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AIT - 3 - Question Paper - Updated

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
10 views

AIT - 3 - Question Paper - Updated

Uploaded by

Ankit Bishnoi
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

VAJIRAM & RAVI


PowerUp All India Mock Test – 03 (2024)
(02-06-2024)
(Time Allowed: 2 hours) (Maximum Marks: 200)

INSTRUCTIONS
1. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, you should check
that this test booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or
items etc. If so, get it replaced by a complete test booklet.
2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test
Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT
write anything else on the Test Booklet.
3. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on
the Answer Sheet.
In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each
item.
4. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet
provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. All items carry equal marks.
5. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items
in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet.
6. There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by a candidate. For each wrong
answer, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as
penalty.
7. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer,
even if one of the given answers happens to be correct.
8. If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be
no penalty for that question.
9. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and
the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the
Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO


VAJIRAM & RAVI
1. Which one of the following is a parliamentary 4. Which of the following disclosures need to be
convention and is not enforced by the made by electoral candidates compulsorily in
Constitution of India? their affidavit?
(a) Appointment of the Prime Minister with a 1. Criminal records
majority by the President 2. Details of financial assets
(b) The President's address to the Lok Sabha 3. Sources of political funding
at the commencement of its first session 4. Immovable property
(c) Administration of oath to the President 5. Educational qualification
Select the correct answer using the code
by the senior most judge of the Supreme
given below:
Court
(a) 1 and 4 only
(d) Right of the Attorney General to take part
(b) 2, 3 and 5 only
in the committee of the Parliament
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
2. Which of the following Articles of the
Constitution of India provide for the right to a 5. The Constitution (106th Amendment) Act,
clean environment and the right against the 2023, that seeks to provide 33% reservation
adverse effects of climate change? to women in the Lok Sabha and State
1. Article 14 Assemblies, was passed by:
2. Article 19 (a) Simple majority of the Parliament
3. Article 21 (b) Absolute majority of the Parliament
4. Article 23 (c) Special majority of the Parliament
Select the correct answer using the code (d) Special majority of the Parliament and
given below: ratification by the State Legislatures
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only 6. Consider the following statements:
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only Statement-I: No civil proceedings can be
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 instituted against the Governor of a State in
any court during her/his term of office.
Statement-II: The Governor of a State is not
3. Consider the following statements.
answerable to any court for the exercise and
1. It recognised the principle of elections
performance of the powers and duties of her/
in the central and provincial legislative
his office.
councils.
Which one of the following is correct in respect
2. It created executive councils in the of the above statements?
provinces of Bombay, Madras and Bengal. (a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are
3. It introduced the office of a ‘Vice-President’ correct and Statement–II is the correct
at both the centre and the provinces. explanation for Statement–I
Above provisions were part of which of the (b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are
following administrative reforms during British correct and Statement–II is not the correct
India? explanation for Statement–I
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1892 (c) Statement–I is correct but Statement–II is
(b) Indian Councils Act, 1909 incorrect
(c) Government of India Act, 1919 (d) Statement–I is incorrect but Statement–II
(d) Government of India Act, 1935 is correct

Vajiram & Ravi Institute for IAS Examination 1


PowerUp All India Mock Test – 03 (2024)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
7. Consider the following statements with 10. With reference to the Right of private defence,
reference to the dissolution of Lok Sabha: consider the following statements:
1. Lok Sabha is automatically dissolved at 1. The term ‘private defence’ is well-defined
the end of its five-year term and no formal
in the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC),
order of dissolution is required for the
1973.
same.
2. The Speaker of Lok Sabha vacates her/ 2. Everyone has the right to private defence
his office immediately at the end of the of his own body and property.
term of the Lok Sabha. 3. There is no right of private defence against
3. The President has extraordinary power to the act of a public servant acting in good
revive the dissolved House in case of an
faith.
emergency.
How many of the above statements are
How many of the above statements are
correct? correct?
(a) Only one (a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) All three (c) All three
(d) None (d) None

8. Which one of the following has the authority


11. Which one of the following is not known as a
to declare that it is in the national interest for
Parliament to legislate on a State List? super pollutant?
(a) President (a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Lok Sabha (b) Methane
(c) Rajya Sabha (c) Hydrofluorocarbons
(d) Union Cabinet
(d) Ground-level ozone

