ARADA SUB-CITY EDUCATION OFFICES IN DAGMAWI MINILIKE

CLUSTER CENTER GENERAL SCIENCE MODEL EXAMINATION

FOR GRADE 8

GINBOT 2015 E.C.

TIMEALLOWED: 1HR

THIS EXAMINATION CONTAINS 60 ITEMS .EACH QUESTION HAS FOUR

CHOICES MARKED A,B,C.D. READ EACH QUESTION AND THEN CHOICE
CAREFULLY.THEN MARK YOUR CHOICE ON THE SEPARATED
ANSWER SHEET YOU ARE PROVIDED.

USE ONLY PENCIL TO MARK YOUR ANSWERS. YOUR ANSWER

MARKED SHOULD BE HEAVY AND DARK THAT COVERS THE SPACE
COMPLETELY.PLEASE ERASE ALL ANNECESSARY PENCIL MARKS
COMPLETELY FROM YOUR ANSWER SHEET.IF YOU CHOOSE CHOICE
‘’C’’ FOR EXAMPLE,MARK THE THIRD SPACE LIKE THE FOLLOWING:

A B C D

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED ,YOU MAY GO BACK AND

REVIEW YOUR WORK. WHEN TIME IS CALLED .YOU MUST
IMMEDIATELY STOP WORKING,LAY YOUR PENCIL DOWN, AND WAIT
FOR FURTHER INSTRUCTIONS. ANY FORM OF CHEATING OR AN
ATTEMPT TO CHEAT IN THE EXAMINATION WILL RESULT IN AN
AUTOMATIC DISMISSAL FROM THE EXAMINATION HALL AND
CANCILLATION OF YOUR SCORES.

DO NOT TURN THIS PAGE UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

Dagmawi MenelikCluster Center General Science Model Examination for grade 8 in 2015 E.C

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 READ EACH QUESTION THEN CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWERS FROM
THE GIVEN ALTERNATIVES AND WRITE THE LETTER OF YOUR CHOICE
ON THE SEPARATE ANSWER SHEET WITH THE SPACE PROVIDED. (1
POINT EACH)

1. The distance from Addis Ababa to Makele is 783 km. What is the length between two
cities in meter?

A) 7830 m B) 0.0783m C) 78.30m D) 783 000 m

2. Most kids start primary school education when they are 7 years old. How many hours is
this age?

A) 2,555hrs B) 61,320hrs C) 3,679,200hrs D) 220,752,000hrs

3. Which one of the following is the SI unit of fundamental physical quantity?

A) m/s B) m C) m/s2 D) kg/m3

4. Among the following which one is indigenous method of measuring mass?

A) Cubit B) fathom C) Ferensula D) Shadow

5. In our solar system the estimated distance of the planet Jupiter from the sun is
779,000,000 km, which one of the following is the appropriate way of expressing this
distance in terms of prefixes?

A) 779 B) 77.9km C) 779Mkm D) 7.79km

6. Which one of the following is Democritus’ ancient debate about the nature of matter?

A) Matter is discrete. B) Matter is infinitely divisible.

C) Matter is continuous. D) Atom does not exist.

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7. The table below shows the measurement results of Student’s sucrose melting point data

Student’s sucrose melting point data

Student A Student B Student C
0 0
Trail 1 185 C 156 C 1740C
Trail2 1750C 1790C 1860C
Trail 3 1800C 1790C 1680C

Sucrose melting point (accepted value) 1850C

Based on the data provided in the above table, identify whether the result is

A) Accurate but not precise C) Precise but not accurate

B) Accurate and precise D) Neither precise nor accurate

8. Which of the following are the two main parts composing an atom?

A) The electronic shell and the protons. B) The protons and the neutrons.

C) The nucleus and the electronic shells. D) The electrons and the protons.

9. The atomic number of an element is equal to

A) The sum of the numbers of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom.

B) The difference between the mass number and the number of neutrons in an atom.

C) The difference between the mass number and the number of protons in an atom.

D) The number of neutron.

10. A molecule of an element consists of only one type of an atom is called -----

A) Mono-atomic molecule B) Di-atomic molecule

C) Poly-atomic molecule D) Molecules of compounds

11. Which of the following is not classified as inorganic compounds?

A) Carbonates and bicarbonates B) oxide and salt

C) Alkane and alkenes D) Acids and base

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12. Which of the following general formulas of hydrocarbons having a triple bond
between carbon atoms that represents alkynes?

