Chapter 15

Human Health and Disease

Solutions

SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions

1. Which of the following toxic substance is responsible for the chill and high fever recurring every three to four
days in malaria?

(1) Haemotoxin (2) Haemoglobin (3) Haemozoin (4) Sporozoites

Sol. Answer (3)

Haemozoin– Malarial parasite digest haemoglobin and release high quantities of free heme, this free heme is
toxic to cells and parasite convert it into an insoluble crystalline form called haemozoin.

Haemotoxin– Toxic substances in animal's venom, such as snake's venom.

Haemoglobin– Iron containing metalloprotein in red blood cells.

Sporozoites– Infectious form of malarial parasite.

2. In which of the following disorder, the alveoli get filled with fluid leading to severe problems in respiration?

(1) Common cold (2) Whooping cough (3) Diphtheria (4) Pneumonia

Sol. Answer (4)

Pneumonia: It is characterised by infection of lungs. Due to filling of fluid in alveoli gas exchange cannot occur
properly loading to severe problems in respiration.

3. Typhoid fever could be confirmed by

(1) Widal test (2) Mantoux test (3) Schick test (4) Dick test

Sol. Answer (1)

Mantoux test– Tuberculosis

Schick test– Diphtheria

Dick test– Scarlet fever

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 2 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

4. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. infection of Entamoeba histolytica

(1) It is a protozoan parasite of human
(2) It is characterised by constipation and abdominal pain
(3) It is a parasite in small intestine of man
(4) Houseflies act as mechanical carriers and serve to transmit the parasite from faeces of infected person
to food and food products
Sol. Answer (3)
Entamoeba histolytica is a parasite of large intestine of man.

5. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding malarial infection?

(1) Plasmodium enters the human body as sporozoites through the bite of freshly moulted female Anopheles
mosquito
(2) High fever recurring every three to four days
(3) Sporozoites initially multiply within the liver cells and then attack the RBCs resulting in their rupture
(4) When a female Anopheles mosquito bites an infected person, these parasites enter the mosquito’s body
and undergo further development
Sol. Answer (1)
Plasmodium enters the human body as sporozoites through the bite of infected female Anopheles mosquito.

6. Internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anaemia and blockage of the intestinal passage are the common
symptoms of

(1) Amoebiasis (2) Elephantiasis (3) Ascariasis (4) Typhoid

Sol. Answer (3)
Amoebiasis– Abdominal pain, stools with excess mucus and blood clots.
Elephantiasis– Inflammation of organ in which they reside, swelling of legs, scrotum and other parts of body.
Typhoid– Sustained high fever, weakness, loss of apetite, headache, stomach pain.

7. Among the noninfectious diseases, which of the following is most common fatal diseases of human beings?

(1) AIDS (2) Cancer (3) Cystic fibrosis (4) Cholera

Sol. Answer (2)
AIDS– Communicable/infectious disease and fatal disease.
Cystic fibrosis– It is a genetic disorder.
Cholera– Communicable disease but not fatal.

8. Which of the following fish is introduced in pond to control or eliminate the vector responsible for the
transmission of malaria and filariasis?

(1) Exocoetus (2) Pristis (3) Scoliodon (4) Gambusia

Sol. Answer (4)
Gambusia is a larvivorous fish that feeds on mosquito larvae.

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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 3
9. The use of vaccines and immunisation programmes have enabled us to completely eradicate a deadly disease
like

(1) Polio (2) Tetanus (3) Diphtheria (4) Small pox

Sol. Answer (4)

It was a deadly disease which is now completely eradicated by using vaccine discovered by Edward Jenner
in 1798.

10. In the life cycle of Plasmodium, sexual stages (gametocytes) begin to develop in
(1) Stomach of mosquito (2) Intestine of man (3) Liver of man (4) Red blood cells of man
Sol. Answer (4)
Gametocyte begin to form in RBC of man and completes its further development to form gametes as sexual
cycle in mosquito.

11. Out of the following diseases which are caused due to bacterial infection?
a. Typhoid
b. Elephantiasis
c. Cholera
d. Tuberculosis
(1) a & b only (2) b & c only (3) a, c & d only (4) a, b, c & d
Sol. Answer (3)
Typhoid, Cholera and Tuberculosis are caused by bacteria. Elephantiasis is caused by helminth.

12. The pathogens of genera, Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are responsible for
(1) Botulism (2) Conjunctivitis (3) Ringworm (4) Skin allergy
Sol. Answer (3)
It is a fungal disease caused by Microsporum, Trichophyton, Epidermophyton.
Botulism– (Food poisining)– Clostridium botulinum– bacterial disease.
Conjunctivitis– Viral, bacterial or an allergic reaction.
Skin Allergy– Caused by different allergens.

13. Which of the following is a non-specific type of defense that is present at the time of birth?
(1) Acquired immunity (2) Humoral immune response
(3) Cell mediated immunity (4) Innate immunity
Sol. Answer (4)
It is non-specific as it act against any type of foreign agent .
Acquired Immunity– It is pathogen specific and it initiates when a host encounters pathogen during first attack
Humoral Immunity– Type of acquired immunity– B-lymphocyte mediated in which antibodies are produced.
Cell mediated immunity– T-lymphocyte mediated.

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 4 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

14. Acid in stomach, saliva in the mouth, tears from eyes, all prevent microbial growth belong to which of the
following barrier?

(1) Physical barrier (2) Physiological barrier

(3) Cellular barrier (4) Cytokine barrier

Sol. Answer (2)

One of the barrier of innate immunity

Physical barrier– Skin, muscous coating of epithelium

Cellular barrier– WBC– PMNL, monocytes, NK– cells

Cytokine barrier– Interferons

15. Which of the following immunoglobulin (Ig) is present in colostrum?

(1) IgA (2) IgG (3) IgM (4) IgE

Sol. Answer (1)

IgA– Colostrum is a golden liquid substance that a nursing mother expels from her breasts 24-48 hours after
delivery.

IgG– Only antibody that can cross the placenta and confer immunity to the foetus.

