2 ESE 2024 Prelims Examn Classroom Test Series

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Q.1 Consider the following statements:
1. For a well graded gravel, the (a) sin (b) sin
coefficient of uniformity should be
greater than 4.
2. A soil having uniformity coefficient (c) sin (d) sin
smaller than 2 is considered as
uniformly graded soil. Q.6 Which of the following factors affect
Which of the above statements are correct?
permeability of soil?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. Grain size
(c) Both 1and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Viscosity of fluid flowing
Q.2 In a three layered soil system, the thickness 3. Hydraulic gradient
of layerS are H, H/2 and 1.5H having 4. Unit weight of fluid
coefficients of permeability as k, 2k and 5. Void ratio
2.5 k respectively. The equivalent Select the correct option using the codes
coefficient of permeability of the soil given below.
system when horizontal flow occurs is (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 5
(a) 1.92 k (b) 1.25 k (c) 1, 2, 3, and 4 (d) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(c) 1.63 k (d) 2.10 k Q.7 A fill having volume of 1.5 Mm is to be
Q.3 Consider the following statements: constructed at a void ratio of 1. The
1. Pneumatic rollers are most suitable for borrow pit soil has a void ratio of 1.25.
filled up soils. The volume of soil required to be excavated
2. For granular soils, smooth wheeled from borrow pit will be
rollers are most suitable. (a)1.09 Mm3 (b) 1.45 Mm³
(c) 1.68 Mm3 (d) 1.97 Mm
3. Rammer is used for compaction in
confined places. Q.8 Aline load of infinite length has an
Which of the above statements are correct? intensity 100 kN/m. The vertical stress at
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 a depth of 5 m below line load is
(c) 1and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 14.23 kN/m² (b) 9.27 kN/m?
A clay layer of thickness 20cm and void (c) 15.7 kN/m² (d) 12.7 kN/m?
Q.4
ratio 0.5 undergoes settlemnent so that the Q.9 The maximum and minimum dry unit
final void ratio is 0.4. The settlement of weights of a sand are 20 kN/m³
the clay layer is and 16 kN/m respectively. The sand in
" (a) 1.27 cm (b) 1.33 cm the field has a unit weight of 20 kN/m
(c) 2.01 cm (d) 2.37 cm with a moisture content of 10%. The
relative density of the sand in the field is
Q.5 In aconsolidated drained triaxial test, a (b) 40%
(a) 25%
specimen of saturated sand failed under (d) 75%
(c) 60%
an additional axial stress of 225 kN/m²
when the cell pressure was 125 kN/m². The Q.10 Consider the following statements:
angle of shearing resistance is 1. Augers are avoided for depths greater
than 6 m.
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MADE EASY Civil Engineering | Test 20 3

2. Auger boring is not suitable for 2. Dolphins are used for transferring
exploration of deep foundations. cargo from one ship to another when
3. Percussion drilling is suitable in moved along both of their sides.
gravelly strata. 3. Slip is the space of water area between
Which of the above statement(s) is/are two adjacent piers where ships are
correct?
berthed.
(a) 1 and2 only (b) 2and 3 only Which of the above statemnent(s) is/are
(c) 1 and 3only (d) 1,2 and 3 correct?

Q.11 A pile is driven into the ground with a (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
drop hammer weighing 1000 kg and (c) 1 and3 only (d) 1, 2and 3
having a free fall of 2m. If the penetration Q.15 The 'track modulus' is an index of measure
with the last blow is 10 mm, then the of which of the following?
ultimate load carrying capacity of this
(a) Resistance due to friction
pile according to Engineering News
(b) Resistance due to shear
formula, is
(b) 75.41t (c) Resistance due to deformation
(a) 35.14t (d) Resistance due to rolling
(c) 57.14t (d) 48.52 t
Q.16 Which one of these methods of Tunnel
Q.12 The contact pressure under a rigid footing
Construction is not suitable in rocks?
on surface of a cohesionless soil is
(a) Full face method
(a) Uniform with convexity in the middle
portion. (b) Compressed air method
(b) Uniform with concavity in the middle (c) Heading and benching method
(d) Drift method
portion.
(c) Minimum at the centre and maximum Q.17 Consider the following statements:
at the edges. 1. Direct ranging is done when the two
(d) Maximum at the centre and zero at the ends of the survey lines are intervisible.
edges. 2. Plumb bob is used as centering aid in
Q.13 Consider the following statements: theodolites.
Wind rose diagram is used for the purpose of 3. Reciprocal ranging is adopted when
1. Estimating the runway capacity. there is high intervening ground
2. Geometric design of holding apron. between the ends of the survey line.
3. Runway orientation. Which of the above statements are correct?
Which of above statement(s) is/are (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
correct? (c) 1 and3only (d) 1,2 and 3
(a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
0.18 Refraction error is the least in case of
(c) 2 and3 only (d) 2only (a) stadia tacheometry
statements:
Q.14 Consider the following (b) tangential tacheometry
energy of
1. Fenders absorb the kinetic (c) subtense bar tacheometry
them
impact of the ship and protect (d) omnimeters
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4 ESE 2024 Prelims Exam Classroom Test Series MADE EASY
Q.19 Consider the following statements: Q.23 Consider the following statements related
1. Polar orbiting satellites are to basic principles of GPS:
stationary
with reference to the earth. 1. Satellites are placed such that there are
2. Geo-orbiting satellites are mostly four orbits having six satellites each.
2. Each satellite can be uniquely identified
communication/meteorological
satellites. by pseudo-random number (PRN).
Which of the above station(s) is/are 3. To uniquely determine the position of
correct? user, signals from atleast four satellites
(a) 1 only need to be received.
(b) 2 only Which of the above statements are correct?
(c) both 1and 2 (d) neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Q.20 Consider the (c) 1 and3only (d) 1, 2and3
following statements
regarding levelling: 0.24 If the local time at a place of longitude
1. The combined correction due to 60°40'E is 8 hours 20 minutes, then the
curvature and refraction is positive. Greenwich Mean Time is
2. In levelling, if previous reading is less (a) 2h 40 m 30s (b) 4h 17 m 20s
than the next consecutive reading, it (c) 5h 11 m 7s (d) 3h 25 m 23s
indicates a fall.
Q.25 Which one of the following statements is
3. Reciprocal levelling eliminates error not correct?
due to curvature and refraction. (a) Overland flow is predominant in basins
Which of the above statenments are correct?
with larger drainage densities.
(a) 1 and2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (b) The steeper slope of the catchment
(c) 1and3 only (d) 1, 2 and3 results in larger peak discharges.
(c) Fan-shaped catchments give high peak
Q.21 Hypsometry is a method of
and narrow hydrographs.
(a) Surveying of water bodies. (d) Recession limb is independent of storm
(b) Determining elevations based on the characteristics.
boiling point of liquids.
(c) Measuring distances. Q.26 The 8-hr unit hydrograph of a catchment
is triangular in shape with a base width of
(d) Finding temperatures at different 56 h and peak ordinate of 25 m³/s. This
heights. unit hydrograph refers to a catchment of
Q.22 If three consecutive ordinates taken from area

