Vishwabharati Defence Academy

Admission Entrance Exam

Sample test Paper (Set A)

Marks: 400 Time: 120 minutes

ROLL NO.: _________________________ NAME: ___________________________

SIGNATURE:_________________________ DATE / TIME:_______________________

INSTRUCTIONS FOR THE CANDIDATES

1. The question booklet contains English section (Q 1-36), Mathematics Section (Q 37-66) and GAT
Section (67-100)
2. Before attempting the paper carefully read all the Instructions & Examples given on Side 1 of Answer
Sheet (OMR Sheet) supplied separately.
3. At the start of the examination, please ensure that all pages of your Test booklet are properly
printed; your Test booklet is not damaged in any manner and contains 100 questions. In case of any
discrepancy the candidate should immediately report the matter to the invigilator for replacement
of Test Booklet. No claim in this regard will be entertained at the later stage.
4. An OMR Answer Sheet is being provided separately along with this Test booklet. Please fill up all
relevant entries like Roll Number, Test Booklet Code etc. in the spaces provided on the OMR Answer
Sheet and put your signature in the box provided for this purpose.
5. Make sure to fill the correct Test booklet code on Side 2 of the OMR Answer Sheet. If the space for
the Booklet Code is left blank or more than one booklet code is indicated therein, it will be deemed
to be an incorrect booklet code & Answer Sheet will not be evaluated. The candidate himself will be
solely responsible for all the consequences arising out of any error or omission in writing the test
booklet code.
6. This Test Booklet consists of 10 pages containing 100 questions. Against each question four
alternative choices (1), (2), (3), (4) are given, out of which one is correct. Indicate your choice of
answer by darkening the suitable circle with BLACK/BLUE pen in the OMR Answer Sheet supplied to
you separately. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited. More than one answer indicated against a
question will be deemed as incorrect response.
7. The maximum marks are 400. Each question carries four marks. There will be negative marking of
minus one (-1) for each incorrect answer.
8. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the OMR Answer Sheet. Any stray mark or smudge on the
OMR Answer Sheet may be taken as wrong answer. Any damage to OMR Answer Sheet may result in
disqualification of the candidate.
9. On completion of the test, candidate must hand over the OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator on
duty in the room/hall. You may retain the Question Booklet.
10. Use of Mobile phones, wrist watches and calculators etc. are not allowed.
 SECTION – ENGLISH
Directions (Question 1 to 6). In these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one
which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

1. Apprise
(1) winner (2) trophy (3) curious (4) inform

2. Discipline
(1) dictator (2) rigid (3) obedience (4) sincere

3. Swift
(1) quick (2) car (3) noise (4) hasty

4. Terse
(1) sullen (2) brief (3) verbose (4) crying

5. Honour
(1) important (2) rich (3) respect (4) mighty

6. Instill
(1) lessen (2) induct (3) understand (4) introduce

Directions (Question 7 to 10).From the four options given, choose a word / phrase which is
similar in meaning to the under lined word in each sentence.

7. The treaty was ratified by the heads of state.

(1) annulled (2) discussed (3) set aside (4) agreed to

8. We didn’t believe his statements, but subsequent events proved that he was right.
(1) earlier (2) many (3) few (4) later

9. He has suspended his secretary on flimsy grounds.

(1) strong (2) fussy (3) funny (4) very weak

10. He is quite meticulous in his dealings with others.

(1) indifferent (2) haughty (3) very careful (4) reserved

Directions (Question 11 to 14). In these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the
one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences.

11. A person who believes that war should be abolished

(1) war mongerer (2) pacifist (3) abolitionist (4) activist
 12. A person who is interested in and good at many different things.
(1) versatile (2) specialist (3) student (4) cadet

13. A ruler who has absolute authority.

(1) aristocratic (2) leader (3) dictator (4) president

14. A person who is a good speaker.

(1) witty (2) orator (3) wise man (4) politician

Directions (Question 15 to 19). Four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase / word in
italics in the sentence. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase

15. The Louvre is a world’s largest museum.

(1) grand (2) one (3) only (4) the

16. Science and Technology is enriched man’s life.

(1) have (2) has (3) are (4) does

17. With his rash action he really upset the apple cart
(1) threw the apples away (2) broke the cart
(3) spoil carefully laid plans (4) executed the plan immediately

18. The disgruntled man threw a spanner in the works

(1) hit with a spanner (2) used his spanner with force
(3) prevented the plan from succeeding (4) stopped working

19. To forgive the injury is often considered a sign of weakness.

(1) this (2) an (3) thus (4) only

Directions (Question 20 to 23). Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an
appropriate word(s). Choose the correct alternative out of the four.