IgE– Mediator in allergic response.

IgM– Activates first in initial attack of antigen.

16. The treatment of snake bite by antivenom is an example of

(1) Artificially acquired passive immunity (2) Artificially acquired active immunity

(3) Naturally acquired active immunity (4) Naturally acquired passive immunity

Sol. Answer (1)

Because in this preformed antibodies against snake venom are directly injected into the human body.

Artificially acquired active immunity– Includes resistance induced by vaccines.

Naturally acquired passive immunity– IgA and IgG antibodies from mother to baby and foetus respectively.

Naturally acquired active immunity– Acquired when antigens gain access into the body during natural infection.

17. The use of anti-histamine, adrenaline and steroids quickly reduces the symptoms of

(1) Fungal diseases (2) Viral diseases (3) Allergy (4) Helminthic diseases

Sol. Answer (3)

Allergic reaction is due to the release of chemicals like histamine and serotonin from mast cells and use of
drugs like anti-histamine, adrenaline and steroids quickly reduces the symptoms of allergy.

Fungal diseases, viral diseases and helminthic infections can be prevented by personal hygiene.

18. Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?

(1) Asthma (2) Cirrhosis (3) AIDS (4) Rheumatoid arthritis
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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 5
Sol. Answer (4)
Asthma– Allergic disease
Cirrhosis– Is a result of advanced liver disease.
AIDS– Caused by HIV which decreases natural immunity of the body.

19. Human immunodeficiency virus is a/an

(1) Adeno virus (2) DNA retrovirus (3) RNA retrovirus (4) Adeno retrovirus
Sol. Answer (3)
HIV forms DNA from RNA using reverse transcriptase.

20. HIV decreases natural immunity of the body by

(1) Destroying antibodies (2) Destroying erythrocytes
(3) Attacking T-lymphocytes (4) Attacking B-lymphocytes
Sol. Answer (3)
HIV decreases the number of T-lymphocytes by attacking on it and due to this decrease the person starts
suffering from opportunistic infections of bacteria, viruses, fungi etc.

21. The spread of cancerous cells to distant sites is termed as

(1) Metastasis (2) Metachrosis (3) Metamorphosis (4) Metagenesis
Sol. Answer (1)
Metastasis: It is the property of cancerous cells to spread to distant sites through blood and starting a new
tumor formation wherever they get lodged in the body.
Metachrosis: Ability of animals to change the intensity of colour.
Metamorphosis: The process of transformation from an immature form to an adult form in two or more distinct
stages.
Metagenesis: Phenomenon in which polyp form of a cnidarian alternates asexually with medusoid form.

22. Which one of the following techniques is safest for the detection of cancers?
(1) Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) (2) Radiography (X-rays)
(3) Computed Tomography (CT) (4) Histopathological studies
Sol. Answer (1)
MRI uses strong magnetic fields and non-ionising radiations to accurately detect pathological and physiological
changes in the living tissues.
Histopathological studies involves surgery which may cause harm to body. Radiography and computed
tomography involves use of X-rays.

23. Smoking increases ______ content in blood and reduces the concentration of haembound oxygen. Fill the
blank suitably
(1) Carbon dioxide (2) Carbaminohaemoglobin
(3) Carbon monoxide (4) Carboxylic acid
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Sol. Answer (3)

When the smoke is inhaled into lungs, CO is rapidly absorbed into blood stream and it binds to the
haemoglobin in the red blood cells 200 times more effectively than oxygen does.

24. Which of the following drug is extracted from the latex of poppy plant Papaver somniferum, generally taken
by snorting and injection, is a depressant and slows down body functions?

(1) Cocaine (2) Hashish (3) Barbiturate (4) Heroin

Sol. Answer (4)

Cocaine: obtained from Erythroxylum coca, generally snorted. Causes hallucinations, and has a potent effect
on central nervous system, producing a sense of euphoria and increased energy.

Hashish: Obtained from Cannabis plant, taken by inhalation and oral ingestion.

Effects on cardiovascular system.

Barbiturates: It is a sedative.

Used as a medicine to help patients cope with mental illness like depression, insomnia etc.

Reduces excitement by depressing the CNS activity and lowers physiological activity leading to drownsiness
or sleep.

25. Use of Cannabis products results in

(1) Stimulation of nervous system thus increases alertness and activity

(2) Suppressed brain function and relief in pain

(3) Depressed brain activity and feeling of calmness

(4) Alteration of perception, thoughts and feelings

Sol. Answer (4)

Alteration of perception, thoughts and feelings are hallucinations.

SECTION - B
Objective Type Questions

1. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. common cold

(1) Rhinovirus causes common cold

(2) Rhinovirus infects the nose, respiratory passage and lungs

(3) Common cold is characterised by nasal congestion and discharge, sore throat, hoarseness, cough,
headache, tiredness etc.

(4) Droplets resulting from cough or sneezes of an infected person are inhaled directly or transmitted through
contaminated objects and can cause infection in a healthy person

Sol. Answer (2)

Rhinovirus infects nose and respiratory passage but not lungs.

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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 7
2. Intestinal perforation is the characteristic symptom of
(1) Pneumonia (2) Plague (3) Typhoid (4) Pertussis
Sol. Answer (3)
In severe cases intestinal perforation and death may occur in typhoid.
Pneumonia: fever, chills, cough and headache.
Plague: High fever, lump in the groin or the armpit, red patches on skin.
Pertussis: Mild fever, nasal congestion, sneezing, nasal discharge.

3. Wuchereria bancrofti, the filarial worm that causes elephantiasis belongs to phylum
(1) Platyhelminthes (2) Aschelminthes (3) Coelenterate (4) Arthropoda
Sol. Answer (2)

4. Recently chikungunya and dengue cases were reported from various parts of the country. Choose the correct
vector responsible for these diseases
(1) Anopheles mosquito (2) Xenopsylla (Rat flea) (3) Culex mosquito (4) Aedes mosquito
Sol. Answer (4)
Culex mosquito– Vector of Wuchereria bancrofti which causes Elephantiasis.
Xenopsylla– Vector of Yersinia pestis which causes plague.
Anopheles mosquito– Vector of Plasmodium which causes malaria.

