REAL DIVINE GLORIOUS ACADEMY

2ND TERM EXAMINATION

1
CLASS: SS1 `SUBJECT: PHYSICS TIME: 1 hrs
2
1. The temperature 450 is the same thing as (a) 25.00F (b) 57.00F (c) 810F (d) 1130F
2. The lower fixed point corresponds to a length of 20 mm on the stem of a thermometer while
the upper fixed point corresponds to 160 mm. the temperature corresponding to a length of 48 mm
is (a) 20.00C (b) 30.00C (c) 41.70C (d) 50.00C
3. The ice and the stem point on a thermometer correspond to X and 80 mm respectively. A
temperature of 600C corresponds to 52 mm on the thermometer. The value of X is(a) 20 mm (b) 4
mm (c) 8 mm (d) 10 mm
4. The two fixed points in a thermometer are 60 mm apart. When the thermometer reads 48
mm above the ice point, the temperature is (a) 80.00C (b) 72.00C (c) 600C (d) 480C
5. The temperature of -930C corresponds to an absolute temperature of (a) 366K (b) 293K (c)
273K (d) 180K
6. A boy of weight 300 N climbs to the top of a hill of height 20 m. The work done by the boy
against the force of gravity is (a) 6000J (b) 600J (c) 320J (d) 15 J
7. A body initially at rest is accelerated at the rate of 0.2ms-2 for 5 s under a constant force of
50 N. the work done on the body is (a) 10 J (b) 50 J (c) 125 J (d) 250 J
8. An object is acted upon by two forces 3N and 5N inclined at 600 to each other. If the object is
moved through a distance of 6 m by the resultant force, the work done is (a) 42 J (b)35 J (C) 30 J (d)
18 J
9. A car of mass 800kg initially at rest is accelerated at the rate of 4ms-2. The kinetic energy of
the car after 5 seconds is (a) 6.40 ×10 3J (b) 2.56 ×10 4J (c) 1.60 ×10 5J (d) 6.40 ×10 5J
10. An object of mass 20kg is released from a height of 10m above the ground level. The kinetic
energy of the object just before it hits the ground is (a) 4000 J (b) 2000 J (c) 500 J (d) 200 J
11. The expansion of an ideal gas at constant temperature results in at increase in the(a)average
separation between its molecules (b)number of collisions between molecules per unit time
(c)number of molecules per unit volume (d)average speed of its molecules.
12. A concrete floor feels colder than a rugged floor on a cold morning because (a)rug loses heat
to the bare feet at a faster rate than concrete (b) rug loses heat to the bare feet at a slower rate than
concrete (c) rug is a better conductor of heat than concrete (d) concrete is a better conductor of heat
than rug.
13. The following three substances are correctly listed in ascending order of their thermal
conductivities as (a) glass, copper, steel (b)steel, glass, copper (c) copper, steel, glass (d) glass, steel,
copper.
14. The mechanism of heat transfer from one point to another through the vibration of
molecules of the medium is called (a) convection (b) conduction (c) radiation (d) diffusion.
15. The transfer of heat by convection in a liquid is due to the (a) increased vibration of the
molecules of the liquid about their mean positions. (b) translational motion of the molecules of the
liquid (c) expansion of the liquid as it is heated (d) latent heat of vaporization of the liquid.
16. The heat from a fire in a room is transmitted various parts of the room primarily by. (a)
convection (b) conduction (c) diffusion (d) radiation
17. Which of the under-listed colours of surfaces will radiate heat energy best? (a) black (b)
white (c) red (d) yellow.
18. On a hot and sunny day, the most comfortable colour of attire is (a) black (b) white (c) red (d)
blue.
19. The heat from the sun reaches the earth’s surface by the process of (a) convection (b)
conduction (c) radiation (d) precipitation
20. Which of the following phenomena cannot be explained by the molecular theory of matter?
(a) conduction (b) convection (c) expansion (d) radiation.

