Obstetrics Multiple-Choice Questions (MCQs)**

1.Maternal Physiology

1. What is the primary source of increased oxygen demand during pregnancy?

A) Increased maternal metabolism
B) Fetal oxygen consumption
C) Placental oxygen use
D) Uterine muscle growth

**Correct Answer: A**

2. How does cardiac output change during pregnancy?
A) Decreases by 10%
B) Remains unchanged
C) Increases by 30-50%
D) Increases by 5-10%

**Correct Answer: C**

3. What happens to maternal blood volume during pregnancy?
A) Decreases due to hemodilution
B) Increases by 40-50%
C) Remains stable

D) Increases by 10%
**Correct Answer: B**
4. Which hormone is primarily responsible for the relaxation of smooth muscles during
pregnancy?
A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone

C) Oxytocin
D) Prolactin
**Correct Answer: B**
5. How does the maternal respiratory system adapt to pregnancy?
A) Tidal volume decreases

B) Respiratory rate increases significantly

C) Minute ventilation increases by 40%
D) Residual volume increases
**Correct Answer: C**
2. Minor Disorders During Pregnancy (Vomiting, Hyperemesis Gravidarum, Piles, etc.)
6. What is the most common cause of nausea and vomiting in early pregnancy?

A) Increased progesterone levels

B) Elevated human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
C) Decreased gastric motility
D) Iron deficiency
**Correct Answer: B**

7. Hyperemesis gravidarum is characterized by:

A) Mild nausea with occasional vomiting
B) Severe vomiting leading to dehydration and weight loss
C) Vomiting only in the third trimester
D) Nausea without vomiting

**Correct Answer: B**

8. What is a common treatment for hyperemesis gravidarum?

A) High-dose iron supplements
B) Intravenous fluids and antiemetics

C) Increased oral intake of spicy foods

D) Bed rest without medication
**Correct Answer: B**
9. What is a contributing factor to the development of hemorrhoids (piles) during
pregnancy?

A) Decreased venous pressure

B) Increased intra-abdominal pressure
C) Reduced progesterone levels
D) Increased physical activity
**Correct Answer: B**

10. Which dietary change can help manage constipation and reduce the risk of piles in
pregnancy?
A) Increased intake of processed foods
B) Reduced fluid intake
C) High-fiber diet

D) Low-protein diet
**Correct Answer: C**

### 3. Prenatal Diagnosis

11. What is the primary purpose of prenatal diagnosis?

A) To determine the baby’s gender

B) To identify genetic or structural abnormalities in the fetus
C) To monitor maternal weight gain
D) To assess maternal blood pressure
**Correct Answer: B**

12. Which test is commonly used to screen for Down syndrome in the first trimester?
A) Amniocentesis
 B) Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
C) Nuchal translucency ultrasound with blood tests
D) Glucose tolerance test

**Correct Answer: C**

13. At what gestational age is amniocentesis typically performed?

A) 6-8 weeks
B) 10-12 weeks
C) 15-20 weeks

D) 30-32 weeks
**Correct Answer: C**

14. What is a potential risk of invasive prenatal diagnostic procedures like CVS?
A) Maternal weight gain

B) Risk of miscarriage
C) Increased maternal blood pressure
D) Fetal growth acceleration
**Correct Answer: B**

15. Which condition can be diagnosed using a cell-free fetal DNA test?

A) Gestational diabetes
B) Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)
C) Maternal hypertension
D) Preterm labor
**Correct Answer: B**
### 4. Hypertensive Disorder During Pregnancy (Classification, Pregnancy Induced
Hypertension, Diagnosis, Treatment)

16. What is the hallmark feature of preeclampsia?

A) Elevated blood sugar
B) Hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation
C) Decreased blood pressure
D) Increased fetal movement
**Correct Answer: B**

17. Which of the following is a severe feature of preeclampsia?

A) Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
B) Blood pressure ≥160/110 mmHg with organ dysfunction
C) Mild proteinuria

D) Normal liver function tests

**Correct Answer: B**

18. What is the definitive treatment for preeclampsia?

A) Antihypertensive medication
B) Bed rest
C) Delivery of the baby
D) Increased fluid intake
**Correct Answer: C**

19. Which antihypertensive drug is commonly used in pregnancy for hypertensive

disorders?
A) ACE inhibitors
B) Methyldopa
 C) Diuretics
D) Beta-blockers (non-selective)
**Correct Answer: B**

