*WMS11* Part of

BǤǞǡǞǦǔ (OǝǙǤǞǟ A)
HIGHER & ORDINARY LEVEL
MARKING SCHEME
Pre-Leaving Certificate Examination 2024

Higher Level: page 5

Ordinary Level: page 25
 HIGHER LEVEL

Note to teachers and students on the use of published marking schemes

Marking schemes published by the State Examinations Commission are not intended to be standalone
documents. They are an essential resource for examiners who receive training in the correct
interpretation and application of the scheme. This training involves, among other things, marking
samples of student work and discussing the marks awarded, so as to clarify the correct application
of the scheme. The work of examiners is subsequently monitored by Advising Examiners to ensure
consistent and accurate application of the marking scheme. This process is overseen by the Chief
Examiner, usually assisted by a Chief Advising Examiner. The Chief Examiner is the final authority
regarding whether or not the marking scheme has been correctly applied to any piece of candidate
work.

Marking schemes are working documents. While a draft marking scheme is prepared in advance of the
examination, the scheme is not finalised until examiners have applied it to candidates’ work and the
feedback from all examiners has been collated and considered in light of the full range of responses
of candidates, the overall level of difficulty of the examination and the need to maintain consistency in
standards from year to year. This published document contains the finalised scheme, as it was applied
to all candidates’ work.

In the case of marking schemes that include model solutions or answers, it should be noted that these
are not intended to be exhaustive. Variations and alternatives may also be acceptable. Examiners must
consider all answers on their merits, and will have consulted with their Advising Examiners when in
doubt.

Future Marking Schemes

Assumptions about future marking schemes on the basis of past schemes should be avoided. While
the underlying assessment principles remain the same, the details of the marking of a particular type
of question may change in the context of the contribution of that question to the overall examination
in a given year. The Chief Examiner in any given year has the responsibility to determine how best to
ensure the fair and accurate assessment of candidates’ work and to ensure consistency in the standard
of the assessment from year to year. Accordingly, aspects of the structure, detail and application of the
marking scheme for a particular examination are subject to change from one year to the next without
notice.

PAGE 2 OF 42 HIGHER LEVEL BIOLOGY | Pre-Leaving Certificate, 2024

 HIGHER LEVEL

Introduction

The marking scheme is a guide to awarding marks to candidates’ answers. It is a concise and
summarised guide and is constructed so as to minimise its word content. Examiners must conform
to this scheme and may not allow marks for answering outside this scheme. The scheme contains
key words, terms and phrases for which candidates may be awarded marks. This does not preclude
synonyms or terms or phrases which convey the same meaning as the answer in the marking scheme.
Although synonyms are generally acceptable, there may be instances where the scheme demands
an exact scientific term or unequivocal response and will not accept alternatives. The descriptions,
methods and definitions in the scheme are not exhaustive and alternative valid answers are acceptable.
If it comes to the attention of an examiner that a candidate has presented a valid answer and there is
no provision in the scheme for accepting this answer, then the examiner must first consult with his/ her
advising examiner before awarding marks. As a general rule, if in doubt about any answer, examiners
should consult their advising examiner before awarding marks.

1. Key words or terms or phrases may be awarded marks, only if presented in the correct
context.
Sample Question: Outline how water from the soil reaches the leaf.

• Marking scheme: Concentration gradient / osmosis / root hair / root pressure / cell to cell
/ xylem / transpiration or evaporation / cohesion (or explained) or
adhesion
(or capillarity or explained) or tension (or explained) Any six 6(3).
o Sample answer: “Water is drawn up the xylem by osmosis”.
 Although the candidate has presented two key terms (xylem, osmosis), the
statement is incorrect and the candidate can only be awarded 3 marks for
referring to the movement of water through the xylem.