9. Consider the following:


1. Sentence issued in a civil case by a 12. Consider the following:
tribunal 1. Liveable Planet Fund
2. Decree ordered in a criminal case by the 2. Climate Co-Benefits
High Court 3. Resilience Rating System
3. Court martial order issued by a military
Above instruments regarding climate change
court
are related to which one of the following?
4. Interim judgement issued by a court that
is not final (a) World Bank
The Supreme Court of India can grant a (b) World Wildlife Fund
special leave to an aggrieved party to appeal (c) Global Environment Facility
against how many of the above cases? (d) United Nations Framework Convention
(a) Only one on Climate Change
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
2 Vajiram & Ravi Institute for IAS Examination
PowerUp All India Mock Test – 03 (2024)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
13. Consider the following statements with 15. Consider the following:
reference to the Cement industry: 1. Alley cropping
1. It is the second largest industrial emitter 2. Rotational grazing
of Carbon Dioxide (CO2) in the world. 3. Cover cropping
2. Ordinary Portland Cement (OPC) has the 4. Silvopasture
highest CO2 emission intensity. 5. Zero tillage
3. Minimising the use of limestone in How many of the above are the common
cement manufacturing can reduce CO2 techniques used in Carbon Farming?
emissions. (a) Only two
How many of the above statements are (b) Only three
correct? (c) Only four
(a) Only one (d) All five
(b) Only two
(c) All three
16. Which one of the following organisms emits
(d) None
ultrasonic sounds that are inaudible to
humans but can scare off predators as a
14. Consider the following statements:
survival strategy?
Statement-I: The Enhanced Transparency
(a) Leaf litter frog
Framework (ETF) is central to the design,
(b) Pangolin
credibility and operation of the Paris
(c) Starfish
Agreement.
(d) Fishing cat
Statement-II:
The ETF provides arrangements to track and
17. Consider the following statements with
report on national climate change mitigation
reference to Bio-oil:
and adaptation actions, including progress on
1. It can be used as a feedstock to replace
Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs).
petroleum fuel for power generation.
Which one of the following is correct in respect
2. When combusted in the engine, bio-oil
of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are does not generate any nitrogen oxides

correct and Statement–II is the correct (NOx) and sulphur oxides (SOx).

explanation for Statement–I 3. It is directly used as a transportation fuel


(b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are due to its high viscosity and high oxygen
correct and Statement–II is not the correct content.
explanation for Statement–I Which of the statements given above are
(c) Statement–I is correct but Statement–II is correct?
incorrect (a) 1 only
(d) Statement–I is incorrect but Statement–II (b) 2 only
is correct (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Vajiram & Ravi Institute for IAS Examination 3


PowerUp All India Mock Test – 03 (2024)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
18. ‘Biological invasion’ is when a species: 21. What is “Zero Shadow Day”?
(a) exhibits voluntary movement from one (a) An annual phenomenon observed across
region to another to enhance biodiversity all the latitudes on the same day
(b) that is indigenous, poses an adverse (b) A bi-annual phenomenon confined
effect on ecosystem functioning between the Tropic of Cancer and the
(c) that is non-indigenous in an area spread Tropic of Capricorn
into regions where it was not previously (c) An annual phenomenon observed beyond
found the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of
(d) shifts its habitat to a new ecosystem due Capricorn
to seasonal changes driven by climate (d) A bi-annual phenomenon restricted to the
change locations in the equatorial region

19. Consider the following: 22. Consider the following statements:


1. Orchids Statement-I: If the moon disappears, there
2. Peas can be a loss of biodiversity in coastal
3. Potatoes ecosystems.
4. Oats Statement-II: Without the moon, there will be
5. Sunflowers no ocean tides on the earth.
Self-pollination occurs in how many of the Which one of the following is correct in respect
above plants? of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(a) Only two
correct and Statement-II is the correct
(b) Only three
explanation for Statement-I
(c) Only four
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(d) All five
correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I
20. Which of the following is/are the measure/
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
measures undertaken by the Government of
incorrect
India to promote the production of e-vehicles?
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
1. Financial assistance for setting up
is correct
charging stations for e-vehicles
2. Inclusion of e-vehicle infrastructure under
23. Consider the following:
the Priority Sector Lending
1. Cooling of the troposphere
3. Concessions on customs duty for the
2. Depletion of the ozone layer
import of machinery for setting e-vehicle
3. Occurrence of acid rain
projects
4. Decrease in sea level
Select the correct answer using the code
How many of the above environmental
given below:
changes can be caused by volcanic eruptions?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) Only one
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) Only two
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Only three
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All four