20. How is gestational hypertension different from preeclampsia?

A) Gestational hypertension includes proteinuria
B) Gestational hypertension occurs before 20 weeks
C) Gestational hypertension lacks proteinuria or organ dysfunction
D) Gestational hypertension always progresses to eclampsia

**Correct Answer: C**

### 5. Assessment of the Fetal Well-Being (Antepartum, Intrapartum, and Postpartum)

21. What is the purpose of a non-stress test (NST) in assessing fetal well-being?

A) To measure maternal blood pressure

B) To monitor fetal heart rate in response to fetal movements
C) To assess maternal glucose levels
D) To check for uterine contractions
**Correct Answer: B**

22. During labor, what does a fetal scalp pH test assess?

A) Fetal oxygenation status
B) Maternal hydration
C) Fetal weight
D) Uterine contraction strength

**Correct Answer: A**

23. What is a normal fetal heart rate range during labor?
A) 60-80 beats per minute
B) 110-160 beats per minute

C) 180-200 beats per minute

D) 90-100 beats per minute
**Correct Answer: B**

24. Which postpartum assessment is critical for evaluating fetal well-being?

A) Apgar score at 1 and 5 minutes

B) Maternal blood pressure monitoring

C) Uterine involution rate
D) Maternal weight loss
**Correct Answer: A**

25. What does a biophysical profile (BPP) assess in the antepartum period?
A) Maternal blood sugar levels
B) Fetal breathing, movement, tone, amniotic fluid, and heart rate
C) Maternal weight gain
D) Uterine size
**Correct Answer: B**

### 6. Ante Partum Hemorrhage: Placenta Previa (Definition, Etiology, Types, Diagnosis,
Complications, Treatment)
26. What is the definition of placenta previa?
A) Placenta detaches from the uterine wall before delivery
B) Placenta implants over or near the internal cervical os

C) Placenta grows into the uterine muscle

D) Placenta is located in the upper uterine segment
**Correct Answer: B**
27. What is a common symptom of placenta previa?
A) Severe abdominal pain

B) Painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester

C) Increased fetal movements
D) Maternal fever
**Correct Answer: B**

28. Which type of placenta previa completely covers the internal cervical os?

A) Marginal placenta previa

B) Partial placenta previa
C) Complete placenta previa
D) Low-lying placenta previa
**Correct Answer: C**

29. What is a major complication of placenta previa?

A) Fetal macrosomia
B) Maternal hemorrhage leading to shock
C) Gestational diabetes
D) Preterm labor without bleeding

**Correct Answer: B**

30. What is the definitive treatment for symptomatic placenta previa at term?
A) Bed rest and monitoring
B) Cesarean section

C) Vaginal delivery
D) Tocolytic therapy
**Correct Answer: B**
### 7. Abruption Placenta and Vasa Previa (Definition, Etiology, Types, Diagnosis,
Complications, Treatment)

31. What is the primary characteristic of placental abruption?

A) Painless vaginal bleeding
B) Premature separation of a normally implanted placenta
C) Placenta covering the cervical os
D) Increased amniotic fluid
**Correct Answer: B**

32. What is a common risk factor for placental abruption?

A) Maternal hypotension
B) Chronic hypertension or trauma

C) Low maternal age

D) High parity
**Correct Answer: B**

33. What is vasa previa?

A) Fetal blood vessels cross the cervical os
B) Placenta detaches prematurely
C) Placenta implants in the lower uterine segment
D) Uterine rupture during labor
**Correct Answer: A**
34. What is a major complication of vasa previa?
A) Maternal anemia
B) Fetal exsanguination during membrane rupture

C) Gestational diabetes
D) Maternal infection
**Correct Answer: B**

35. How is placental abruption typically diagnosed?

A) Ultrasound showing a low-lying placenta

B) Clinical findings of painful bleeding and uterine tenderness

C) Routine blood tests
D) Fetal heart rate monitoring alone
**Correct Answer: B**
### 8. Multiple Pregnancy (Diagnosis, Complications, Treatment)

36. How is a multiple pregnancy typically diagnosed?

A) Maternal weight gain alone
B) Ultrasound showing more than one fetus
C) Elevated maternal blood pressure
D) Increased fetal movements felt by the mother

**Correct Answer: B**

37. What is a common complication of twin pregnancies?

A) Reduced risk of preterm labor
B) Increased risk of preterm delivery

C) Decreased risk of gestational diabetes

D) Lower incidence of anemia
**Correct Answer: B**
38. What is twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS)?
A) Both twins share the same placenta with no complications