SECTION B - THEORY QUESTION

INSTRUCTION: answer four (4) questions only, question one (1) is compulsory.

1. (a) define the following stating their mathematical formulae, units and dimensions(i) work (ii)
Energy and (iii) power. (b) A ball of mass 8kg fails from rest from a height of 100m. if it has falling a
height of 40m. Calculate :(i) the velocity at this point (ii) the time taken to reach this point (iii) kinetic
energy at this point (iv) the P.E at this point (v) the velocity at which the ball hit the ground (vi) the
energy at which it hit the ground (vii) the force at which it hit the ground. (viii) the work done (ix) the
total time it took to hit the ground (x) the power generated. ¿) (c) list the different forms of energy
that you know.
2. (a) list 3 modes of heat transfer and explain. (b) The freezing point of alcohol is –115⁰C.
What is the temperature: (i) in degree Fahrenheit. (ii) in kelvin?
3. (a) In a suitable diagram describe the three scales of temperature and write out their
fundamental interval. (b) a liquid in glass thermometer is graduated in mm. The upper and the lower
point of the thermometer is 230mm and 80mm respectively. What is the temperature in degree
Celsius when the thermometer reads 95mm
4. (a) Differentiate between heat and temperature. (b) list 5 sources of heat energy with 1
example each
5. (a) the volume of a gas of a constant pressure thermometer at the ice and steam point are
30cm3 and 110cm3 respectively what is the (i) temperature at a volume of 65cm3 (ii) volume at the
temperature of 40oC.
6. (a) define the following (i) linear expansivity. (ii) Area expansivity. (iii) Volume expansivity. (b)
describe the anomalous behaviour of water and state two other liquids that behave that way
REAL DIVINE GLORIOUS ACADEMY