(a) 252 km² (b) 297 km²

a survey line at 4 m intervals are 1.36 m,
(c) 342 km2 (d) 195 km?
2.7 m and 1.94 m, then area between the
line, the first and last ordinates and the Q.27 Consider the following statements:
boundary is 1. In channel routing, storage is a function
(a) 13.28 m² (b) 12.7 m² of both outflow and inflow discharges.
(c) 20.25 m² (d) 18.8 m? 2. During flood, river flows as gradually
(Use Simpson's rule) varied steady flow.

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 Civil Engineering | Test 20 5
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considerable
3. The storage capacity of a reservoir does 2. Spray aerators require
not affect the lag and attenuation of an head, but these aerators reduce CO, by
70 to 90%.
outflow hydrograph. Which of the above statement
is/are
Which of the above statement(s) is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 oniy (b) 2 only
(a) 1 and3 only (b) 2 and 3 only neither l nor 2
(c) 2 only (d) 1only (c) both 1and 2 (d)
following statements
Q.28 Consider the following statements 0.32 Consider the
regarding instantaneous unit hydrograph regarding water treatment process:
removed
bacteria can be
1. Large scale of
(IUH): coagulants.
using sedimentation with
1. The limiting case of unit hydrograph present in the
of zero duration is knowWn
as IUH. 2. The micro-organisms
removed during
with water are largely
2. IUHisa single peaked hydrograph filtration.
infinite base width. statement(s) is/are
Which of the above
3. IUH is independent of the duration of correct?
ERH.
is/are (a) 1 only (b) 2only
Which of the above statement(s) (c) both land 2 (d)
neither 1 nor 2
correct?
values of incoming and
(a) 1 and3only (b) 1 only Q.33 The measured pH treatment plant
outgoing waters at a water
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 only average pH
following is not a are 7 and 8 respectively. The of pH
0.29 Which of the assuming linear variation
of water,
duration curve?
characteristic of the flow with time is
reservoir affects the flow
(a) Presence of a [Take log,o 5.5 = 0.74)
duration curve. (a) 7.26 (b) 7.38
a stream
(b)Steep slope of curve indicates (c) 7.82 (d) 8.10
discharge.
with a highly variable on approximate estimation
of total
(c) Slope of the
curve does not depend Q.34 An water sample
selected.
data dissolved solids of a given
the interval of resource measuring
useful in water is often made by
(d) It is highly
activities. conductivity of the water
and development (a) Electrical
planning hr sample
rainfall for the successive 1 conductivity of the
Q.30 The rate of
1.5, 2.4, 2.5, (b) Electro-magnetic
periods of a 4hr storm are then water sample
cm/hr. If the -index is 2.lcm/hr, conductivityof the water
sample
1.6 is (c) Sound the water
corresponding surface runoff (d) Thermal
conductivity of
the (b) 1.4 cm
(a) 1.2 cm sample
(d) 0.3 cm
(c) 0.7 cm following statements:
O.35 Consider the dissolved oxygern is
following statements: of
Q.31 Consider
the
the simplest of 1. Atleast 4 mg/l fish.
Cascade aerators are reduction of
1. required for game
aerator in which
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CO, is about
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6 ESE 2024 Prelims Exam Classroom Test Series MADE ERSY
2. Rate at which dissolved oxygen is used 2. pH adjustment is necessary prior to air
when bio-degradable organics are stripping.
discharged does not depend on the 3. For pH> 11, complete conversion to
dilution capacity of stream. NH, takes place.
3. The rate of reaeration increases as the Which of the above statements is/are
concentration of dissolved oxygen correct?
decreases. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
Which of the above statements are correct? (-) 2 only (d) 2 and3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and3 only (d) 1, 2and 3 Q.39 A digestion tank is to be designed for an
incoming raw sludge of 75 m³/d, to
Q.36 Consider the following statements: produce the digested sludge of 25 m²/d.
1. Colloidal suspensions that do not The capacity of the digestion tank
agglomerate naturally are unstable. assuming the digestion period as 30 days
2. Chemical coagulation is usually is
accomplished by the addition of (a) 920 m (b) 1250m³
trivalent metallic salts. (c) 1400 m³ (d) 1050 m³
3. The net force becomes neutral after Q.40 What is the ambient air quality standard
passing the energy barrier at some in respect of noise for residential area
distance between colloids.
during night time?
Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 45 dB (b) 50 dB
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 40 dB (d) 55 dB
(c) 1 and3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
Q.41 Match List-I with List-II and select the
Q.37 Which of the following statement is correct answer using the codes given
incorrect regarding filters? below the lists:
(a) Small pore openings in filter media List-I
increases filter efficiency. A. High alumina cement
(b) The depth of expansion during B. Blast furnace cement
backwash is influenced by the density C. Quick setting cement
of medium. D. Rapid hardening cement
() Cleaning is accomplished by draining List-II
the filters in slow sand filters 1. High early strength
periodically. 2. Gypsum free cement
(d)Slow sand filters are constructed of 3. Selenetic cement
silica sand of effective size from 0.35 4. Used in mass concrete work
mm to 0.55 mm. 5. Used in chemical factories and mines
Codes:
Q.38 Consider the following statements related A B C D
to air stripping: 4 2 1
(a) 5
1. The relative abundance of NH, and
(b) 4 3 2
NH, depend only on the pH of (c) 5 4 3 2
wastewater.
(d) 4 5 1 2