A) CnH2n-2 B) CnH2n C) CnH2n+2 D) CnH2n+1

13. Hydrocarbon with a formula C7 H14 is

A) an alkyne B) an alkene C) an alkane D) an alkali

14. Which of the following is the name for a hydrocarbon with the formula C9H20?

A) Octane B) Octene C) Nonane D) Decane

15. Which one is an acidic oxides A) SO2 B) Na2O C) Li2O D) H2O

16. Which one of the following compounds is an organic compound?
A) CO2 B) C5H10 C) H2SO4 D) MgO
17. One of the following is the properties of a base?
A) Have bitter test B) change the color of blue indicators into red
C) Have sour test D) neutralize salt
18. Which of the following is a use of formalin?
A) Alcoholic drinking B) Cooking Food
C) Preserving animal specimen D) flavoring food
19. Which one of the following salts used to synthesize gun powder?
A) Magnesium hydroxide C) Sodium Chloride
B) Sodium Carbonate D) Potassium nitrate
20. Which of the following is not part of the integumentary system?

A) Nails B) Hairs C) cartilage D) skin

21. All of the following are found in the dermis EXCEPT

A) Fatty tissue B) sebaceous glands C) blood vessel D) Nerve endings

22. Which skin problem that results in blocked skin pores due to oil, bacteria and dead skin
cell buildup in your skin? A) Eczema B) Hives C) Warts D) Acne

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23. The muscles attached to the heart used to pumps blood around the body by involuntary
action known as. A) Smooth muscles B) skeletal muscles

C) Cardiac muscles D) voluntary muscles

24. The connective tissue that connects bones to muscle is:

A) Ligament B) muscle fiber C) non-striated muscle D) tendon

25. Which one of the following is fixed (immovable) joint?

A) Elbow B) knee C) hip D) Cranium

26. Which type of bone is not flat shaped bone?

A) Ribs B) vertebrae C) scapula D) sternum

27. Which of the following teeth type is correctly matched with its function?

A) Canine--- tearing and piercing food B) Incisors---crushing and grinding foods

C) Premolars--grinding foods D) Molars-tearing and piercing

28. If a given mammal has 4 incisors, 2 canines, 4 premolars and 6 molars on one half
of the upper and the lower jaw, its dental formula will be:

A) I=4/4, C=2/2, P=4/4, M=6/6 B) I=0/4, C=0/2, P=0/4, M=0/6

C) I=2/2, C=1/1, P=2/2, M=3/3 D) I=8/8, C=4/4, P=8/8, M=12/12

29. The blood vessels that carry deoxygenated (co2 rich) blood from all parts of the body
back to the heart A) Arteries B) Veins C) Capillaries D) Platelets

30. Which chambers of the heart pumped deoxygenated blood to the lung?

A) Right ventricle B) Right atrium C) left ventricle D) left atrium

31. Which one is true about Red blood cells (erythrocytes):

A) They are irregular shaped and nucleated C) They are used to blood clotting

B) They are used to transport oxygen D) They used to prevent the body from disease

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32. Which part of the human body organ serves as common passage of both food and air?

A) Pharynx B) Larynx C) Trachea D) Esophagus

33. Secondary sexual characteristics which are appearing in female during puberty include
except: A) Production of egg B) enlargement of breast

C) Production of sperm cell D) Widening of hip

34. The release of ovum from ovary to the oviduct is:

A) Ovulation B) Fertilization C) Ejaculation D) Menstruation

35. Which of the following female reproductive organ which serve as the site of
pregnancy? A) Womb B) Fallopian tube C) Vagina D) ovaries

36. Which one of the following is a hormone produced by the male reproductive glands
called testes?
A) Estrogen B) Progesterone C) Testosterone D) Bile
37. Which biological association is Wrongly matches?

A) Mutualism- one species benefits while the other species remains unaffected
B) Commensalism - One species benefits and the other is neither benefits nor harmed
C) Parasitism - One species benefits and the other is disadvantaged
D) Competition -Each species affected negatively
38. Which of the following describes predation symbiosis?