5. Antigen binding site in an antibody is formed by

(1) Two light chains
(2) Two heavy chains
(3) One heavy and one light chain
(4) Either between two light chains or between one heavy and one light chain depending upon the nature of
antigen
Sol. Answer (3)
Antigen binding site is constituted by variable region of light chain and heavy chain.

6. Mark the correct statement

(1) The anamnestic response against a pathogen is highly intensified
(2) The T-lymphocytes produce antibodies
(3) The B-lymphocytes produce cell mediated response
(4) An antibody is represented by H2L4
Sol. Answer (1)
B-lymphocytes produce antibodies
T-lymphoctes produce cell mediated response.
An antibody is represented by H2L2.

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 8 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

7. Which of the following will be included under innate immunity?

(1) Mucus membranes (2) Interferons
(3) Natural killer cells (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
These all are different barriers under innate immunity.
Mucus membrane– Physical barrier
Interferons– Cytokine barrier
Natural Killer cells– Cellular barrier

8. Artificial active immunity can be acquired from

(1) Serious illness (2) Vaccination
(3) Repeated exposure to the some microbes (4) Treatment with penicillin
Sol. Answer (2)
Repeated exposure to the same microbes or illness develops natural active immunity.

9. One of the inflammatory reaction induced by histamine is

(1) Vasoconstriction of blood vessels (2) Vasodilation of blood vessels
(3) Decreased vascular permeability (4) Accelerated blood clotting
Sol. Answer (2)
Presence of histamine in blood causes vasodilation of blood vessels which leads to a decrease in blood
pressure drastically often resulting into death.
Histamine increases the permeability of the blood vessels.

10. The caustative organism of AIDS spreads by

(1) Sharing infected needles and syringes (2) Transfusion of infected blood
(3) Unsafe sexual relationships (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
AIDS is a fatal communicable/infectious disease.

11. Cancer is caused by

(1) Rupturing of cells (2) Uncontrolled meiosis
(3) Uncontrolled mitosis (4) Loss of immunity of the cells
Sol. Answer (3)
Cancerous cells undergo abnormal and uncontrolled division of cells due to breakdown of regulatory mechanism.
Cancer cells do not show the property of contact inhibition (cells when in contact with each other inhibit their
uncontrolled growth)
Cells are not rupturing.
Meiosis is reduction division
Cells do not lose immunity, they combine to form tumors.

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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 9
12. Oncogene is another name for
(1) Inducer gene (2) Jumping gene (3) Structural gene (4) Cancer causing gene
Sol. Answer (4)
Cellular oncogenes (c-onc) or proto-oncogenes have been identified in normal cells. Which when activated under
certain conditions, could lead to oncogenic transformation of the cells.
Cancer causing virus called oncogenic virus have genes called viral oncogenes.
Inducer gene: A molecule that regulate gene expression.
Jumping genes: Genes that can change their position within the genome.
Structural gene: Genes that codes for any RNA or protein product other than a regulatory protein.

13. Read the following statements

a. Heroin, commonly called smack, is obtained by acetylation of morphine.
b. Cocaine is obtained from the latex of Papaver somniferum.
c. Dopamine is excitatory neurotransmitter.
d. Morphine is an effective sedative and pain killer.
Mark the option which includes both correct statement
(1) a & b (2) b & c (3) c & d (4) a & d
Sol. Answer (4)
Both (a) & (d) statements are correct.
b. Is wrong because cocaine is obtained from Erythroxylum coca.
c. Is wrong because dopamine is inhibitory neurotransmitter.

14. Which of the following causes plague?

(1) Trichinella spiralis (2) Salmonella typhimurium (3) Yersinia pestis (4) Xenopsylla
Sol. Answer (3)
Trichinella spiralis: Causes trichinosis.
Salmonella typhimurium: Causes gastroenteritis in mammals..
Xenopsylla: Act as a vector in transmitting plague pathogen Yersinia pestis.

15. Blood cells involved in inflammatory reactions are

(1) Basophils (2) Neutrophils (3) Eosinophils (4) Monocytes
Sol. Answer (1)
Basophils: They release histamine and are found in tissues where allergic reactions are occurring and
contribute to the severity of these reactions.
Neutrophils: Are phagocytic cells.
Eosinophils: Are important mediate in allergic responses.
Monocyte: At site of infection it differentiates into macrophage to elicit an immune response.

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10 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

16. Antibodies in our body are complex

(1) Glycoproteins (2) Lipoproteins
(3) Steroids (4) Prostaglandins
Sol. Answer (1)
They have sugar chains added to some of their amino acid (Antibodies) residues.
Lipoproteins: Contains lipids and proteins.
Prostaglandins: Group of unsaturated fatty acids.

17. The letter T in T-lymphocyte refers to

(1) Thymus (2) Thyroid (3) Thalamus (4) Tonsil
Sol. Answer (1)
T-lymphocytes mature in thymus.
Thyroid: It is an endocrine gland and it produces hormone T3 & T4.
Thalamus: It is situated between cerebral cortex and midbrain. Act as a relay organ.
Tonsil: Lymphoid tissue.

18. A person who met with road accident is likely to develop tetanus he is immunised by administering
(1) Weakened germs (2) Dead germs
(3) Preformed antibodies (4) Wide spectrum antibiotics
Sol. Answer (3)
Preformed antibodies are injected in such injury as pathogen i.e., Clostridium tetani produces a neurotoxin-
tetanospasmin and a quick response is required to stop the action of antigen which is not done by the
formation of our own antibodies as it takes time.
Weakened germs and dead germs are used in vaccine to develop immunity against them.
Wide spectrum antibiotics is used when a person is suffering from many diseases or infections but not for a
single disease/infection.

