Series SR5QP/5 Set-3 FHT aS QP. Code [RUE wai. utenedt wet—aa Sls Bl Segara Roll No. age aaa fare | Candidates must write the Q.P. Code wee on the title page of the answer-book. oi POLITICAL SCIENCE Fraffta ara: 38 Te HEAT HF : 80 Time allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 80 we NOTE ( Fra sia ar a fH va yew Fyfe] Please check that this question 33 2381 paper contains 23 printed pages. (I) evan sia ax of f& ga eI—oa 30 ver a1 ci) Please check that this question paper contains 30 questions. (ILD sea 4 artes ara A atte feu Te wea Ww as wT Tene st-aferm & yE- (il) Q-P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should . be written on the title page of the aR fre cid ' answer-book by the candidate. (LV) Bea wea ST Ser feraaT Y= Se a yee, | (IV) Please write down the serial Seger F wea ar aes stare Pes | number of the question in the answer-book before attempting it. (V) sa we—ca al Tea & fee 15 fe ar ana fear e | yeaa I fae Gate F 10.15 3a fear TET | 10.15 a 10.30 a4 aH Thane sae WA-Ta FT Uet oik ga sats} hr 3 ae-gferat Wal se 7a fra | 2259/5/3 1 1 15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 am. the candidates will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on the answer-book during this period. P.T.O.ae _ aera Raat : Prafafed Raat a ergs afgy stk sre Ter Ahr : (i) Fa WeT-4 F320 Were | ae wer sitar e | (i) yea-49 We est F Friar 2 — GS %, G, 7, TUTE | (iii) GOSH : WET GOT LH 12 TH GHA TER H TPT | ATH IT SH TE | (iv) GOs-w : WEI GT 13 818 aH ey TIT WN H WET B | weep MET 2 seBY TB | TE IPT BITH 50H 60 eat At feta | (vo) @es-7 : eT FET 19 4 23 se sala VER I & wer & | We eT A aT BT | eile Tet BT TR 100 H 120 wegh# ferfeag | (vi) GOSH: We TEA 24 TLE HM, HILT Te ATA AA HTT IAB | TI TET BT TR wee Ferree | (vii) Gos — F : 37 GEN 27 B30 +h Gel Tela WER & We & | Ve MET 6 Tee BT Behe eT BT TR 170 F 180 weet H feafeae | (viii) 3e7 99 F als ara Praer ae 2 1 Tall Be Meat F srratte Fawo" Br ITT FAT TAT B 1 ga weal Ha eret Cw BF IE BI TH AST AT | (ix) sae sifatted, err é fe giarttrd Rian at % fere wen ara ar ale HTT B EMT HU HI MPA LEA TA & | FI TEA TH HeICT BAT THA BF KTS | 2259/5/3 2ee _ GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS : Read the following instructions carefully and follow them : @ w (iii) (iv) (7) (vi) (vii) (viii) (x) 2259/5/3 This question paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory. Question paper is divided into FIVE SECTIONS - Section A, B, C, D &E. Section A— question number 1 to 12 are multiple choice type questions. Each question carries 1 mark. Section B— question number 13 to 18 are Short Answer type questions. Each question carries 2 marks. Write answer to each question in 50 to 60 words. Section C - question number 19 to 23 are Long Answer type-I questions. Each question carries 4 marks. Write answer to each question in 100 to 120 words. Section D — question number 24 to 26 are passage, cartoon and Map- based questions. Answer each question accordingly. Section E - question number 27 to 30 are Long Answer type-II questions. Each question carries 6 marks. Write answer to each question in 170 to 180 words. