court and High Courts
Statement 3 is incorrect. The President and his (2) Vice-President of India acting in his capacity
secretaries are not responsible to theCongress
for their acts. They neither possess membership (3) Union Public Service Commission
in the Congress nor attend its sessions. (A) Only one
(B) Only two
QUESTION 24) Consider the following (C) All
statements:
(D) None
(1) The voting of demands for grants is the
exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha. EXPLANATION ) A
(2) Policy cut motion represents the disapproval
of the policy underlying the demand.
 Test 2
Supreme Court and High Courts pass binding
judgements, e.g. SR Bommai Case,DC Wadhwa
Case, issue writs etc. So, 1 is correct. Project NETRA’ is an early warning system in
space to detect debris and other hazards to
Vice-President of India acting in his capacity does Indian satellites. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
not have any de facto authority. Only if he acts as
the President, some of his decisions, for e.g. veto Once operational, it will give India its own
powers over bills may be binding. So, 2 is capability in Space Situational Awareness (SSA)
incorrect. like the other space powers.

Union Public Service Commission is an advisory With countries launching more and more
body to the GoI. So, 3 is incorrect. satellites, each one of them being a strategic or
commercial asset, avoiding collisions could
become a challenge in the future.

QUESTION 26) Which one of the following Under NETRA, the ISRO plans to put up many
countries does not border the Siliguri Corridor? observational facilities: connected radars,
telescopes, data processing units and a control
(A) Bhutan centre.
(B) Nepal NETRA can spot, track and catalogue objects as
(C) Bangladesh small as 10 cm, up to a range of 3,400 km and
equal to a space orbit of around 2,000 km.
(D) Myanmar Hence, statement 2 is correct.

EXPLANATION ) D
QUESTION 28) Which statementis correct
about the "Leader of opposition" in either house
The Siliguri corridor or Chicken’s neck (West
of Parliament is
Bengal) is a stretch of land bordering Bangladesh,
Bhutan and Nepal, measuring approximately (1) The Leader of all the Parliamentary
170x60 km; at the narrowest it is about 20-22 Committees
km.
(2) Appointed by the Speaker of the House
Hence, option D is correct.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
QUESTION 27) With reference to the NETRA (C) Both 1 and 2
Project, consider the following statements:
(D) None
(1) It is an early warning system in space to
detect debris and other hazards to Indian EXPLANATION ) D
satellites.
(2) It has the capability to identify, follow, and
record objects measuring as tiny as 10 cm from a About Leader of Opposition a politician who
distance of up to 3,400 km. leads the opposition in either house of
Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? The term “leader of opposition” is defined in
Salary and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition
(A) 1 only in Parliament Act, 1977.
(B) 2 only Formal Recognition by a convention set by G.V
(C) Both 1 and 2 Mavalakar- Party seeking opposition role must
have atleast 10% of the total strength of the
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 House. Criterion is 10% for single party not an
alliance (pre and post election). Though the
EXPLANATION ) C
 Test 2
statutory and legal status is given by the above election is held following the system of
mentioned act but decision is taken by Speaker proportional representation using the single
of LokSabha or Chairman of RajyaSabha, as the transferable vote; every elector has as many
case may be. preferences as candidates contesting the
elections. The winning candidate has to secure
the required quota of votes to be declared
QUESTION 29) Consider the following elected (i.e., 50% of valid votes polled +1). So,
statements with reference to the process of Statement 3 is not correct.
electing the President of India: As per Article 54 of the Constitution, the
(1) An elector cannot propose or second the President of India is elected by the Members of
nomination of more than one candidate. an Electoral College consisting of,

(2) A vote cast by each MP or MLA has equal (A) the elected members of both the Houses of
value. Parliament, and

(3) The Presidential candidate secures victory by (B) the elected members of the Legislative
getting the highest votes among the polled votes. Assemblies of all States [In this, “State” includes
the National Capital Territory of Delhi and the
(4) In the recently held Presidential election, only Union territory of Pondicherry].
the Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir,
Delhi and Puducherry participated in the voting. To include the Union Territory Jammu and
Kashmir in the electoral college of the President,
Which of the statements given above is/are an Amendment has to be made in Article 54. This
incorrect ? amendment is yet to be done.
(A) Only one In the present case, the Legislative Assembly of
Jammu and Kashmir is yet to be constituted after
(B) Only two
the erstwhile State was bifurcated into the Union
(C) Only three Territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh in
2019.
(D) 1, 2 and 4
The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act
EXPLANATION ) C provides for a Legislative Assembly for the Union
Territory of Jammu and Kashmir, but the election
is yet to be held due to various reasons.
According to Section 5B(5) of the President and
So, currently, only the Union Territories of Delhi
Vice-President Elections Act, 1952, An elector
and Puducherry were included in the electoral
can propose or second the name of only one
college of the President and took part in voting in
candidate at a Presidential election. Suppose he
the recently held Presidential election. So,
subscribes as proposer or seconder to the
Statement 4 is not correct.
nomination papers of more than one candidate.
In that case, his signature shall be deemed
operative only on the nomination paper first
delivered to the Returning Officer. Hence, an QUESTION 30) Which of the following
elector cannot propose or second the statements is/are correct with reference to the
nomination of more than one candidate. So, Lok Sabha general elections?
Statement 1 is correct.
(1) Candidates have to mention details about
The value of votes of MLAs would differ from their Social Media accounts (if any) at the time of
State to State as the value of each such vote, as filing nominations.
the value of votes of electors is determined
(2) Any political content in the form of photos or
based on the population of the States by the
videos uploaded on the self-accounts on the
manner laid down in Article 55(2). So, Statement
website will not be treated as political
2 is not correct.
advertisements.
According to the schedule of the Presidential and
Vice-Presidential Rules, 1974, the Presidential
 Test 2
(3) Representation of the People Act, 1951 does (B) Only two
not prohibit the conduct of Exit polls and
dissemination of their results by means of (C) All
electronic media. (D) None
Select the correct answer using the code given EXPLANATION ) C
below :
(A) Only one
The Chairman of the Council of States, Dr.
(B) Only two Sarvepalli Radhakrishna made an announcement
(C) All in the Council about the adoption of Hindi name
of the Council of States as ‘Rajya Sabha’.
(D) None
The Speaker, Lok Sabha, Shri G.V.Mavalanker
EXPLANATION ) B made an announcement in the House that the
House of the People would thereafter be known
as ‘Lok Sabha’. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
According to the Election commission of India, a Article 80 of the Indian Constitution mentions
candidate who is contesting in the election of Lok that Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not
sabha, if he/she owns an Authentic social media subject to dissolution. However, one-third of the
account should be informed by the candidate in members retires every second year and is
para 3 of Form-26 at the time of filing of replaced by newly elected members.
nomination. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Each member is elected for a term of six years. A
Any political content in the form of messages/ person would be ineligible for being a Member of
comments/ photos/ videos posted/uploaded on the Rajya Sabha if the person:
the ‘blogs/self accounts’ on the website will not
be treated as a political advertisement and If He/she has holds any office of profit under the
therefore would not require pre-certification, Government of India (other than an office
even if the same is posted/uploaded by the permitted by the Parliament of India by law).
political parties/ candidates. So, Statement 2 is
correct. It is of unsound mind.

According to section 126 A of the Representation Is an undischarged insolvent.

of the People Act, 1951, exit polls cannot be He/she has ceased to be a citizen of India.
conducted or publicized through print, or
electronic media disseminated in any other It is so disqualified by any law made by the Indian
manner. So, Statement 3 is not correct. Parliament.
It is so disqualified on the ground of defection.

QUESTION 31) Consider the following He/she has been convicted, among other things,
statements with reference to the RajyaSabha : for promoting enmity between different groups.

(1) The name ‘Rajya Sabha’ for the Council of He/she has been convicted of the offence of
States was proposed by Shri G.V.Mavalanker. bribery.

(2) A member who is elected to Rajya Sabha He/she has been punished for preaching and
retains his membership for six years under any practising social crimes such as untouchability,
circumstances. dowry, and sati.

(3) There is no process of Bye-election to fill the He/she has been convicted for an offence and
vacant membership of the Rajya Sabha. sentenced to imprisonment.

Which of the statements given above is/are not He/she has been dismissed for corruption or
correct ? disloyalty to the State (in the case of a
government servant). So, Statement 2 is not
(A) Only one correct.
 Test 2
In the case of vacancy of the members in the (D) Speaking against the Council of Ministers
Council of States, the Election Commission of
India will decide to hold bye-election to fill the EXPLANATION ) B
vacancy for the members of the council of states.
So, Statement 3 is not correct.
The President can be removed from office only
by Parliament by following the procedure for
QUESTION 32) Select the most appropriate impeachment.
statement regarding the “Law Commission of This procedure requires a special majority as
India” explained in the last chapter.
(1) It is a statutory body. The only ground for impeachment is violation of
(2) It acts as the legal representative of the the Constitution. However, the phrase has not
Government in court hearings been defined in the constitution.

(3) The Law Secretary to the Union Government

is the ex-officio member of the Commission. QUESTION 34) Which of the following
(A) Only one statements are correct About the term
“Adjournment”
(B) Only two
(1) It only terminates a sitting of the House.
(C) All
(2) It is done by the President of India.
(D) None
(3) It does not affect the bills pending before
EXPLANATION ) A the House.
(A) Only one
Law commission of India is neither a (B) Only two
constitutional nor a statutory body. Rather, it
was established by an executive resolution of the (C) All
GoI to make recommendations for law reforms. (D) None
So, 1 would be wrong.
EXPLANATION ) B
The Commission is established for a fixed tenure
(generally three years) and consists of a
Chairperson and four other full-time members.
Statement 1 is correct. Adjournment only
The Law Secy. and the Secy Legislative
terminates a sitting of the House and not a
Department are the ex-officio members of the
session of the House. Prorogation not only
Commission. So, 3 would be correct. It is the
terminates a sitting but also a session of the
Attorney general or the Solicitor generals who
House.
represent Indian government in court hearings.
So, 2 is wrong. Statement 2 is incorrect. Adjournment is done by
presiding officer of the House.Prorogation is
done by the president of India.
QUESTION 33) In which situation president Statement 3 is correct. Adjournment does not
can be removed from office by a process of affect the bills or any other business pending
impeachment for before the House and the same can be resumed
(A) Not following the advice of the Vice- when the House meets again. Prorogation also
President does not affect the bills or any other business
pending before the House. However, all pending
(B) Violation of the Constitution notices (other than those for introducing bills)
(C) Approving decisions that impinge on public lapse on prorogation and fresh notices have to
interest be given for the next session.
 Test 2
o Promoting personal contacts between
members of the Parliament of India.
QUESTION 35) Consider the following
statements with reference to the Indian o Studying questions of public importance that
Parliamentary Group (IPG): are likely to come up before the Parliament;
arrange seminars, discussions and orientation
(1) It was formed in 2005 through an act passed courses; and bring out publications for the
by the Parliament of India. dissemination of information to the members of
(2) Former members of the Parliament can the Group.
become associate members of the Group. o Arranging lectures on political, defense,
(3) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is the ex economic, social and educational problems by
officio president of the Group. the members of the Parliament and distinguished
persons.
(4) It can discuss questions of public importance
that are likely to come up before the Parliament. o Arranging visits to foreign countries with a view
to develop contacts with members of other
Which of the statements given above is/are parliaments.
correct?
(A) Only one
QUESTION 36) With reference to the
(B) Only two Constitution of India, which of the following
(C) All is/are not correct ?