19. The blood cancer is also known as

(1) Haemolysis (2) Haemophilia (3) Leukaemia (4) Thrombosis
Sol. Answer (3)
Because it involves proliferation of cell types present in blood and their percursors in bone marrow.
Hemolysis: Rupturing of erythrocytes and release of their content.
Haemophilia: Is a genetic disorder that impair the body's ability to control blood clotting.
Thrombosis: Is the formation of a blood lot.

20. L.S.D. is
(1) Hallucinogenic (2) Sedative (3) Stimulant (4) Tranquiliser
Sol. Answer (1)
Hallucinogens change one's behaviour, thoughts, feelings and perceptions without any actual sensory stimulus.

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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 11
Sedative: Barbiturate and benzodiazepines – Depress brain activity and produce feelings of calmness,
relaxation, drowsiness and deep sleep.
Stimulant: Caffeine, cocaine, amphetamines– Stimulate nervous system, increases alertness, produce
excitement.
Tranquilisers: Benzodiazepines– Act as anti-depressants.

21. Tick mark the incorrect match with respect to the drug, source and its action.

Durg Source Action

(1) Smack Latex of poppy Depressant slows
plant Papaver down body functions
somniferum
(2) Cocaine Sense of euphoria
and increased
energy
(3) Coke Atropa Hallucinations
belladona
(4) Hashish Cannabis Hallucinations, affects
sativa cardiovascular system

Sol. Answer (3)

Drug Source Action
Coke Erythroxylum coca Hallucinations
Rest all options are correct.

SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions
1. Grafted kidney may be rejected in a patient due to [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Innate immune response (2) Humoral immune response
(3) Cell-mediated immune response (4) Passive immune response
Sol. Answer (3)
Cell mediated immunity (CMI) is responsible for graft rejection.

2. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in a person, to which of the following would you look for
confirmatory evidence? [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Serum globulins (2) Fibrinogen in plasma (3) Serum albumins (4) Haemocytes
Sol. Answer (1)
Antibodies are present in serum. They are glycoproteins and also called gammaglobulins synthesized in lymph
nodes.

3. Which of the following immunoglobulins does constitute the largest percentage in human milk?
[Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) IgG (2) IgD (3) IgM (4) IgA
Sol. Answer (4)
IgA is present in external body secretion including colostrum and milk. They provide naturally acquired passive
immunity to child.

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12 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

4. Match each disease with its correct type of vaccine

Column-I Column-II
a. Tuberculosis (i) Harmless virus
b. Whooping cough (ii) Inactivated toxin
c. Diphtheria (iii) Killed bacteria
d. Polio (iv) Harmless bacteria [AIPMT-2015]
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
Sol. Answer (4)
Tuberculosis vaccine BCG contains inactivated bacteria.
In DPT, contains killed pathogen of Bordetella pertussis which causes whooping cough.
In DPT diphtheria toxoid is present. Sabin polio vaccine contains inactivated virus.

5. Which of the following viruses is not transferred through semen of an infected male? [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Ebola virus (2) Hepatitis B virus
(3) Human immunodeficiency virus (4) Chikungunya virus
Sol. Answer (4)
Chikungunya is caused by Arbovirus and transmitted through the bite of Aedes mosquito.

6. HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying [AIPMT-2015]

(1) Thrombocytes (2) B lymphocytes (3) Leucocytes (4) Helper T lymphocytes
Sol. Answer (4)
Macrophages are HIV factory, not destroyed by AIDS virus. HIV destroys Helper-T-cells, because after
replication the virus is released by lysis of the cell.

7. Which of the following is not one of the prime health risks associated with greater UV radiation through the
atmosphere due to depletion of stratospheric ozone? [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Increased liver cancer (2) Increased skin cancer
(3) Reduced Immune System (4) Damage to eyes
Sol. Answer (1)
Liver cancer can be caused due to aflatoxin (released by Aspergillus fungus), Vinyl chloride but UV-rays do
not cause cancer of liver.

8. The active form of Entamoeba histolytica feeds upon [AIPMT-2015]

(1) Blood only (2) Erythrocytes; mucosa and submucosa of colon
(3) Mucosa and submucosa of colon only (4) Food in intestine
Sol. Answer (2)
Entamoeba histolytica is present in the colon, feeds on mucosa and submucosa and can also phagocytose
RBCs.

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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 13
9. Which one of the following fungi contains hallucinogens? [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Morchella esculenta (2) Amanita muscaria (3) Neurospora sp. (4) Ustilago sp.
Sol. Answer (2)
Amanita muscaria is noted for its hallucinogenic properties, with its main psychoactive constituent being the
compound muscimol.

10. Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained from the plant whose one flowering branch is shown below?
[AIPMT-2014]

(1) Hallucinogen (2) Depressant (3) Stimulant (4) Pain killer

Sol. Answer (1)
The given diagram is flowering branch of Datura.

11. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS? [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person
(2) When the infected retro virus enters host cells
(3) When HIV damages large number of helper T lymphocytes
(4) When the viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase
Sol. Answer (3)
Fall in number of helper T-lymphocytes causes lowering of immunity.

12. Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by [NEET-2013]

(1) Eating imperfectly cooked pork (2) Tse-tse fly
(3) Mosquito bite (4) Drinking water containing eggs of Ascaris
Sol. Answer (4)

13. The cell-mediated immunity inside the human body is carried out by [NEET-2013]
(1) B lymphocytes (2) Thrombocytes (3) Eythrocytes (4) T lymphocytes
Sol. Answer (4)

14. Select the correct statement regarding the specific disorder of muscular or skeletal system
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Myasthenia gravis - Auto immune disorder which inhibits sliding of myosin filaments
(2) Gout - Inflammation of joints due to extra deposition of calcium
(3) Muscular dystrophy - Age related shortening of muscles
(4) Osteoporosis - Decrease in bone mass and higher chances of fractures with advancing age
Sol. Answer (4)

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14 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

15. Common cold differs from pneumonia in, that [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas the common cold affects nose and respiratory passage but
not the lungs
(2) Pneumonia is a communicable disease whereas the common cold is a nutritional deficiency disease
(3) Pneumonia can be prevented by a live attenuated bacterial vaccine whereas the common cold has no
effective vaccine
(4) Pneumonia is caused by a virus while the common cold is caused by the bacterium Haemophilus
influenzae
Sol. Answer (1)
Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas the common cold affects nose and respiratory passage but not
the lungs.