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions has to be attempted. In addition to this, NOTE that a separate question has been provided for Visually Impaired candidates in liew of questions having visual inputs, Map etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually Impaired candidates only. 3 P.T.O.ee _ WEF We GET 13 12 Te agtaeta wens 1 seh wee | 12x1=12 1. Peafatad aerial o1 erecaagar oraferd fifay sik sen & wy taal fees BAe 1 () ararehg erga ae eeaTATT Gi) Sea mie Ht ee (iii), ae a Pair (iv) sts a wee (SS.) HITT (A) @), Gi), Gi), Gv) (8) Gi), Gv), Gi), @ (©) Gv), @, Gi, Gi) ©) Gv), @, Gil), Gi) fea wear 9 aiferaa ae 8 arerare % sia at Fahrea Peat ? 1 (A) ear Frege az (B) 78 fea rae FI er (©) atfeaa aa ar fret (D) sath sederaeen taf ana & Sho Sra & ears we fs sae wr are fee Ten aes 1 (A) ae aga get et aT aT | (B) ae frre Alas Steet aor ae wet A arora Ste SET eT | (C) Fey ae 8 aaa aise 7 arent aT | (D) %e Usa aot area aa Aaa Prafatiad 4 8 aia us after ars aera vei 8? 1 (A) edt ar area (B) sere © 7 (@) wet sear 2259/5/3 4ee _ SECTION -A Question No. 1 to 12 are Multiple Choice type questions carrying 1 mark each. 12x1=12 1. Arrange the following events in chronological order and choose the correct option as answer : 1 (@) Tashkent Agreement was signed (ii) Ass: nation of Indira Gandhi (iii) Creation of Bangladesh (iv) Formation of Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) (A) @), Gi), Gil), (iv) ®B) Gi), Gv), Gi), @ (©) Gv), @), Gi), Gai) @) Gv), @, Gi), Gi) 2. Which event marked the end of Communism in the Soviet Union ? 1 (A) Cuban Missile Crisis (B) Rise of New World Order (©) Disintegration of the Soviet Union (D) Rise in US economy 3. Planning Commission of India was replaced with NITI Aayog because (A) it had become very old. (B) it was becoming irrelevant to face the new challenges of development. (C) it was totally based on Socialist model. (D) many states were not in favour of Planning Commission. 4. Which one of the following is NOT a global common ? 1 (A) Earth's atmosphere (B) Antarctica (C) Forests (D) Outer space 2259/5/3 5 P.T.O.Ee 5. Sasa ara ferftan fret & ercfierg #1 aT aT aT | (A) sacra (B) fer (C) wrens @) waver 6. cacao dhe aang sn & Pratfire feemra & fore Praferfad 8 & fee rea fear Tat a? (A) Rates areir () ar ari (C) ene sat () fe aratr 7. ara acute % ae 1960 f geratea ser ate Preafettad 8S fra aa 8 arate 2? (a) wd (B) fg () ag @) =a 8. Are fee yea Ff ct peril el weer: arenes (A) ce HTT (R) Hw | ifthe fea AT 21s wr Fal farmed are Fifarc | saftrmert (A) : aca 4 Sfgerm araraeo mf Star aT Te | RT (R) : aed & aaa Hose H sites Fa AI en Heer Hell SI A 2 | ‘freer: (A) sifted (A) site are (R) arti aa & sik re (R) armas (A) Al ae STEM F | (B) aftrper (A) otk ere (R) Set aa Z, FEY BIT (R) safe (A) A wa TET wea! (C) after (A) wal 2, Aha Gre (R) Tea 2 (D) safrarers (A) era 2, feo aT (R) TET? | 2259/5/3 6ee _ 5. 2259/5/3 7 P.T.O. Name the state from which Chhattisgarh was carved out. (A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Bihar (C) Jharkhand (D) Madhya Pradesh Which one of the following was formed for the planned development of India, just after independence ? (A) Election Commission (B) Planning Commission (C) Shah Commission (D) NITI Aayog The water treaty signed between India and Pakistan in 1960 is related to which one of the following rivers ? (A) Ravi (B) Indus (C) Satlyj (D) Chenab In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Choose the correct option as answer. Assertion (A) : Presently the global atmosphere is warming up Reason (R) : A steady decline in the total amount of Ozone in the earth’s stratosphere. Options : (A) Both the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are correct, and the Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A). (B) Both