4 Vajiram & Ravi Institute for IAS Examination


PowerUp All India Mock Test – 03 (2024)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
24. Consider the following statements: 27. “Fertile Crescent”, often seen in news, roughly
Statement-I: The Earth’s equator receives corresponds to which one of the following?
comparatively less insolation than the tropics. (a) Region along eastern Africa comprising of
Statement-II: The higher the latitude the Djibouti, Eritrea, Ethiopia and Somalia
less is the angle the sun’s rays make with the (b) Region fed by Don, Volga and Dnieper
earth's surface. rivers
Which one of the following is correct in respect (c) Region along Thailand and Vietnam
of the above statements? known for largest production of rice in the
(a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are world
correct and Statement–II is the correct (d) Region fed by Tigris, Euphrates and the
explanation for Statement–I Nile rivers
(b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are
correct and Statement–II is not the correct 28. Consider the following:
explanation for Statement–I 1. Monazite
(c) Statement–I is correct but Statement–II is 2. Thorianite
incorrect 3. Bauxite
(d) Statement–I is incorrect but Statement–II
4. Ilmenite
is correct
How many of the above minerals are the
source of thorium?
25. Consider the following statements:
(a) Only one
1. The Eastern Maritime Corridor connects
(b) Only two
the Paradip port with Russia.
(c) Only three
2. The International North-South Transport
(d) All four
Corridor connects Tuticorin port with Iran.
3. The India-Middle East-Europe-Economic
29. Consider the following statements:
Corridor connects Mundra port with Israel.
Statement-I: An increase in nominal Gross
How many of the above statements are
Domestic Product (GDP) does not necessarily
correct?
(a) Only one mean an increase in the total output of the
(b) Only two country.
(c) All three Statement-II: Nominal GDP captures the
(d) None final value of goods and services at current
prices without adjusting for inflation.
26. Consider the following: Which one of the following is correct in respect
1. Sea of Galilee to the above statements?
2. Red Sea (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
3. Mediterranean Sea correct and Statement-II is the correct
4. Dead Sea explanation for Statement-I
5. Black Sea (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Israel is bordered by how many of the above correct and Statement-II is not the correct
water bodies? explanation for Statement-I
(a) Only two (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
(b) Only three incorrect
(c) Only four (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
(d) All five is correct
Vajiram & Ravi Institute for IAS Examination 5
PowerUp All India Mock Test – 03 (2024)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
30. Consider the following statements: 33. Which of the following are most likely impacts
1. The fiat money derives its value from of financial inclusion in India?
the guarantee provided by the issuing 1. Increase in Gini coefficient
authority.
2. Increase in private investment
2. The value of cryptocurrencies is based
3. Increase in money multiplier
on the market forces of its demand and
supply. Select the correct answer using the code
3. The value of the Central Bank Digital given below:
Currency is equal to the fiat currency. (a) 1 and 2 only
4. The value of stablecoins is pegged to a (b) 2 and 3 only
reserve asset like gold. (c) 1 and 3 only
How many of the above statements are
(d) 1, 2 and 3
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 34. In India, Consumer Price Index (Combined)
(c) Only three is generally used for which of the following?
(d) All four 1. Setting up of MGNREGA wage rate
2. Determination of capital goods prices for
31. Softening of bond yields (decrease in bond businesses
yields) occurs when there is a/an: 3. Provision of Dearness Allowance (DA) to
(a) increase in inflation in the economy