(D) None (1) The Prime Minister makes rules for the
allocation of the business of the Government of
EXPLANATION ) B India among the Ministers.
(2) The total number of ministers in the Council
of Ministers shall not exceed 10% of the total
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Indian Parliamentary strength of the Lok Sabha.
Group is an autonomous body formed in the year
1949 in pursuance of a motion adopted by the (3) The Supreme Court is empowered to inquire
Constituent Assembly into any advice tendered by the Central Council
of Ministers to the President on the ground of
● Statement 2 is correct: Membership of IPG is malafide intent.
open to all members of Parliament. Former
members of Parliament can also become Select the correct answer using the codes given
associate members of the Group, but are entitled below.
to limited rights only. For example, they are not
(A) Only one
entitled to representation at meetings and
conferences of the IPU and the CPA and they are (B) Only two
also not entitled to the travel concessions
provided to members by certain branches of the (C) All
CPA (D) None
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Speaker of The Lok EXPLANATION ) C
Sabha is the ex officio president of the Group.
The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the
Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are the ex ● Statement 1 is incorrect: Under the
officio vice-presidents of the Group. The Constitution, it is the President not the Prime
Secretary-general of the Lok Sabha acts as the ex Minister who makes the rules for the allocation
officio Secretary-General of the Group. of the business of the Government of India
among the Ministers.
● Statement 4 is correct. The aims and objectives
of the Group are mentioned below: According to Article 77 of the Constitution, “The
President shall make the rules for the convenient
 Test 2
transaction of the business of the Government of Speaker from amongst its members and he is
India, and for the allocation among the Ministers invariably from the ruling party.
of the said business”.
Statement 3 is correct. All parties get due
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The total number of representation in the Estimates Committee. The
the Council of Ministers cannot exceed 15%, and term of office is one year. A minister cannot be
not 10%, of the total strength of the Lok Sabha. elected as a member of the committee.
This provision was added to the Constitution by
the 91st Amendment Act of 2003.
● Statement 3 is incorrect. Under Article 74 of QUESTION 38) Which statement(s) is/are
the Constitution, the question whether any, and incorrect regarding the motion of no confidence?
if so what, advice was tendered by Ministers to (1) It can be moved both in the Lok Sabha and
the President shall not be inquired into in any the Rajya Sabha.
court.
(2) It can be moved by any member of the
Thus, the Supreme court too cannot enquire into House.
any advice given by the Council of Ministers to
the President. (3) It can be moved against an individual
minister.
(4) Its passage leads to the resignation of the
QUESTION 37) Choose the correct council of ministers.
statements about Estimates Committee?
(A) Only one
(1) The Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have equal
representation in this committee. (B) Only two

(2) The chairman of the committee is appointed (C) Only three

by the Speaker from the ruling party. (D) None
(3) A minister cannot be elected as a member of
the committee.
EXPLANATION ) B
(A) Only one
Statement 1 is incorrect. It can be moved only in
(B) Only two
the Lok Sabha and not Rajya Sabha. Rule 198 of
(C) All the Rules of Procedure and conduct of Lok Sabha
specifies the procedure for moving a no-
(D) None confidence motion.
EXPLANATION ) B Statement 2 is correct. A no-confidence motion
can be moved by any member of the House.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Originally, the Estimates The member has to give a written notice of the
Committee had 25 members but in 1956 its motion before 10 am which will be read out by
membership was raised to 30. All the thirty the Speaker in the House. A minimum of 50
members are from Lok Sabha only. The Rajya members have to accept the motion and
accordingly, the Speaker will announce the date
Sabha has no representation in this committee.
These members are elected by the Lok Sabha for discussion for the motion.
every year from amongst its own members, Statement 3 is incorrect. A no-confidence motion
according to the principles of proportional can be moved against the entire council of
representation by means of a single transferable ministers only. Statement 4 is correct
vote.
Statement 2 is correct. The Estimates Committee
is the largest committee of the parliament. The QUESTION 39) Consider the following
chairman of the committee is appointed by the statements regarding the ‘President’s Rule’?
 Test 2
(1) The President is empowered by the sitting of the Lok Sabha after its reconstitution,
Constitution to proclaim ‘State Emergency’ if provided the Rajya Sabha approves it in the
he/she is satisfied that the state cannot be mean time.
carried on in accordance with the directions from
the Union Government. If approved by both the Houses of Parliament,
the President’s Rule continues for six months.
(2) President can proclaim the State Emergency
that requires mandatory approval of the It can be extended for a maximum period of
Parliament. three years with the approval of the Parliament,
every six months.
(3) Maximum period of President’s rule is 3
years.
Select the incorrect answer using the following QUESTION 40) With respect to the Universal
code: Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR), consider
the following statements:
(A) Only one
(1) India took an active part in drafting of the
(B) Only two UDHR.
(C) All (2) UDHR can create legal obligations for
(D) None countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are
EXPLANATION ) D correct?
(A) 1 only
All statements are correct. (B) 2 only
Grounds for the ‘President’s Rule’ in a state (C) Both 1 and 2
(Article 356)
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Article 356 empowers the President to issue a
proclamation if he is satisfied that a situation has EXPLANATION ) A
arisen in which the government of a state cannot
be carried on in accordance with the provisions
of the Constitution. Notably, the president can Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR):
act either on a report of the governor of the
state or otherwise too (i.e., even without the The 30 rights and freedoms include civil and
governor’s report). political rights, like the right to life, liberty, free
speech and privacy and economic, social and
Article 365 says that whenever a state fails to cultural rights, like the right to social security,
comply with or to give effect to any direction health and education, etc.
from the Centre, it will be lawful for the
president to hold that a situation has arisen in India took an active part in drafting of the UDHR.
which the government of the state cannot be Hence, statement 1 is correct.
carried on in accordance with the provisions of
The UDHR is not a treaty, so it does not directly
the Constitution.
create legal obligations for countries. Hence,
A proclamation imposing President’s Rule must statement 2 is not correct.
be approved by both the Houses of Parliament
The UDHR, together with the International
within two months from the date of its issue.
Covenant on Civil and Political Rights and its two
However, if the proclamation of President’s Rule Optional Protocols (on the complaints procedure
is issued at a time when the Lok Sabha has been and on the death penalty) and the International
dissolved or the dissolution of the Lok Sabha Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights
takes place during the period of two months and its Optional Protocol, form the so-called
without approving the proclamation, then the International Bill of Human Rights.
proclamation survives until 30 days from the first
 Test 2
QUESTION 41) In which of the following
conditions, the Parliament can make laws on •According to article 118 of the Indian
subjects enumerated in State List? constitution, the President, after consultation
(1) When a state makes a request with the Chairman of the Council of States and
the Speaker of the House of the People, is
(2) To fulfil an International Agreement responsible for making rules regarding procedure
(3) During Financial emergency with respect to joint sittings.

(4) When Rajya Sabha passes a resolution •The Speaker is looked upon as the true guardian
of the traditions of parliamentary democracy.
Select the incorrect answer using the code given However, it is not mandatory for the speaker to
below: resign from his party upon joining his office. In
Britain, speakers remain strictly non-partisan and
(A) Only one
renounce all affiliation with their former political
(B) Only two parties when taking office and afterward.

(C) Only three •The speaker can suspend a member of the Lok
Sabha without calling for adoption of motion. He
(D) None may invoke Rule 374A of the Lok Sabha’s rules of
procedure and conduct of business in case of
EXPLANATION ) B grave disorder occasioned by a member coming
into the well of the House or abusing the Rules of
the House or persistently and wilfully obstructing
Statement 1 is incorrect : When the legislatures its business by shouting slogans or otherwise. In
of two/more states pass a resolution requesting such a case, the member concerned, on being
the Parliament to enact laws on a matter in the named by the Speaker, stands automatically
State List. suspended from the service of the House for five
Statement 3 is incorrect : No such provision is consecutive sittings or the remainder of the
present for financial emergency. session, whichever is less.

QUESTION 42) Consider the following QUESTION 43) Consider the following
statements regarding the office of Speaker in the statements:
Lok Sabha: (1) The date of election of both the Speaker and
(1) He is responsible for formulating the rules of the Deputy Speaker is decided by the President.
the joint sitting of the house after consultation (2) An appeal against a ruling given by the
with Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Deputy Speaker when presiding Lok Sabha, lies
(2) He must resign from his party membership with the Speaker.
upon joining the office to ensure (3) The Deputy Speaker is independent of the
nonpartisanship. Speaker, not subordinate to him.
(3) He cannot suspend a member of the Lok Which of the statements given above is/are
Sabha without calling for adoption of motion. correct?
Which of the statements given above is correct? (A) Only one
(A) Only 1 (B) Only two
(B) Only 2 and 3 (C) All
(C) Only 3 (D) None
(D) None of the above
EXPLANATION ) A
EXPLANATION ) D
 Test 2
Deputy Speaker (A) 1 and 2 only
• Statement 1 is not correct. (B) 1, 2 and 4 only
Election of deputy speaker: (C) 3 and 4 only
President is not required to fix the election date: (D) 1, 3 and 4 only
• The date of election of the Speaker is decided EXPLANATION ) B
by the President who needs to go by the advice
of the Union cabinet which, in fact, chooses the
date. Disqualification of a legislator
• In the case of the Deputy Speaker, there is no • Constitutional provisions:
constitutional requirement for him to wait for
the advice of the Union cabinet in fixing the date The provision for disqualification is given in
of election of the Deputy Speaker. Article 102 of the Constitution.
Mandate to Speaker: As per Rule 8 of the Rules It specifies that a person shall be disqualified for
and Procedure of Lok Sabha it is the Speaker who contesting elections and being a Member of
has to fix the date of the election of the Deputy Parliament under certain conditions.
Speaker.
If he holds any office of profit under the Union or
• Statement 2 is not correct. state government (except that of a minister or
any other office exempted by Parliament). Hence
No appeal: option 2 is correct.
Although the Deputy Speaker gets to exercise If he is of unsound mind and stands so declared
these powers only in the absence of the Speaker by a court.
his decisions are final and binding when he gives
a ruling. If he is an undischarged insolvent.
It has been repeatedly held that no appeal lies to If he is not a citizen of India or has voluntarily
the Speaker against a ruling given by the Deputy acquired the citizenship of a foreign state or is
Speaker. under any acknowledgement of allegiance to a
foreign state; and Hence option 1 is correct.
• Statement 3 is correct.
If he is so disqualified under any law made by
Independent from Speaker: The Deputy Speaker Parliament.
is independent of the Speaker, not subordinate
to him, as both are elected from among the Article 102 also authorises Parliament to make
members of the House. law determining conditions of disqualifications.
There are analogous provisions for members of
state legislatures.
QUESTION 44) In which of the following cases
a legislator is disqualified from being a Member • The Representation of the People Act, 1951:
of Parliament? Disqualification on imprisonment:
(1) If he/she is not a citizen of India. The Representation of the People Act, 1951
(2) If he/she holds any office of profit under the provides that a person will be disqualified if
Union or state government. convicted and sentenced to imprisonment for
two years or more. Hence option 3 is incorrect.
(3) If he/she is convicted and sentenced to
imprisonment for 6 months and above. • The person is disqualified for the period of
imprisonment and a further six years.
(4) If he/she voluntarily gives up the membership
of the political party. • A member incurs disqualification under the
defection law:
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
 Test 2
If he voluntarily gives up the membership of the Election and removal of the Vice-President.
political party on whose ticket he is elected to However, Rajya Sabha alone can initiate the
the House; Hence option 4 is correct. removal of the vice president. He is removed by a
resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha by an
If he votes or abstains from voting in the House effective majority (which is a type of special
contrary to any direction given by his political majority) and agreed to by the Lok Sabha by a
party; simple majority.
If any independently elected member joins any Making recommendations to the President for
political party; and removing the Chief Justice and judges of the
If any nominated member joins any political Supreme Court and high courts, chief election
party after the expiry of six months. commissioner, comptroller, and auditor general.
Approval of ordinances issued by the President