2ND TERM EXAMINATION

1
CLASS: SS1 `SUBJECT: PHYSICS TIME: 1 hrs
2
1. The temperature 450 is the same thing as (a) 25.00F (b) 57.00F (c) 810F (d) 1130F
2. The lower fixed point corresponds to a length of 20 mm on the stem of a thermometer while
the upper fixed point corresponds to 160 mm. the temperature corresponding to a length of 48 mm
is (a) 20.00C (b) 30.00C (c) 41.70C (d) 50.00C
3. The ice and the stem point on a thermometer correspond to X and 80 mm respectively. A
temperature of 600C corresponds to 52 mm on the thermometer. The value of X is(a) 20 mm (b) 4
mm (c) 8 mm (d) 10 mm
4. The two fixed points in a thermometer are 60 mm apart. When the thermometer reads 48
mm above the ice point, the temperature is (a) 80.00C (b) 72.00C (c) 600C (d) 480C
5. The temperature of -930C corresponds to an absolute temperature of (a) 366K (b) 293K (c)
273K (d) 180K
6. A person suffers a more severe burn from steam than from boiling water because (a) steam
is at a higher temperature than boiling water (b) steam spread more easily over the skin than boiling
water (c) steam penetrates more deeply into the skin than boiling water (d) steam possesses greater
heat energy per unit mass than boiling water.
7. A glass of soft drinks can be cooled more effectively by adding melting ice than by adding the
same mass of water at 00C because (a) water has a higher specific heat capacity than ice (b) melting
ice is at lower temperature than the water (c) ice absorbed latent heat as it melt (d) ice make better
thermal contact than water
8. A change in state is often accompanied by a change in. I. temperature. II. Density. III. Internal
energy. IV. Mass. Which of the above is correct? (a) I and II only (b) I and III only(c) II and IV only (d) II
and III only
9. A solid that changes directly into a gas upon heating is said to have undergone (a)
evaporation (b) vaporization (c) solidification (d) sublimation.
10. When the pressure of the vapour on top of an enclosed liquid is equal to the pressure of the
atmosphere, the liquid is at its (a) boiling point (b) due point (c) freezing point (d) evaporation point.
11. When the atmospheric pressure is 750mm of mercury. Water will boil at (a) 100oC (b) below
100oC (c) above 100oC (d) any temperature if heated rapidly.
12. The boiling point of water on the top of a mountain is lower than at sea level because (a)
atmospheric pressure is lower on the mountain (b) atmospheric pressure is higher on the mountain
(c) the sun heats the water more effectively on the mountain (d) the relative humidity is lower on the
mountain.
13. An increase in pressure I. increases the freezing point of a substance. II. Reduces the freezing
point of a substance. III. Increases the boiling point of a substance. IV. Reduces the boiling point of a
substance. Which of the above statement is correct? (a) I and II only (b) I and III only (c) II and IV only
(d) II and III only
14. The saturated vapour pressure of a liquid depends on the I. volume of the liquid. II. External
pressure. III. Temperature of the liquid. IV. Nature of the liquid. Which of the above statement is
correct? (a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) II, III and IV only (d) II and III only
15. The vapour on top of an enclosed liquid is said to be saturated if (a) if the rate of the
condensation of vapour is greater than the rate vaporization of the liquid (b) the rate of
condensation of the vapour is less than the rate of vaporization of the liquid (c) the rate of the
condensation of the vapour is equal to the rate of vaporization of the liquid (d) there is neither
condensation of the vapour nor vaporization of the liquid.
16. An instrument used to measure relative humidity is called a (a) hydrometer (b) barometer (c)
manometer (d) hygrometer
17. The temperature at which the water vapour present in the air is just enough to saturate the
air is the (a) boiling point (b) due point (c) freezing point (d) steam point.
18. The formation of clouds results directly from (a) condensation (b) sublimation (c) fusion (d)
vaporization.
19. Food cooks faster in a pressure cooker than in an ordinary cooking pot because I. The food is
not affected by air convection currents II. The boiling point of water is greater than 100oC. III. Less
heat escape from the pressure cooker. IV. The vapour pressure is higher in the pressure cooker.
Which of the above statement is correct? (a) I and III only (b) II and IV only (c) II, III and IV only (d) I, II
and III only.
20. If the specific heat capacity of water is 4.2×10 3Jkg−1 K −1 and g=10 ms−2, the difference in
temperature of the water between the top and bottom of a 210m high waterfall is (a) 0.050C (b)
0.50C (c) 1.00C (d) 4.20C

SECTION B - THEORY QUESTION

INSTRUCTION: answer four (4) questions only, question one (1) is compulsory.

1. (a) An electric heater raises the temperature of 120 g of water in a thin light vessel through
10 K in 2 minutes, when placed in 70 g of water contained in a metal vessel of mass 0.55 kg the
temperature rises through 9 K in the same time. Calculate: (i) the heat supplied in 2 minutes by the
heater; (ii) the power of the heater; (iii) the heat supplied to the 70 g of water; (iv) the heat supplied
to the metal vessel; (v) the heat capacity of the vessel; (vi) the specific heat capacity of its material.
(SHC of water = 4200 Jkg-1K -1) (b) differentiate between Temperature and Heat. (c) give one similarity
between Temperature and Heat.
2. (a) list 3 modes of heat transfer and explain them. (b) The freezing point of alcohol is –115⁰C.
What is the temperature: (i) in degree Fahrenheit. (ii) in kelvin?
3. (a) In a suitable diagram describe the three scales of temperature and write down their
fundamental intervals. (b) a liquid in glass thermometer is graduated in mm. The upper and the
lower point of the thermometer is 230mm and 80mm respectively. What is the temperature in
degree Celsius when the thermometer reads 95mm
4. (a) Differentiate between evaporation and boiling (b) define the following (i) specific Heat
Capacity. (ii) Heat Capacity (iii) latent Heat of fusion (iv) latent Heat Capacity of Vaporization.
5. (a) What quantity of heat is required to bring 20 g of ice at – 10 0C to water at 800C?
(Take SHC of ice = 2.2 x 10 Jkg K , SLHF of ice = 336 Jkg , SHC of water = 4.2 x 10 Jkg
3 -1 -1 -1 3 -