the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are correct, but the Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A). (C) The Assertion (A) is correct, but the Reason (R) is incorrect. (D) The Assertion (A) is incorrect, but the Reason (R) is correct.a _ 9. frafefad 48 a 1991 F cifaad Ga F ge TeMIee aT fate Bel Fare SH BT SRR AT? (A) afta aeater (8) Rie @aa (©) tata (D) ates carter 10. @eh-l ar aat-11 a aa fra ifire : ae qr (a) | ero tens da Hf are seloraeen wt eR ard | (i) | Arete ATT TERA ET (>) | vee ga eer F gear BI eT AT | Ha ae TH | Gi) | TT TORTS | © | aia a act a fio ew ee Gi) | area (@) | a ak cada ares agi & dhe det FH, ga | (iv) | Fa eat aan chad 1 art | wal fared he @) ) © @ A) Gi) @ G) Gy) ®) Gg) @ Gi) Gy) © Gg) @ Gy) Gi) ©) dy) @ G) @ LL. Prafefsd #8 ura Ft ate ai ww eet Reread 9 yeora F ude de F enfte eA er farther fase ear ? (A) star (B) eevee © *R (D) safer 2259/5/3 8Ee 9. Who among the following emerged as a national hero in opposing the coup in the Soviet Union in 1991 ? (A) Boris Yeltsin (B) Nikita Khrushchev (C) Gorbachev (D) Joseph Stalin 10, Match the List-I with the List-II correctly : List-I List-II (a) |The first country to liberalise its | (i) | Maldives economy in the South Asian region. (b) | Earlier this country had the Sultan as its | (ii) | India Head of State. Now, it is a republic. ()_| Aland locked country. Gii) | Pakistan (a) | In the conflict between the military and | (iv) | Nepal the pro-democracy groups, the military had prevailed over democracy in this country. Choose the correct option : @) &) © @ @) Gi) @ Gi) Gy) (B) Gi) @ Gil) Gv) © Gd) @ Gy) Gi) @) (iv) Gi) Gi) @ 11. Which one of the following Princely States of India initially opposed joining the Indian Union ? (A) Baroda (B) Hyderabad (C) Mysore (D) Gwalior 2259/5/3 9 P.T.O.13. 18. Are feu re yea Hat eri at eer: sarees (A) wT HRT (R) & EY F gifs PT aT Bsa BF ae famed HI we fs | 1 after (A): aed At ora Gara B set, ci A ora aeqail A <érrai gfe, erat &) aah cen aad 3 Sse & frag seer Be ae RE | BN (R) AER A eH, SAT BET, Sch Hr Fara F fteae den HN Ere aE Farmer tert | ‘freer: (A) siftraer (A) ait sere (R) erat ara & ik HET (R) siftrme (A) Ft ae TET? | (B) sree (A) sit are (R) SAT wat, Teg BIT (R) sefeperT (A) A Bet SATE waz (C) siftrasert (A) we &, cif rE (R) Tera | (D) aiftrerert (A) era @, Sifter wre (R) were | WE-a 6x2=12 erg ETT ATE” HI STATO BL WH STR HY TAA B STE HIATT | 2 |. AR cores sik gare sftere § at 1967 a Uw Fecal Tera AA & SHS Ct TOT ere Fifer | 2 . Sienigta Great & fei 3 anit wr sears Fife | 2 rsa Hl HT FH HHS Sl CTH CE FIAT | 2 1985 4 gy tora Baga at fret a faeersit aor aols Are | 2 rater ait wrepferes Sarena & Hee, ferge eorhife apr fee weit aa Te S 2 Pre St aereoTT ar fazer =Bifarc | 2 2259/5/3 10ee _ 12. 13, 14, 16. 17. 18. In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Choose the correct option as answer. 1 Assertion (A) : People started protesting against the increase in prices of essential commodities, food scarcity and growing unemployment before the fourth General elections in India. Reason (R) : Failure of monsoons, widespread drought, decline in agricultural production and serious food shortage caused the problem. Options : (A) Both the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are correct and the Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A). (B) Both the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are correct, but the Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A). (C) The Assertion (A) is correct, but the Reason (R) is incorrect. (D) The Assertion (A) is incorrect, but the Reason (R) is correct. SECTION - B 6x2=12 Explain the concept of “Common Property Resources” with the help of an example. 