Central Government employees
(b) sale of government securities by Central
Bank in open market operations 4. Inflation targeting by the Reserve Bank of
(c) increase in government borrowing India
(d) increase in market value of bonds over its Select the correct answer using the code
face value given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
32. Consider the following statements: (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
Statement-I: A country with a lower
(c) 4 only
Incremental Capital Output Ratio (ICOR)
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
requires more investment to produce the next
unit of production.
Statement-II: Incremental Capital Output 35. Which of the following steps can the
Ratio (ICOR) has an inverse relationship with government take to control the price rise of
the growth in an economy. an agricultural commodity?
Which one of the following is correct in respect 1. Increase in Minimum Support Price (MSP)
to the above statements?
2. Withdrawal of Minimum Export Price
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(MEP)
correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I 3. Deregulating Agricultural Markets
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Select the correct answer using the code
correct and Statement-II is not the correct given below:
explanation for Statement-I (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is (b) 3 only
incorrect
(c) 2 only
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
(d) 2 and 3 only
is correct
6 Vajiram & Ravi Institute for IAS Examination
PowerUp All India Mock Test – 03 (2024)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
36. Consider the following materials: 40. Consider the following pairs:
1. Copper
Sl. Ancient Situated on the
2. Steatite No. University banks of river
3. Terracotta
1. Nalanda : Falgu
4. Ivory
2. Vikramshila : Ganga
How many of the above were used in the
making of seals during the Indus Valley 3. Takshashila : Indus
Civilisation (IVC)? 4. Odantapuri : Panchanan
(a) Only one
(b) Only two How many pairs given above are correctly
(c) Only three matched?
(d) All four
(a) Only one pair
37. The ‘Sandhara, Nirandhara and (b) Only two pairs
Sarvatobhadra’ are the names of: (c) Only three pairs
(a) chief disciples of Buddha
(d) All four pairs
(b) Sanskrit texts written by Vishakhadutta
(c) compositions in Carnatic style
(d) types of temple shrines 41. With reference to ancient Indian history, the
terms ‘Paura, Nigama and Pauga’ refer to:
38. Which of the following are associated with the
(a) trading ports
Iron Age in India?
1. Malwa Culture (b) religious sects
2. Painted Grey Ware (PGW) culture (c) forms of local self-government
3. Megalithic culture
(d) military cantonments
4. Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW)
culture
Select the correct answer using the code 42. With reference to the cultural history of India,
given below: the term ‘aparigraha’ means:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) non possession of things more than what
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only is required for survival
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) non-violence and compassion towards
living beings
39. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Vedic Age: (c) being truthful in thought, speech and
1. Each gotra was named after a Vedic seer action
in Brahmanical practices. (d) renouncement of all passions to achieve
2. Women were allowed access to formal
the path of liberation
education after the upanayana ceremony.
3. Unlike the Rig Vedic Age, nuclear family
structure became prominent during the 43. One common point of agreement between
later Vedic period.
Gandhism and Ambedkarism is:
How many of the above statements are
correct? (a) struggle against bondage and slavery
(a) Only one (b) historical unity of India
(b) Only two (c) grassroot democracy
(c) All three
(d) reliance on cottage industries
(d) None