1
K ) (b) Define thermometric substance and list five of them.
-1

6. (a) Evaporation brings about cooling. Explain. (b) list five factors affecting the rate of
evaporation. (c) What is sublimation?
REAL DIVINE GLORIOUS ACADEMY
2ND TERM EXAMINATION
1
CLASS: SS 3 `SUBJECT: PHYSICS TIME: 1 hrs
2
1. Ohms law applied to I. steel II. An electrolyte. III. Silver. IV. A diode. Which of the above are
correct? (a) I and III only (b) III and IV only (c) II, III and IV only (d) I, II, III and IV only.
2. A quantity of electricity is measured in the unit of (a) the ampere (b) the volt (c) the coulomb
(d) the electromotive force.
3. The energy needed to move a unit positive charge around a complete circuit is called the (a)
electromotive force (b) electric potential difference (c) electrical energy (d) kinetic energy
4. A cell of internal resistance 2Ω and emf 12V is connected to a resistor of 4Ω. The terminal p.d
of the cell is (a) 12V (b) 10V (c) 8V (d) 6 V
5. Three cells each of emf 1.1V and internal resistance 2 Ω are connected in parallel across a 3
Ω resistor. The current in the resistor is (a) 0.12A (b) B. 0.30A (c) 0.39A (d) 0.90A
6. A magnet is similar to a bi-polar charge system in the following aspects: I. it has two opposite
poles – the N and the S poles. II. The earth magnet N – pole is closed to the geographic S – pole and
the earth’s magnetic S – pole is close to the geographic N- pole. III. The force of attraction or
repulsion between opposite or like poles obeys a law identical in form to Coulomb’s law for electric
charges. Which of the above statement is/are true? (a) I and III only (b) I only (c) II only (d) I, II, and III
only.
7. Which of the following methods cannot be used to convert a steal bar into magnet? I.
Passing of an electric current through a solenoid. II. Repeated stroking of the steel bar with a
magnet. III. Heating of the steal bar. IV. Hammering of the steel bar in the earth’s magnetic field. (a) I
and II only (b) III and IV only (c) I, II, III and IV only (d) I, II, III and IV only.
8. The diagram shows the field pattern around the poles of two magnet brought closed to each
others. The poles are: (a) N-N poles (b) S-S poles (c) N-S poles (d) S-N poles
9. Soft iron is preferred to steel in electromagnets because I. soft iron is readily magnetized
than steal. II. Soft iron retains its magnetized more than steel. III. Soft iron is more readily
demagnetized than steal. Which of the above statement is/are true. (a) I only (b) I and II only (c) I,
and III only (d) I, II, and III only.
10. The armature of an electric bell is made up of soft iron because I. soft iron can be made into
a permanent magnet. II. Soft iron losses it magnetism readily. III. Soft iron retains its magnetism for a
long time. Which of the above statement is/correct? (a) I only (b) II only (c) III only (d) II, and III only.
11. Which of the following methods will effectively demagnetize a bar magnet? I. passing an
electric current through the magnet. II. Bringing its N-pole in contact with the N-pole of a strong
magnet. III. Heating the magnet. (a) I only (b) II only (c) III only (d) II, and III only.
12. A man runs a distance of 1.0km in 5 min. His average speed is (a) 20.0 ms−1 (b) 16.7ms−1 (c)
3.3ms−1 (d) 0.3ms−1
13. A car traveling at a uniform speed of 100 k mh−1spend 15 min moving from point A to B along
its route. The distance between A and B is (a) 50.0km (b) 25 km (c) 15 km (d) 0.3km
14. A train with an initial velocity of 20ms−1is subject to a uniform deceleration of 2m2. The time
required to bring the train to a complete halt is (a) 5 s (b) 10 s (c) 20 s (d) 40 s
15. A body accelerates uniformly from rest at 3 ms−2 . Its velocity after travelling a distance of
24m is (a) 144ms−1 (b) 72ms−1 (c) 36ms−1 (d) 12ms−1
16. Which of the following are derived units? I. Meter. II. Coulomb. III. Kilogram. IV. Ampere. V.
Joule (a) I and III only (b) II and V only (c) II, IV and V only (d) All of the above
17. Which of the following are derived quantities. I. Trust. II. Temperature. III. Area. IV. Pressure
V. Joule (a) I and III only (b) II and V only (c) I, III, IV and V only (d) All of the above
18. The derived dimension ML2 T 2 is a dimension of I. acceleration. II. tongue. III. energy. (a) I
only (b) III only (c) I, II only (d) II and III only
19. Which of the following are not fundamental units: I. Kelvin. II. Newton. III. Second. (a) I and
III only (b) II and IV only (c) I and II only (d) I, II and IV only.
20. The unit of momentum is (a) Js−1 (b) Ns (c) N s−1 (d) Nms