2 Explain any two reasons to consider the year 1967 as a landmark year in India’s political and electoral history. 2 Explain any two advantages of having international organisations. 2 Explain any two advantages of Coalition governments. 2 Describe any two features of the Punjab Accord 1985. 2 Analyse any two reasons as to why issues of environment and natural resources have become a part of the World Politics. 2 2259/5/3 i P.T.O.Ee 20. 21. 22. 23. we-7 5x4=20 ‘Seefienen & fared at sera wera aor fae FfSre | 4 (a) UREA 4 ape cada eaita ae a ong fd a qe aifeet St ore afar | 4 aaa (>) “are > afar ured exit Hi aguatia aredi & mre a eee ferwfea Be A att eT ATS 1” ST STENT GU GA HEH AH MATA SETS | 4 ana oh cadre & AS cent NF farts em a Ch Pelee F ales wera aT ao afar | 4 1975 Hany Rau re saree @ ate ne Pei a ret (aes) ar aca AFSTT | 4 (a) “Hee 3 aera se fares & ag ehh va wads Bait & are aed Se wre wa fea ea Sit ana & dha day att oft aad oiftew carat 3 1” Peet St screcit Al Sera a a He HY IATA SET | 4 eat (bo) wha qa aie & @hm, arith aeforsen fava & a feet At gem 4 aftr fafa ot 1 fire dite soreh # ge tel fasted efi, st ga ote @ ote eed & | tel fed @ feeansit er geste Fihare | 4 2259/5/3 12ee _ 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 2259/5/3 SECTION - C 5x4=20 Analyse any two negative effects of Globalisation. (a) (b) Explain any two main challenges faced by Pakistan in establishing a successful democracy. OR “SAARC has taken a major regional initiative in South Asian States to evolve co-operation through multilateral means.” Justify the statement with two examples. Describe the events that took place in Sikkim from the time of India’s independence to its merger with India. Describe any two lessons learnt from the emergency imposed in 1975. () “After the disintegration of Soviet Union, India has maintained good relations with all the new independent countries, but the most cordial relations are still there between Russia and India.” Justify the statement with two examples. OR During Cold War period the US economy was more developed than the rest of the world. Still the Soviet system had some special features which distinguish it from the US. Evaluate any two such features. 13 P.T.O.ee _ we-0 3x4=12 24, fen men arg 9a 2006 4 gana grr Sarara ae my ora B arate | BTA aT sary sere eh oe fee me wea Ser aif: (a) erga A feare mea ‘ci (settee Fae) & sere oe Gear GSA BT TEI HL see aa faftae. | 1 (bo) erga # fare re cafe at Gea et seep ATH ferfeae | 1 (© Sa a aA K aH ae feo aT? 2 We: (24.1) (24.2) (24.3) (24.4) (2259/5/3 Prafafad we Sac gitenttrr venkat & fee, wet den 24S eI € 4x1=4 ‘afias (UNICEF) a faega @9 ferfiae | Be at area oi sii Asie ar serferare eT ? Waa Te & ree Paes Bait eee fase J 2 wage ug Ft am ai wet Geary tenfieht Fy gran sik wifemeh saa a Tait 2? 14ee _ SECTION - D 3x4=12 24, The given cartoon is related to Israel's attack on Lebanon in June 2006. Study the cartoon carefully and answer the questions given below : (a) Identify and name the organisation whose four Logos are shown in the cartoon. 1 (b) Identify and name the person shown in the cartoon. 1 (© Why did Israel attack Lebanon ? 