QUESTION 45) With reference to the Approval of proclamation of all three types of
Constitution of India, Rajya Sabha has equal emergencies by the President
powers with the Lok Sabha in which of the Selection of ministers, including the Prime
following matters ? Minister. Under the Constitution, the ministers,
(1) Approval of proclamation of all three types of including the Prime Minister, can be members of
emergencies by the President either House. However, irrespective of their
membership, they are responsible only to the
(2) Removal of the Comptroller and Auditor Lok Sabha.
General
Consideration of the reports of the constitutional
(3) Approval of ordinances issued by the bodies like the Finance Commission, Union Public
President Service Commission, comptroller and auditor
general, etc.
(4) Consideration of the reports of the Finance
Commission Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court and the Union Public Service Commission.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below : RAJYA SABHA
(A) 1 and 3 only About Under the Constitution, the Parliament of
India consists of three parts: the President, the
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
Council of States, and the House of the People.
(C) 2 and 4 only
In 1954, the Hindi names' Rajya Sabha' and 'Lok
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Sabha' were adopted by the Council of States
and the House of People, respectively.
EXPLANATION ) D
The Rajya Sabha is the Upper House (Second
Chamber or House of Elders), and the Lok Sabha
is the Lower House (First Chamber or Popular
Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok sabha
House).
concerning the following matters such as,
The Rajya Sabha represents the states and union
Introduction and passage of ordinary bills
territories of the Indian Union, while the Lok
Introduction and passage of Constitutional Sabha represents the people of India as a whole.
amendment bills.
Unequal Status with Lok Sabha
Introduction and passage of financial bills
A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok
involving expenditure from the Consolidated
Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha.
Fund of India
Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject a Money
Election and impeachment of the President
Bill. It should return the bill to the Lok Sabha
 Test 2
within 14 days, either with recommendations or of the Lok Sabha takes place within the period
without recommendations. allowed for its approval. In that case, the
proclamation can remain effective even if it is
The Lok Sabha can either accept or reject all or approved by the Rajya Sabha alone (Articles 352,
any of the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha. 356, and 360).
In both cases, the money bill is deemed to have
been passed by the two Houses.
A financial bill not containing solely Article 110 QUESTION 46) Consider the following
can also be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and statements regarding India’s membership of
not in the Rajya Sabha. But, about its passage, agreements related to nuclear power and critical
both Houses have equal powers. minerals:
The final power to decide whether a particular (1) India is a member of the ‘Nuclear suppliers'
bill is a Money Bill or not is vested in the Speaker group’.
of the Lok Sabha.
(2) India is a part of US led ‘Mineral Security
The Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over the joint Partnership’ to secure supply of Critical minerals.
sitting of both Houses.
(3) India has faced international sanctions in the
With a greater number, the Lok Sabha wins the past for its nuclear weapons program as it is not
battle in a joint sitting except when the a member of ‘Nuclear Non-Proliferation treaty’.
combined strength of the ruling party in both
Houses is less than that of the opposition parties. Which of the following statements is/are not
correct?
Rajya Sabha can only discuss the budget but
cannot vote on the demands for grants (which is (A) Only one
the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha). (B) Only two
A resolution for discontinuing the national (C) All
emergency can be passed only by the Lok Sabha
and not by the Rajya Sabha. (D) None
The Rajya Sabha cannot remove the Council of EXPLANATION ) B
ministers by passing a no-confidence motion.
This is because the Council of ministers is
collectively responsible only to the Lok Sabha. Nuclear Non-proliferation treaty (NPT):
But, the Rajya Sabha can discuss and criticize the
policies and activities of the government. The NPT is an international treaty whose
objective is to prevent the spread of nuclear
Special Powers of Rajya Sabha weapons and weapons technology, to foster the
It can authorize the Parliament to make a law on peaceful uses of nuclear energy, and to further
a subject enumerated in the State List (Article the goal of disarmament.
249). The treaty was signed in 1968 and entered into
It can authorize the Parliament to create new All- force in 1970. Presently, it has 191 member
India Services common to the Centre and states states.
(Article 312). India is not a member and has faced
It alone can initiate a move for the removal of international sanctions in the past for its nuclear
the vice president. In other words, a resolution weapons program. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
for removing the vice president can be It requires countries to give up any present or
introduced only in the Rajya Sabha and not in the future plans to build nuclear weapons in return
Lok Sabha (Article 67). for access to peaceful uses of nuclear energy.
Suppose the President issues a proclamation for It represents the only binding commitment in a
imposing a national emergency or President's multilateral treaty to the goal of disarmament by
rule or financial emergency at a time when the the nuclear-weapon States.
Lok Sabha has been dissolved or the dissolution
 Test 2
Nuclear-weapon states parties under the NPT are QUESTION 48) Which of the following
defined as those that manufactured and amendments are not considered as an
exploded a nuclear weapon or other nuclear Amendment of the Constitution under Article
explosive devices before 1st January, 1967. 368 ?
Also , India is not a member of Nuclear Suppliers (1) Lists in the Seventh schedule
group as it is not a member of NPT. Hence,
statement 1 is not correct. (2) Conferment of more jurisdiction on the
Supreme Court
Mineral security partnership (Critical Mineral
Alliance): (3) Amendments to the Procedure of
Amendment of the constitution
Minerals Security Partnership is an ambitious
new US-led partnership to secure supply chains (4) Representation of states in Parliament
of critical minerals, aimed at reducing Select the correct answer using the code given
dependency on China. India has been excluded below :
from it. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
(A) Only one
Demand for critical minerals, which are essential
for clean energy and other technologies is (B) Only two
projected to expand significantly in the coming
(C) All
decades.
(D) None

QUESTION 47) Which of the following EXPLANATION ) A

statements best describes USTTAD Scheme?
(A) It aims at preserving the rich heritage of Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals
traditional skills of indigenous with the powers of Parliament to amend the
artisans/craftsmen. Constitution and its procedure.
(B) It aims promoting skill development in the Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule.
country by providing free short duration skill
training The representation of States in Parliament.

(C) It aims at promoting cultural and heritage The above provisions are related to the federal
value of the country structure of the polity of the Constitution, which
can be amended by a special majority of the
(D) It aims at providing quality education in Parliament and with the consent of half of the
Madrasas state legislatures by a simple majority. So,
Statements 1 and 4 are not correct.
EXPLANATION ) A
Article 139 of the Constitution states that the
Conferment on the Supreme Court of powers to
USTTAD (Upgrading the Skills and Training in issue certain writs in this provisions in the
Traditional Arts/Crafts for Development): Constitution can be amended by a simple
majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside
Launched in May 2015 aims to preserve the rich the scope of Article 368; hence it is not
heritage of traditional skills of indigenous considered as an amendment of the Constitution
artisans/craftsmen. under Article 368. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Under this scheme HunnarHaats are also held all Article 368 of the Indian Constitution provides
over the country to provide a nation-wide the procedure of Amendment.
marketing platform to Minority artisans &
entrepreneurs and to create employment The Power of Parliament to amend the
opportunities. Constitution and its procedure provisions (Article
368 itself) can be amended by a Special Majority
 Test 2
of Parliament and the Consent of States. So, members of Parliament and the state legislatures
Statement 3 is not correct. on the ground of defection:
ARTICLE 368 Disqualification
Types Of Amendments Members of Political Parties: A member of a
House belonging to any political party becomes
Article 368 provides for two types of disqualified for being a member of the House,
amendments,
(A) if he voluntarily gives up his membership of
A special majority of Parliament and also through such political party; or
the ratification of half of the states by a simple
majority. (B) if he votes or abstains from voting in such
House contrary to any direction issued by his
The Amendment of certain provisions of the political party without obtaining prior permission
Constitution by a simple majority of Parliament
of such party and such act has not been
has not been deemed an amendment to the condoned by the party within 15 days.
Constitution for Article 368.
Independent Members: An independent member
Therefore, the Constitution can be amended in of a House (elected without being set up as a
three ways: candidate by any political party) becomes
x Amendment by simple majority. disqualified to remain a member of the House if
he joins any political party after such election.
Amendment by special majority.
Nominated Members: A nominated member of a
Amendment by Special majority with ratification House becomes disqualified for being a member
of half of state. of the House if he joins any political party after
the expiry of six months from the date on which
he takes his seat in the House. This means that
QUESTION 49) In which of the cases the he may join any political party within six months
members of the Parliament is/are not of taking his seat in the House without inviting
disqualified under anti defection law? this disqualification.

(1) If a nominated member joins any political Exceptions

party after the expiry of six months from the
The above disqualification on the ground of
date on which he takes his seat in the House.
defection does not apply in the following cases:
(2) If not less than 2/3rd members of a Political
If a member goes out of his party as a result of a
Party break away and merge with another
merger of the party with another party. A merger
political party.
takes place when 2/3rd of the members of the
(3) If there is split in the legislature party by one- party have agreed to such merger.
third members of the party in the House. Exemption from disqualification in case of split
Select the correct answer using the codes given by one-third members of legislature party has
below. been deleted by the 91st Amendment Act of
2003.
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2
QUESTION 50) Consider the following
(C) Only 2 and 3
statements:
(D) Only 1 and 3
(1) If a person is elected to both the Houses of
EXPLANATION ) B Parliament, he must intimate within 10 days in
which House he desires to serve.
(2) If a sitting member of one House is also
The Tenth Schedule contains the following elected to the other House, his seat in the first
provisions with respect to the disqualification of House becomes vacant.
 Test 2
(3) If a person is elected to two seats in a House, (3) Cabinet committee on Employment and skill
he should choose one .Otherwise, both seats development
become vacant.
(4) Cabinet committee on Parliamentary affairs
(4) If a member of state legislature is elected to
Parliament, his seat in the parliament becomes (5) Appointment committee of the Cabinet.
vacant if he does not resign his seat in the state Which of the following committees are headed
legislature within 30 days. by the Prime minister?
Which of the statements given above is/are (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
correct?
(B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(A) Only 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3, and 5 only
(B) Only 1, 2 and 4
(D) 3, 4 and 5 only
(C) Only 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION ) C
(D) All of the Above

EXPLANATION ) C
About Cabinet Committees:
● Cabinet committees are extra-constitutional
Double Membership bodies, i.e., they are not mentioned in the
A person cannot be a member of both Houses of Constitution. However, the Rules of Business
Parliament at the same time. Thus, the provide for their establishment.
Representation of People Act (1951) provides for ● At present there are 8 functional cabinet
the following: committees. Committees headed by the Prime
(A) If a person is elected to both the Houses of Minister:
Parliament, he must intimate within 10 days in o Cabinet committee on Political affairs
which House he desires to serve. In default of
such intimation, his seat in the Rajya Sabha o Cabinet committee on Economic affairs
becomes vacant. o Appointment committee of the cabinet
(B) If a sitting member of one House is also o Cabinet committee on Investment and growth
elected to the other House, his seat in the first
House becomes vacant. o Cabinet committee on Security
(C) If a person is elected to two seats in a o Cabinet committee on Employment and Skill
House, he should exercise his option for one. Development
Otherwise, both seats become vacant.
● Committees headed by the home minister:
Similarly, a person cannot be a member of both
Cabinet committee on Accommodation
the Parliament and the state legislature at the
same time. If a person is so elected, his seat in ● Committee Headed by the defence minister:
Parliament becomes vacant if he does not resign Cabinet committee on Parliamentary affairs
his seat in the state legislature within 14 days.