B) Unequal sharing of blood between twins via placental vessels

C) Twins have separate placentas
D) Twins develop at the same rate
**Correct Answer: B**

39. What is a recommended treatment for preterm labor risk in multiple pregnancies?

A) Bed rest and monitoring

B) Immediate cesarean section
C) High-dose antibiotics
D) Increased physical activity
**Correct Answer: A**

40. What is the most common type of twinning?

A) Monozygotic twins
B) Dizygotic twins
C) Conjoined twins
D) Monoamniotic twins

**Correct Answer: B**

### 9. IUGR (Definition, Etiology, Types, Diagnosis, Complications, Treatment)
41. What does IUGR stand for?
A) Intrauterine Growth Restriction
B) Intrauterine Gestational Risk

C) Intrauterine Growth Rate

D) Intrauterine Genetic Restriction
**Correct Answer: A**
42. What is a common cause of IUGR?
A) Maternal overnutrition

B) Placental insufficiency
C) Excessive amniotic fluid
D) Maternal low blood pressure
**Correct Answer: B**

43. What type of IUGR is associated with chronic maternal malnutrition?

A) Symmetric IUGR
B) Asymmetric IUGR
C) Transient IUGR
D) Idiopathic IUGR
**Correct Answer: A**

44. How is IUGR typically diagnosed?

A) Maternal weight gain monitoring
B) Ultrasound showing fetal growth below the 10th percentile
C) Routine blood tests
D) Fetal heart rate monitoring alone

**Correct Answer: B**

45. What is a potential complication of IUGR?

A) Fetal macrosomia
B) Increased risk of perinatal mortality

C) Reduced risk of preterm labor

D) Maternal hypertension
**Correct Answer: B**
### 10. Maternal Mortality

46. What is the definition of maternal mortality?

A) Death of a woman during pregnancy or within 42 days postpartum

B) Death of a woman during labor only
C) Death of a fetus during pregnancy
D) Death of a woman due to unrelated causes during pregnancy
**Correct Answer: A**

47. What is a leading cause of maternal mortality worldwide?

A) Gestational diabetes
B) Postpartum hemorrhage
C) Fetal distress
D) Preterm labor

**Correct Answer: B**

48. What is a preventable cause of maternal mortality?

A) Genetic disorders
B) Severe preeclampsia if untreated
C) Fetal anomalies

D) Maternal age
**Correct Answer: B**
49. Which region has the highest maternal mortality rates?
A) North America
B) Sub-Saharan Africa

C) Western Europe
D) Australia
**Correct Answer: B**
50. What intervention can reduce maternal mortality due to hemorrhage?
A) Routine cesarean sections

B) Access to oxytocin and blood transfusions

C) Increased maternal weight gain
D) Reduced prenatal visits
**Correct Answer: B**
### 11. Premature Rupture of Membrane & Prematurity (Definition, Etiology, Diagnosis,
Treatment)

51. What is the definition of premature rupture of membranes (PROM)?

A) Rupture of membranes after 40 weeks
B) Rupture of membranes before the onset of labor
C) Rupture of membranes during active labor

D) Rupture of membranes with no amniotic fluid loss

**Correct Answer: B**
52. What is a common cause of preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM)?
A) Maternal overhydration
B) Infection or inflammation
C) Excessive fetal movement
D) High maternal blood pressure
**Correct Answer: B**
53. How is PROM typically diagnosed?
A) Ultrasound showing increased amniotic fluid
B) Sterile speculum exam showing pooling of fluid

C) Maternal blood tests

D) Fetal heart rate monitoring
**Correct Answer: B**
54. What is a treatment option for PPROM before 34 weeks to improve fetal outcomes?
A) Immediate delivery

B) Administration of corticosteroids
C) High-dose antibiotics
D) Bed rest without medication
**Correct Answer: B**

55. What is a complication of prematurity in the neonate?

A) Increased birth weight

B) Respiratory distress syndrome
C) Reduced risk of infection
D) Faster developmental milestones
**Correct Answer: B**

### 12. Postmaturity (Definition, Etiology, Diagnosis, Complications, Treatment)

56. What is the definition of postmaturity?

A) Delivery before 37 weeks
B) Pregnancy continuing beyond 42 weeks
C) Delivery at 40 weeks

D) Pregnancy ending at 38 weeks

**Correct Answer: B**
57. What is a potential cause of postmaturity?
A) Maternal diabetes
B) Anencephaly in the fetus

C) Preterm labor
D) Maternal hypertension
**Correct Answer: B**
58. How is postmaturity diagnosed?
A) Ultrasound showing reduced fetal growth