2 Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired (24.1) (24.2) (24.3) (24.4) (2259/5/3 Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 24. 4x1=4 Write full form of UNICEF. Which organisation became the successor of League of Nations ? How many states signed the United Nations Charter ? Which U.N. agency is concerned with the safety and peaceful use of nuclear technology ? 1b P.T.O.a ——_ 25, Fra fea ny staan ar tere Hifare sit feu me wet a oer aire : 4x1=4 Una & ote-as fats steer & eat A te arr A aera & faeg sale aa Sree ST | Biers eft A seca Testa shire & ee Hen ar Pate fea | gfe oft pt ART aT fae arash et See HT apr Te BA & fre Shs Re sea aah, | waraTst & meat ol Taare F ata weet 3 Uterftres freer Prarg atte siftrnat wrarst wt we onda da Fane a & fore ost ax fora | (25.1) (25.2) (25.3) (25.4) 2259/5/3 1947 4 farfeer fear & fase & ara fa fergie sr orem Pear ra aT ? (A) sarah faa ar fait (B) aide deat ar fgia (C) anfties ageren =r Feat (D) Barra ar Praia eae UR eH ST -TeAT H ? (A) ot. fain. sraeat B) Rew (C) a. () UR agR TEER ear & are fate sfosar H Papert Set feared ef ? (A) 556 (®) 566 (C) 655 (D) 565 cat fered & aH gat S Sha a Hers Teta BP (A) Sie ata He Ail Hl caraead 2% fer da a | (B) Sarre & rere 9 eas ee hr fear 9 apr heen fea aT | (C) eat feared fortes sree ararsa % wep fererg ar Hi prea eff | (D) ¥e feared ere wa 8 sree da ar fea aa Tet eH | 16ee _ 25. Read the p: The interim government took a firm stance agaii sage given below and answer the questions that follow: 4x 1=4 t the possible division of India into small principalities of different sizes. The Muslim League opposed the Indian National Congress and took the view that the States should be free to adopt any course they liked. Sardar Patel played a historic role in negotiating with the rulers of princely states firmly but diplomatically and bringing most of them into the Indian Union. (25.1) (25.2) (25.3) (25.4) 2259/5/3 Which principle was followed for the division of British India at the time of partition in 1947 ? (A) Principle of administrative control (B) Principle of ethnic composition (C) Principle of religious majorities (D) Principle of equality Who was the first Deputy Prime Minister of free India ? (A) Dr. BR. Ambedkar (B) Sardar Patel (©) V.K. Menon (D) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan How many princely states were there in British India at the time of independence ? (A) 556 (B) 566 (C) 655 () 565 Which of the following statements about the princely states is NOT correct ? (A) The Indian government was ready to give autonomy to some regions. (B) The ruler of Junagadh had decided to be part of independent India. (C) Princely states covered one third of the land area of British Indian empire. (D) Some of the princely states clearly wanted to become part of the Indian Union. 17 P.T.O.a ——_ 26. fe ae una & worifas tar-arfea H, an usai wT (A), (B), (C) aeT (D) we aaa Tren @ | area at ag arte & aren oe ge Usa Ht aera Hifare sik set SaR- gfe ere ae ag, wear Al 1g Grad Al sen Ger ae aafaa H few are Self sree Hy few mre sey & STAR ferfeae : 4x1=4 wat fig sera ot em | artes A aaftra sree TTT wer G) Gi) Gi) (iv) (i) Ae TST eT Se. TagtTg BAT Tech hse aa aT Tea PAT TAT IT | Gi) area sada & deers vera vere Gasil B defies Tse | ii) ae Ts9 Breen aaa Pe sere careteTe Fee a aT | (iv) Wa career Hel ope ary Ske elles Ta | 2259/5/3 18In the given Political outline map of India, four states have been marked as (A), @B), (C) and (D). Identify these states