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MADE ERSY Civil Engineering | Test 20

Q.42 Consider the following statements 3. The pH should generally be more than 8.
but
regarding hydration of cement: 4. Free vegetable oil is harmful
1. Tobermorite gel is the significant mineral oil upto 3% is beneficial.
product of hydration. Which of the above statements is/are
2. Dicalcium silicate produces more correct?
amount of calcium hydroxide as (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
compared to tricalcium silicate. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only
3. Calcium hydroxide helps in making the statements
Q.46 Consider the following
cement alkaline.
regarding types of glass:
Which of the above statements is/are over
1. Crown glass is an improvement of
incorrect? soda-lime glass with addition
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
potash.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3 2. Flint glass is the mixture
of soda, lead

Q.43 The ultrasonic plus velocity test is based

and silica.
of Boro
on assumption that 3. Pyrex glass is an example
(a) The time taken by a pulse in passing silicate glass.
is/are
through aconcrete mass is proportional Which of the above statements
of the
to the modulus of elasticity correct?
Concrete. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
proportional (d) all are incorrect
(b) The frequency of pulse isstrength of (c) 3 only
to the compressive Q.47 Consider the
following statements
cement.
Concrete.
pulse is regarding indegredient ratio of
(c) The amplitude of the strength 1. Cement with high
alumina ratio is quite
proportional the compressive expansive as it requires more
fuel
of the concrete. consumption for burning.
pulse velocity
(d) Due to internal flaws the 2. Cement with high
silica ratio is more
is reduced.
durable.
concrete mixer is 0.92 m². lime saturation
Q.44 The capacity of a 3. Cement with hgiher
meter of concrete, factor slow hardering.
For mixing one cubic quick setting
required is 5.8 bags. 4. High alumina cement is
the quantity of cement
fractional usage of presence
In order to avoid slow hardening cement due to
of concrete to be of alumina more
than 32%.
cement bags, the volume using the codes
mixed per batch will
be, Choose the correct option
(a) 0.79 m3 (b) 0.55 m given below:
(d) 0.62 m³ (b) 2 and3
(c) 0.86 m (a) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
following statements
Q.45 Consider the concrete: resistance of fibers in fiber
regarding mixing water for clay and silt Q.48 The pullout
depend upon
1. Suspended
particles of reinforced concrete does not crack
should be less than
0.02%. fibers crossing the
chloride is (a) Number of
The quantity of calcium (b) Length of
fibers
2.
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ESE 2024 Prelims Fxam e Classroom Test Series mADE EASY
(c) (a) Mild steel
Diameter of fibers
(d) Tensile strength of fibers (b)Cast steel
(c) Manganese steel
Q.49 Which of the following statements are (d) Bessemer steel
correct regarding gauged mortar?
1. Gauged mortar is also known as Q.53 Consider the following statements
composite mortar. regarding roller compacted concrete:
2. To improve the quality of lime mortar, 1. Slump value for roller
cement is added to it. concrete is zero. compacted
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. It is suitable for construction of
dame
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
Q.50 Consider the following statements
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
regarding classification of timber with (c) 1 and 2 (d) All are incorrect
respect to ease of seasoning:
1. Non-refractory timbers are likely to get Q.54 Adouble overhang 1.5 mdiameter impulse
damaged severely during seasoning turbine installation is to develop 3000 kw
2. Highly refractory timbers can be at 400 rpm under a net head of 270 m. If
rapidly seasoned without any trouble. the overall efficiency is 0.9, then diameter
Which of the above statements is/are of jet is,
correct? (Take C, =0.95]
(a) 10.77 cm (b) 18.06 cm
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 (c) 14.15 cm (d) 22.39 cm
(d) all are incorrect
Q.51 Consider the following statements Q.55 A 2.0 m wide rectarngular channel has a
regarding qualities of a good building flow witha velocity of 2m/s and depth of
stone: 1.3 m. The rate of inflow at the upstream
1. A good stone should have a crushing end is suddenly increased to an extent that
strength of atleast 400 N/mm?. the depth got doubled in magnitude. The
2. Specific gravity of good stone should absolute velocity of the resulting surge is,
not be more than 2.7. (a) 1.446 m/s (b) 8.185 m/s
3. Coefficient of hardness of stones for use (c) 3.538 m/s (d) 6.484 m/s
in road work should not be less than 17.
Q.56 In subcritical flow in a channel, AZ is the
4. Water absorption for a good building maximum height of a smooth hump that can
stone should not be more than 0.6% in be installed to cause critical flow over the
24 hours.
Which of the above statements is/are
hump. If the hump of height AZ >AZ, IS
correct?
installed, then the flow over the hump will e
(a) subcritical
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 (b) supercritical
(c) critical and the upstream water surface
Q.52 Which of the following types of steel is will rise
used in the manufacture of rails? (d)critictl and a lowering of the upstream
water surface will occur
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0.57 A fluid indicated the following shear List-II