Vajiram & Ravi Institute for IAS Examination 7


PowerUp All India Mock Test – 03 (2024)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
44. Consider the following statements: 48. Which one of the following best describes the
1. Some fungi are free-living. term ‘Metatranscriptomics’?
2. Some fungi are autotrophic. (a) Analysing the total DNA content of
3. Some fungi undergo asexual reproduction.
microorganisms in a given environment
4. Some fungi are unicellular.
How many of the above statements are (b) Studying the total RNA transcripts present
correct? in a particular environmental sample
(a) Only one (c) Sequencing the entire genome of a single
(b) Only two microorganism
(c) Only three (d) Identifying and counting the total number
(d) All four of microorganisms in a particular habitat
45. Consider the following statements:
1. Artificial General Intelligence (AGI) is 49. Consider the following pairs:
capable of performing tasks that involve Sl. Agreements/ Related to
abstract thinking and common sense. No. Conventions
2. Generative AI uses machine learning 1. Rescue : Provision of
algorithms to predict future outcomes Agreement, assistance to
based on historical data. 1968 astronauts in distress
3. Generative AI can develop models that 2. Liability : Compensation for
Convention, damage caused by
mimic human creativity but lack AGI’s 1972 space objects
learning ability. 3. Registration : Registration of
How many of the above statements are Convention, Rocket launch sites
correct? 1976 with International
(a) Only one Astronomical Union
(b) Only two How many of the above pairs are correctly
(c) All three
matched?
(d) None
(a) Only one pair
46. Carmoisine, tartrazine and rhodamine, cause (b) Only two pairs
of concern in recent times, are used as: (c) All three pairs
(a) pesticides (d) None
(b) artificial sweeteners
(c) food colouring agents 50. Consider the following statements with
(d) chemicals in plastic
reference to the Air Independent Propulsion
47. Which of the following are the effects of space (AIP) system:
weather on Earth? 1. It provides oxygen to an aerobic engine in
1. Power grid outages an open cycle.
2. Disruption of Global Navigation Satellite 2. It reduces the chances of detection of
Systems submarines by reducing their noise levels.
3. Cooling up of ionosphere
3. The fuel cells-based AIP System can
4. Corrosion in pipes
5. Bird migration generate hydrogen onboard.
6. False train signals Which of the statements given above are
Select the correct answer using the code correct?
given below: (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1, 3 and 6 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
8 Vajiram & Ravi Institute for IAS Examination
PowerUp All India Mock Test – 03 (2024)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
51. With reference to post-independent 54. Consider the following statements:
developments in India, which one of the Statement-I: Demands for Grants of
following happened earliest? Ministries/Departments can be voted only in
Lok Sabha.
(a) Grant of constitutional status to Panchayati
Statement-II: The Rajya Sabha has no
Raj Institution power to reject or amend any Financial Bill.
(b) Introduction of anti-defection law Which one of the following is correct in respect
(c) Right to education made a Fundamental of the above statements?
Right (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct
(d) Lowering of the voting age in elections
explanation for Statement I
from 21 to 18 years (b) Both statement-I and Statement-II are
correct but Statement-II is not the correct
52. Consider the following statements with explanation for Statement-I
reference to the None of the above (NOTA) (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
option available in Indian elections: incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
1. It allows voters to protest if none of the
is correct
candidates is acceptable to them.
2. It has a symbolic value in direct elections. 55. A law made by the Parliament with respect to
3. It can be used only in holding elections any matter enumerated in State List, during
where the secret ballot system applies. the President’s Rule:
(a) continues to be operative only for three
How many of the above statements are
months after the President’s Rule is
correct? revoked
(a) Only one (b) ceases to be operative only after Rajya
(b) Only two Sabha passes a concerned resolution
(c) All three (c) ceases to be operative immediately after
(d) None the President’s Rule is revoked
(d) continues to be operative even after the
President’s Rule is revoked
53. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Panchayats in India: 56. Consider the following statements:
1. Courts have no jurisdiction to examine 1. The Prime Minister’s National Relief
the validity of a law relating to delimitation Fund (PMNRF) consists entirely of
of constituencies in respect of the public contributions and does not get any
budgetary support.
Panchayats.
2. The National Disaster Response Fund
2. The election to any panchayat can be (NDRF) is allocated to the "Public
questioned only through an election Account" of the Government of India.
petition presented to the authority in a 3. The Prime Minister (PM) CARES Fund
manner provided by the State Legislature. does not form part of the Government of
India’s accounts.
Which of the statements given above is/are
How many of the above statements are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) Only one
(b) 2 only (b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) All three
(d) None
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Vajiram & Ravi Institute for IAS Examination 9


PowerUp All India Mock Test – 03 (2024)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
57. Which one of the following Biosphere 60. With reference to the Indian laurel tree,
Reserves is a part of delta of Ganges and consider the following statements:
Brahmaputra river system? 1. It is commonly found in deciduous and
(a) Sunderbans moist forests.
2. It is known to store water in barks as an
(b) Nokrek
adaptation technique during summers.
(c) Dehang-Debang
3. Its leaves are used for feeding tasar
(d) Manas
silkworms.
Which of the statements given above are
58. Consider the following statements: correct?
1. Carbon avoidance credits are based on (a) 1 and 2 only
the emissions that might have existed (b) 2 and 3 only
had a project not been funded. (c) 1 and 3 only
2. Carbon reduction decreases the amount (d) 1, 2 and 3
of greenhouse gas emissions, compared
to prior practices. 61. Consider the following animals:
1. Ganges River Dolphin
3. Carbon removal prevents additional
2. Nilgiri Tahr
greenhouse gas emissions from entering
3. Kashmir Stag
the atmosphere by reducing sources of
4. Great Indian Hornbill
emissions. 5. Lesser Florican
How many of the statements given above are How many of the above species are endemic
correct? to India?
(a) Only one (a) Only two
(b) Only two (b) Only three
(c) All three (c) Only four
(d) None (d) All five