2. Cancelled Answers
• The following is an extract from S.63o Instructions to Examiners, 2019 (section 5.3,
p.14) “Where a candidate answers a question or part of a question once only and then
cancels the answer, you should ignore the cancelling and treat the answer as if the
candidate had not cancelled it.”
o Sample Question: What is pollination?
• Marking scheme: Transfer of pollen/ from anther/ to stigma 3(3).
o Sample answer: transfer of pollen/ by insect/ to stigma.
 The candidate has cancelled the answer and has not made another attempt
to answer the question and may be awarded 2(3) marks.
   If an answer is cancelled and an alternative version given, the cancellation
should be accepted and marks awarded, where merited, for the uncancelled
version only.
   If two (or more) un-cancelled versions of an answer are given to the same
question or part of a question, both (or all) should be marked and the
answer accepted that yields the greater (greatest) number of marks. Points
may not, however, be combined from multiple versions to arrive at a
manufactured total.

3. Surplus Answers
• In Section A, a surplus wrong answer cancels the marks awarded for a correct answer.
o Sample 1 Question: The walls of xylem vessels are reinforced with …
o Marking Scheme: Lignin (4 marks)
o Sample 1 answers:
   Chitin, lignin – there is a surplus answer, which is incorrect, therefore the
candidate scores 4 – 4 marks = 0.
   Lignin – the answer, which is correct, has been cancelled by the candidate,
but there is no additional or surplus answer, therefore the candidate may
be awarded 4 marks.
   Lignin, chitin - there is a surplus answer, which is incorrect, but it has been
cancelled and as the candidate has given more than one answer (i.e. the
candidate is answering the question more than once only), the cancelling
can be accepted and s/he may be awarded 4 marks.

HIGHER LEVEL BIOLOGY | Pre-Leaving Certificate, 2024 PAGE 3 OF 42

 HIGHER LEVEL

o Sample 2 Question: Name the four elements that are always present in protein.
o Marking Scheme: Carbon/ hydrogen/ oxygen/ nitrogen 4(3)
o Sample 2 answers:
   Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, calcium – there is a surplus answer,
which is incorrect, and which cancels one of the correct answers, therefore
the candidate is awarded 3(3) marks.
   Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, calcium – there is no surplus answer, there are
three correct answers, and therefore the candidate is awarded 3(3) marks.
   Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, calcium, aluminium – there is a surplus answer,
which is incorrect, and which cancels one of the three correct answers,
therefore the candidate is awarded 2(3) marks.
   Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, calcium, aluminium – there is a surplus answer,
which is incorrect, but it has been cancelled so the candidate may be
awarded 3(3) marks.

• In the other sections of the paper, Sections B and C, there may be instances where a
correct answer is nullified by the addition of an incorrect answer. This happens when the
only acceptable answer is a specific word or term. Each such instance is indicated in the
scheme by an asterisk *.

Conventions
• Where only one answer is required, alternative answers are separated by ‘or’.
• Where multiple answers are required, each word, term or phrase for which marks are
allocated is separated by a solidus ( / ) from the next word, term or phrase.
• The mark awarded for an answer appears in bold next to the answer.
• Where there are several parts in the answer to a question, the mark awarded for each
part appears in brackets e.g. 5(4) means that there are five parts to the answer, each part
allocated 4 marks.
• The answers to subsections of a question may not necessarily be allocated a specific mark;
e.g. there may be six parts to a question – (a), (b), (c), (d), (e), (f) and a total of 20 marks
allocated to the question.
• The marking scheme might be as follows: 2(4) + 4(3). This means that the first two correct
answers encountered are awarded 4 marks each and each subsequent correct answer is
awarded 3 marks.
• A word or term that appears in brackets is not a requirement of the answer, but is used
to contextualise the answer or may be an alternative answer.

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 HIGHER LEVEL

HIGHER LEVEL
Section A Best 5 5(20)

Note: check the guidelines regarding surplus answers in Section A in the introduction to this marking scheme.

1. Best FIVE answers from (a) – (f) 5(4)

Differentiate between the following:

(a) Ecosystem: Organisms (plants and animals) and (their interactions with) their environment
Habitat: Where (an) organism(s) ((a) plant(s) / (an) animal(s)) lives

(b) Abiotic: Non-living (factors)

Biotic: Living (factors)

(c) Predation: Catching (hunting) and killing and eating another organism
Note: all the information in the above answer is required to award the marks. Accept an example
of a named predator provided that catching, killing, eating is included in the answer.
Symbiosis: Relationship between species involving benefit or described
Note: species not organisms is required to award the marks.