stress and deformation rates: 1. Distance from the boundary where
velocity is 99% of uniform velocity.
dy -(unit) 0 1 2 4 2. Distance from boundary by which the
dy main flow can be assumed to be shifted.
t(units) 10 15 2030 3. Varies as r4/5
4. Varies as rrl/2
The fluid is classified as, 5. Varies as xl/2
(a) Newtonian (b) Bingham plastic Codes:
(c) Dilatant (d) Pseudoplastic A B C D
(a) 1 2 4
Q.58 A barge with a flat bottom and square (b) 1 2 5 3
ends has adraft of 2 m when fully loaded (c) 5 4 2 1
and floating in upright position. The length (d) 2 1 5
of the barge is 15 m and its width is 8 m.
Q.61 A pitot tube is mounted on an air plane to
The centre of gravity of the barge when indicate the speed of the plane relative to
fully laden is on the axis of symmetry and
is 1.5 m above the water surface. The height the prevailing wind. What differential
of metacenter above the base is,
pressure intensity will the instrument
register when the plane is travelling at a
(a) 1.57 m (b) 2.67 m speed of 200 km/h in a wind of 60 km/h
(c) 3.00 m (d) 3.67 m blowing against the direction of the plane?
Q.59 The stream function y for uniform flow [Take p.i =1.2 kg/m]
past a circular cylinder of radius'a' in polar (a) 0.91 kPa (b) 1.85 kPa
coordinates is given by (c) 3.13 kPa (d) 2.78 kPa
Q.62 Ifthe velocities in a 60cm pipe carrying
oil are 4.5 m/s and 4.2 m/s on centreline
and at a radial distance of 10 cm from the
where u is the free stream velocity parallel pipe axis, then the discharge through the
to the horizontal axis. The radial velocity on pipe is,
the cylinder at = 90° is, [Take log1.5 = 0.176]
(a) Om/s (b) -2 m/s (a) 2.7 m²/sec (b) 1.2 m²/sec
(c) 2.3 m³/ sec (d) 1.5 m²/sec
(C) , m/s (d) -1 m/s
0.63 A fluid flow of dynamic viscosity 0.07 Pa
O.60 Match List-I with List-II and select the sec and relative density 0.86 flows through
correct answer using the codes given an inclined pipe of 20 mm diameter. The
below the lists: flow through the pipe is laminar. A
List-I discharge is to be passed through the pipe
A. Boundary layer thickness at an average velocity of 0.7 m/sec, in such
B. Displacement thickness amanner that the pressure along the length
C. Laminar boundary layer thickness is constant. The required inclination of the
D.Turbulent boundary layer thickness pipe is,
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10 ESE 2024 Prelims Exam e Classroom Test Series mADE ERSY
(a) 0.46 (b) 0.78 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3only
(c) 0.82 (c) 1 and 3only (d) 1,2 and 3
(d) 0.21
Q.64 Pressure drag results due to Q.68 The extract of a saturated solution
the soil has an electrical from
(a) Turbulence in the wake conductivity of 10
m-mhos//cmand the electrical c
(b) Formation of wake
(c) Existence of stagnation point in the
conductivity
of irrigation water is 1.5 m-mho//cm. If the
front of a body consumptive use of crop is 6cm, then tha
(d)High Reynolds numbers depth of water to be drained away is.
(a) 0.5 cm (b) 6.5 cm
Q.65 Fluid is flowing on a flat plate which is (c) 1.0 cm (d) 7.5 cm
15 cm wide and 45 cm long placed
longitudinally. The fluid is having relative O.69 Asubmerged pipe outlet is an example of
density of 0.925 and kinematic viscosity of (a) semi-modular outlet
(b) non-modular outlet
0.9 strokes. The free stream velocity is
(c) rigid module
6m/s. For a Reynolds number of 4 x 10,
the friction drag on one side of plate is, (d) adjustable proportional module
(a) 10.24 N (b) 5.24 N o.70 Calculate the limiting height of a gravity
(c) 14.92N (d) 7.46 N dam having free board as zero and uplift
pressure coefficient as 0.5. Specific gravity
Q.66 The following parameters relate to flow of dam material is 2.5. Allowable
in a penstock:
1. Water level in reservoir compressive strength of dam material ie.
concrete is 250 t/m2.
2. Density of water (b) 71.43 m
3. Elasticity of water
(a) 125 m
(c) 83.33 m (d) 80m
4. Roughness of pipe
Pressure rise due to water hammer in a of
Q.71 Waves are generated on the surface
penstock depends upon reservoir by the blowing winds of velocity
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 70 kmph. The straight length of water
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 expanse in 40 km. The maximum pressure
intensity due to wave action is,
Q.67 Consider the following statements
regarding canal outlets: (a) 44.53 kN/m² (b) 47.41 kN/m
1. The discharge of
non-modular outlet (c) 33.22 kN/m² (d) 39.86 kN/m²
depends upon both distributary head
with
Q.72 Match List-I (Type of irrigation)
correct
and water course head. List-II (Suitability) and select the
the
2. For the weir type
outlet to be answer using the codes given below
proportional, the outlet should be set lists:
the water
at 0.9 times the depth below List-I
surface. A. Basin flooding
non-flexible module is B. FurroW method
3. Sensitivity of a
zero.
C. Check flooding
statements is/are D. Border flooding
Which of the above
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MADE ERSY Civil Engineering | Test 20 11