SECTION B – THEORY

SECTION B - THEORY QUESTION

INSTRUCTION: answer four (4) questions only, question one (1) is compulsory.

1. (a) A series circuit consisting of a 100 Ω resistor, a coil of 0.10H inductance and a 20 uF
capacity, is connected across a110 V , 60 Hz power source. (i) Draw the circuit diagram of the
arrangement. Calculate the (ii) Inductive resistance (iii) Capacitive reactance (iv) Impendance (v)
Curent (vi) Power loss (b) differentiate between Temperature and Heat. (c) give one similarity
between Temperature and Heat.

2. (a) A circuit consist of a 10.0Ω resistor and a O.8H inductor connected in series to a 240V,
60Hz a.c source.
(i) Draw the circuit diagram of the arrangement
Calculate its:
(i) Inductive reactance
(ii) Impedance circuit of the circuit
(iii) Capacitance of a capacitor that must be connected in series with these components to
obtain maximum current (π = 3.142)
(b) In a suitable diagram describe the three scales of temperature and write down their fundamental
intervals.

3. A care started from rest and accelerates uniformly for 5s until it attains a velocity of 30 ms−1.
It then travels with uniform velocity for 15s before decelerating uniformly to rest in 10s. (a) sketch a
graph of the motion. (b) using the graph above, calculate the (i) acceleration during the first 5s, (ii)
deceleration during the last 10s, (iii) total distance covered throughout the motion.
4. (a) Evaporation brings about cooling. Explain. (b) list five factors affecting the rate of
evaporation. (c) What is sublimation?
5. (a) Differentiate between evaporation and boiling (b) define the following (i) specific Heat
Capacity. (ii) Heat Capacity (iii) latent Heat of fusion (iv) latent Heat Capacity of Vaporization.
6. (a) list 3 modes of heat transfer and explain. (b) The freezing point of alcohol is –115⁰C. What
is the temperature: (i) in degree Fahrenheit. (ii) in kelvin?