(d) Quantitative: Measuring the amount (number) of organisms

Qualitative: Presence (absence of) an organism (species / plant / animal)

(e) Flora: Plants

Fauna: Animals

(f) Contest: Struggle for a resource (in short supply) with one winner or described
Scramble: A struggle for a (scarce) resource and all get some

2. 6(3) + 2
(a) The general formula CX(H2O)Y represents the basic unit of which type of biomolecule?
Carbohydrates

(b) What name is given to molecules that are made up of fatty acids and glycerol?
Lipids
Note: accept fats

(c) Name the component of food classified on the basis of solubility.

Vitamins

(d) State the approximate percentage of water, by mass, in a human cell.

(Acceptable range) 70 – 95%

(e) What property of water is responsible for the efficiency of both sweating and transpiration as a method
of temperature regulation?
High specific heat capacity or good absorber of energy or a lot of heat absorbed in evaporating a
small amount of water

(f) State two functions of minerals in organisms.

Formation of rigid structure (or named) / formation of soft tissue (or named) / formation of fluid
(or named) / formation of pigment (or named) / biochemical function of a named mineral / any
other specific function(s) of named mineral(s) any two

HIGHER LEVEL BIOLOGY | Pre-Leaving Certificate, 2024 PAGE 5 OF 42

 HIGHER LEVEL Section A

3. 6(3) + 2
(a) Define the term evolution.
Genetic changes in populations in response to environmental conditions

(b) Identify the two scientists credited with developing the theory of evolution.
Darwin and Wallace
Note: both names required for the marks to be awarded

(c) Name this theory of evolution.

Natural selection

(d) What term is used to define the differences that exist between members of the same species?
Variation

(e) State two ways these differences may arise.

Meiosis / mutations
Note: accept sexual reproduction instead of meiosis.

(f) Identify the term used to describe the passing on of genes from parents to offspring.
Inheritance (inherit / inherited)

4. 6(3) + 2
(a) Name the organelle.
Chloroplast

(b) State its function.

Photosynthesis or explained

(c) Identify the type of microscope required to view this organelle.

(Transmission) electron microscope

(d) State the function of the following structures found in plant cells.
1. Cell wall: Support or strength
2. Vacuoles: Support or storage or waste disposal or protection or growth

(e) Identify the structural carbohydrate that is a component of the cell wall.
Cellulose

(f) Name the stain you used when examining the structure of a plant cell.
Iodine

5. 6(3) + 2
(a) Identify two features from the diagram that indicate that the flower is wind pollinated.
Stigma (located) outside flower / feathery stigma / anther (located) outside flower

(b) Name the part of the carpel on which the pollen grain lands.
Stigma

(c) List the contents of a mature pollen grain.

One tube nucleus / two sperm nuclei (or one generative nucleus)
Note: The numbers are required in each point if marks are to be awarded.

(d) Identify the part of the flower which develops into:

1. The seed: (The) ovule
2. The fruit: (The) fruit

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 Section A (continued) HIGHER LEVEL

6. 6(3) + 2
(a) State the function of the pinna.
Collect sound waves (vibrations)

(b) Name the structure to which the stirrup is attached.

Oval window

(c) Why is it necessary to have three semi-circular canals?

To control balance in three planes (dimensions / axes)

(d) Name the tube responsible that allows pressure to be equalised within the ear.
Eustachian (tube)

(e) Identify the part of the ear responsible for producing electrical impulses which are then interpreted as
sound.
Cochlea or organ of Cortί

(f) Explain why damage to each of the following parts of the ear may cause loss of hearing.
1. Auditory canal: No impulse (message) will be sent to the brain (to be interpreted)
Note: an indication of failure to transmit the impulse to the brain is required if marks are to be
awarded.
2. Eardrum: Vibrations may not be received by (transmitted to) the hammer (ossicles)

7. 6(3) + 2
(a) Name the kingdom to which bacteria belong.
Monera

(b) Identify the stage of the growth curve that corresponds to part B.
Log (phase / stage)

(c) Suggest one reason the number of cells remains constant during the stage labelled A.
(Bacteria) settling in or (bacteria) adapting to (new) environment or (bacteria) making
necessary chemicals (to prepare for growth)

(d) Name the method of asexual reproduction by which bacteria reproduce.