62. Consider the following statements:


59. Biofortified varieties are available for which of
1. Some fish shimmies and wiggles to move
the following crops in India?
the electric field around to generate
1. Cotton a three-dimensional “image” of its
2. Rice surroundings.
3. Wheat 2. Penguins take seconds-long micronaps
4. Groundnut during the day to remain vigilant while
5. Maize incubating their eggs.
Select the correct answer using the code 3. Chimpanzees can use brush-tipped sticks
given below: to obtain water from deep tree holes.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(a) Only one
(c) 1, 3 and 5 only
(b) Only two
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) All three
(d) None
10 Vajiram & Ravi Institute for IAS Examination
PowerUp All India Mock Test – 03 (2024)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
63. Consider the following organisms: 67. Consider the following map:
1. Sea snails
2. Sea butterflies
3. Sea lions
4. Oysters
5. Sea horse
How many of the above have their own
shells?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five

64. ‘RUSLE equation’ constitutes a tool used to


estimate:
(a) radioactivity of uranium
(b) soil loss and erosion
(c) urban planning
(d) weather forecasts

65. Consider the following hills:


1. Anaimalai
2. Javadi
3. Mahendragiri
4. Shevaroy Which one of the following river basins is
5. Cardamom
How many of the above are part of the Eastern highlighted in the above map?
Ghats? (a) Kaveri
(a) Only two (b) Godavari
(b) Only three (c) Mahanadi
(c) Only four
(d) Krishna
(d) All five

66. Consider the following statements with 68. Consider the following statements:
reference to monsoon depressions: 1. Copper is used in the manufacturing of
1. These are cold core systems over the solar panels.
surface and in the lower levels and warm
cores in the upper levels. 2. Cobalt is used in the manufacturing of car
2. These are low-pressure areas that can batteries.
originate only on seas and not on land 3. Zinc is used to galvanise other metals to
surfaces. prevent rusting.
3. Due to the high vertical wind shear
4. Lithium mixed with nickel and aluminium
present during the Southwest monsoon
season, monsoon depressions generally is used to make powerful magnets.
do not intensify into cyclonic storms. How many of the above statements are
Which of the statements given above are correct?
correct? (a) Only one
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (b) Only two
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) Only three
(d) 1 and 3 only (d) All four

Vajiram & Ravi Institute for IAS Examination 11


PowerUp All India Mock Test – 03 (2024)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
69. Consider the following statements: 71. Consider the following map:
Statement-I: Coastal upwelling ecosystems
are some of the most productive fish
ecosystems in the world.
Statement-II: During upwelling, deep ocean
water rises and fertilises surface waters with
nutrients.
Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
The above highlighted region shows
incorrect
distribution of which one of the following
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II crops in India?
is correct (a) Maize
(b) Mustard
(c) Groundnut
70. Which one of the following sets of water
(d) Sugarcane
bodies can be connected by a vertical straight
line on the world map? 72. Consider the following statements with
(a) Black sea, Caspian Sea and Mediterranean reference to the inheritance tax in India:
Sea 1. It has never been levied in independent
India.
(b) Caspian Sea, Persian Gulf and Arabian
2. No income tax or stamp duty is paid on
Sea inherited property.
(c) Mediterranean Sea, Red Sea and Persian 3. Any asset passing under a Will is not
Gulf subject to capital gains tax.
How many of the above statements are
(d) Bering sea, Sea of Japan and Philippine
correct?
Sea (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