7. (a)The plates of a parallel plate capacitor are 5mm apart and 2m 2 in area. The plates are in
vacuum. A potential difference of 1000v is applied` across the capacitor calculate the
(i) Capacitance
(ii) Charge on each plate
(iii) Electric intensity in the space between them
(iv) Energy stored in the capacitor
(b) find the turn ratio in a transformer which delivers a voltage of 120V in a secondary coil from a
primary voltage of 60 V.
 PART C: Objective question (SS 2) 6. In ∆ABC, A = 60, b = 8cm, c = 10cm, find a
1. In the diagram I, 0 is the centre of the (a)4 √ 21 cm (b) 2 √ 21cm (c) 2 √ 61cm (d)
circle, find the value of x . 4 √ 51 cm
(a) 36o 7. In ∆PRR, QPR = 40⁰, PQR = 55⁰, PQ = 5cm,
(b) 18o 5 sin 40 ° 4 sin 40 ° sin 40 °
(c) 54o find QR (a) (b) (c)
cos 55 ° cos 55 ° 5 sin55 °
(d) 90o
5 sin 40 °
(e) 38o (d)
sin 55 °
8. Given that the bearing of P from Q is 115⁰
2. In diagram II, XWY= (2a + 10) o and XZY=b.
the bearing of Q from P is (a)295⁰ (b)65⁰ (c)245⁰
find a in terms of b.
(d)205⁰
1
(a) b+5 9. The exact value of sine, cosine ad tangent
2 1 1 √3 1
1 , ,
of 210 ⁰ are respectively (a) (b) ,
(b) b+10
2
√3 2 2 √3
1 √3 −1
,−¿ √ 3 , √ 3 (d)
−1
, 1 ,−¿
1 , (c)
(c) (b−5) 2 2 2 2 3 2
2
1 √3
(d) b−10 3
2
10. In triangle XYZ, XY = 4cm, YZ = 6cm and
1
(e) (b+5) XYZ = 120⁰ are respectively (a) 2 √ 19 cm (b)
2
4 √ 19 cm (c) 2 √ 7 cm(d) 2 √ 9 cm
3. In diagram III, O is the centre of circle 11. In PQR, P = 150⁰, p = 12cm, q = 8cn, sinQ
ABC. Find the value of x . −1 1 1
is (a) (b) (c)3 (d)
(a) 36o 3 √3 3
(b) 18o 12. Solve the inequality: 8−3 x< x −4 (a)
(c) 72o x <−3 (b) x <−4 (c) x >3 (d) x >4
(d) 9o 2
(e) 6o 13. If −4 x >2 ( 1−x ) which of the
5
−4 −4
following is true (a) x < (b) x <0.8 (c) x <
5 5
4. In diagram IV, O is the centre of circle
PQR, find QRO. −3
(d) x <
(a) 21o 5
(b) 25o 14. Solve the inequality 4 y−7< 2 ( 3 y−1 )
(c) 30o −5 −2 1 5
(a) y < (b) y > (c) y <−2 (d) y <
(d) 46o 2 5 2 2
(e) 23o 15. The smallest integer that can satisfy the
inequality (a)-4 (b)5 (c)3 (d)4
16. If 5+ x ≤7 and 4 + x ≥ 3, which of the
5. In diagram V, O is the centre of circle following statement is true? (a) −3 ≤ x ≤ 3 (b)
PQRS, find PRQ.
−1 ≤ x <3 (c)−1 ≤ x ≤2 (d) −1 ≥ x ≥ 2
(a) 37o
(b) 53o
(c) 65o
(d) 127o
(e) 147o
 2 x−1 3 x + 2 sides and a triangle has 3 sides (c)
17. Given that > , find the
3 2 ( 9=3 ×3 ) ⟹(8=2+6) (d)
3 3 ( 5<7 ) ⟹(7=8−2)
range of values of x (a) x <−1 (b) x <1 (c)
5 5 19. The negation of P ∧Q is (a) P ∧Q (b)
5 1 P ∧ Q (c) P ∨ Q (d) ( P ∨Q )
x > (d) x <−1
8 5 20. The negation of P ⟹ Q (a) (P ⟺ Q)
18. Which of the following statement is false? (b) P ⟹ Q (c) P ⟹ Q (d) Q ⟹ P
(a) ( 5+ 4=9 ) ∨(3+ 1=6) (b)An octagon has 8

MOZIT SCHOOLS
23, Samson Ogunbode Street, Abaranje, Lagos.
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2024/2024

SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS CLASS: SSS TWO DURATION: 2 HOURS

OBJECTIVE: ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS
PART A: compulsory Question