QUESTION 52) Consider the following

QUESTION 51) Consider the following statements with respect to Parliamentary
functional Cabinet Committees: Committee on Subordinate Legislation ?
(1) Cabinet committee on accommodation (1) The Committee examines representations
made to it in regard to rules, regulations, bye-
(2) Cabinet committee on Investment and
laws, etc., made or required to be made under
growth
an Act.
 Test 2
(2) The Committee shall consist of not more than (2) The enactment of the budget by the
fifteen members, who shall be nominated by the Parliament legalises the receipts and expenditure
Speaker. of the government for the ensuing financial year.
(3) The term of office of members of the (3) The ‘rule of lapse’ facilitates effective
Committee shall not exceed one year. financial control by the Parliament.
Select the incorrect answer from the code given Which of the statements given above is/are
below : correct?
(A) Only one (A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only two (B) Only 2 and 3
(C) All (C) Only 1 and 3
(D) None (D) All of the above

EXPLANATION ) D EXPLANATION ) B

The most effective control that Lok Sabha No tax can be levied or collected and no
exercises over subordinate legislation are expenditure can be incurred by the Executive
through its scrutiny Committee the “Committee except under the authority and with the approval
on Subordinate Legislation”. For the first time, of Parliament.
the Committee was constituted in December
1953 and has been constituted since then from Hence, the budget is placed before the
year to year. Parliament for its approval. The enactment of the
budget by the Parliament legalises the receipts
The function of this committee is to scrutinize and expenditure of the government for the
and report to the House whether the powers to ensuing financial year.
make regulations, rules, sub-rules, bye-laws, etc.
The Parliament also scrutinises government
conferred by the Constitution or delegated by
Parliament are being properly exercised within spending and financial performance with the
the such delegation. So, Statement 1 is correct. help of its financial committees. These include
public accounts committee, estimates committee
The Committee shall consist of not more than and committee on public undertakings.
fifteen members who the Speaker shall nominate
They bring out the cases of illegal, irregular,
A Minister shall not be nominated as a member unauthorised, improper usage and wastage and
of the Committee. If a member, after nomination extravagance in public expenditure.
to the Committee, is appointed as Minister, such
member shall cease to be a member of the Therefore, parliamentary control over Executive
Committee from the date of such appointment. in financial matters operates in two stages-
budgetary control, that is, control before the
The term of office of committee members shall appropriation of grants through the enactment
not exceed one year. So, Statements 2 and 3 are of the budget; and post-budgetary control, that
correct. is, control after the appropriation of grants
through the three financial committees.

QUESTION 53) Consider the following

statements QUESTION 54) With reference to Bharat Parv,
consider the following statements:
(1) No tax can be levied or collected except
under the authority and with the approval of (1) It's an initiative of Ministry of Culture to
President. celebrate India’s unity in diversity.
(2) Its objective is to make India a hub of
civilization, culture and spirituality.
 Test 2
Which of the statements given above is/are (C) Both 1 and 2
correct?
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(A) 1 only
EXPLANATION ) B
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
•Lok Sabha Speaker presides over a joint Sitting.
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
•The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha can be
EXPLANATION ) B removed from his office only if he is removed
from the office of the Vice-President.

Bharat Parv:
The Ministry of Tourism has been designated as QUESTION 56) With reference to ‘Estimates
the nodal ministry for the event. Committee’, consider the following statements:

The event includes a food festival, a handicraft (1) It has 30 members.

mela, folk and tribal dance performances, (2) The Rajya Sabha has no representation in this
cultural troupe performances, a display of committee.
Republic Day tableaux, and the illumination of
the Red Fort, among other things. Hence, (3) The first Estimates Committee in the post-
statement 1 is not correct. independence era was constituted in 1950 on the
recommendation of C D Deshmukh.
Objectives:
Which of the statements given above is/are
Branding and promotion of Dekho Apna Desh, Ek incorrect?
Bharat Shreshtha Bharat, G20 and Mission LIFE
would be undertaken during the event. (A) Only one

The program is a way to celebrate India’s unity in (B) Only two

diversity and to make India a hub of civilization, (C) All
culture, spirituality and inheritance in the next 25
years of Amrit Kaal. Hence, statement 2 is (D) None
correct.
EXPLANATION ) A
The event is also promoting the Vocal for Local
motto as many artisans across the country are
also taking part in this. •The origin of Estimates committee can be
traced to the standing financial committee set up
in 1921.
QUESTION 55) With reference to presiding
•The first Estimates Committee in the post-
officer of the Rajya Sabha, consider the following
independence era was constituted in 1950.
statements:
•Statement 1 is correct: It has 30 members.
(1) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides over a
joint sitting of two Houses of Parliament. •Statement 2 is correct: All the thirty members
are from Lok Sabha only. The Rajya Sabha has no
(2) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha can be
representation in this committee.
removed from his office only if he is removed
from the office of the Vice-President. •These members are elected by the Lok Sabha
every year from amongst its own members,
Which of the statements given above is/are
according to the principles of proportional
correct?
representation by means of a single transferable
(A) Only 1 vote.
(B) Only 2 •The term of office is one year.
 Test 2
•A minister cannot be elected as a member of The first Parliamentary Forum on Water
the committee. Conservation and Management was constituted
in the year 2005. Subsequently, seven more
•The first Estimates Committee in the post- Parliamentary forums were constituted. At
independence era was constituted in 1950 on the present, there are eight Parliamentary forums.
recommendation of John Mathai.

QUESTION 58) Consider the following

QUESTION 57) Which of the following are statements:
correct in respect to compositions of
Parliamentary Forum. (1) The President of India can summon a session
of the Parliament at such place as he/she thinks
(1) Each Forum consists of not more than 31 fit.
members (excluding the President, Co-President
and Vice-Presidents) out of whom not more than (2) The Constitution of India provides for three
21 are from the Lok Sabha and not more than 10 sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not
are from the Rajya Sabha. mandatory to conduct all three sessions.
(2) A member of any Parliamentary Forum may (3) There is no minimum number of days that the
resign from the forum by writing to the Parliament is required to meet in a year.
concerned Union Minister.
(A) 1 only
(3) The first Parliamentary Forum on Water
Conservation and Management was constituted (B) 2 only
in the year 2005. (C) 1 and 3 only
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (D) 2 and 3 only
(A) Only 1 and 2 EXPLANATION ) C
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3 •The President of India can summon a session of
(D) All of the Above the Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit.
•The president from time to time summons each
EXPLANATION ) C
House of Parliament to meet. But, the maximum
gap between two sessions of Parliament cannot
be more than six months. In other words, the
•Each Forum consists of not more than 31 Parliament should meet at least twice a year.
members (excluding the President, Co- President There are usually three sessions in a year:
and Vice-Presidents) out of whom not more than
21 are from the Lok Sabha and not more than 10 Budget Session starts towards the end of
are from the Rajya Sabha. January, and concludes by the end of April or first
week of May.
•Members (other than the President, Co-
President and Vice-Presidents) of these forums Monsoon Session (July to September); and
are nominated by the Speaker/ Chairman from
amongst the leaders of various political Winter Session (November to December).
parties/groups or their nominees, who have
special knowledge/keen interest in the subject.
QUESTION 59) Consider the following
•The duration of the office of members of the statements:
forum is coterminous with their membership in
the respective Houses. (1) Unified Payment Interface (UPI) was
developed by the National Payments Corporation
•A member may also resign from the forum by of India in 2016.
writing to the Speaker/Chairman.
 Test 2
(2) Recently, the UPI and Paynow were Statement 1 is correct: A vostro account is an
integrated for facilitating ease of doing business account that domestic banks hold for foreign
between India and Bangladesh. banks in the former’s domestic currency, in this
case, the rupee.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? Three important components of SRVA are:
(A) 1 only • Invoicing: All exports and imports must be
denominated and invoiced in INR.
(B) 2 only
• Exchange Rate: The exchange rate between the
(C) Both 1 and 2 currencies of the trading partner countries would
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 be market-determined.

EXPLANATION ) A • Settlement: The final settlement also takes

place in Indian National Rupee (INR).
Statement 2 is correct: Vostro account would
Statement 1 is correct - UPI is a system that also reduce the need for holding foreign
powers multiple bank accounts into a single exchange reserves and dependence on foreign
mobile application merging several banking currencies, making the country less vulnerable to
features, seamless fund routing & merchant external shocks.
payments into one hood. It was developed by
NPCI (National Payments Corporation of India) in
2016. QUESTION 61) Choose the wrong statements
Statement 2 is not correct - India’s payment about the Council of Ministers
system Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and its (1) They are collectively responsible to the
equivalent network in Singapore called PayNow, Parliament.
were integrated to enable faster remittances
between the two countries at a competitive rate. (2) Nominated members of Parliament cannot
be part of the Council of Ministers.
(3) The Constitution puts a limit on the size of
QUESTION 60) With reference to Vostro the Council of Ministers.
Accounts, sometimes mentioned in the news,
consider the following statements: (A) Only one

(1) Under this, the exchange rate between the (B) Only two
currencies of the trading partner countries would (C) All
be market-determined.
(D) None
(2) It can play an important role in making the
country less vulnerable to external shocks. EXPLANATION ) B
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Council of Ministers
(A) 1 only are collectively responsible to theLok Sabha, not
(B) 2 only the Parliament. This provision means that a
Ministry which loses confidence of the Lok Sabha
(C) Both 1 and 2 is obliged to resign.
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 Statement 2 is incorrect. Any member of the
Parliament can be appointed to the Council of
EXPLANATION ) C Ministers, irrespective of whether they are
nominated or elected to the Parliament.
Statement 3 is correct. Constitution has put a
limit on the size of the Council of Ministers to
 Test 2
15% of the strength of the House of the People As the Committee on Private Members' Bills and
via 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003. Resolutions (Third Lok Sabha) recommended in
Before the 91st Amendment Act (2003), the size their Fourteenth Report, a private member
of the Council of Ministers was determined cannot introduce more than four Bills during a
according to exigencies of time and requirements session. So, Statement 3 is correct.
of the situation.

QUESTION 63) Consider the following

QUESTION 62) With reference to the statements :
Parliament of India, consider the following
(1) Parliamentary law made in the concurrent list
statements :
should be executed by states.
(1) A Private member bill is introduced by a
legislator who is not acting on behalf of the (2) The President of India can exercise absolute
executive branch. veto if the cabinet resigns before the bill gets
his/her assent.
(2) Any member of the Parliament can introduce
a Constitutional Amendment bill. (3) Since the enactment of the Constitution of
India, the pocket veto has not been exercised by
(3) A Private member cannot introduce more the President.
than four bills during a session.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
incorrect ?
(A) Only one
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(B) Only two
(C) All
(C) All
(D) None
(D) None
EXPLANATION ) A
EXPLANATION ) D