List-II 1. The minimum grade of concrete shall

1. Deep homogeneous loam or clay soil. be M30 for allbuildings which are more
2. Flatter land surface. than three storeys in height.
3. Most popular method of irrigation. 2. Steel reinforcing bars of grade Fe415
4. Suitable for wide range of soil types. or less shall be used.
Codes: 3. Beam-column connections
should be
A BC D made monolithic.
(a) 4 2 3 1 Which of the above statements is/are
(b) 2 4 1 3 correct?
(c) 4 2 3
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 4 3 1
(c) 1and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
0.73 Consider the following statements Q.77 A simply supported beam of span 6 m is
regarding the effects of water logging: of size 300mm x 700 mm. The moment of
1. Inhibiting activity of soil bacteria. resistance at the support which is under
2. Spread of diseases like dengue and compression is 260 kN-m and factored
malaria. shear force acting at the same section is
3. Rise in soil temperature. 234 kN. The embedment length beyond the
4. Rise is salt content of soil. centre of support is 660 mnm. The
5. Delay is cultivation operation. development length at the support should
Which of the above statements is/are not be more than,
correct? (a) 2105 mm (b) 1442 mm
(a) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (c) 1950 mm (d) 1771 mm
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1,4 and 5 beams
Q.78 Flexural collapse in over reinforced
is due to
Q.74 A regime channel is designed by Lacey's
theory for flow velocity of 0.85 m/sec. (a) primary compression failure
Average partial size in channel is 0.2 mm. (b) secondary compression failure
The hydraulic mean depth for the channel (c) primary tension failure
(d) bond failure
is,
(b) 1.63 m
(a) 2.29 m Q.79 The enlarged head of the supporting
(c) 1.92 m (d) 2.84 m column of a flat slab is called

Q.75 The distance between the outer edges of (a) capital (b) drop
(c) panel (d) block
clockwise and anticlockwise loops of the
meander is called as:
Q.80 As per IS 456, the deflection occurring after
(a) Tortuosity the construction of partitions should not
(b) Meander length exceed
(c) Meander belt (a) span/200
less
(d) Cross-over (b) span/350 or 30 mm whichever is
less
statements (c) span/350 or 20 mm whichever is
Q.76 Consider the following
(d) span/250
regarding earthquake resistance design in
reference to IS 13920:
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 12 ESE 2024 Prelims Exanm Classroom Test Series MADE ERSY
4Pe 2Pe
Q.81 A simply supported slab with dimensions
of 4 m x5 m and 200 mm thickness is (c) (d)
designed as per Rankine Grashof method O.85 The RCC wall design should consider a
for a live load of 3 KN/m² and finish load minimum eccentricity of,
of 1 kN/m?. The value of moment (a) t/10 (b) t/20
coefficient in x-direction will be, (c) t/15 (d) None of the above
[Use effective cover of 25 mm] Here, ' is thckness of wall in mm
(a) 0.0571i (b) 0.0239
(c) 0.0878 (d) 0.0611 Q.86 Maxwell's reciprocal theorem is valid
(a) for all structures
Q.82 In a plain concrete pedestal of M20 grade, (b) for all statically determinate structures
the allowable soil bearing pressure at the (c) for all elastic structures
base is found to.be 360 kN/m². If the (d) for all structures with linear force
projection beyond the column is 350 mm, displacement relation.
then the minimumn depth of footing will
be, Q.87 Consider the following statements
(a) 500 mm (b) 510 mm regarding stiffness matrix:
(c) 520 mm (d) 530 mm 1. Stiffness matrix can be derived for
flexible and rigid structures.
Q.83 For maximum hogging bending moment 2. Stiffness matrix can only be derived for
at support in continuous RC beam, live load stable structures.
should be placed on, 3. Diagonal elements will always be
(a) span adjacent to the support plus positive.
alternate spans. Which of the above statenments are correct?
(b) All the spans except the spans adjacent (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and3
to supports. (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Spans next to the adjacent span of the
support plus alternate spans. Q.88 For apropped cantilever beam of span 8m,
(d) Span adjacent to supports only. ILD for moment at fixed end is drawn. Its
ordinate at 6 m from propped end is
Q.84 The profile of the centroid of the tendon -21
21
in a prestressed concrete beam is as shown (a) m m
16 (b) 16
in figure below. 10.5 -10.5
(c) 16 (a) 16
m

Q.89 For the three hinged parabolic arch loaded

as shown in figure below, horizontal thrust
developed at left support is
L/2 L/2 40 kN
20 kN
What is the equivalent upward force
acting on the beam?
2Pe 4Pe 5m
(a) () a10 m
20 m 20 m B

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MADE ERSY
Civil Engineering Test 20 13
(a) 100 kN (b) 80 kN
(c) 20 kN (d) 50 kN
o.90 If the members AC and BC of (b)
truss shown
in figure below
rise of 20°C, thenundergoes temperature
a
deflection of jointCis
(Take a = 1.2 x 10-5/°C)
(c)