20. Concentration is _____________ by alertness.

(1) helped (2) help (3) will help (4) helps

21. Don’t let setbacks ___________ your determination to succeed.

(1) effect (2) effected (3) affected (4) affect

22. Effective speaking _______________ on effective listening.

(1) depend (2) depends (3) depended (4) depending

23. They believe that logic _____________ no place in faith.

(1) have (2) had (3) having (4) has
Directions (Question 24 to 25). Some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find
out which part (1), (2) or (3) of a sentence has an error. If there is no error mark your answer (4)

24. (1) Complaints usually come (2) from those which are
(3) inefficient or unhappy (4) no error

25. (1) A hungry man becomes desperate (2) and his despair turns
(3) in anger (4) no error

Directions (Question 26 to 28).Reorder P,Q,R,S to make a meaningful sentence.

26. P: real murderer Q: who the R: is S: find out

(1) PQRS (2) SQPR (3) QRPS (4) PSRQ

27. P: many clues Q: there are R: pointing to S: the real culprit

(1) QPRS (2) PSQR (3) QSPR (4) SPRQ

28. P: detective story Q: go R: through the S: written below

(1) RPSQ (2) SQRP (3) QRPS (4) SPRQ

Directions (Question 29 to 36). In these questions, you have two brief passages with 4
questions following each passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer out
of the four alternatives.

PASSAGE – 1

The price of rudeness was more than Alice could bear. She got up in great disgust and walked off. The
Dormouse fell asleep instantly and neither of the other took any notice of her going. She looked back
once or twice half hoping that they would call after her but they didn’t. The last time she saw them, they
were trying to put the Dormouse into the tea pot.

29. The word ‘disgust’ means

(1) revulsion (2) strong wind (3) hurry (4) anger

30. What was Dormouses response to Alice’s walk out?

(1) he instantly fell asleep (2) he pleaded Alice not to leave
(3) he too left with Alice (4) he went into the tea pot

31. What did Alice do when she couldn’t bear the price of rudeness?
(1) she quarreled with others (2) she took up the matter with them
(3) she left the place in great disgust (4) she stayed put and did nothing

32. What were they doing when Alice last saw them?
(1) they fell asleep (2) they were trying to put the Dormouse into the tea pot
(3) they left the place (4) they were taking tea
 PASSAGE – 2

Robin Hood, surprised at the stranger’s courage, started fighting in earnest, using his stick with great
skill. He was very quick on his feet, and hit the giant with many quick blows. But the giant proved to be
equally skillful, though he was not as quick as Robin Hood. The two men, each trying to knock the other
down into the stream, fought hard and long. At last Robin Hood gave such a blow on the giant’s knees
that he fell into the stream. But before his fall, the stranger succeeded in giving Robin Hood a blow on
his head. Robin Hood reeled and fell into the stream too. With great difficulty both the men reached the
bank. The stranger was limping and he was in great pain. But he did not lose courage. He once again got
ready to fight.

33. Which of the statements is true

(1) Robin Hood was scared of the giant (2) the giant was scared of Robin Hood
(3) the stranger lost courage (4) the giant was as skillful as Robin Hood

34. The giant fell into the stream as

(1) he was lifted and thrown into the stream (2) he lost balance
(3) he wanted to end the fight (4)Robin Hood gave a decisive blow on the giants knees

35. On being surprised at the stranger’s courage, Robin Hood:

(1) started fighting vigorously (2) tried to make friends with the stranger
(3) killed the stranger (4) gave up the idea of fighting

36. Robin Hood too fell into the stream because

(1) the stranger gave a blow on Robin Hoods head (2) he wanted to run away
(3) the giant pushed him (4) he wanted to save himself

SECTION – MATHEMATICS
37. The square sheet of paper is converted into a cylinder by rolling it along its length. What is the ratio
of the base radius to the side of square?
√
1) 2) 3) 4)
√

38. A bus starts from city X. The number of women in the bus is half of the number of men. In city Y, 10
men leave the bus and five women enter. Now, number of men and women is equal. In the beginning,
how many passengers entered the bus?
1) 15 2) 30 3) 36 4) 45

39. Four circles of radius 1 each are inscribed in a large circle. The large circle is tangent to every smaller
circle. Each smaller circle is tangent to the large circle and to two small circles. What is the radius of the
large circle?