Articles 256 to 263 of the Indian Constitution

The law-making process begins with introducing deal with the administrative relations between
a Bill in either House of Parliament. A Bill can be the Centre and the states. The Constitution has
introduced either by a Minister who is acting on delimited the scope of legislative and executive
behalf of the executive branch or by a member authority of the union and the states. When an
other than a Minister. In the former case, it is act of a subject in the concurrent list is made by
called a Government Bill and in the latter case, it the parliament, usually it is executed by states
is known as a Private Member's Bill. Every unless or until the parliamentary law mentions
member of Parliament, who is not a Minister, is that it should be executed by the centre. So,
called a Private Member and they not acting on Statement 1 is correct.
behalf of the executive branch. So, Statement 1
is correct. Absolute Veto is used by the president in two
scenarios,
The Constitution vests in Parliament the power
to amend it. Constitution Amendment Bills can In the case of Private Member Bills.
be introduced in either House of Parliament by In the case of a government bill when a situation
both ministers and private members. arises where the cabinet resigns after the
The bill must be passed in each House by a passage of the bill and before President could
special majority, that is, a majority of the total give his assent to the bill. So, Statement 2 is
membership of the House and a majority of two- correct.
thirds of the members of the House present and According to Article 111 of the Indian
voting. So, Statement 2 is correct. Constitution, when a bill has been passed by the
 Test 2
Houses of Parliament, it shall be presented to the EXPLANATION ) B
President. He / She may, as soon as possible take
action on that bill (either he assents to the Bill, or
that he withholds assent). statement 1 is incorrect. Minimum age for
So, there is no time limit conferred on the eligibility to exercising the right to vote
President to take action on the bill presented to isdetermined by the Constitution of India (Article
him. This situation is known as “Pocket Veto” 326) and not by the President. Adult franchise
where the president may simply keep the bill on ensures that all citizens are able to participate in
the desk for an indefinite time without taking any the process of selecting their representative.
action. Statement 2 is correct. Till 1989, the voting age
But in 1986, President Zail Singh exercised the was 21 years. The Constitution (Sixty first
pocket veto concerning the Indian Post Office Amendment) Act, 1988, lowered the voting age
(Amendment) Bill. So, Statement 3 is not correct. of elections to the Lok Sabha and to the
Legislative Assemblies of States from 21 years to
VETO POWERS OF THE PRESIDENT 18 years.
The veto power of the Indian President is a
combination of the absolute, suspensive, and
pocket vetos. QUESTION 65) Consider the following
statements regarding Parliamentary Committees:
Suspensive Veto
(1) All Bills other than Money Bills are
A veto is suspensive when the executive veto can automatically referred to the Parliamentary
be overridden by the Legislature by an ordinary Committees.
majority.
(2) Recommendations of the Parliamentary
The suspensive veto is exercised by the President Committees are not binding in nature.
when he returns the bill for reconsideration by
the Parliament. (3) Parliamentary standing committees are
permanent and are constituted every five years.
However, if the bill is passed again by the
Parliament, with or without amendments, the Which of the statements given above is/are
President has to give his/her assent to the bill. incorrect?
This power is not applicable in the case of a (A) Only one
money bill.
(B) Only two
(C) All
QUESTION 64) Consider the following (D) None
statements with regard to Universal Adult
Franchise in India: EXPLANATION ) B
(1) President has the authority to decide the
minimum age for voting in the elections to State
as well as Union legislature. Parliamentary Committees are an instrument of
Parliament for its own effective functioning.
(2) All citizens of India above the age of 18 years
are eligible to vote in the elections to the Lok Parliament is not bound by the
Sabha. recommendations of committees. Hence
statement 2 is correct.
(A) 1 only
● Types of parliamentary committees:
(B) 2 only
○ Broadly, parliamentary committees are of two
(C) Both 1 and 2 kinds:
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 ■ Standing Committees - They are permanent
(constituted every year or periodically) and work
 Test 2
on a continuous basis. Hence statement 3 is ○ A nominated member can join a political party
incorrect. within six months of taking his/ her seat in the
House. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
■ Ad Hoc Committees - They are temporary and
cease to exist on completion of the task assigned ● Role of nominated members:
to them. For instance, to deliberate on a
particular bill. ○ Powers and privileges:

● Referring bill to the committee: ■ Nominated members of Rajya Sabha enjoy all
the powers and privileges to which the elected
○ Currently, it is not mandatory to refer a Bill to a MPs are entitled.
Committee.
■ They can take part in the proceedings of the
○ In some Parliamentary systems like the UK, all House in a normal manner. Hence statement 3 is
Bills other than Money Bills are automatically correct.
referred to Committees.
○ Election of President and Vice-President:
○ However, in India, it depends on the decision
of the Speaker or Chairman, in consultation with ■ Nominated members are not allowed to vote
the Minister putting forth the Bill, whether a Bill in the election of the President.
should be referred to a Committee. ■ However, they do have the right to vote in the
Hence statement 1 is incorrect. election of the Vice-President. Hence statement
1 is incorrect.

QUESTION 66) Consider the following

statements regarding Nominated members in QUESTION 67) Which of these statements
Rajya Sabha: are correct

(1) They are not allowed to vote in the election (1) The resolution for removal of Vice President
of the Vice-President. can be initiated in Rajya Sabha only.
(2) Unlike the President, there is no process of
(2) They can not join any political party as
impeachment of the Vice President.
technically they are independent members.
(3) They can take part in the proceedings of the (A) 1 only
House. (B) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (C) Both 1 and 2
incorrect?
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(A) Only one
EXPLANATION ) C
(B) Only two
(C) All
Statement 1 is correct. The term of office of the
(D) None Vice President is five years. The term may end
EXPLANATION ) B earlier by resignation which should be addressed
to the President. The term of the office of the
Vice President may also be terminated earlier
through the process of removal.
Nominated Members in Rajya Sabha
The Vice President may be removed by a
● The president nominates 12 members to the resolution by the members of the Rajya Sabha.
Rajya Sabha from people who have special Such a resolution for removal of Vice President
knowledge or practical experience in art, can be initiated in Rajya Sabha only.
literature, science and social service.
Statement 2 is correct. To move such a
resolution, a 14 days” notice is to be given. Such
 Test 2
a resolution, though passed by the Rajya Sabha
only must be agreeable to the Lok Sabha. Unlike
the President, there is no process of QUESTION 69) Which of the following
impeachment of the Vice President. Vice countries border the Black Sea:
President is removed by a resolution passed by (1) Russia
Rajya Sabha by effective majority (i.e. majority of
all the then members of Rajya Sabha) and agreed (2) Kazakhstan
by a simple majority in the Lok Sabha.
(3) Lithuania
(4) Georgia
QUESTION 68) With reference to the Eighth (5) Turkey
Schedule in the Indian Constitution, consider the
following statements: Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(1) It is a list of the official languages of the
republic of India. (A) Only one
(2) It provides a commission appointed by the (B) Only two
President for the promotion of tribal languages.
(C) Only three
Which of the statements given above is/are
(D) None
correct?
(A) 1 only EXPLANATION ) C
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 Bordering Countries of Black sea: Ukraine, Russia,
Georgia, Turkey, Bulgaria and Romania. Hence,
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 option C is correct.
EXPLANATION ) A
QUESTION 70) Which of the following
statements about the Pro Tem Speaker are
About Eighth Schedule:
correct?
It lists the official languages of the republic of
(1) He is not appointed for the newly constituted
India. Part XVII of the Indian constitution deals
State Legislative Assemblies.
with the official languages in Articles 343 to 351.
Hence, statement 1 is correct. (2) He can be appointed only when the offices of
both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker fall
The Constitutional provisions related to the
vacant.
Eighth Schedule are:
(3) The Pro Tem Speaker for the newly
Article 344: Article 344(1) provides for the
constituted Lok Sabha is appointed by the
constitution of a Commission by the President on
President.
expiration of five years from the commencement
of the Constitution. Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
Article 351: It provides for the spread of the
Hindi language to develop it so that it may serve (A) 1 and 2 only
as a medium of expression for all the elements of
the composite culture of India. (B) 1 and 3 only

Hence, statement 2 is not correct. (C) 2 and 3 only

However, It can be noted that there is no fixed (D) None of the above
criteria for any language to be considered for
inclusion in the Eighth Schedule.
EXPLANATION ) C
 Test 2
investment into the asset, and the title rights to
the monetized asset.
The Pro Tem Speaker is also appointed for the
newly State Legislative Assemblies – Article 1802. ● Statement 2 is not correct: The Pradhan Mantri
Fasal Bima Yojana provides crop insurance to
During the absence of the Speaker from any farmers, but it does not provide financial support
sitting of the Assembly, the Deputy Speaker or, if to farmers who agree to monetize their land.
he is also absent, such person as may be
determined by the Rules of Procedure of the ● Statement 3 is correct: The monetization of
Assembly, or, if no such person is present, such land can lead to social and environmental
other person, as may be determined by the consequences, such as displacement of
Assembly, shall act as the Speaker. communities and loss of natural resources.
When the offices of both the Speaker and the ○ The government needs to address these
Deputy Speaker fall vacant, the duties of the concerns of local communities, environmental
office of the Speaker are performed by such activists, and other interest groups before taking
member of the Lok Sabha, as the President may up land monetisation.
appoint for the purpose. The person so
appointed is known as the Speaker pro tem.
QUESTION 72) Which of the following
statements is/are correct regarding the
QUESTION 71) Consider the following role/powers of the Deputy Speaker?
statements regarding land monetisation in India:
(1) The Deputy Speaker is subordinate to the
(1) Land Monetisation means transferring the Speaker.
revenue rights of the asset to a private player for
a specified period of time. (2) Whenever the Deputy Speaker is appointed
as a parliamentary committee member, he
(2) The Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana automatically becomes its Chairman.
provides financial support to farmers who agree
(3) He does not preside over the joint sitting of
to monetize their land.
both Houses of Parliament, in case the Speaker is
(3) The monetization of land can lead to social absent from such a sitting.
and environmental consequences, such as
displacement of communities and loss of natural Choose the correct answer from the options
resources. given below

Which of the above statements are correct? (A) Only one

(A) 1 and 2 only (B) Only two

(B) 2 and 3 only (C) All

(C) 1 and 3 only (D) None

(D) 1, 2 and 3 EXPLANATION ) A

EXPLANATION ) C
Statement 1 is not correct: The Deputy Speaker is
not subordinate to the Speaker. He is directly
Statement 1 is correct: Land Monetisation means responsible to the House.
transferring the revenue rights of the asset
(could be idle land, infrastructure, PSU) to a Statement 2 is correct: Whenever the Deputy
private player for a specified period of time. speaker is appointed as a member of a
parliamentary committee, he automatically
○ The government gets in return payment from becomes its chairman.
the private entity, a share of the revenue
generated from the asset, a promise of steady Statement 3 is not correct: The Deputy Speaker
performs the duties of the Speaker’s office when
 Test 2
it is vacant. He also presides over the joint sitting ■ Analyze and disclose fiscal risks and adopt
of both Houses of Parliament, in case the unambiguous tax treatment of crypto assets.
Speaker is absent from such a sitting. He can
speak in the House, participate in its proceedings ■ Establish legal certainty of crypto assets and
and vote on any question before the House. address legal risks.
■ Develop and enforce prudential, conduct, and
oversight requirements to all crypto market
QUESTION 73) Which of the following actors.
suggestions were given by the IMF in its “nine- ■ Establish a joint monitoring framework across
point action plan for countries to treat crypto different domestic agencies and authorities.
assets”?
■ Establish international collaborative
(1) Granting cryptocurrency legal status for arrangements to enhance supervision and
better regulation of currency. enforcement of crypto asset regulations. Hence
(2) Establishing international collaborative statement 2 is correct.
arrangements to enhance supervision and ■ Monitor the impact of crypto assets on the
enforcement of crypto asset regulations. stability of the international monetary system.
Select the correct answer using the code given ■ Strengthen global cooperation to develop
below: digital infrastructures and alternative solutions
(A) 1 only for cross-border payments and finance.