1. Find the sizes of the angles marked by letters in the following diagrams

PART B

INSTRUCTUON: ANSWER ANY TWO QUESTONS

1a. Sketch a graph to show the d=region that the following inequalities
y−2 x ≤ 4 , x+3 y ≥ 6 , y ≥ 7 x−9
[10 marks]

b. Reduce the following to their lowest term

2 2 3
2−18 m 4a bb
i. ii. 2 [5 marks]
1+3 m 16 a b c
2a. solve the following inequality and show your answers on the number line
 1 5 1 5
i. x + ≥ x − ii . 2 x + 4< x +3 ≤ 4 x−5 [8 marks]
3 8 2 24
b. Determine the equation of a line that passes through R(1, -5) that is perpendicular to the line 3x –
y + 11= 0 [7 marks]

3a. simplify the following:

2
x + x−6 4 1
i. ii. − [8 marks]
2
x + 4 x+ 3 a−3 a+2

b. Find the equation of the line passing through (1, 2) and parallel to the equation x + 4y – 1 = 0

[7 marks]

PART C: compulsory Question. Attempt all

1. If P = {all perfect squares from 1 to 30} and E = {all even numbers from 1 to 20}. Find P Ո E. (a) ø

If P={2,3}, Q={2,3,5,7} and R= {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8}, then (a)P ⊃ Q(b)P ⊂ Q ⊂ R (c)P Ո Q’ = {2, 3} (d)P Ո Q Ո R =
(b) {1,4,9,16,25} (c) {1,4,16} (d) {4,16}

{1, 2, 3} (e)P ⊃ Q ⊃ R Ո∪
2.

3. Given that for sets A and B in a universal set ξ, A B, then A Ո (A Ո B)’ (a)A (b) ø (c)B (d)ξ (e)A – B
4. IF C={1, 2, 3}, D = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} and E = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} then (C ∪ D) Ո (C ∪ E) (a){1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} (b){1, 2, 3,
4} (c){1, 2, 3, 4, 5} (d){1, 2, 3, 4} (d){ } (e)none of the above
5. Given that ξ = {1, 2, 3, … , 10}, E = {x: z is even} and P = {z: z is a prime}, then E1Ո P is (a){5} (b){2,

6. If P and Q are two sets. If n(P ∪ Q) = 45 and n(P) = 25 and n(Q) = 35, then n(P Ո Q) is (a)10 (b)12
8} (c){4, 6, 8, 10} (d) { } (e) {3, 5, 7}

7. If J is a set of positive integers and H = {x: x ∈ J, x 2< 4∧x ≠ 0 }, then (a) H = {0, 1, 2} (b) H = {1} (c)
(c)20 (d)15 (e) 5