Binary fission

(e) Comment on the importance of the following structures present in bacterial cells:
1. Plasmid: (Confers) resistance to drugs
2. Endospores: (Allows it to) survive (withstand) unfavourable (adverse) conditions.

(f) Name one organelle that is present in plant cells but absent in bacterial cells.
Mitochondrion or chloroplast

HIGHER LEVEL BIOLOGY | Pre-Leaving Certificate, 2024 PAGE 7 OF 42

 HIGHER LEVEL Section B

Section B Best 2 2(30)

Note: In Sections B and C, there may be instances where a correct answer is nullified by the addition
of an incorrect answer, (wrong cancels right so no marks are awarded). This happens when the only
acceptable answer is a specific word or term. Each such instance is indicated in the scheme by an
asterisk *.

8. 2(3) 30
(a)
(i) Explain the term characteristics of life.
Common features shared by living organisms 3

(ii) Name the characteristic of life that ensures the survival of the species.
*Reproduction 3
Note: presence of asterisk indicates cancelling applies.

(b) 8(3)
(i) 1. Name the chemical used to test for starch.
*Iodine 3
2. Outline how you added the chemical named above to the source of starch.
Dropper or (micro)pipette or syringe 3
3. Identify the type of sugar that gives a positive result with Benedict’s reagent or Fehling’s
reagent.
*Reducing sugar 3
Note: reducing required if the marks are to be awarded.
4. Describe a positive result for this test.
(Solution turns brick) *red 3
5. Name the test or the chemicals used to identify a protein.
*Biuret (test) or alkaline CuSO4 (copper (II) sulfate) or NaOH and CuSO4 3
Note: if either of the last two answers are given, CuSO4 on its own is insufficient. Accept
copper sulfate written without oxidation state of Cu (II).

(ii) 1. Describe how you obtained a sample of animal cells.

Rubbed inside cheek with a swab or explained 3
2. State one precaution you took when staining the cell.
Use gloves 3
3. Name the part of the microscope that allowed you to control the amount of light passing
through the sample of cells.
*(The) diaphragm. 3

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 Section B HIGHER LEVEL

9. 30
(a) 2(3)
(i) Describe the energy conversion that occurs during the process of photosynthesis.
Light energy to chemical energy 3

(ii) Name the stage of photosynthesis that is not controlled by enzymes.

*Light 3

(b) 8(3)
(i) Name the plant you used for this investigation. Give one reason this plant was suitable for the
investigation.
Plant: Elodea (Pondweed) or named aquatic plant
Note: aquatic plant on its own is not acceptable.
Reason: Bubbles can be seen or (concentration / volume of) gas can be measured 3
Note: no marks awarded for naming plant unless its suitability correctly explained, this part
is worth only one marking point.

(ii) How did you ensure that the temperature remained constant throughout the investigation?
Thermostatically controlled water bath or use of thermometer explained 3
Note: use of water bath alone is unacceptable.

(iii) Why is it important to maintain a constant temperature during the investigation?

Photosynthesis controlled by enzymes which are temperature dependent or explained (but
answer must make reference to the role of enzymes in photosynthesis and also to the fact
that change in temperature will alter rate of enzyme activity) 3

(iv) In the case of either light intensity or carbon dioxide concentration, indicate:
1. The factor you kept constant.
2. How you achieved this. 3
Light: Lamp (plant) at same distance or lamp wattage constant
CO2: Same concentration of NaHCO3
Note: no marks are awarded for naming the factor, but the method used to keep it constant
must match the named factor for marks to be awarded. This part is worth only one
marking point.