B) Gestational age calculation beyond 42 weeks

C) Maternal weight gain monitoring
D) Routine blood tests
**Correct Answer: B**

59. What is a complication of postmaturity?

A) Increased amniotic fluid

B) Meconium aspiration syndrome
C) Reduced risk of stillbirth
D) Fetal macrosomia only
**Correct Answer: B**

60. What is the typical treatment for postmaturity?

A) Expectant management
B) Induction of labor
C) Bed rest
D) Increased fluid intake

**Correct Answer: B**

### 13. RH Incompatibility (Definition, Pathogenesis, Diagnosis, Complications,
Treatment)

61. What is Rh incompatibility?

A) Mother is Rh-positive, fetus is Rh-negative
B) Mother is Rh-negative, fetus is Rh-positive
C) Both mother and fetus are Rh-positive
D) Both mother and fetus are Rh-negative
**Correct Answer: B**

62. What is the pathogenesis of Rh incompatibility?

A) Maternal antibodies attack fetal red blood cells
B) Fetal antibodies attack maternal red blood cells

C) Maternal blood pressure increases

D) Fetal growth accelerates
**Correct Answer: A**

63. How is Rh incompatibility diagnosed?

A) Maternal blood pressure monitoring
B) Maternal antibody screening (indirect Coombs test)
C) Fetal heart rate monitoring
D) Routine ultrasound
**Correct Answer: B**
64. What is a complication of untreated Rh incompatibility?
A) Maternal hypertension
B) Fetal hydrops and anemia

C) Gestational diabetes
D) Preterm labor
**Correct Answer: B**

65. What is the primary treatment to prevent Rh sensitization?

A) Administration of Rh immunoglobulin (RhoGAM)

B) Immediate delivery
C) High-dose antibiotics
D) Bed rest
**Correct Answer: A**
### 14. Intrauterine Fetal Death (Definition, Etiology, Diagnosis, Complications,
Treatment)
66. What is the definition of intrauterine fetal death (IUFD)?
A) Fetal death before 20 weeks
B) Fetal death after 20 weeks of gestation
C) Fetal death during labor
D) Fetal death within 24 hours postpartum
**Correct Answer: B**

67. What is a common cause of IUFD?

A) Maternal overnutrition
B) Placental abruption

C) Excessive amniotic fluid

D) Maternal low blood pressure
**Correct Answer: B**
68. How is IUFD typically diagnosed?
A) Ultrasound showing absence of fetal heart activity

B) Maternal weight gain monitoring

C) Routine blood tests
D) Fetal movement counting
**Correct Answer: A**

69. What is a potential complication of IUFD if not managed?

A) Maternal hypertension
B) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
C) Gestational diabetes
D) Preterm labor
**Correct Answer: B**

70. What is the typical management of IUFD?

A) Expectant management for several weeks
B) Induction of labor or delivery
C) Bed rest
D) Increased fluid intake

**Correct Answer: B**

### 15. Anemia & Other Hematological Disorder During Pregnancy (Definition, Etiology,
Types, Diagnosis, Complications, Treatment)

71. What is the most common type of anemia in pregnancy?

A) Iron deficiency anemia
B) Sickle cell anemia
C) Thalassemia
D) Aplastic anemia
**Correct Answer: A**

72. What is a common cause of iron deficiency anemia in pregnancy?

A) Increased iron absorption
B) Increased demand due to fetal growth
C) Reduced maternal blood volume

D) Excessive iron intake

**Correct Answer: B**

73. How is anemia in pregnancy typically diagnosed?

A) Ultrasound
B) Hemoglobin levels below 11 g/dL
C) Maternal weight gain monitoring
D) Fetal heart rate monitoring
**Correct Answer: B**

74. What is a complication of severe anemia in pregnancy?

A) Increased fetal growth

B) Increased risk of preterm delivery
C) Reduced risk of infection
 D) Maternal weight gain
**Correct Answer: B**

75. What is the treatment for iron deficiency anemia in pregnancy?

A) Blood transfusion for all cases
B) Oral iron supplementation
C) High-dose antibiotics
D) Bed rest
**Correct Answer: B**

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### 16. Abnormalities in the Amniotic Fluid (Definition, Etiology, Types, Diagnosis,
Complications, Treatment)