3m
(d)
B

Q.94 If structural steel sections like

6m angles,
channels, T-sections etc. are used as
(a) 1.44 mm (downward) tension members, then maximum pitch of
(b) 1.44 mm (upward) tack bolts should not exceed
(c) 0.72 mm (downward) (a) 600 mm (b) 1000mm
(d) 0.72 mm (upward) (c) 300 mm (d) 800 mm
Q.91 Equivalent stiffness of a beam system is 0.95 If 10 mm size of fillet weld is used to
105 N/m and mass of object resting on
connect 2 plates at an angle of 110°, then
the system is 1000 kg. The natural what is the throat thickness of the weld?
frequency of system is (a) 7.0 mm (b) 5.0 mm
(a) 50 rad/s (b) 10 rad/s (c) 6.0mnm (d) 5.5 mm
(c) 1 rad/s (d) 100 rad/s
0.96 If the direct vertical shear stress is 50 MPa
Q.92 The number of simultaneous equations to and bending stress is 100 MPa for the
be solved in slope deflection method is
welded joint then what the equivalent
equal to stress in the welded joint?
(a) degree of static indeterminacy (a) 150 MPa (b) 115.61 MPa
(b) degree of kinematic indeterminacy (c) 132.29 MPa (d) 111.80 MPa
(c) the number of joints in structure
(d) the number of members in structure Q.97 Consider the following statements:
1. Column and struts always bend to
0.93 If the sum of thickness of cover plates is buckle about weak axis.
equal to the thickness of the main plate, 2. Angle of lacing with respect to vertical
then the most effective bolted joint is or longitudinal axis of the column lies
between 40° to 70°.
(a) 3. If the lacing members are used then the
effective length of the column is
increased by 5% in calculations.
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14 ESE 2024 Prelims Exam Classroom Test Series MADE EASY
Which of the above statements are correct? Q.102 The critical bending compressive stress in
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only the extreme fibre of a structural steel
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 section is 800 MPa. It is given that the yield
Q.98 The compact section of a laterally strength of steel is 250 MPa, width of flange
unsupported steel beam has an elastic is 300 mm and the thickness of flange is 20
section modulus, plastic section modulus mm. The non-dimensional slenderness
and design bending compressive stress of ratio of the steel cross-section is
600 cm,800cm² and 200 MPa respectively. (a) 0.48 (b) 0.56
The design flexural capacity of the bearm (c) 0.62 (d) 0.83
section is
(a) 160 kN-m (b) 280 kN-m Q.103 A bar of 50 mm diameter and 500 mm
(c) 140 kN-m (d) 120 kN-m length is subjected to an axial load of 200
kN. It elongates by 0.200 mm and the
Q.99 The plastic modulus of a section is 7.5 x diameter decreases by 0.005 mm. The
104 m. The shape factor is 1.5. If the plastic Poisson's ratio of the material of the bar is
moment capacity of the section is 165 kN
m then the yield stress of the material is
(a) 0.20 (b) 0.25
(c) 0.35 (d) 0.33
(a) 250 MPa (b) 220 MPa
(c) 200 MPa (d) 240 MPa Q.104 Arigid bar PQ is supported by spring as
shown in the figure below.
Q.100 A continuous beam is shown in figure
300 N
below.
R

2W
3m 2m
00000
D
k= 200 N/mm

k- L/2 L/2 e2L/3L/3-+4

The collapse load of this beam is The deflection of point Q is

3M, 6M, (a) 4.17 mm (b) 3.33 mm
(a) L (b) L
(c) 5.00 mm (d) 2.5 mm
(c) 2M (d)
16M,
Q.105 A tapered circular bar is subjected to an
L L
axial load of 500 kN as shown in figure
Q.101 Which of the following steel section should below.
preferably be used at places where torsion
occurs?
(a) I-section
40 mm
(b) Channel section 500 KN - -

70mm

(c) Box-type section

(d) Angle section
2m

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MADE EASY Civil Engineering | Test 20 15

What is the elongation of tapered bar? Linked Question (Q.110 to Q.112): An element
[Assume, E= 200 GPa] is subjected to stresses as below:
(a) 1.67 mm (b) 3.33 mm 80 MPa
(c) 4.67 mm (d) 2.27 mm
50 MPa
0.106 If a body is loaded under plane stress
conditions (2D), then the number of
independent stress components is 100 MPa 100 MPa
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 6
50 MPa
Q.107 A circular bar AB of length L, fixed at one
end and free at the other, is loaded by a 80 MPa

distributed torque of constant intensity q A Mohr's circle for stresses as shown above
per unit distance along the axis of the bar.
is drawn.
What is the strain energy stored in the bar
for the following data: q = 5 kNm/m, G= Q.110 The radius of Mohr's circle is
80 GPa,L=10 m and polar moment of (a) 103 MPa (b) 106 MPa
inertia () = 120 x 10-6 m. (c) 96 MPa (d) 99 MPa
(a) 486 J (b) 237 J Q.111 The centre of Mohr circle is
(c) 434 J (d) 128 J (a) (10, 0) (b) (0, 10)
Q.108 Asimple beam AB supports auniform load (c) (20, 0) (d) (0, 20)
of intensityw=5 kN/m over a portion of Q.112 The value of maximum principal stress is
the span as shown in figure below.
5 kN/m (a) 123 MPa (b) 106 MPa
B
C (c) 109 MPa (d) 113 MPa
la-4m2met2 mefe -4 m
Q.113The principal stresses at a point are 100
What is the bending moment at point C? MPa and 40 MPa and both are tensile. The
(a) 50 kN-m (b) 40 kN-m
yield stress in simple tension for this
(c) 60 kN-m (d) 30 kN-m
material is 200 MPa. The values of factors
Q.109 Consider the following statements of safety according to maximum principal
regarding the assumptions made in the stress theory and maximum shear stress
Euler's column theory: theory, respectively are
1. The lerngth of the column is very large (a) 2 and4 (b) 2 and 2
as compared to its lateral dimensions. (c) 2and 3.33 (d) 2.5 and 3.33
2. The direct stress is very small as
Q.114 The total shear strain energy per unit
compared to the bending stress. volume due to principal stresses o,, G,, and
3. The column fails by buckling alone.
o, in astressed material is given by
Which of the above statements are correct?
1
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2and 3 only (a) (o-o,' +(o; -o,' +(o, -o,]
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