12 Vajiram & Ravi Institute for IAS Examination


PowerUp All India Mock Test – 03 (2024)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
73. Consider the following instruments: 77. Which one of the following is most likely to
1. Promissory Notes happen if the Central Bank buys more dollars
2. Bills of Exchange and sells more Indian Rupee?
3. Cheques
(a) Increase in liquidity in the banking system
4. Certificates of Deposit
How many of the above are categorised as (b) Decrease in the total money supply of the
negotiable instruments in India? economy
(a) Only one (c) Decrease in foreign exchange reserves of
(b) Only two Central Bank
(c) Only three
(d) Increase in the purchasing power of
(d) All four
residents
74. Which one of the following is the most likely
impact of the increased consumer income on 78. If India enters into a Free Trade Agreement
Indian Rupee? (FTA) with another country, which of the
(a) Indian rupee will definitely appreciate following benefits may accrue to it?
(b) Indian rupee may or may not depreciate
(c) Depreciation of the Indian rupee will be 1. Elimination of the majority of tariffs on
twice of the increase in income imports
(d) Appreciation of the Indian rupee will be 2. Specialisation in the production of
twice of the increase in income commodities
3. Increase in the total domestic output
75. Consider the following fertilisers:
4. Higher wages for domestic workers
1. Diammonium Phosphate
2. Urea employed in the production of exporting
3. Muriate of Potash goods
4. Ammonium Sulphate 5. Exemption from the Most Favoured
How many of the above are covered under Nation (MFN) clause at the World Trade
the Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) Scheme?
Organisation
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Select the correct answer using the code
(c) Only three given below:
(d) All four (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 4 and 5 only
76. Consider the following statements with (c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
reference to bonds:
Statement-I: Issuance of bonds results in a (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
decline in the deflationary gap in the economy.
Statement-II: Issuance of government bonds 79. Consider the following statements:
absorbs the excess liquidity from the market. 1. Cotton accounts for a two-third share of
Which one of the following is correct in respect the total textile fibre consumption in India.
to the above statements?
2. Cottonseed is the third largest domestically
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct produced vegetable oil in India.
explanation for Statement-I 3. India is the largest cotton-producing
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are country in the world.
correct and Statement-II is not the correct How many of the above statements are
explanation for Statement-I
correct?
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
incorrect (a) Only one
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II (b) Only two
is correct (c) All three
(d) None

Vajiram & Ravi Institute for IAS Examination 13


PowerUp All India Mock Test – 03 (2024)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
80. With reference to the early medieval India, 83. Which one of the following are the only two
consider the following statements: surviving examples of the Pallava mural
1. Dharmapala of the Pala dynasty captured paintings?
(a) Kailasanatha and Talagishwara temple
Kannauj by defeating Pratihara King
(b) Krishnapuram palace and
Vatsaraja.
Padmanabhapuram palace
2. Govinda III of Rashtrakuta dynasty (c) Tirumalaipuram caves and Jaina caves
captured Malwa by defeating Nagabhata (d) Gangaikonda Cholapuram and
II of Pratihara. Darasuram temple
3. Devpala of Pala dynasty was killed in a
84. Consider the following:
battle with Amoghavarsha of Rashtrakuta.
1. Abolition of dyarchy in provinces
How many of the above statements are
2. All India Federation
correct? 3. Separation of Sindh from Bombay
(a) Only one 4. Residuary powers to the Governor-
(b) Only two General of India
(c) All three How many of the above recommendations of
(d) None the Simon Commission were accepted in the
Government of India Act 1935?
(a) Only one
81. Which one of the following reforms was not
(b) Only two
undertaken by Firoz Shah Tughlaq? (c) Only three
(a) He institutionalised the iqtadari system by (d) All four
making it hereditary.
(b) He was the first ruler of the Delhi Sultanate 85. The journal “Abhyudaya”, that advocated the
period to impose irrigation tax, Sharb. idea of universities in India, was published
by:
(c) He constructed canals from Yamuna to the
(a) Motilal Nehru
city of Hisar to provide irrigation facilities. (b) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) He established a new department of (c) Madan Mohan Malviya
Agriculture, Diwan-i-amirkohi. (d) Dhondo Keshav Karve