H = {1, 2} (d) J ⊂ H (e) H is an infinite set

8. The universal set ؏ , consists of all integers. Subset of this are defined as: C={ x :−5 ≤ x ≤ 5}, D={
2
x : x <30 , x is positive}, then DIՈC is (a) {-5, -4, -2, -1, 0} (b) infinite (c) ø (d) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} (e) {-5,-4, -
3, -2, -1, 0 }
9. Increase #5720 in the ratio 8:5. (a) #3575 (b) #9157 (c) #3520 (d) #2200 (e) #8162
2
10. Decrease 18 kg in the ratio 3:8. (a) 49.1kg (b) 69kg (c) 6.9kg (d) 5.0kg (e) 4.9kg
5
11. Calculate the area of a sector of circle bounded by two radii 3.5cm and an arc 8cm. (a)14cm 2 (b) 7cm2 (c)
16cm2 (d) 28cm2 (e) 42cm2
12. The perimeter of the sector in question 31 is (a )10cm (b) 12cm (c) 20cm (d) 15cm (e) 5cm
 ∅ ∅
13. The to calculate the length of a chord, I can use (a) 2 rsin∅ (b) 2 rsin (c) rsin (d) 2 rcos ∅ (e)
2 2
∅
2 rcos
2
14. The area of a circle is (a) 2 πr 2 (b) πr 2 (c) 2 πr 3 (d) πr 3 (e) 2 πr
15. The circumference of a circle is given by (a) 2 πr 2 (b) πr 2 (c) 2 πr 3( d) πr 3 (e) 2 πr
1
16. The angle of a sector of a circle is 1080. If the radius of the circle is 3
cm . Find the perimeter of the
2
22 3 4 1 2 3
circle. ( π= ¿ (a) 6 cm (b) 6 cm (c) 7 cm (d) 10 cm (e) 13 cm
7 5 5 10 5 5
17. A sector of diameter 7 cm and centre angle 1400 is bent to form a cone .Find the base radius of the cone.
(a)1.52cm (b)1.36cm (c) 8.55cm (d) 2.45cm (e)1.63cm
18. A right cone has it’s a base diameter12cm and a vertical angle of 600 , find the height. (a) 6 √ 3 cm . (b)
3 √ 3 cm. (c) 3 √ 6 cm. (d) 12 cm. (e) 4.46 cm.
19. A meter pipe 21 cm long has an outer diameter of 16 cm and it is 1cm think. Calculate the volume of meter
used in making the pipe. (a) 890 cm 3 (b) 990 cm 3 (c) 3960 cm3 (d) 1056 cm3 (e) 1848 cm 3
20. If the diameters of two concentric circles are 18cm and 12 cm, find the area between the two circles. (a)
2 2 2 2 2
45 cm (b) 45 πcm (c) 180 πcm (d) 40 πcm (e) 180 cm

MOZIT SCHOOLS
23, Samson Ogunbode Street, Abaranje, Lagos.
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2024/2024

SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS CLASS: SSS ONE DURATION: 2 HOURS

PART A: compulsory Questions. Attempt both.

1. An arc subtends an angle of 45o at the centre of the circle of radius 8cm. (a) calculate the length
of the arc. (b) calculate the perimeter of the sector. (Take π=3.14 ¿
2. A sector of a circle of radius 8cm has an angle of 120o at its centre. Find its area. (Take π=3.14 ¿

PART B

INSTRUCTUON: ANSWER ANY TWO QUESTONS

1. in a group of 120 students, 72 of them play football, 65 play table tennis and 53 play hockey. If 21
of the students play both table tennis and hockey, 30 play both football and hockey, 35 play both
football and table tennis (a). draw a venn diagram to illustrate the information .
[7 marks]

b. How many of them play:

(i.) all the three games (ii.) Exactly two of the three games (iii) exactly one of the three games.
(iv)Football only?

[8 marks]

2a. out of 40 students in a class, 10 offer further maths, 30 offer geography and 8 students offers
neither of the two subjects. How many students offer

( i ) both subjects (ii). at least one of thetwo subjects [7 marks]

b. the subsets P, Q and R of a universal set are defined as follows: If P={a , g , y , r }, Q={vowels }
and R={c , f , g ,h , I , j, r , u } Write down the elements of (i) (P ∪Q) (ii) (P Ո Q Ո R) (iii)
P ∪(Q Ո R) (iv) R−(P ∪Q)
[8 marks]

3a. the figure below shows the cross-section of a tunnel. It is in the shape of a major segment of a
circle of radius 1m on a chord of length 1.6m. calculate

ii. The angle subtended at the centre of the circle by the major arc correct to the nearest
0.1o ii. The area of the cross-section of the tunnel correct to 2
d.p [8 marks]

sin 300 = ,cos 300= √ , tan30 0= ,

1 3 1
b. calculates the lettered angles if
2 2 √3
0 √2 0 √2 0 0 √3 0 1
sin 45 = , cos 45 = , tan 45 =1. sin 60 = ,cos 60 = , tan 60 =√ 3
0

2 2 2 2
(i)