on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book along with the respective serial numbers of the information used and the concerned alphabets shown in the map as per the format that follows : 4x1=4 Sr, Number of the Alphabet Name of the information used concerned State G@) Gi) (iii) Gv) (i) ‘The state where the first non-Congress government was formed by EMS. Namboodiripad. (ii) The state that belongs to Syama Prasad Mookerjee, founder of Bharatiya Jana Sangh. (iii) 'The state to which former Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru belonged. (iv) The state related to former Health Minister Rajkumari Amrit Kaur. POLITICAL OUTLINE MAP OF INDIA 2259/5/3 19 P.T.O.ee _ Prafafed we sae gienitrs venkat & fare, wet der 26 & ea él 4x1=4 (26.1) saTeT ara fafae sei g.en.e. aietire art vectt ane ae aT Trea fear TAT aT | (26.2) aa Se yer ated argea aera fara | (26.3) 9 ada area oe gem aredia eae seer gro aise Tories ee BI AT ferftae | (26.4) Sra fl ge area ae aspen tga we ara Tse aor ay fafa | 27. (a) (b) 28. (a) (b) 2259/5/3 wWE-s 4x6=24 Ae GAT BT FT HES 7 A AM aH GAM Bi Sa HAUT dts giaT ere Fifer | 24+4=6 aa Ran Fr oraice oreo apr are ere Sify | are Bee Sr TET ITT & FareT eT cea Ft Sarr HAST | Q+2Qt+2=6 earca ree oht fereen sifet 3 ariel fares aT HT ATH HI Br Tara fp ze 1” wa mem ya 8 is dia saga wh AAR | 6 aT coma faatafrantiqen i afar ar ue vac area att org At ft wr eet fret ware Pea Ser aa Fa de saga TH AA | 6 20ee _ Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 26. 4x1=4 (26.1) Name the state where the first non-Congress government was formed by E.M.S. Namboodiripad. (26.2) Who was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India ? (26.3) Name the political party formed by the former first Indian Governor General of independent India. (26.4) Name the state which is related to Rajkumari Amrit Kaur, the former Health Minister of India. SECTION - E 4x6=24 27. (a) What is meant by human security ? Differentiate between the narrow and broad concepts of human security. 24+4=6 OR (b) Explain the meaning of traditional notion of security. Highlight any two components of traditional notion of external security. 2+2+2=6 28, (a) “The foreign policy of independent India has pursued the dream of a peaceful world.” Support the statement with any three suitable arguments. 6 OR (b) “India was a staunch supporter of the decolonization process and firmly opposed racism.” Support the statement with any three suitable arguments 6 2259/5/3 21 P.T.O.29. (a) (b) 30. (a) (b) 2259/5/3 sift ordoraren area gum 3 aragg, oa 3 enh chit stg gard ar aH ih si fer oer 2 ag ata are ferftae | SRT aia va a, we ankle aed arch caaear & agen afters cori trea aaa Ht aa aor aha AAS | 20d aa & aif care & che reds corte F afea fei da wpS serTsHt BT re Sif | aaa 1989 % are Tea whaeral sik He Gaat & aa, saftrnia ceil 8 oad orm wena fared dia faigatt 1 ere Fifarc | 22ae _ 29. (a) (b) 30. (a) (b) 2259/5/3 While the Chinese economy has improved dramatically, why has everyone in China not received the benefits of the reforms ? State any three reasons OR Describe the process of evolution of the European Union from an Economic Union to an increasingly Political one. Explain any three major developments which took place in Indian politics during the last decade of the 20" century. OR In the midst of severe competition and many conflicts after 1989, a consensus appeared to have emerged among most parties. Explain any three points of consensus. 232595/3 PAPEG 24