82. Consider the following: 86. Arrange the following institutions related to
Mahatma Gandhi in the chronological order
1. Mohur
of their establishment:
2. Tanka
1. Phoenix Settlement
3. Varaha 2. Sabarmati Ashram
4. Shreni 3. Kochrab Ashram
How many of the above served as currency 4. Tolstoy Farm
for trade in medieval India? Select the correct answer using the code
(a) Only one given below:
(a) 1-4-3-2
(b) Only two
(b) 2-1-3-4
(c) Only three
(c) 1-3-4-2
(d) All four (d) 2-4-3-1
14 Vajiram & Ravi Institute for IAS Examination
PowerUp All India Mock Test – 03 (2024)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
87. Who among the following described the 91. Consider the following pairs:
enduring image of the effect of British mill
cloth on the Indian cotton industry as: “The Sl. Phenomena Description
No. in Space
bones of the cotton weavers are bleaching
1. Airglow : Band of light visible
the plains of India. The misery hardly finds a only in regions closer
parallel in the history of commerce”? to the poles
(a) Alexander Cunningham 2. Aurora : Lights visible in the
(b) James Prinsep Borealis Northern Hemisphere
(c) William Bentinck due to coronal mass
ejections
(d) Max Weber
3. Zodiacal Light : Bright spot in the night
sky located opposite
88. With reference to the Indian National Congress to the position of the
(INC), consider the following statements: Sun
1. Mahadev Govind Ranade played an 4. Gegenschein : Natural glow of Earth’s
atmosphere that takes
important role in the formation of the INC. place all the time at all
2. Raghunath Rao started the National latitudes
Social Conference as a subsidiary organ
of the INC. How many of the above pairs are correctly
3. Swarajist and No changers decided to matched?
cooperate with each other at the Belgaum
(a) Only one pair
Session of INC presided by Mahatma
Gandhi. (b) Only two pairs
How many of the above statements are (c) Only three pairs
correct? (d) All four pairs
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 92. Consider the following statements with
(c) All three
reference to the environmental DNA (eDNA):
(d) None
1. It is mitochondrial DNA that is released
89. In the context of modern Indian history, the from an organism into the environment.
demand of ‘Dominion Status’ was accepted 2. It is degraded through exposure to UV
by the British Government in which of the radiation and hydrological processes.
following? 3. It can be used for early detection of
1. August Offer aquatic invasive species.
2. Wavell’s Plan
How many of the above statements are
3. Cripps Mission
4. Gandhi Irwin Pact correct?
Select the correct answer using the code (a) Only one
given below: (b) Only two
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) All three
(b) 1 and 3 only (d) None
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
93. The ‘Tokamak Approach’ is well-known for
90. Which one of the following is not a subatomic the:
particle? (a) urban forest management
(a) Neutrino (b) desalination of seawater
(b) Muon (c) confining plasma for nuclear fusion
(c) Higgs Boson (d) cryptocurrency portfolio allocation
(d) Radon
Vajiram & Ravi Institute for IAS Examination 15
PowerUp All India Mock Test – 03 (2024)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
94. Consider the following: 98. Consider the following:
1. Malaria 1. Democratic Republic of Congo
2. West Nile fever 2. Sudan
3. Dengue
3. Venezuela
4. Zika virus
4. Myanmar
How many of the above are mosquito-borne
diseases? How many of the above countries are currently
(a) Only one facing civil war situations?
(b) Only two (a) Only one
(c) Only three (b) Only two
(d) All four (c) Only three
(d) All four
95. During photosynthesis, water goes through
…….. while carbon dioxide goes through
…….. 99. Consider the following statements with
(a) displacement ..... combination reference to the United Nations Global
(b) decomposition ..... combustion Compact (UNGC):
(c) oxidation .…. reduction 1. It is the first ever international agreement
(d) hydrolysis ….. synthesis signed for safe and orderly movement of
refugees.
96. Consider the following statements:
2. Its principles are legally binding on all
1. All European countries are members of
the European Union (EU). participating members.
2. All EU countries are members of the 3. It requires participating signatories to
Eurozone. produce an annual Communication on
3. Some non-EU countries are part of the Progress (COP) that details their work.
Schengen Area. How many of the above statements are
How many of the above statements are
correct?
correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) All three (c) All three
(d) None (d) None

97. Consider the following pairs: 100. Consider the following countries:
Sl. Place seen in Country where 1. Egypt
No. the news it is located
2. Iran
1. Chibok : Nigeria
3. Saudi Arabia
2. Belgorod : Russia
4. United Arab Emirates (UAE)
3. Gagauz : Ukraine
5. South Africa
4. Darfur : Sudan
Which one of the following groupings has all
How many of the above pairs are correctly the above as its members?
matched?
(a) QUAD
(a) Only one pair
(b) G20
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs (c) BRICS
(d) All four pairs (d) G7

16 Vajiram & Ravi Institute for IAS Examination


PowerUp All India Mock Test – 03 (2024)

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