INDIAN INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY ROPAR

WRITTEN EXAMINATION
ASSISTANT REGISTRAR (Subject domain)
Date of the Examination: 30/09/2023
PART - B

Maximum Marks: 30 Time: 45 Minutes

Name of Candidate: __________________________________________________

Roll No.: _________________________

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIADTES

1. This question paper (Part – A) has 30 questions. Each question carries one mark. There are four

choices for answer (A, B, C, D) to each question. Choose the correct answer (one only) for each

question and mark it on the Optical Response Sheet (ORS).

2. Read the instructions given in the ORS sheet carefully.

3. Use a Black/Blue ball point pen only to fill the ORS Sheet.

4. The candidate should check that the booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing

pages or questions etc. If so, get it replaced with another question paper.

5. While marking your answer on the ORS Sheet fully darken the circle.

6. One (1) mark will be awarded for each correct answer and each incorrectanswer and

unanswered questions will not attract marks. There is no negative marking.

7. Return the ORS Sheet and the question paper to the invigilator after the examination is over.

8. Mobile, Electronic Watch and other Electronic Gadgets are prohibited in the examination.

9. Use of Unfair Means in Examination will lead to cancellation of candidature.

Signature of the candidate: _______________________________________________

<Good Luck>

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 Ques%ons:
Q1. What is the minimum total credits of courses required to be completed for a B.Tech.
student to graduate at IIT Ropar?

A. 145. B. 160. C. 163 D. 170

Q2. A revision required in any existing UG or PG courses can be approved by ___________

as per IIT Ropar statutes.
A. Director IIT Ropar
B. Dean Academics IIT Ropar
C. Senate IIT Ropar
D. Chairman Senate IIT Ropar

Q3. Advance payment demanded by state or central government agency or public sector
undertaking against fabrication contracts, turn-key contracts etc. should not exceed the limit
upto ____ of contract value.
A. 30% B. 40% C. 50% D. 100%

Q4. Fixed assets are registered under ____ .

A. GFR 35 B. GFR 40 C. GFR 41 D. GFR 42

Q5. Combination of leave which is NOT permissible in case of ________.

A. EL with HPL B. Causal leave with EL
C. Special Casual Leave with HPL D. Commuted Leave with Maternity Leave

Q6. The new type of leave introduced by the Seventh Pay Commission is …………. ?
A. Work Related Intentional Injury Leave
B. Work Related Inflicted Injury Leave
C. Work Related Injury Indispensable Leave
D. Work Related Illness and Injury Leave

Q7. DA is counted as emoluments for which of the following?

A. Superannuation Pension
B. Gratuity
C. Invalid Pension
D. Family Pension
Q8. As per 7th pay commission what is the starting pay for “Pay Level 17” scale
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A. Rs 2,50,000 B. Rs 2,25,000 C. Rs 2,24,400 D. Rs 2,05,400

Q9. Copyrights, Patents and Trademarks are examples of ……….........?

A. Current assets B. Fixed assets C. Intangible assets D. Investments

Q10. How many times can withdrawal under NPS be allowed during the entire tenure
of subscription?
A. A maximum of six times B. A maximum of three times
C. A maximum of four times D. A maximum of five times

Q11. Which GFR (2017) rule is applicable for GeM?

A. 162 B. 249 C. 100 D. 149

Q12. The time-limit for completion of inquiry may be extended by the Disciplinary
Authority for maximum of __________ at a time
A. 6 months B. 3 months C. 2 months D. I month

Q13. In the case of missing employee, the amount of Deposit-Linked Insurance benefit
may be paid to the nominee/legal heirs
A. Along with final payment of GPF balance
B. After a lapse of 5 years
C. After a lapse of 7 years
D. After a lapse of 10 years

Q14. Additional TA shall not be allowed if family/household effects are left behind due to

a) Non-availability of Government accommodation at the new place of posting

b) Non-acceptance of Government accommodation allotted to the employees
c) Government accommodation having not been constructed at the new place of
posting
d) Any other genuine reason