(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 QUESTION 74) With reference to Vivad Se
Vishwas Scheme, consider the following
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 statements:
EXPLANATION ) B (1) It is for a one-time settlement of contractual
disputes in which an arbitral award is under
challenge.
IMF’s "Elements of Effective Policies for Crypto
Assets" (2) It will cover all organisations where the
central government has a shareholding of 50%.
● IMF - The global lender of last resort said its
Executive Board had discussed a paper, (3) The scheme will also cover selective Private
"Elements of Effective Policies for Crypto Assets," entities for dispute resolution.
that provided "guidance to IMF member Which of the statements given above are
countries on key elements of an appropriate incorrect?
policy response to crypto assets."
(A) Only one
○ The paper sets forth a framework of nine
elements to help members develop a (B) Only two
comprehensive, consistent, and coordinated (C) All
policy response.
(D) None
● The nine elements or policy actions are:
■ Safeguard monetary sovereignty and stability EXPLANATION ) A
by strengthening monetary policy frameworks
and do not grant crypto assets official currency
or legal tender status. Hence statement 1 is Statement 1 is correct: The Ministry of Finance
incorrect. has circulated the draft scheme for a one-time
settlement of contractual disputes in which an
■ Guard against excessive capital flow volatility arbitral award is under challenge called Vivad se
and maintain effectiveness of capital flow Vishwas.
management measures.
 Test 2
It is aimed at promoting ease of doing business. The leadership of the prime minister or the chief
minister.
Statement 2 is correct: The Scheme will apply to
disputes where one of the parties is either the Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or
Government of India or its bodies like public Assembly)
sector banks, public sector financial institutions,
central public sector enterprises, Union
territories, National Capital Territory of Delhi. QUESTION 76) Which of the following
It will also cover all organisations where the statements with respect to the pardoning power
central government has a shareholding of 50% of the President is/are incorrect?
like Metro Corporation. (1) It is a discretionary power of the President.
Statement 3 is not correct - Disputes, where (2) He is bound to give reasons for his decisions.
claims are raised against procuring entities along
with some other party like the State Government (3) It is not subject to judicial review.
or private party will not be eligible under the
Select the correct answer using the code given
scheme.
below:
(A) 1 and 2 only
QUESTION 75) Which of the following is/are (B) 3 only
features of Indian parliamentary system?
(C) 2 and 3 only
(1) Majority party rule
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(2) Presence of real and nominal Executive
(3) Membership of the ministers in the
EXPLANATION ) D
legislature
Select the correct answer using the code given The Supreme Court examined the pardoning
below. power of the President under different cases and
laid down the following principles:
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(1) The petitioner for mercy has no right to an
(B) 1 and 2 only
oral hearing by the President.
(C) 2 and 3 only
(2) The President can examine the evidence
(D) 1 only afresh and take a view different from the view
taken by the court.
EXPLANATION ) A
(3) The power is to be exercised by the President
on the advice of the Union Cabinet.
o The parliamentary system is also known as the (4) The President is not bound to give reasons for
Westminster” model of government, responsible his order.
government, and cabinet government. The
Constitution establishes the parliamentary (5) The President can afford relief not only from a
system not only at the Centre but also in the sentence that he regards as unduly harsh, but
states. The features of the parliamentary system also from an evident mistake.
in India are: (6) There is no need for the Supreme Court to lay
Presence of nominal and real executives. down specific guidelines for the exercise of the
power by the President.
Majority party rule.
(7) The exercise of the power by the President is
Collective responsibility of the executive to the not subject to judicial review, except where the
legislature. Presidential decision is arbitrary, irrational, mala
Membership of the ministers in the legislature. fide or discriminatory.
 Test 2
(8) Where the earlier petition for mercy has been
rejected by the President, stay cannot be
obtained by filing another petition. QUESTION 78) In which of the following
subjects, both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
enjoy equal powers?
QUESTION 77) Which of the following (1) Introduction and passage of ordinary bills
statement(s) is/are correct about the Central and constitutional amendment bills.
Council of Ministers?
(2) Making a recommendation to the President
(1) The Council of Ministers shall be collectively for the removal of judges of the high courts.
responsible to both the Houses of the
Parliament. (3) Passing of resolution for the discontinuance
of the national emergency.
(2) The Council of Ministers ceases to hold office
when the Lok Sabha is dissolved. Select the incorrect answer using the codes given
below.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below. (A) Only one

(A) 1 only (B) Only two

(B) 2 only (C) All

(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) None

(D) Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION ) A

EXPLANATION ) D
Statement 1 is correct. Rajya Sabha enjoys equal
powers to that of the Lok Sabha in introduction
Statement 1 is incorrect. The fundamental and passage of ordinary bills, Constitutional
principle underlying the working of the amendment bills and Introduction and passage
parliamentary system of government is the of financial bills involving expenditure from the
principle of collective responsibility. Article 75 Consolidated Fund of India.
states that the council of ministers is collectively
Statement 2 is correct. Rajya Sabha enjoys equal
responsible to the Lok Sabha. This means that all
the ministers own joint responsibility to the Lok powers to that of the Lok Sabha in making a
Sabha for all their acts of omission and recommendation to the President for the
commission. They work as a team and swim or removal of Chief Justice and judges of Supreme
sink together. Court and high courts, chief election
commissioner and comptroller and auditor
Statement 2 is incorrect. In 1971, the Supreme general.
Court held that “even after the dissolution of the
Lok Sabha, the council of ministers does not Statement 3 is incorrect. A resolution for the
cease to hold office. The President cannot discontinuance of the national emergency can be
exercise the executive power without the aid and passed only by the Lok Sabha and not by the
advise of the council of ministers. Rajya Sabha.

Any exercise of executive power without the aid

and advice will be unconstitutional as being QUESTION 79) Which of the following
violative of Article 74. Again in 1974, the court statements is/are correct about the Estimates
held that “wherever the Constitution requires Committee?
the satisfaction of the President, the satisfaction
is not the personal satisfaction of the President (1) All the members if this Committee are from
but it is the satisfaction of the council of the Lok Sabha only.
ministers with whose aid and on whose advice
(2) It examines the budget estimates before they
the President exercises his powers and
are voted upon by the Parliament.
functions”.
 Test 2
Select the correct answer using the code given EXPLANATION ) C
below:
(A) 1 only
There are at least three situations where the
(B) 2 only President can exercise the powers using his/her
(C) Both 1 and 2 own discretion. The President can send back the
advice given by the Council of Ministers and ask
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 the Council to reconsider the decision. In doing
this, the President acts on his/her own
EXPLANATION ) A discretion.
The President also has veto power, by which he
The Estimates Committee has 30 members. All can withhold or refuse to give assent to the Bills
the 30 members are from the Lok Sabha only. (other than the Money Bills) passed by the
Parliament. Every Bill passed by the Parliament
The Rajya Sabha has no representation in this goes to the President for his assent before it
Committee. These members are elected by the becomes a law. The President can send the Bill
Lok Sabha every year from amongst its own back to the Parliament asking it to reconsider the
members, according to the principles of Bill.
proportional representation by means of a single
transferable vote. Thus, all the parties get due This “veto” power is limited because, if the
representation in it. The term of office is one Parliament passes the same Bill again and sends
year. A minister cannot be elected as a member it back to the President, then, the President has
of the Committee. The Chairperson of the to give assent to that Bill.
Committee is appointed by the Speaker from However, there is no mention in the Constitution
amongst its members and he is invariably from about the time limit within which the President
the ruling party. must send the Bill back for reconsideration. This
It examines the budget estimates only after they means that the President can just keep the Bill
have been voted by the Parliament and not pending with him without any time limit.
before that. Its recommendations are advisory This gives the President an informal power to use
and not binding on the ministries. the veto in a very effective manner. This is
sometimes referred to as “pocket veto”.
Then, the third kind of discretion arises more out
QUESTION 80) In which of the following
of political circumstances.
situations, the President can exercise the powers
using his/her own discretion? Formally, the President appoints the Prime
Minister. Normally, in the Parliamentary System,
(1) Sending back the advice given by the Council
a leader who has the support of the majority in
of Ministers and ask the Council to reconsider
the Lok Sabha would be appointed as the Prime
the decision.
Minister and the question of discretion would
(2) Appointment of the Prime Minister after the not arise. But imagine a situation when after an
Lok Sabha elections. election, no leader has a clear majority in the Lok
Sabha. Imagine further that after attempts to
(3) Keeping a Bill pending for an indefinite time- forge alliances, two or three leaders are claiming
period. that they have the support of the majority in the
Select the correct answer using the code given House. Now, the President has to decide whom
below: to appoint as the Prime Minister. In such a
situation, the President has to use his own
(A) 1 and 2 only discretion in judging who really may have the
support of the majority or who can actually form
(B) 2 and 3 only
and run the government.
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
 Test 2
QUESTION 81) Which one of the following It reviews the developments in the Indian
best describes the term “Funcusvermis gilmorei” economy over the previous 12 months and
sometimes seen in news? presents the economic outlook for the current
fiscal year.
(A) A newly found fossil
It also presents the current state of the Indian
(B) Name of newly discovered crocodile skeleton economy, including data on the gross domestic
(C) A newly found plant species product (GDP), inflation, employment, and trade.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
(D) None of the above
The first Economic Survey in India was presented
EXPLANATION ) A in the year 1950-51.
Up to 1964, it was presented along with the
Union Budget. From 1964 onwards, it has been
A team of paleontologists from the US have delinked from the Budget.
discovered the first Triassic-era (about 250-200
MYA) caecilian fossil that could help fill an 87-
million-year gap in the historical record of
caecilians having amphibian-like structure (no QUESTION 83) Consider the following
fossils have been found before). statements:

The fossil has been named Funcusvermis (1) The Public Accounts Committee examines
gilmorei. Hence, option A is correct. the annual receipts and disbursements of the
Union Government.
(2) The Chairman of the Committee on Public
QUESTION 82) With reference to the Undertakings is appointed from the Lok Sabha
economic survey, consider the following only.
statements: (3) Both the Estimates Committee and
(1) It is an annual document released by the Committee on Public Undertakings work under
Ministry of Finance. the expert guidance of the Comptroller and
AuditorGeneral of India.
(2) It represents the current state of the Indian
economy including trade and inflation. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
incorrect?
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (A) Only one

(A) 1 only (B) Only two

(B) 2 only (C) All

(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) None

(D) Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION ) A

EXPLANATION ) C
Statement 1 is correct. The function of the Public
Accounts Committee is to examine the annual
Economic Survey: audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor
The Economic Survey of India is an annual General of India (CAG), which are laid before the
document released by the Ministry of Finance. It Parliament by the President. The CAG submits
is usually presented in Parliament the day before three audit reports to the President, namely,
the Union Budget. Hence, statement 1 is correct. audit report on appropriation accounts, audit
report on finance accounts and audit report on
It is prepared by the Economics Division of the public undertakings. The appropriation accounts
Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) under the compare the actual expenditure with the
guidance of the Chief Economic Advisor. expendituresanctioned by the Parliament
 Test 2
through the Appropriation Act, while the finance number of these recommendations were
accounts show the annual receipts and accepted, some of them were not, like -:
disbursements of the Union Government.
To respect every democratic institutions
Statement 2 is correct. The Chairman of the enshrined in the Constitution and to avoid doing
Committee on Public Undertakings is appointed anything that may impair their dignity and
by the Speaker of Lok Sabha, from amongst its authority.
members, who are drawn from the Lok Sabha
only. Thus, the members of the committee who To abjure communalism in any form or manner.
are from the Rajya Sabha cannot be appointed as To pay taxes as is required by laws of the land.
the chairman.
o Statement 2 is correct: The committee
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Estimates recommended that no law imposing such penalty
Committee lacks the expert assistance of the or punishment for implementing fundamental
CAG which is available to the Public Accounts duties shall be called in question in any court or
Committee. In the fulfilment of the functions on the ground of infringement of any of
assigned to the Public Accounts Committee, the fundamental rights or on the ground of
committee is assisted by the CAG. Thus, the CAG repugnancy to any other provision of the
acts as a guide, friend and philosopher of the constitution. Hence, it provided for
committee. implementation of fundamental duties to be
kept out of judicial review.

QUESTION 84) Consider the following

statements regarding Sardar Swaran Singh QUESTION 85) With reference to BHASHINI,
committee, 1976 on fundamental duties: consider the following statements:
(1) All the duties recommended by the (1) Its mission is to ensure that more Indians can
committee were included under Fundamental access global content in their own languages.
duties of Indian constitution.
(2) Its aim is to provide Artificial Intelligence (AI)
(2) It provided for the implementation of and Natural Language Processing (NLP) resources
fundamental duties to be kept out of the judicial to only large enterprises.
review.
(3) It will create an ecosystem involving
Which of the following statements is/are Central/State government agencies to provide
incorrect? innovative products and services in Indian
(A) 1 only languages.