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16 ESE 2024 Prelims Exam e Classroom Test Series MADE ERSY

1 4 1
(b) 12GLo-oË +oj- 2u(o,0, +o;0, +Gjo,) (a) 7 (b) 4
1
(c pl(o,-a, +(o,-o,}' +(o, -o,] (d) ;
Q.119 Consider the following statements
-(o,0; +620, +0g0;)] regarding fixed beams:
1. For the same loading, the fixed beam
where, Gis the shear modulus of elasticity.
is subjected to a lesser maximum
Q.115 A cantilever beam 100 mm wide and 200 bending moment than that of a simply
Mm deep is 2 m long. What is the supported beam.
concentrated load at free end which the 2. For the same loading, the maximum
beam can carry in order to produce the deflection of a fixed beam is less than
maximum deflection of 10 mm at the free
that of a simply supported beam.
end?
Which of the above statement(s) is/are
[Take E = 200 GPa] correct?
(a)500 N (b) 50 kN
(c) 5000 N (d) 500 kN
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 both (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.116 A beam of triangular cross-section is
Q.120 A leaf spring carries a central load of 5000
subjected to a shear force of 100 kN. The N. The leaf spring is to be made of 8 steel
base width of the section is 200 mm and
plates 5 cm wide and 6 mm thick. If the
the height is 250 mm. If the beam is placed bending stress is limited to 150 MPa then
with its base horizontal, then maximum
shear stress is what is the length of spring?
(a) 288 mm (b) 385 mm
(a) 6 MPa (b) 4 MPa
(c) 7.30MPa (d) 5.33 MPa (c) 435 mm (d) 265 mm
Q.121 A cylinder of internal diameter 2.5 m and
Q.117 Ashaft is subjected to a bending moment
of 4 kN-m and a torque 3kN-m. The thickness 5 cm contains a gas. If the tensile
equivalent bending moment and the stress in the material is not to exceed 100
equivalent twisting moment are N/mm², then the internal pressure of the
respectively: gas is
(a) 4.5 kN-m and 4.5 kN-m (a)1 MPa (b) 2 MPa
(b)9 kN-m and 5 kN-m (c) 3 MPa (d) 4 MPa
(c) 4.5 kN-m and 5 kN-m
Q.122 Which of the following is not a
(d) 5 kN-m and 4.5 KN-m constructional error?
Q.118 A closed coil helical spring 'P' has double (a) Looping error
the number of turns to that of another (b) Dangling error
similar spring 'Q. If the mean radius of (c) Wagon wheel error
'P is half to that of mean radiusof , then (d) None of these
the ratio of deflection of 'P to that ofQ
when they are subjected to same load is Q.123 Consider the following statements
regarding the rolling resistance:
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MADE ERSY Civil Engineering | Test 20 17

1. Rolling resistance is the measure of Q.127 Consider the following statements:

force that must be overcome to pull or 1. Free float is equal to total float minus
roll a vehicle over the surface. slack of head event.
2. Soft earth offers a higher rolling 2. Independent float is equal to free float
resistance than hard surface. minus slack of tail event.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are Which of the above statement(s) is/are
correct? correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) both 1and 2 (d) neither 1 nor 2
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) neither 1 nor2
Q.124 A four wheel tractor weighing 20,000 kg Q.128 Activities with no time duration are called:
has weight distribution between the front (a) Reserve activities
and rear wheels of 40 and 60 percent (b) Dummy activities
respectively. It is operating on a level haul (c) Zero slack activities
(d) Supervision activities
road whose rolling resistance is 40 kg per
tonne. If the coefficient of traction between Q.129 The original cost of an equipment is Rs.
the road surface and the tyre is 0.65, then 20,000. Its salvage value at the end of its
what is the maximum effective rimpull of total useful life of 6 years is Rs. 2000. Its
the tractor? book value at the end of fourth year (as
(a) 7000 kg (b) 7500 kg per straight line method of evaluation of
(c) 8000 kg (d) 8500 kg depreciation) will be
(a) Rs. 8000 (b) Rs. 12000
Q.125 PERT calculations yield a project of length (c) Rs. 13000 (d) Rs. 14000
50 days, with a variance of 9 days?. The
number of days required to complete this Q.130 Match List-I (Factors) with List-II
project with a probability of 90% is (Formula) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists:
List-I
p% 88 94 A. Uniform series present worth factor
Z 1.2 1.6 B. Capital recovery factor
C. Uniform series compound amount
(a) 57 days (b) 54 days factor
(c) 52 days (d) 62 days D.Sinking fund factor
List-II
Q.126 The line of a PERT network is shown below
with t, typ t, durations in days. (1+i)" -1
1.
8, 8, 14 9, 15, 15 i(1+i)"
(1+ i)" -1
2.
What is the probable range of the
completion of whole project? i(1+i)"
(a) 21 days to 39 days 3.
(1+ i)"-1
(b) 27.33 days to 35.34 days
(c) 24.8 days to 35.2 days 4.
(1+i)" -1
(d) 26 days to 34 days
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18 ESE 2024 PrelimsExamn e Classroom Test
Series MADE ERSY
where iis interest rate and n is useful life. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Codes: (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
A B C D
0.134 What is the stopping sight distance for a
(a) 1 2 3 4
design speed of 70 km/hr on a road if the
(b) 1 3 2 4
coefficient of longitudinal friction is 0.35
(c) 3 1 4 2
and total reaction time of driver is 2 5
(d) 3 4 2 1
seconds?
Q.131 A network diagram is shown in figure (a) 134 m (b) 130 m
given below: (c) 104 m (d) 110 m
10
days
Q.135 If the normal flows on two approach roads
0days at an intersection are 600 pcu/hr and 200
as days(12 daysa15 days 6), pcu/hr, the saturation flows are 2000 pcu/
hr on each road and the total loss time per
15 days 20 days
ays signal cycle is 16 sec, then the optimum
cycle timne by Webster's method is
The free float of activity (3) - (6) is (a) 33.33 sec (b) 66.67 sec
(a) 5 days (b) 7 days (c) 43.67 sec (d) 48.33 sec
(c) 3 days (d) 0 day
Q.136 Asub-grade soil sample has the following
Q.132 A, Band Care three activities to be
executed in a sequential order. Their total
properties:
Soil passing through 75 micron sieve =60%.
durations in days are 12, 25 and 15
respectively. However, for better Liquid limit = 50%
estimation of overall total duration, they Plastic limit = 42%
are put into a ladder network with three The group index value of this soil is
equal sub-parts of each. The modified total (a) 7.33 (b) 6.25
duration for total completion of all the (c) 5.13 (d) 0
activities will be
(a) 38 days Q.137 Consider the following statements:
(b) 29 days
(c) 34 days (d) 37 days 1. The angularity number measures the
voids in excess of 67 percent.
Q.133 Which of the following is incorrect with
reference to functions of Break Even 2. Strong aggregates give low aggregate
Chart? crushing value.
1. BEP of the break even chart marks 3. The evaluation of shape of the particles
clearly no profit and no loss situation. is made in terms of flakiness index,
2. It is a decision making tool in the hands elongation index and angularity
of management. number.
Select the correct answer using the codes Which of the following statement(s) is/are
given below: correct?
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MADE EASY Civil Engineering | Test 20 19