16. Widal Test is carried out to test [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]

(1) Typhoid fever (2) Malaria (3) Diabetes mellitus (4) HIV/AIDS
Sol. Answer (1)

17. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chronic intake of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]

(1) Cocaine (2) Opium (3) Alcohol (4) Tobacco (Chewing)
Sol. Answer (3)
With continued alcohol intake, there is destruction of hepatocytes and fibroblasts (cells which form fibres) and
stimulation of collagen protein formation. This leads to Cirrhosis (liver damage from a variety of causes/
replacement of liver cells by fibrosis and lumps that occur due to attempted repair of damaged tissue) of liver.

18. Which one of the following is not a property of cancerous cells whereas the remaining three are ?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) They show contact inhibition
(2) They compete with normal cells for vital nutrients
(3) They do not remain confined in the area of formation
(4) They divide in an uncontrolled manner
Sol. Answer (1)
They do not show contact inhibition. Contact inhibition is a properly of normal cells in which dividing cells
when in contact with other cells are inhibited for their uncontrolled growth.

19. Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]

(1) Human liver (2) Gut of female Anopheles
(3) Salivary glands of Anopheles (4) Human RBCs
Sol. Answer (2)
Gamete formation starts in human RBC's but rest process continues in Anopheles (female) from mouth gametes
enters into stomach and reproduce sexually to produce zygote.

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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 15
20. In which one of the following options the two examples are correctly matched with their particular type of
immunity? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
Examples Type of immunity
(1) Mucus coating of epithelium lining the urinogenital – Physiological barriers
tract and the HCl in stomach
(2) Polymorphonuclear leukocytes and monocytes – Cellular barriers
(3) Anti-tetanus and anti-snake bite injections – Active immunity
(4) Saliva in mouth and tears in eyes – Physical barriers
Sol. Answer (2)
The corrected match are:
(1) Saliva in mouth and tears in eyes– Physiological barriers.
(2) Mucus coating of epithelium lining the urinogenital tract– Physical barrier.
(3) Anti-tetanus and anti-snake bite injections– Passive immunity.

21. Which one of the following sets of items in the options 1-4 are correctly categorised with one exception in
it? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
Items Category Exception

(1) UAA, UAG, UGA Stop condons UAG

(2) Kangaroo, Koala, Wombat Australian marsupials Wombat

(3) Plasmodium, Cuscuta, Trypanosoma Protozoan parasites Cuscuta

(4) Typhoid, Pneumonia, Diphtheria Bacterial diseases Diphtheria

Sol. Answer (3)

22. Identify the molecules (a) and (b) shown below and select the right option giving their source and use
CH3
O
N CH3 OH

O
H
(a) O (b) OH

H O
[AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
Options :

Molecule Source Use

(1) (a) Cocaine Erythroxylum coca Accelerates the transport of dopamine

(2) (b) Heroin Cannabis sativa Depressant and slows down body functions

(3) (b) Cannabinoid Atropa belladona Produces hallucinations

(4) (a) Morphine Papaver somniferum Sedative and pain killer

Sol. Answer (4)

(a) is morphine
(b) is cannabinoid molecule
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16 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

23. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to immunity? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of B lymphocytes
(2) Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a viper snake
(3) The antibodies against small pox pathogen are produced by T lymphocytes
(4) Antibodies are protein molecules, each of which has four light chains
Sol. Answer (2)
Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a viper snake.
(2) The antibodies against small pox pathogen are produced by B-lymphocytes.
(3) Antibodies are protein molecules, each of which has 2 heavy chain and 2 light chains.
(4) Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of T-lymphocytes.

24. Read the following statements (A-D)

(A) Colostrum is recommended for the new born because it is rich in antigens.
(B) Chikungunya is caused by a Gram negative bacterium.
(C) Tissue culture has proved useful in obtaining virus-free plants.
(D) Beer is manufactured by distillation of fermented grape juice.
How many of the above statement is/are wrong? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) One
Sol. Answer (2)
Corrected statements:
(1) Colostrum is recommended for the new born because it is rich in antibodies.
(3) Chikungunya is caused by a virus.
(4) Beer is manufactured without distillation of fermented grape juice.

25. Which one of the following acts as a physiological barrier to the entry of microorganisms in human body?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Skin (2) Epithelium of urogenital tract
(3) Tears (4) Monocytes
Sol. Answer (3)

26. Where will you look for the sporozoites of the malarial parasite? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Salivary glands of freshly moulted female Anopheles mosquito
(2) Saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito
(3) Red blood corpuscles of humans suffering form malaria
(4) Spleen of infected humans
Sol. Answer (2)
Salivary glands of infected female Anopheles mosquito contains sporozoites.
Life cycle of malaria takes place in liver and RBC of human not in spleen.

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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 17
27. A certain patient is suspected to be suffering form Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome. Which diagnostic
technique will you recommend for its detection? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) WIDAL (2) ELISA (3) MRI (4) Ultrasound
Sol. Answer (2)
Enzyme linked immuno sorbent assay– Test that uses antibodies and colour change to identify HIV (antigen).
WIDAL– Typhoid
MRI– Magnetic Resonance Imaging– Cancer.
Ultrasound– Used in medical imaging (visual representation of interior of body).

28. Select the correct statement with respect to diseases and immunisation [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) Certain protozoans have been used to mass produce hepatitis B vaccine
(2) Injection of snake antivenom against snake bite is an example of active immunisation
(3) If due to some reason B and T lymphocytes are damaged, the body will not produce antibodies against
a pathogen
(4) Injection of dead / inactivated pathogens causes passive immunity
Sol. Answer (3)

29. Read the following statement having two blanks (A and B).
“A drug used for __ (A)__ patients is obtained from a species of the organism __(B)__ .”
The one correct option for the two blanks is [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
Blank-A Blank-B
(1) Swine flu Monascus
(2) AIDS Pseudomonas
(3) Heart Penicillium
(4) Organ transplant Trichoderma
Sol. Answer (4)

30. Common cold is not cured by antibiotics because it is [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]

(1) Caused by a Gram-negative bacterium (2) Not an infectious disease
(3) Caused by a virus (4) Caused by a Gram-positive bacterium
Sol. Answer (3)
Antibiotics are taken against bacterial infections not against viral infections.
Common cold is an infectious disease.