A) The association between insects and flowers

B) The association between a shark and remora fish

C) The association between tapeworm and human

D) The association between lion and buffalo

39. Which of the following processes removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?

A) Combustion B) Respiration C) Photosynthesis D) Decomposition

40. What is the process of water droplets or ice crystals falling from the sky?

A) Evaporation B) Condensation C) Precipitation D) Transpiration

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41. Which biological levels are correct from the most complex to the simplest?

A) Organism - population - community - ecosystem

B) Ecosystem - organism – community – population

C) Ecosystem – community – population – organism

D) Population – organism – community – ecosystem

42. What is the significance of natural resource conservation?

A) Disturbing the ecological balance C) Extinction of biological species

B) Maintaining biological diversity D) Disappearance of biodiversity

43. Which one of the following explains the meaning of conservation of natural
resources?

A) Excess use of natural resources B) Complete use of natural resources

C) Misuse of natural resources D) Wise use of natural resources

44. The conservation of species in their original ecosystem without disturbing their natural
habitat is called? A) In-Situ conservation B) Ex-Situ conservation

C) Ax-Situ conservation D) Vx-situ conservation

45. Which of these is a suitable example of Ex-situ conservation?

A) National park B) seed bank

C) Wildlife sanctuary D) Biosphere reserves

46. Which processes changing inert atmospheric nitrogen (N2) into usable form (NO3) for
plants in nitrogen cycle are called?

A) Denitrification B) nitrogen fixation C) Decomposition D) Assimilation

47. Which one is not true about global dimming?

A) Results in warmer temperature on earth B) It produces cooling effects on earth

C) Caused by concentration of unburn hydrocarbon D) It brings literal darkness on earth

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48. Which of the following type of soil is matched with its properties?

A) Clay soil has low water holding capacity

B) Sandy soil has greatest water holding capacity

C) Loam soil is the most fertile soil

D) Sandy soil has high water retaining capacity

49. Which of the following soil types contains the largest soil particles size?

A) Clay soil B) Loam soil C) Sandy soil D) Silt soil

50. In our solar system, which of them are the closest and the farthest planets from the sun,
respectively?

A) Venus and Uranus B) Earth and Jupiter

C) Mars and Jupiter D) Mercury and Neptune

51. Which of the following dwarf planet is found in the Asteroid belt?

A) Ceres B) Eris C) Pluto D) makemake

52. Which one of the following planet has largest number of natural satellites?

A) Mercury B) Saturn C) Jupiter D) Neptune

53. Refraction of light occurs because of _____.

A) Traveling of light in the media of same density

B) Traveling of light in the media of different density

C) Traveling of light with the same speed in the media

D) The bouncing of light at the interface of the media

54. What type of reflection occurs in rough surface Except?

A) Irregular reflection B) Regular reflection

C) scattered reflection D) Diffuse reflection

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55. What is reflection of light?

A) The bending of light as it passes into two different medium

B) The splitting of light into different colors.

C) The conversion of light into other energy.

D) The bouncing back of light at a surface

56. Which one of the following materials allows light to pass through them completely?

A) Oiled paper B) Ordinary glass C) frosted glass D) waxy paper

57. When living organism (animals) emits light on its own are called?

A) Biofluorescence B) Bioluminescence

C) Luminous object D) Non – luminous object

58. A Materials which allows any light to pass through them partially are called________.

A) Transparent materials B) Translucent material

C) Opaque materials D) Reflecting materials

59. Which one of the following is incorrect about virtual image?

A) Image is the same size as the object B) Images are always laterally inverted

C) Images can be placed on a screen D) Images are as far behind the mirror

60. Which one of the following is no natural source (luminous object) of light?

A) Sun B) moon C) lightning D) star

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Answer for General Science Subject May/2015E.C

1.D 16. B 31. B 46. B

2.B 17.A 32.A 47.A

3. B 18.C 33.C 48.C

4.C 19.C 34. A 49. C

5. C 20.A 35.A 50.D

6. A 21.D 36.C 51.A

7.D 22.D 37.A 52.B

8.C 23.D 38. D 53.B

9. B 24.C 39. C 54.B

10. A 25. D 40. C 55.D

11.C 26. B 41. C 56.B

12. A 27.C 42. B 57.B

13.B 28.A 43.D 58. B

14. C 29.B 44.A 59.C

15. A 30. A 45.B 60.B

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