(B) 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are

incorrect?
(C) Both 1 and 2
(A) Only one
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(B) Only two
EXPLANATION ) A (C) All
(D) None
o Statement 1 is not correct: Swaran Singh
committee was constituted in 1976 to study EXPLANATION ) A
constitution and suggest amendments.
It was also referred to as Committee on About:
constitutional amendments. It formed the basis
for Part IVA i.e. Fundamental duties of Indian Digital India BHASHINI is India’s Artificial
Constitution. The committee recommended an Intelligence (AI) led language translation
eight point code of fundamental duties. While, a platform.
 Test 2
A Bhashini Platform will make Artificial Select the correct answer using the code given
Intelligence (AI) and Natural Language Processing above:
(NLP) resources available to MSMEs (Medium,
Small and Micro Enterprises), Startups and (A) Only one
Individual Innovators in the public domain. (B) Only three
Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
(C) Only five
Bhashini Platform is a part of the National
Language Translation Mission. (D) None

The mission aims to ensure that as more Indians EXPLANATION ) B

connect to the internet, they are able to access
global content in their own languages. Hence,
statement 1 is correct. Caspian Sea is bordered by Russia (northwest),
Azerbaijan (west), Iran (south), Turkmenistan
Significance:
(southeast) and Kazakhstan (northeast). Hence,
Digital Inclusion: option B is correct.
It will empower Indian citizens by connecting
them to the Digital Initiatives of the country in
their own language thereby leading to digital QUESTION 87) Consider the following
inclusion. statements with reference to the Anti-Defection
Law:
It will also encourage participation of startups.
(1) The law applies to both the Members of the
Digital Government: Parliament and State Assemblies.
Mission will create and nurture an ecosystem (2) It does not penalise political parties for
involving Central/State government agencies and encouraging or accepting defecting legislators.
start-ups, working together to develop and
deploy innovative products and services in Indian (3) The Speakers should decide on a defection
languages. Hence, statement 3 is correct. petition within three months under the law.

It is a giant step to realize the goal of Digital (4) It does not restrict a legislator from voting in
Government. line with his conscience, judgement and interests
of his electorate.
Increase the Content in Indian Languages:
Which of the statements given above are
It also aims to increase the content in Indian incorrect ?
languages on the Internet substantially in the
domains of public interest, particularly, (A) Only one
governance-and-policy, science & technology, (B) Only two
etc., thus will encourage citizens to use the
Internet in their own language. (C) All
(D) None

QUESTION 86) Which of the following EXPLANATION ) B

countries borders Caspian Sea:
(1) Russia
The Anti-defection law was passed in 1985
(2) Turkmenistan through the 52nd Amendment to the
Constitution. The law was contained in the 10th
(3) Kyrgyzstan Schedule of the Constitution. It was formulated
(4) Iran to bring stability to the Indian political system.

(5) Armenia It lays down the process by which legislators may

be disqualified on the grounds of defection by
the Presiding Officer of a legislature based on a
 Test 2
petition by any other member of the House. This (B) Only two
law applies to both the Parliament and State
Legislature. So, Statement 1 is correct. (C) All
(D) None
A legislator is deemed to have defected if he
either voluntarily gives up his party's EXPLANATION ) A
membership or disobeys the party leadership's
directives on a vote. This implies that a legislator
defying (abstaining or voting against) the party
The post of Leader of the Opposition was not
whip on any issue can lose his membership in the
mentioned in the constitution. In 1969, for the
House. But this law does not penalize the
first time, the Leader of the Opposition was
political parties for encouraging or accepting
officially recognized. Later it was given statutory
defecting legislators. So, Statement 2 is correct.
recognition after passing "The Salary and
This law does not provide a time frame for the Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in
presiding officer to decide on a defection case. Parliament Act, 1977". This act is enacted to
provide for the Salary and allowances of Leaders
There have been many instances when a Speaker of the Opposition in Parliament. So, Statements 1
has not determined the case of a defecting MLA and 2 are correct.
until the end of the legislature term. There have
also been instances of defecting MLAs becoming Both the ruling and opposition party will have
ministers while a defection petition against them their own Whip. The office of Whip is neither
has been pending before the Speaker. The court mentioned in the constitution nor the rules of
held that Speakers should decide on a defection procedure. It is a post-by-parliamentary
petition within three months, but it is not a convention. The Whip is appointed to assist the
mandatory provision mentioned in the law. So, party leader in the house and maintain the party
Statement 3 is not correct. members' attendance. He
Anti-Defection law restricts a legislator from regulates and monitors the behaviour of the
voting in line with his conscience, judgement and party members in the Parliament. It is not
interests of his electorate. Such a situation mandatory to appoint the opposition party's
obstructs the legislature's function over the chief Whip as the Opposition's Leader. So,
government by ensuring that members vote Statement 3 is not correct.
based on the decisions taken by the party
leadership and not to achieve the interest of
their constituents would like them to vote for. QUESTION 89) Which of the following
So, Statement 4 is not correct. Parliamentary Committees are represented
jointly with the members of both the House of
Parliament ?
QUESTION 88) Consider the following
(1) Committee on Office of Profit
statements with reference to the Leader of the
Opposition : (2) Committee on Public Accounts
(1) Until 1977, there were no emoluments (3) Committee on Government Assurances
attached to the position of Leader of the
Opposition. (4) Committee on Public Undertakings

(2) The Leader of the opposition in the houses of (5) Committee on Private members bills and
the Indian Parliament is a statutory post. resolutions

(3) In general, the Chief Whip of the opposition (6) Committee on Members of Parliament Local
party will be appointed as the Leader of the Area Development (MPLAD) Scheme
Opposition in the House. (7) Committee on Ethics
Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer from the code given
incorrect ? below :
(A) Only one
 Test 2
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6 only is nominated by the Speaker. The functions of
the Committee are to allot time to Private
(B) 2, 3 and 7 only Members' Bills and Resolutions, to examine
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only Private Members' Bills seeking to amend the
Constitution before their introduction in Lok
(D) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only Sabha, to examine all private members' Bills after
they are introduced and before they are taken up
EXPLANATION ) C for consideration in the House.
Committee on Members of Parliament Local Area
Joint Committee on Offices of Profit: Development (MPLAD) Scheme:

This committee examines the composition and The Committee on Members of Parliament Local
character of committees and other bodies Area Development Scheme is an ad hoc
appointed by the Central, state and union Committee consisting of 24 Members who are
territory governments and recommends whether nominated by the Speaker from amongst the
persons holding these offices should be Members of the Lok Sabha to serve the
disqualified from being elected as members of Committee for a period not exceeding one year.
Parliament or not. It comprises 15 members (10 The Committee is reconstituted by the Speaker
from Lok Sabha and 5 from Rajya Sabha). every year.

Public Accounts Committee : Committee on Ethics:

This committee was set up first in 1921 under The Ethics Committee of Rajya Sabha was
the provisions of the Government of India Act of constituted by the Chairman, Rajya Sabha on 4
1919 and has since been in existence. At present, March 1997, with the mandate to oversee the
it consists of 22 members (15 from the Lok Sabha moral and ethical conduct of members and to
and 7 from the Rajya Sabha). examine cases referred to it with reference to
ethical and other misconduct of members.
Committee on Government Assurances:
For each newly elected Lok Sabha(since the 13th
The committee was constituted in 1953, and it Lok Sabha), the Ethics Committee has been
examines the assurances, promises and established. The Committee investigates each
undertakings given by ministers from time to allegation of unethical behaviour by a Lok Sabha
time on the floor of the House and reports on member that the Speaker refers to and makes
the extent to which they have been carried any recommendations it may deem fit.
through.
In the Lok Sabha, it consists of 15 members, and
in the Rajya Sabha, it consists of 10 members. QUESTION 90) Which of the following
Thus, it is not represented jointly by both the statement(s) is/are correct regarding the 42nd
houses of the Parliament. Amendment Act of 1976?
Committee on Public Undertakings: (1) It made, for the first time, a distinction
between Union and State laws based on their
This committee was created in 1964 on the
constitutionality.
recommendation of the Krishna Menon
Committee. (2) It immunized the Constitutional Amendment
Acts from being challenged in a court of law.
Originally, it had 15 members (10 from the Lok
Sabha and 5 from the Rajya Sabha). However, in (3) It abolished the fundamental right to
1974, its membership was raised to 22 (15 from property under Article 19 (1) (f) and Article 31
the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha). (2).
Committee on Private members bills and Select the correct answer using the codes given
resolutions: below:
This Committee consists of 15 members and the (A) Only one
Deputy Speaker is its Chairman. The Committee
(B) Only two
 Test 2
(C) All (B) 1 and 2 only
(D) None (C) 1 and 3 only

EXPLANATION ) B (D) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION ) D
Statement 1 is correct. The 42nd Amendment Act
of 1976 made, for the first time, a distinction
between Union and State laws, for the purpose o 86th Amendment:
of challenging their constitutionality on the o Insertion of new Article 21A- After article 21 of
ground of contravention of any provision of the the Constitution, the following article shall be
Constitution. In this context, it provided, broadly, inserted, namely:
(A) that a High Court could not pronounce invalid o Right to education: "21A. The State shall
any central law, including subordinate legislation provide free and compulsory education to all
under such law, on the ground of children of the age of six to fourteen years in
unconstitutionality; such manner as the State may, by law,
(B) that the Supreme Court could not in its determine".
jurisdiction under Art 32, pronounce a state law o Substitution of new article for article 45. - For
as unconstitutional, unless a central law has been article 45 of the Constitution, the following
challenged I such proceeding. article shall be substituted, namely: Provision for
Statement 2 is correct. By amending Article 368, early childhood care and education to children
it was provided that a law, which is described as below the age of six years. "45.
a Constitutional Amendment Act, would be The State shall endeavour to provide early
completely immune from challenge in a court of childhood care and education for all children
law, whether on a procedural or a substantive until they complete the age of six years".
ground.
o Amendment of article 51A. In article 51A of the
Statement 3 is incorrect. The 44th Amendment Constitution, after clause , the following clause
Act of 1978 abolished the right to property as a shall be added, namely:
Fundamental Right by repealing Article 19 (1)(f)
and Article 31 from Part III. Instead, the Act "who is a parent or guardian to provide
inserted a new Article 300A in Part XII under the opportunities for education to his child or, as the
heading “Right to Property”. It provides that no case may be, ward between the age of six and
person shall be deprived of his property except fourteen years".
by authority of law. Thus, the right to property o Thus it has bearing on part III, IV and IVA of the
still remains a legal right or a constitutional right, constitution.
though no longer a fundamental right. It is not a
part of the basic structure of the Constitution.