(a) 2 only (b) 2 and3 only Direction (Q141 to Q.150): The following items
(c) 1and2 only (d) 1, 2 and3 consists of two statements, one labelled as
Statement (I) and the other labelled as
0.138 The corrected modulus of subgrade Statement (II). You have to examine these two
reaction for the standard diameter plate statements carefully and select your answers to
is 8.0 kg/ cm. What would be the modulus these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
of sub-grade reaction of the soil when (a) Both Statement () and Statement (I)
tested with a 40 cm diameter plate? are true and Statement (II) is the
(a) 10 kg/ cm (b) 15 kg/cm correct explanation of Statement (I).
(c) 20 kg/cm (d) 25 kg/cm (b) Both Statement () and Statement ()
are true but Statement (II) is not a
0.139 If a vehicle has a wheel base of 6.0 m, then correct explanation of Statement (I).
what is the off tracking distance while (c) Statement (I) is true but Statement ()
negotiating a curved path with a mean is false.
(d) Statement () is false but Statement
radius of 240 m?
() is true.
(a) 1.25 cm (b) 6.5 cm
Q.141 Statement (): Coulomb's earth pressure
(c) 15 cm (d) 7.5 cm theory is a simplified form of Rankine's
earth pressure theory.
Q.140 Match List-I (Vehicle class) with List-II Statement (II): Rankine's theory considers
(PCU values)and select the correct answer
a smooth vertical wall retaining a backfill
using the codes given below the lists: with horizontal surface.
List-I
Q.142 Statement (): Reciprocal levelling is
A. Motor cycle and scooter adopted to decide the difference of level
B. Single unit truck and bus between two points, a considerable
distance apart, with great precision.
C. Agricultural tractor and light commercial
vehicles Statement (II): Reciprocal levelling
eliminates errors due to curvature,
D.Passenger car
refraction and collimation.
List-II
1, 0.5 Q.143 Statement (I): The rate of biomass
2. 3.0 production will always be higher than the
rate of food utilization in a biological
3. 1.5
system having a mixed culture of
4. 1.0 microorganisms.
Codes: Statement (II): Catabolism converts part
A B C D of the food into waste products.
of a
(a) 1 3 2 4
Q.144 Statement (I): Volute casing
(b) 4 2 3 1 centrifugal pump directs the flow towards
(c). 1 2 3 4 the delivery pipe.
part
Statement (II): Volute casing converts
(d) 4 3 2 head.
of pressure head into velocity
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20 ESE 2024 Prelims Exam " Classroom Test Series MADE ERSY
Q.145 Statement (): A hydraulic jump cannot be Q.148 Statement (I): Splices for compression
expected in a long steep slope when it is members are designed as short column,
followed by a short stretch of adverse slope Statement (II): The slenderness ratio of a
terminating in a deep and wide reservoir. single-angle single bolted strut should be
Statement (I): The terminal depth in such less than 180.
an adverse slope reaction will be eritical
Q.149 Statement (I): PERT is activity oriented
and the flow in the steep slope may be
rather than event oriented.
nearly at normal depth.
Statement (II): In CPM, both time and cost
Q.146 Statement (I): In any beam, suitably of each activity are considered.
reinforced against diagonal tension, the
nominal shear stress will not exceed the Q.150 Statement (): The outside clearance of the
maximum shear stress values. sampler usually lies between 0 and 2
percent.
Statement (I): By this provision, the failure
of the beam by diagonal tension is Statement (II): The outside clearance is
meant to reduce friction between the soil
prevented.
sample and the sampler when the soil
Q.147 Statement (I): In the analysis of rigid enters the tube, by allowing for elastic
frames by the energy method, it is usually expansion.
considered sufficient to calculate total
strain energy due to flexure only.
Statement (II): Axial and shear forces are
normally insignificant when compared to
bending forces.

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