31. Which one of the following options gives the correct matching of a disease with its causative organism and
mode of infection [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
Disease Causative Organisms Mode of Infection
(1) Elephantiasis Wuchereria bancrofti With infected water and food
(2) Malaria Plasmodium vivax Bite of male Anopheles mosquito
(3) Typhoid Salmonella typhi With inspired air
(4) Pneumonia Streptococcus pneumoniae Droplet infection
Sol. Answer (4)

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18 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

32. The pathogen Microsporum responsible for ringworm disease in humans belongs to the same Kingdom of
organisms as that of [AIPMT(Mains)-2011]
(1) Rhizopus, a mould (2) Ascaris, a round worm
(3) Taenia, a tapeworm (4) Wuchereria, a filarial worm
Sol. Answer (1)

33. Select the correct statement from the ones given below: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Barbiturates when given to criminals make them tell the truth
(2) Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as a pain killer.
(3) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and heart rate
(4) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it stimulates recovery
Sol. Answer (2)

34. Ringworm in humans is caused by [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]

(1) Viruses (2) Bacteria (3) Fungi (4) Nematodes
Sol. Answer (3)
Microsporum, Trichophyton, Epidermophyton are fungi causing ring worm.

35. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to AIDS? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper T lymphocytes thus reducing their numbers
(2) The HIV can be transmitted through eating food together with an infected person
(3) Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV infection
(4) AIDS patients are being fully cured cent per cent with proper care and nutrition
Sol. Answer (1)

36. Fastest distribution of some injectible material/ medicine and with no risk of any kind can be achieved by
injecting it into the [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) Muscles (2) Arteries (3) Veins (4) Lymph vessels
Sol. Answer (3)

37. Which one of the following techniques is safest for the detection of cancers? [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) (2) Radiography (X-ray)
(3) Computed tomography (CT) (4) Histopathological studies
Sol. Answer (1)

38. A person suffering from a disease caused by Plasmodium, experiences recurring chill and fever at the time
when? [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) The sporozoites released from RBCs are being rapidly killed and broken down inside spleen
(2) The trophozoites reach maximum growth and give out certain toxins
(3) The parasite after its rapid multiplication inside RBCs ruptures them, releasing the stage to enter fresh
RBCs
(4) The microgametocytes and megagametocytes are being destroyed by the WBCs
Sol. Answer (3)

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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 19
39. Which one of the following cannot be used for preparation of vaccines against plague? [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) Formalin-inactivated suspensions of virulent bacteria
(2) Avirulent live bacteria
(3) Synthetic capsular polysaccharide material
(4) Heat-killed suspensions of virulent bacteria
Sol. Answer (3)

40. Consider the following four statements (a–d) regarding kidney transplant and select the two correct ones out
of these.
a. Even if a kidney transplant is proper the recipient may need to take immuno-suppresants for a long
time.
b. The cell-mediated immune response is responsible for the graft rejection.
c. The B lymphocytes are responsible for rejection of the graft.
d. The acceptance or rejection of a kidney transplant depends on specific interferons.
The two correct statements are [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) a & b (2) b & c (3) c & d (4) a & c
Sol. Answer (1)
Corrected statements are:
c. The T-lymphocytes are responsible for rejection of the graft.
d. The acceptance or rejection of a kidney transplant depends on matching of tissue.

41. A person likely to develop tetanus is immunised by administering [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]

(1) Preformed antibodies (2) Wide spectrum antibiotics
(3) Weakened germs (4) Dead germs
Sol. Answer (1)

42. Alzheimer disease in humans is associated with the deficiency of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Glutamic acid (2) Acetylcholine
(3) Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) (4) Dopamine
Sol. Answer (2)

43. Which one of the following statements is correct ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]

(1) Benign tumours show the property of metastasis.
(2) Heroin accelerates body functions.
(3) Malignant tumours may exhibit metastasis.
(4) Patients who have undergone surgery are given cannabinoids to relieve pain.
Sol. Answer (3)

44. Use of anti-histamines and steroids give a quick relief from [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Nausea (2) Cough (3) Headache (4) Allergy
Sol. Answer (4)

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20 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

45. To which type of barriers under innate immunity, do the saliva in the mouth and the tears from the eyes, belong?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Physical barriers (2) Cytokine barriers (3) Cellular barriers (4) Physiological barriers
Sol. Answer (4)

46. Match the disease in Column I with the appropriate items (pathogen/prevention/treatment) in Column II
Column I Column II
a. Amoebiasis (i) Treponema palladium
b. Diphtheria (ii) Use only sterilized food and water
c. Cholera (iii) DPT Vaccine
d. Syphilis (iv) Use oral rehydration therapy [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
Sol. Answer (1)

47. Which one of the following is the correct statement regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary euphoria
(2) Hashish causes after thought perceptions and hallucinations
(3) Opium stimulates nervous system and causes hallucinations
(4) Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed emotions
Sol. Answer (2)
The corrected statments are:
(1) Barbiturates depresses brain activity and produce feeling of calmness, relaxation.
(3) Opium suppresses brain function and produce temporary euphoria.
(4) Morphine relieve pain and called analgesic.