76. What is polyhydramnios?

A) Reduced amniotic fluid volume
B) Excessive amniotic fluid volume
C) Normal amniotic fluid volume
D) Absence of amniotic fluid
**Correct Answer: B**

77. What is a common cause of oligohydramnios?

A) Fetal renal agenesis
B) Maternal overhydration

C) Excessive fetal swallowing

D) Maternal diabetes
**Correct Answer: A**
78. How is amniotic fluid volume typically assessed?
A) Maternal weight gain

B) Ultrasound measurement of amniotic fluid index (AFI)

C) Fetal heart rate monitoring
D) Routine blood tests
**Correct Answer: B**

79. What is a complication of severe polyhydramnios?

A) Reduced risk of preterm labor

B) Increased risk of preterm labor and cord prolapse
C) Fetal macrosomia
D) Maternal anemia
**Correct Answer: B**

80. What is a treatment option for severe oligohydramnios?

A) Amnioinfusion in some cases
B) Immediate cesarean section
C) High-dose antibiotics
D) Bed rest without intervention

**Correct Answer: A**

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### 17. Diabetes in Pregnancy (Definition, Classification, Diagnosis, Complications,

Treatment)

81. What is gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM)?

 A) Diabetes diagnosed before pregnancy
B) Glucose intolerance first diagnosed during pregnancy
C) Diabetes that resolves before delivery

D) Diabetes caused by fetal growth

**Correct Answer: B**

82. What is a common risk factor for gestational diabetes?

A) Maternal underweight
B) Family history of diabetes

C) Low maternal age

D) Reduced physical activity
**Correct Answer: B**

83. How is gestational diabetes typically diagnosed?

A) Ultrasound
B) Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)
C) Fetal heart rate monitoring
D) Maternal weight gain
**Correct Answer: B**

84. What is a complication of uncontrolled gestational diabetes?

A) Reduced fetal growth
B) Fetal macrosomia and shoulder dystocia
C) Decreased risk of preterm labor
D) Maternal weight loss

**Correct Answer: B**

85. What is the first-line treatment for gestational diabetes?

 A) Insulin therapy
B) Dietary modification and exercise
C) High-dose antibiotics

D) Bed rest
**Correct Answer: B**

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### 18. Cardiac Disease During Pregnancy (Types, Diagnosis, Complications,

Treatment)

86. What is the most common cardiac condition in pregnancy?

A) Rheumatic heart disease
B) Congenital heart disease

C) Peripartum cardiomyopathy
D) Coronary artery disease
**Correct Answer: A**

87. How is cardiac disease in pregnancy typically diagnosed?

A) Ultrasound
B) Echocardiogram and clinical symptoms
C) Fetal heart rate monitoring
D) Routine blood tests
**Correct Answer: B**

88. What is a complication of cardiac disease in pregnancy?

A) Reduced risk of heart failure
B) Increased risk of maternal heart failure
 C) Fetal macrosomia
D) Maternal weight loss
**Correct Answer: B**

89. What is peripartum cardiomyopathy?

A) Heart failure occurring in the last month of pregnancy or within 5 months
postpartum
B) Heart failure before pregnancy
C) Heart failure due to fetal growth
D) Heart failure in the first trimester
**Correct Answer: A**

90. What is a key management strategy for cardiac disease in pregnancy?

A) Increased physical activity

B) Multidisciplinary care with a cardiologist

C) High-dose antibiotics
D) Immediate delivery
**Correct Answer: B**

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### 19. Coagulation Diseases in Pregnancy

91. What is a common coagulation disorder in pregnancy?

A) Gestational diabetes

B) Thrombophilia
C) Iron deficiency anemia
D) Preterm labor
 **Correct Answer: B**

92. What is a risk associated with thrombophilia in pregnancy?

A) Reduced risk of thrombosis

B) Increased risk of venous thromboembolism
C) Fetal macrosomia
D) Maternal weight loss
**Correct Answer: B**

93. How is a coagulation disorder like thrombophilia diagnosed in pregnancy?

A) Ultrasound
B) Blood tests for clotting factors and genetic mutations
C) Fetal heart rate monitoring
D) Maternal weight gain

**Correct Answer: B**

94. What is a treatment option for pregnant women with a history of thrombosis?
A) High-dose iron supplements
B) Low molecular weight heparin
C) Increased physical activity

D) Bed rest without medication

**Correct Answer: B**

95. What is a complication of untreated coagulation disorders in pregnancy?

A) Reduced risk of miscarriage

B) Increased risk of placental abruption

C) Fetal macrosomia
D) Maternal weight gain
 **Correct Answer: B**

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### 20. Mal Presentation

96. What is a malpresentation?

A) Fetus in a vertex (head-down) position
B) Fetus in a non-vertex position (e.g., breech, transverse)