1) 1+ √ 2) 1+√ 3) 2+ √ 4) 2+2√
40. Excluding stoppages, the speed of a bus is 54 Kmph and including stoppages, it is 45 Kmph. For how
many minutes does the bus stop per hour?
1) 9 2) 10 3) 12 4) 20

41. If the sum of first m terms of an A.P. is same as the sum of its first n terms, then the sum of its first
(m+n) terms is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 0 4)

42. If P denotes “multiplied by”, T denotes “Subtracted from”, M denotes “added to” and B denotes
“divided by” then 28B7P8T6M4=?
1) - 3/2 2) 30 3) 32 4) 34

43. The sum of first 100 natural numbers is divisible by

1) 2, 4 and 8 2) 2 and 4 3) 2 only 4) None of these.

44. The point at which the two coordinates meet is called?

1) Abscissa 2) Ordinate 3) Co-ordinate 4) Origin

45. What is the area of the sector covered by the hour hand after it was moved through 3 hours, the
length of the hour hand is 7cm?
1) 77cm² 2) 38.5cm² 3) 35 cm² 4) 70 cm²

46. If A(5,2), B(2,-2), C(-2,t) are the vertices of a right angled triangle with ∠B=90o, then the value of t?
1) 0 2) ½ 3) 2 4) 1

47. A number is selected from first thirty natural numbers. What is the chance that it is multiple of
either 3 or 13?
1) 2) 3) 4)

48. A shopkeeper marks his goods at 30% above cost price and allows discount of 15% for cash payment.
What profit % does he make?
1) 12.5% 2) 10.5% 3) 11.5% 4) 9.5%

49. The circumference of the front wheel of a cart is 30 feet long. What is the distance travelled by the
cart, when the front wheel has done five more revolutions than the rear wheel?
1) 20 feet 2) 25 feet 3) 750 feet 4) 900 feet

50. If secθ + tan θ=p find P2 - 1

P2 +1
1) sinθ 2) sin2 θ 3) cos θ 4) cos2 θ

51. If sin θ and cos θ are roots of equation ax2 +bx+ c=0 then b2 -2ac =?
1) – a2 2) b2 3) a2 4) –b2
52. In a shower, 5 cm of rain falls, the volume of water that falls on 1.5 hectares of ground is?
1) 7.5 m3 2) 750 m3 3) 7500 m3 4) 75000 m3

53. If the roots of the equation ax2+bx+c=0 are equal then c=?

1) - 3) -

ABC is an equilateral triangle of each side 2√ cm. P is any point in the interior of ABC. If x, y, z are
the distances of P from sides of triangles, then x+y+z=
1) 2+√ 2) 5 cm 3) 3 cm 4) 4 cm

55. The coordinates of the points P and Q are respectively (4, -3) and (-1, 7). Find the abscissa of a point
R on the line segment PQ such that =
1) 1 2)0 3) -1 4) 2

56. In a market, 20% opted for product A whereas 60% opted for product B. The remaining individuals
were not certain. If the difference between those opted for product B and those who are uncertain was
720, how many individuals were covered in survey?
1) 3600 2) 1440 3) 1800 4) Data Inadequate

57. If a3=1+7, 33=1+7+b, 43=1+7+c then value of a+b+c is?

1) 77 2) 110 3) 58 4) 75

58. Two candles are of different lengths and thickness. The short and long ones can burn respectively for
3.5 hours and 5 hours. After burning for 2 hours, the lengths of candles become equal in length. What
fraction of the long candle’s height was the short candle initially?
3)

59. If the equation (1 + m2) x2 + 2mcx + (c2-a2) = 0 has equal roots then c2=?
1) a(1 + m2) 2) a(1 - m2) 3) a2(1 + m2) 4) a2(1 - m2)

60. A right angled triangle has hypotenuse of length p cm and one side of length q cm. if p – q=1; find
the length of third side of triangle
√ √
√ √

61. Three equal circles of unit radius touch each other. Then, the area of the circle circumscribing the
three circles is

√
2
√
2
( √ )
2
√
2
62. The sum of the roots of is zero. The product of the roots is?
1) 0 2) (a+b) 3) - (a²+b²) 4) 2(a²+b²)

63. The total of the ages of Amar , Akbar and Anthony is 80 years. What was the total of their ages
three years ago?
1) 71 years 2)72 years 3) 74 years 4) 77 years

64. Radha tell her friend that her age in years is equal to the sum of squares of the zeroes of polynomial
x²+10x+24. Find the age of Radha (in years)
1) 52 2) 56 3) 42 4) 46

65. In PQT, PQ=PT. The points R & S are on QT such that PR=PS. If ∠ o
,∠ o
then the
measure of ∠ is?
1) 17o 2) 13o 3) 15o 4) 11o

66. If length of the rectangle is increased by 50% and breadth is decreased by 20%. Then, what is the
percentage change in the area?
1) 20% decrease 2) 20% increase 3) 80% increase 4) None of the above