48. Cornea transplant in humans is almost never rejected. This is because [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) It is a non-living layer (2) Its cells are least penetrable by bacteria
(3) It has no blood supply (4) It is composed of enucleated cells
Sol. Answer (3)

49. Ultrasound of how much frequency is beamed into human body for sonography? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) 45–70 MHz (2) 30–45 MHz (3) 15–30 MHz (4) 1–15 MHz
Sol. Answer (4)

50. Lysozyme that is present in perspiration, saliva and tears, destroys [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Most virus-infected cells (2) Certain fungi
(3) Certain types of bacteria (4) All viruses
Sol. Answer (3)

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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 21
51. A person showing upredictable moods, outbursts of emotion, quarrelsome behaviour and conflicts with others
is suffering from [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Schizophrenia (2) Borderline personality disorder (BPD)
(3) Mood disorders (4) Addictive disorders
Sol. Answer (2)

52. Antibodies in our body are complex [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]

(1) Lipoproteins (2) Steroids (3) Prostaglandins (4) Glycoproteins
Sol. Answer (4)

53. Both sickle cell anaemia and Huntington’s chorea are [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Bacteria-related diseases (2) Congenital disorders
(3) Pollutant-induced disorders (4) Virus-related diseases
Sol. Answer (2)

54. AIDS is caused by HIV that principally infects [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]

(1) All lymphocytes (2) Activator B cells (3) T4 lymphocytes (4) Cytotoxic T cells
Sol. Answer (3)

55. Which one of the following depresses brain activity and produces feelings of calmness, relaxation and
drowsiness? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Valium (2) Morphine (3) Hashish (4) Amphetamines
Sol. Answer (1)

56. Which of the following pair of diseases is caused by virus?

(1) Rabies, mumps (2) Cholera, tuberculosis (3) Typhoid, tetanus (4) AIDS, syphilis
Sol. Answer (1)
Rabies– Rhabdo virus, Mumps– Paramyxo virus Cholera, Tuberculosis, Typhoid, tetanus, syphilis are caused
by bacteria.
AIDS caused by HIV virus.

57. Aggregates of lymphoid tissue present in the distal portion of the small intestine are known as
(1) Villi (2) Peyer's patches (3) Rugae (4) Choroid plexus
Sol. Answer (2)
Villi– small, finger- like projections that protrude from thee epithelial lining of intestinal wall.
Rugae– large folds in the mucous membrane.
Choroid plexus– is a plexus in the ventricles of the brain where cerebrospinal fluid is produced.

58. Which of the following is not the main function of lymph glands?
(1) Forming RBC (2) Destroying bacteria (3) Forming WBC (4) Forming antibodies
Sol. Answer (1)
RBCs are formed in bone marrow.
Lymph glands serve to trap micro-organisms or other antigens which are present in lymph and tissues fluid.
These antigens activate lymphocytes which destroy these antigens.

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22 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

59. Which one of the following is important as one of the first line of defence against inhaled and ingested
pathogen?
(1) IgA (2) IgG (3) IgM (4) IgD
Sol. Answer (1)
It is the main immunoglobulin found in mucous secretions, tears, saliva, sweat, colostrum and secretions from
urinogenital tract, gastro genital tract, prostate and respiratory epithelium, which are all physical and
physiological barriers of innate immunity.

60. Saline solution is given to patients of cholera because

(1) Na+ prevents water loss from body (2) NaCl function as regulatory material
(3) NaCl produces energy (4) NaCl is antibacterial
Sol. Answer (1)
As Na+ is solute and it retains solvent in the body thus preventing loss of water from the body.

61. Interferons are synthesized in response to

(1) Mycoplasma (2) Bacteria
(3) Viruses (4) Fungi
Sol. Answer (3)
Interferons stimulate synthesis of anti-viral proteins. So they are used to control viral diseases but they do not
kill the virus.

62. The main reason why antibiotics could not solve all the problems of bacteria mediated disease is
(1) Decreased efficiency of the immune system
(2) Insensitivity of the individual following prolonged exposure to antibiotics
(3) Development of mutant strains resistant to antibiotics
(4) Activation of antibiotics by bacterial enzymes
Sol. Answer (3)
Antibiotics could not solve all the problems of bacteria medicated disease because due to continuous exposure
to antibiotics bacteria develops resistance against these antibiotics by undergoing mutations.

63. Carcinoma refers to

(1) Malignant tumours of the connective tissue
(2) Malignant tumours of the skin or mucous membrane
(3) Malignant tumours of the bone
(4) Benign tumours of the connective tissue
Sol. Answer (2)
Carcinoma refers to malignant tumours of epithelial tissue derived from ectoderm.

64. A metastatic cancerous tumour is termed ‘sarcoma’ if the disorder is in

(1) Fibroblasts (2) Circulatory system (3) Immune system (4) Epithelial cells
Sol. Answer (1)
Sarcomas are malignant growths arising in tissues derived from primitive mesoderm.
Fibroblasts are mesodermal in origin.

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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 23
65. Human immuno deficiency virus (HIV) has a protein coat and a genetic material which is
(1) Double stranded RNA (2) Double stranded DNA

(3) Single stranded DNA (4) Single stranded RNA

Sol. Answer (4)

Two single stranded molecules of RNA are found in HIV.

66. Which of the following is a viral glycoprotein that plays a role in the infection of human cells by HIV?

(1) gp 120 (2) CD4 (3) CCR5 (4) Both (1) & (3)

Sol. Answer (1)

gp 120 is viral glycoprotein
It interacts with CD4+ receptor of the host cell.
CCR5 acts as a co-receptor.

67. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) The antigen binding site of the antibody molecule is called ‘paratope’
(2) Toxoids provide with passive immunity
(3) ‘ATS’ anti-tetanus serum provides us with artificially induced passive immunity
(4) The first gene therapy was done for SCID in which the gene for the enzyme adenosine deaminase was
introduced
Sol. Answer (2)
Toxoids (inactive toxins) provide active immunity.

68. The modern idea about ageing is that our body slowly loses the power of defence against the invasion of germs
and pathogens. This process starts by the disappearance of which organ?
(1) Pituitary gland (2) Spleen (3) Thymus gland (4) Parathyroid gland
Sol. Answer (3)
Thymus provides an inductive environment for development of T-cells. Thymus begins atrophy (partial or complete
wasting away of a part of the body) with age which slows down the power of defence against the invasion of
germs.