QUESTION 92) The 91st amendment of the

Constitution is associated with
QUESTION 91) The 86th constitutional
amendment inserted/ changed articles in which (1) Limiting the size of the Council of Ministers.
of the following parts of the constitution?
(2) Barring the appointment of a person
(1) Part III disqualified under the anti-defection law as a
minister.
(2) Part V
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
(3) Part IV-A correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given (A) 1 only
below.
(B) 2 only
(A) 1 only
 Test 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (2) He allocates and reshuffles various portfolios
among the ministers.
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(3) He presides over the meetings of the council
EXPLANATION ) C of ministers.
Which of the statements given above are
Both the provisions are associated with the 91st incorrect?
Amendment Act of 2003. The Act has made (A) Only one
provisions to limit the size of Council of
Ministers, to debar defectors from holding public (B) Only two
offices, and to strengthen the anti-defection law. (C) All
Few main provisions of the 91st Amendment Act (D) None
of 2003 are:
(1) The total number of ministers, including the EXPLANATION ) A
Prime Minister, in the Central Council of
Ministers, shall not exceed 15 per cent of the
total strength of the Lok Sabha (Article 75). Statement 1 is incorrect. The Prime Minister
cannot appoint a minister. The Prime Minister
(2) A member of either House of Parliament recommends persons who can be appointed as
belonging to any political party who is ministers by the President. The President can
disqualified on the ground of defection shall also appoint only those persons as ministers who are
be disqualified to be appointed as a minister recommended by the Prime Minister.
(Article 75).
Statement 2 is correct. The Prime Minister
(3) The total number of ministers, including the allocates and reshuffles various portfolios among
Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a the ministers.
state shall not exceed 15 per cent of the total
strength of the Legislative Assembly of that state. Statement 3 is correct. The Prime Minister
But, the number of ministers, including the Chief presides over the meetings of the council of
Minister, in a state shall not be less than 12 ministers and influences its decisions.
(Article 164).
(4) A member of either House of a state
legislature belonging to any political party who is
QUESTION 94) Consider the following
statements regarding fundamental duties as
disqualified on the ground of defection shall also
provided under Indian Constitution:
be disqualified to be appointed as a minister
(Article 164). (1) Constitution authorizes Parliament for
enforcement of the fundamental duties.
(5) A member of either House of Parliament or
either House of a State Legislature belonging to (2) While some fundamental duties are
any political party who is disqualified on the applicable to citizens, few are applicable to
ground of defection shall also be disqualified to foreigners and private organizations.
hold any remunerative political post.
Which of the statements given above is/are
(6) The provision of the Tenth Schedule (anti- correct?
defection law) pertaining to exemption from
disqualification in case of a split by one-third (A) 1 only
members of legislature party has been deleted. (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
QUESTION 93) With reference to the powers (D) Neither 1 nor 2
and functions of the Prime Minister, consider the
following statements: EXPLANATION ) D
(1) He appoints other ministers.
 Test 2
o Statement 1 is not correct: the Constitution restrict or abrogate the right guaranteed under
doesn”t prescribe any measures or authority for that clause.
enforcing fundamental duties. It is incumbent on
all organs of State i.e. legislature, executive, The state shall not, in granting aid to educational
judiciary and society at large to nurture and institutions, discriminate against any educational
enforce fundamental duties. institution on the ground that it is under the
management of a minority, whether based on
o Statement 2 is not correct: All the provisions of religion or language.
fundamental duties are applicable to only
citizens. o Statement 2 is not correct. According to Article
29 any section of the citizens residing in the
territory of India or any part thereof having a
distinct language, script or culture of its own
QUESTION 95) With reference to the Cultural shall have the right to conserve the same (29 (1)
and Educational Rights of minorities, considerthe ). Further, no citizen shall be denied admission
following statements: into any educational institution maintained by
(1) Only the religious and linguistic minorities the State or receiving aid out of State funds on
have the right to establish and administer grounds only of religion, race, caste,language or
educational institutions. any of them. (29 (2) ).

(2) Only the rights of religious and linguistic o The first provision protects the right of a group
minorities have been constitutionally while the second provision guarantees the right
safeguarded to preserve their distinct culture. of a citizen as an individual irrespective of the
community to which he belongs.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? o Article 29 grants protection to both religious
minorities as well as linguistic minorities.
(A) 1 only However, the Supreme Court held that the scope
of this article is not necessarily restricted to
(B) 2 only
minorities only, as it is commonly assumed to be.
(C) Both 1 and 2 This is because of the use of words section of
citizens” in the Article that include minorities as
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 well as majority.
EXPLANATION ) A
QUESTION 96) With reference to the Veto
o Statement 1 is correct: Article 30 grants the power of Indian President, consider the following
rights to the minorities to establish and statements:
administer educational institutions. The (1) The suspensive veto of the President can be
protection under Article 30 is confined only to overridden by a re-passage of the bill with the
religious and linguistic minorities and not to any simple majority.
sections of citizens.
(2) The President does not possess the power of
o Article 30: Right of minorities to establish and suspensive veto in the case of money bills and
administer educational institutions. private member”s bill.
All minorities, whether based on religion or Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
language, shall have the right to establish and correct?
administer educational institutions of their
choice(1A) In making any law providing for the (A) 1 only
compulsory acquisition of any property of an
(B) 2 only
educational institution established and
administered by a minority, referred to in clause (C) Both 1 and 2
(1) , the State shall ensure that the amount fixed
by or determined under such law for the (D) Neither 1 nor 2
acquisition of such property is such as would not EXPLANATION ) A
 Test 2
(A) Only one
Statement 1 is correct. The President exercises (B) Only two
suspensive veto when he returns a bill for
(C) All
reconsideration of the Parliament. However, if
the bill is passed again by the Parliament with or (D) None
without amendments and again presented to the
President, it is obligatory for the President to EXPLANATION ) C
give his assent to the bill. This means that the
presidential veto is overridden by a re-passage of
the bill by the same ordinary majority. The State Emblem is an adaptation of the Lion
Capital of Asoka at Sarnath. In the original, four
Statement 2 is incorrect. The President of India
lions are mounted back to back on a circular
does not possess Suspensive Veto in case of
abacus, which rests on a bell-shaped lotus. The
money bills. The President can either give his
frieze of the abacus has sculptures in high relief
assent to a money bill or withhold his assent to a
of an elephant, a galloping horse, a bull and a
money bill but cannot return it for the
lion separated by intervening Dharma Chakras.
reconsideration of the Parliament. Normally, the
So, Statement 1 is correct.
President gives his assent to money bill as it is
introduced in the Parliament with his previous The profile of the Lion Capital shows three lions
permission. Absolute Veto refers to the power of mounted on the abacus with a Dharma Chakra in
the President to withhold his assent to a bill the center, a bull on the right and a galloping
passed by the Parliament. The bill then ends and horse on the left, and outlines of Dharma
does not become an act. Usually, this veto is Chakras on the extreme right and left were
exercised in the following two cases: adopted as the State Emblem of India on January
26, 1950. So, Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
(A) With respect to private members” bills (i.e.
bills introduced by any member of Parliament The motto Satyameva Jayate, which means
who is not a minister); and 'Truth Alone Triumphs', written in Devanagari
script below the profile of the Lion Capital, is part
(B) With respect to the government bills when
of the State Emblem of India. So, Statement 4 is
the cabinet resigns (after the passage of the bills
correct.
but before the assent by the President) and the
new cabinet advises the President not to give his
assent to such bills.
QUESTION 98) We adopted the post of the
Vice President based on the model of the United
States of America, but how does our model differ
QUESTION 97) The Prime Minister recently
from that model?
unveiled the National Emblem cast on the roof of
the New Parliament Building. Which of the (1) The term of the Vice President of India differs
following statements are correct regarding the from the term of the Vice President of the United
National Emblem of India ? States of America.
(1) It is an adaptation of the Lion Capital of Asoka (2) The Vice President of India is indirectly
at Sarnath. elected, while the Vice President of the United
States of America is directly elected.
(2) It was adopted on January 26, 1950.
(3) In the United States of America, when the
(3) The abacus of the emblem has a Dharma
office of President falls vacant, the Vice President
Chakra in the Centre, a galloping horse on the
becomes President and remains President for the
left and a bull on the right.
remaining term of President.
(4) The motto ‘Satyameva Jayate’ also forms part
Select the incorrect answer using the code given
of the emblem.
below :
Select the correct answer using the code given
(A) Only one
below :
(B) Only two
 Test 2
(C) All Article 64- The Vice-President shall be ex-officio
Chairman of the Council of States and shall not
(D) None hold any other office of profit.
EXPLANATION ) A Article 65- The Vice-President to act as President
or to discharge his functions during casual
vacancies in the office, or during the absence, of
The vice president of India holds office for five the President.
years and can be re-elected any number of times.
Article 66- The Vice-President shall be elected by
However, the office may be terminated earlier by the members of an electoral college consisting of
death, resignation, or removal. the members of both Houses of Parliament. The
Vice-President shall not be a member of either
The vice president of the United States of
House of Parliament or a House of the
America holds office for four years and can be re-
Legislature of any State.
elected any number of times (22nd Amendment
of the US constitution). So, Statement 1 is Article 67- The Vice-President shall hold office for
correct. five years from the date of his appointment.
The Vice-President of India, like the president, is Article 68- An election to fill a vacancy created
elected not directly by the people but indirectly. because of the completion of the term of office
He is elected by the members of an electoral of Vice-President shall be completed before the
college consisting of the members of both expiry of the term. The election to fill a vacancy
Houses of Parliament. created because of the death, resignation, or
removal of Vice-President shall be held as soon
The vice president of the United States of
as possible.
America is indirectly elected together with the
president by the people of the United States Article 69- Every Vice-President shall make an
through the Electoral College. So, Statement 2 is Oath or Affirmation upon entering his office
not correct. before the President, or some person appointed
on that behalf by him.
When the office of the President in the United
States becomes vacant, the vice president Article 70- Discharge of President’s functions in
assumes the role and serves out the remaining of other contingencies
the previous President's term as President.
Article 71- Matters relating to, or connected
In contrast, The Indian Vice-President does not with, the election of a president or vice-
assume the office of the President when it falls president.
vacant for the remaining term. He merely serves
as an acting President until the new President Powers And Functions
assumes charge. So, Statement 3 is correct. Acts as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya
VICE PRESIDENT Sabha.

About Acts as President when a vacancy occurs in the

office of the President due to his resignation,
Article 63 of the Indian Constitution mentions removal, and death or otherwise.
the post of Vice-President.
He can act as President only for a maximum
The Constitutional Articles from 63-73 deal with period of six months, within which a new
the qualifications, election, and removal of the President has to be elected.
Vice-President of India.
Constitutional Provisions
QUESTION 99) consider the following
Article 63 - There shall be a Vice President of statements about 73rd Amendment Act of 1992 :
India.
(1) It has added the Part IX and the Eleventh
Schedule to the Constitution of India.
 Test 2
(2) It has brought panchayati raj institutions (B) Only two
under the purview of the justiciable part of the
Constitution. (C) All
(D) None
Which of the statements given above is
incorrect? EXPLANATION ) A
(A) 1 only
(B) None Statement 1 is not correct : The Vice-President of
(C) 1 and 2 only India is the second highest constitutional office in
the country.
(D) 2 only
● He serves for a five-year term, but can
EXPLANATION ) B continue to be in office, irrespective of the expiry
of the term, until the successor assumes office.
● The Vice-President is elected by an electoral
Statement 1 is correct. The73rd Constitutional
college consisting of members of both Houses of
Amendment Act, 1992 has added a new Part IX Parliament, in accordance with the system of
and a new Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution proportional representation by means of the
of India. This part is entitled as “The Panchayats” single transferable vote and the voting in such
and consists of provisions from Articles 243 to election is by secret ballot(Article 66 (1)).
243 O.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct : The Election
Statement 2 is correct. The73rd Constitutional Commission of India conducts the election to the
Amendment Act, 1992 gives aconstitutional office of the Vice-President.
status to the panchayati raj institutions. It has
brought them under the purview of the ● The Election Commission is mandated to
justiciable part of the Constitution. In other ensure that the election to the office of the
words, the state governments are under VicePresident of India must be a free and fair
constitutional obligation to adopt the new election and the Commission is taking all
panchayati raj system in accordance with the necessary steps for discharging its constitutional
provisions of the act. Consequently, neither the responsibility.
formation of panchayats nor the holding of
elections at regular intervals depend on the will ● All doubts and disputes arising in connection
of the state government any more. with the election of the Vice-President are
enquired into and decided by the Supreme Court
of India whose decision is final.

QUESTION 100) With reference to Vice ■ A petition challenging the election of the Vice-
President of India , consider the following President is heard by a five-judge bench of the
statements: Supreme Court of India.

(1) The Vice-President of India is elected by an

electoral college consisting of members of Rajya
Sabha only .
(2) The Election Commission of India conducts
the election to the office of the Vice-President.
(3) All doubts and disputes arising in connection
with the election of the Vice-President are
enquired by the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are
incorrect?
(A) Only one