GAT

67. Who was not the leader of the Extremists?

1) LokamanyaTilak 2) Aurobindo Ghose 3) Lala Lajpat Rai 4) Hume

68. At Jallianwaia Bagh meeting ______ ordered the troops to open fire.
1) Benn 2) Irwin 3) Dyer 4) Montagu

69. When did the first world war start?

1)1912 2)1910 3) 1914 4)1916

70. Russia was part of which of the following powers?

1) axis 2) central 3) allied 4)none of the above

71. The kidneys in Human beings are a part of the system for
1) nutrition 2) respiration 3) excretion 4) transportation

72.The xylem in plants are responsible for

1) transport of water 2) transport of food
3) transport of amino acids 4) transport of oxygen

73. The autotrophic mode of nutrition requires

1) Carbon dioxide and water 3) Chlorophyll
3) Sunlight 4) All of the above
74 .the vessel which carry the blood from the body towards the heart is known as
1)artery 2)vein 3)pulmonary artery 4)pulmonary vein

75 . Cells having nuclear material without nuclear membrane are called...

1) eukaryotic cells 2) prokaryotic cells
3) tissues 4) none of the above

76. Storage sacks for solid and liquid content in cells is called as
1)vacuoles 2)plastids 3)mitochondria 4)golgi apparatus

77. An example of a reaction in which gas is evolved is

1) burning of Mg ribbon in air 2) reaction between CaO and water
3) reaction between lead nitrate and KI 4) reaction between limestone and HCl

78. The reaction in which a precipitate is formed are known as

1) exothermic reaction 2)precipitation reaction
3) endothermic reaction 4) combustion reaction

79. The number of electrons in the valence shell of an atom is equal to

1) group number 2) period number
3) atomic mass 4) atomic volume

80. The non-metallic element present in the third period other than sulphur and chlorine is
1) Oxygen 2)Fluorine 3) Nitrogen 4)Phosphorus

81. What is the common name of ethanoic acid?

1) Acetic acid 2) Formic acid 3) Propionic acid 4) Butanoic acid

82. Which of the following is the chemical property of carbon compounds?

1) Combustion reactions 2) Substitution reactions
3) Addition reactions 4) All of the above

83. Which of the following is used as a fuel in cars along with petrol?
1) Methane 2) Ethane 3) Butane 4) Ethanol

84. What is used as an antiseptic to sterilize wounds and syringes in hospitals?

1) Propanol 2) Ethyl alcohol 3) Butanol 4) Methanol

85. The image formed by retina of human eye is

1) Virtual and erect 2) Real and inverted
3) Virtual and inverted 4) Real and erect

86. Reflection by rough surfaces is called

1) regular reflection 2) irregular reflection
3) regular refraction 4) irregular refraction
87. What should be the core of an electromagnet?
1) soft iron 2) hard iron 3) rusted iron 4) none of above

88. Which is the most popular kitchen fuel in India?

1) LPG 2) Kerosene 3) Coal 4) Firewood

89. If we grasp a wire with right hand such that thumb pointed in direction of current, then
curling fingers of hand will point
1) direction of current 2) direction of force acting
3) direction of magnetic field 4) none of the above

90. What does the slope of a distance-time graph indicate?

1) Time 2) Distance 3) Speed 4) Displacement

91. When a 40V battery is connected across an unknown resistor there is a current of 10 A in
the circuit. Find the value of the resistance of the resister:
1) 5 Ω 2) 8Ω 3) 4 Ω 4) none of these

92. The least distance of distinct vision for a young adult with normal vision is
1) 25 m 2) 20 m 3) 25 cm 4) 20 cm

93. What is that instrument which can detect the presence of electric current in a circuit?
1) galvanometer 2) motor
3) generator 4) none of above

94. Homeostasis is maintained by……………

1) epithalamus 2) hypothalamus
3) thalamus 4) all of these

95. Most developed part of human brain is

1) cerebrum 2) pons 3) thalamus 4) medulla

96. Who has won the Australian Open 2021?

1) Novak Djokovic 2) Saina Nehwal
3) Rafael Nadal 4) Roger Federer

97. Who was honored with Bharat Ratna 2019?

1) Kapil Dev 2) Pranab Mukherjee
3) K Sivan 4) G Satheesh Reddy

98. In which of the following form, data is stored in computer?

1) Decimal 2) Binary 3) Hexadecimal 4) Octal

99. What is the name of first super computer of India?

1) Saga 220 2) PARAM 8000 3) ENIAC 4) PARAM 6000
100. The Defence Minister of India is
1) Narendra Modi 2) Rajnath Singh
3) Nirmala Sitharaman 4) Gen. V. K. Singh