69. Mark the incorrect statement

(1) Opioids are the drugs which bind to opioid receptors present in our central nervous system and
gastrointestinal tract
(2) Cocaine is obtained from coca plant Erythroxylum coca

(3) Natural cannabinoids are obtained from the inflorescence of the plant Cannabis sativa
(4) LSD (Lysergic Acid Diethylamide) is most powerful hallucinogen extracted from Papaver somniferum

Sol. Answer (4)

LSD shows hallucinogenic properties and is obtained from Claviceps purpurea (fruiting body of fungus).

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24 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

70. Which one of the following sets of items in the options (1) - (4) are incorrectly categorised with one exception
in it?

Items Category Exception

(1) PMNL, Cellular barrier Interferons

Interferons
NK cells
(2) Rheumatoid Auto-immune AIDS
arthritis disorders
Myasthenia
gravis, AIDS
(3) Plasmodium, Protozoan Entamoeba
Trypanosoma parasites
Entamoeba
(4) Typhoid, Bacterial Dengue
Pneumonia, diseases
Dengue

Sol. Answer (3)

Entamoeba is also a protozoan parasite.
Interferons are cytokine barriers
AIDS is not an auto-immune disorder
Dengue is a viral disease

71. Which of the following organisation is mainly related with AIDS?

(1) NACO (2) DOTS (3) RCH (4) WHO
Sol. Answer (1)
(1) NACO : National AIDS control Organisation
(2) DOTS : Tuberculosis– Directly observed Treatment Short-course.
(3) RCH : Reproductive and child health care programme– main aim to reduce infant, child and maternal
mortality rates.
(4) WHO : World Health Organization– Concerned with public health.

72. Short-lived immunity acquired from mother to foetus across placenta or through mother’s milk to the infant
is categorised as
(1) Active immunity (2) Passive immunity
(3) Cellular immunity (4) Innate non-specific immunity
Sol. Answer (2)
As readymade antibodies move across the placenta from mother to foetus.
Active immunity– When antibodies are produced in host body itself.
Cellular immunity: Immunity mediated by different type cells in body.
Innate non-specific immunity: Immunity present at the time of birth.

73. What is true about T-lymphocytes in mammals ?

(1) There are three main types - cytotoxic T-cells, helper T-cells and suppressor T-cells
(2) These originate in secondary lymphoid tissues
(3) They scavenge damaged cells and cellular debris
(4) These are produced in thyroid

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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 25
Sol. Answer (1)
This is true about T-cells in mammals.
The corrected statements are:
(2) These originate in primary lymphoid tissues (bone marrow)
(3) Phagocytic cells like monocytes scavenge damaged cells and cellular debris.
(4) These get mature in thymus.

74. Which of the following pairs of diseases is viral as well as transmitted by mosquitoes?
(1) Elephantiasis and dengue (2) Yellow fever and sleeping sickness
(3) Encephalitis and sleeping sickness (4) Yellow fever and dengue
Sol. Answer (4)
Yellow fever and dengue are caused by virus and transmitted by Aedes mosquito.
Elephantiasis : Helminthic disease, transmitted by Culex mosquito.
Sleeping sickness : Protozoan disease, transmitted by tse-tse fly.

75. Identify the incorrectly matched pair

(1) Plague – Viral diseases
(2) Malignant malaria – Plasmodium falciparum
(3) Common cold – Rhino virus
(4) Trichophyton – Ring worm
Sol. Answer (1)
Corrected is:
Plague: Bacterial disease

SECTION - D
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
1. A : Live attenuated vaccine is better in terms of immunity provided to the recipient.
R : As secondary lymphoid organs, example peyer's patches are stimulated to protect the individual.
Sol. Answer (1)
2. A : Asthma patients must never be exposed to dust.
R : Allergic response may cause vasoconstriction and death.
Sol. Answer (4)
Asthma patients can be exposed to dust but they should avoid exposure to dust as it can act as an allergen.
Allergic response may cause vasodilation and death.
3. A : Colostrum is a very efficient means of transferring immunity to a newborn.
R : IgM from mother’s milk protects the baby from the respiratory infection usually affecting in young age.
Sol. Answer (3)
Colostrum is very efficient means of transferring immunity to new born because it has abundant antibodies (IgA)
to protect the infant.

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26 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

IgA from mother's milk protects the baby from the respiratory infection usually affecting in young age.
4. A : Vaccine against AIDS has not been made inspite of repeated attempts.
R : HIV has the ability to get mutated to form several subtypes.
Sol. Answer (1)
5. A : Antibiotics like penicillin can be used to treat common cold.
R : Penicillin causes lysis of viral cells.
Sol. Answer (4)
Antibiotics like penicillin are taken against bacterial disease and common cold is viral disease.
Penicillin causes lysis of bacterial cells not viral cells.
6. A : It is considered advantageous to give the polio vaccine orally.
R : It prevents reinfection by causing intestinal immunity.
Sol. Answer (1)
7. A : Typhoid carriers may be cured by surgical removal of their gall bladder.
R : The disease germs remain concentrated in it.
Sol. Answer (1)
The bacteria of typhoid remain in gall bladder.
8. A : Cancer is contagious and cells can spread from one person to other.
R : Cancerous cells are highly dedifferentiated cells.
Sol. Answer (4)
Cancer is not contagious and cells do not spread from one person to other.
9. A : A person who has received a cut accidentally and is bleeding needs to be given anti-tetanus treatment.
R : Anti-tetanus injection provides active immunity by providing preformed antibodies for tetanus.
Sol. Answer (3)
A person who has received a cut accident and is bleeding needs to be given anti-tetanus treatment because
antigen causing tetanus may have entered the body against which preformed antibodies have to be injected
to avoid the effect of antigen.
Anti-tetanus injection provides passive immunity by providing preformed antibodies for tetanus.
10. A : LSD and marijuana are clinically used as analgesics.
R : Both these drugs suppress brain function.
Sol. Answer (4)
LSD and marijuana are hallucinogens.
Both these drugs do not suppress brain function instead they alter thoughts, feelings and perceptions.

  

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