Q15. A report of transfer of charge by a Gazetted Government servant shall be prepared in

form

A) GFR 15 B) GFR 14 C) GFR 16A D) GFR 16

Q 16. A Government servant may exercise his option to count the previous military service,
on his re-employment in a civil post , within ________ from the date of confirmation in the
new post

A. 15 days B. I month C. 2 months D. 3 months

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Q17. If a female employee who had made a complaint of Sexual Harassment, may be allowed
Special Leave during the pendency of enquiry for:
(a) maximum 30 days (b) maximum 45 days
(c) maximum 60 days (d) maximum 90 days

Q18. Which of the following is not correct on House Building Advance (HBA)?

(a) House purchased/constructed mandatorily to be mortgaged.

(b) House purchased/constructed mandatorily to be insured.
(c) Second loan after HBA can be allowed.
(d) A second loan after HBA from recognized financial institutions is not allowed.

Q19. Which is the following is not exempted under RTI Act-2005?

(a) Information received in confidence from Foreign Government

(b) Information which likely to impede the process of investigation
(c) Privileged information of the Parliament
(d) Note-sheet of the Personal file of the employee

Q20 Which of the following entry is not essentially required to be made in the employee's
service book?
(a) Technical Qualifications of the employee (b) Caste & religion entry of the employee
(c) Penalty imposed on the employee (d) Inter-Departmental transfer in Institute
Q21. Qualifying service is to be counted in
a) Completed months
b) Completed years
c) Completed quarters (3 months)
d) Completed half years (6 months)

Q22. Under revised pay structure (VII CPC), family pension shall be allowed maximum of

a) Rs. 50,000 b) Rs. 1,25,000 c) Rs. 60,000 d) Rs 75,000

Q23. Indian agents of foreign principal can also get themselves enlisted with the Central
Purchase Organization in terms of

a) Rule 150 of GFR.

b) Rule 152 of GFR
c) Rule 153 of GFR
d) Rule 154 of GFR

Q24. Funds made available under a Vote on Account are not to be utilized for expenditure on
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 a) Any item included in the budget proposals
b) A new service
c) A project under implementation stage
d) None of the above

Q25. In terms of Rule 3C of CCS(Conduct) Rules 'workplace' does not include

a) A dwelling place or a house

b) A club or hotel
c) A hospital or nursing home
d) A sports institute or stadium

Q26. Liabilities and assets amount to Rs. 50,000 and Rs. 78,000 respectively. The difference
amount will represent ……….?

A. Creditors B. Debentures C. Profit D. Capital

Q27 Grant-in-aid towards administrative expenditure on pay and allowances of the personnel
of the voluntary organization, should not exceed ________ % of the approved administrative
expenditure

a) 25% b)30% c) 40% d) 20%

Q28. Premature retirement is distinct from

a) Retirement on medical grounds

b) Voluntary retirement
c) Absorption in ABs/PSUs
d) Retirement on superannuation

Q29. Permission for voluntary retirement may be withheld if the Government servant is
under suspension or charged sheeted or being prosecuted for grave misconduct in terms of

a) FR 56(j) and (k)

b) FR 56(k) and (l)
c) FR 56(k) and (m)
d) FR. 53

Q30. The amount of Immediate Relief paid as advance should be adjusted within
___________ against any payment due in respect of the deceased official

a) Three months
b) Ten months
c) Nine months
d) Six months

……………..

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 INDIAN INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY ROPAR
ANSWER KEYS OF WRITTEN EXAMINATION
(PART-B)
ASSISTANT REGISTRAR
HELD ON 30.09.2023

1. A
2. C
3. B
4. B
5. B
6. D
7. B
8. B
9. C
10. B
11. D
12. A
13. C
14. B
15. D
16. D
17. D
18. D
19. D
20. D
21. D
22. D
23. B
24. B
25. B
26. D
27. A
28. B
29. C
30. D