C) Fetus with excessive growth

D) Fetus with normal amniotic fluid
**Correct Answer: B**

97. What is the most common type of malpresentation?

A) Vertex presentation
B) Breech presentation
C) Face presentation
D) Shoulder presentation
**Correct Answer: B**

98. What is a risk factor for breech presentation?

A) Maternal overnutrition
B) Prematurity or multiple gestation
C) Excessive fetal movement
D) Maternal low blood pressure

**Correct Answer: B**

99. How is a breech presentation typically diagnosed?

 A) Maternal weight gain
B) Ultrasound or clinical examination
C) Fetal heart rate monitoring

D) Routine blood tests

**Correct Answer: B**

100. What is the management for a breech presentation at term?

A) Vaginal delivery in all cases
B) External cephalic version or cesarean section

C) Bed rest
D) Increased fluid intake
**Correct Answer: B**

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### 21. Breech Presentation (Face, Brow, Shoulder, & Cord Presentation)

101. What is a face presentation?

A) Fetus presents with the head extended, face first
B) Fetus presents with the head flexed

C) Fetus presents with the feet first

D) Fetus presents with the shoulder first
**Correct Answer: A**

102. What is a risk associated with a brow presentation?

A) Reduced risk of labor obstruction

B) Prolonged labor due to poor fit in the pelvis
C) Fetal macrosomia
 D) Maternal weight loss
**Correct Answer: B**

103. What is a shoulder presentation also known as?

A) Transverse lie
B) Vertex presentation
C) Breech presentation
D) Face presentation
**Correct Answer: A**

104. What is a complication of cord presentation?

A) Reduced risk of cord prolapse
B) Increased risk of cord compression during labor
C) Fetal macrosomia

D) Maternal anemia
**Correct Answer: B**

105. What is the typical management for a persistent face presentation?

A) Vaginal delivery in all cases
B) Cesarean section if labor does not progress

C) Bed rest
D) Increased fluid intake
**Correct Answer: B**

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### 22. Normal Labor (Stages, Mechanism, Management) & Partogram

106. How many stages are there in normal labor?
A) Two
B) Three

C) Four
D) Five
**Correct Answer: B**

107. What is the first stage of labor?

A) From the onset of labor to full cervical dilation

B) From full dilation to delivery of the baby

C) From delivery of the baby to delivery of the placenta
D) From delivery of the placenta to recovery
**Correct Answer: A**

108. What is the purpose of a partogram?

A) To monitor maternal weight gain
B) To track the progress of labor and identify deviations
C) To assess fetal growth
D) To measure maternal blood pressure
**Correct Answer: B**

109. What is the mechanism of labor in a vertex presentation?

A) Descent, flexion, internal rotation, extension, external rotation
B) Descent, extension, internal rotation, flexion
C) Flexion, descent, external rotation, extension

D) Internal rotation, descent, flexion, extension

**Correct Answer: A**
110. What is a key management step during the third stage of labor?
A) Active management with oxytocin to prevent hemorrhage
B) Immediate cesarean section

C) Bed rest without intervention

D) Increased fluid intake
**Correct Answer: A**

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### 23. Abnormal Labor: Prolonged, Obstructed, and Precipitated Labor (Etiology,
Diagnosis, Management)

111. What is prolonged labor?

A) Labor lasting less than 6 hours

B) Labor lasting longer than 20 hours in a primigravida

C) Labor ending in a cesarean section
D) Labor with no contractions
**Correct Answer: B**

112. What is a common cause of obstructed labor?

A) Maternal overnutrition
B) Cephalopelvic disproportion
C) Excessive fetal movement
D) Maternal low blood pressure
**Correct Answer: B**

113. How is precipitated labor defined?

A) Labor lasting more than 24 hours
 B) Labor completing in less than 3 hours
C) Labor with no contractions
D) Labor ending in a vaginal delivery

**Correct Answer: B**

114. What is a complication of obstructed labor?

A) Reduced risk of fetal distress
B) Increased risk of uterine rupture
C) Fetal macrosomia

D) Maternal weight loss

**Correct Answer: B**

115. What is the management for prolonged labor due to poor contractions?
A) Immediate cesarean section

B) Augmentation with oxytocin

C) Bed rest
D) Increased fluid intake
**Correct Answer: B**