(v) Explain why the graph below is an accurate representation of the results of this investigation.
As light (intensity) increases or as carbon dioxide (concentration) increases, rate
(photosynthesis) increases / rate levels off as saturation point reached (due to limiting
factor / explained) 2(3)

(vi) Indicate how the results used to draw this graph were obtained.
(Counted) the number of bubbles per unit time or (measured) the volume of gas per unit
time (per stated time) 3
Note: must indicate unit of time.

(vii) Explain the role of the vascular tissue in the process of photosynthesis.
Xylem conducts water to the leaf or glucose transported away (from the leaf) in the phloem
3

HIGHER LEVEL BIOLOGY | Pre-Leaving Certificate, 2024 PAGE 9 OF 42

 HIGHER LEVEL Section B

10. 30
(a) 2(3)
(i) Explain the term dormancy.
Period of no growth (reduced growth / low metabolism / inactivity) 3

(ii) Suggest one way in which a knowledge of dormancy may be of benefit in horticulture.
Correct environment for storage or optimum sowing time or maximise growing season or
seed treatment before growth 3

(b) 8(3)
(i) How did you ensure that the seeds lacked:
1. Oxygen: Anaerobic jar or boiled water and layer of oil 3
Note: water alone insufficient, must indicate it is boiled.
2. Water: Dry cotton wool 3

(ii) Name the third factor needed if germination is to occur.

Suitable temperature 3
Note: suitable required if marks are to be awarded

(iii) What is the purpose of the tube that had all three factors necessary for germination?
Control or to compare (the results of the experiment) 3

(c)
(i) How did you ensure that germination had begun prior to the start of the investigation?
Soak the seeds (for 24 – 48 hours) 3

(ii) What procedure did you use to ensure that none of the digestive activity was due to the presence
of micro-organisms on the surface of the seeds?
(Seeds were) sterilised or (seeds were) soaked in (named) disinfectant 3

(iii) Describe how the seeds were arranged on the plates.

Exposed (cut / flat / open) side placed on (in contact with) the agar 3

(iv) Explain the importance of this arrangement.

Ensure the enzymes are exposed to (in contact with) the substrate (agar) 3

PAGE 10 OF 42 HIGHER LEVEL BIOLOGY | Pre-Leaving Certificate, 2024

 Section C HIGHER LEVEL

Section C Best 4 4(60)

11.
(a)
(i) Name the type of chemical bond located between the bases in a DNA molecule.
*Hydrogen bond or H-bond 3

(ii) Name the base present in DNA that is absent in RNA.

*Thymine 3

(iii) To which group of bases does the base named in (ii) above belong?
*Pyrimidines 3

(b)
(i) 1. What is the purpose of adding washing-up liquid?
Breaks down membranes (cell / nuclear) or to release (free) DNA from nucleus (within cell) 3
2. Why is the mixture heated?
Break down the enzymes (released from the lysosomes) 3
3. Suggest why it is important that the heat is removed after 15 minutes.
(After 15 minutes) DNA will (start to) be broken down 3

(ii) Name the sections of the DNA molecule targeted by restriction enzymes.
Non-coding (sections) 3

(iii) On what basis are the fragments separated?

*Size 3

(iv) Why are the separated fragments then stained?

Easier to see or make them more visible 3

(v) Under what circumstance could two individuals have the same DNA profile?
(They are) identical twins 3
Why is this possible?
(Both) have the same genotype (same genes) or (both) come from the same zygote
(fertilised egg) 3

(vi) Which of the five profiles correspond to that of the missing child?
No. 3 3

(c)
(i) Explain the term cell continuity.
(All) cells develop from pre-existing (other) cells or explained 3

(ii) During which phase of the cell cycle are organelles such as the mitochondria replicated?
Interphase 3

HIGHER LEVEL BIOLOGY | Pre-Leaving Certificate, 2024 PAGE 11 OF 42

 HIGHER LEVEL Section C (continued)

(iii) 1. One cell divides to produce four new cells.

*Meiosis 3
2. The new cells produced are identical to the parent cell.
*Mitosis 3
3. Growth in multicellular organisms.
*Mitosis 3
4. Production of gametes.
*Meiosis 3

(iv) What name is given to the group of disorders that arise due to uncontrolled cell division?
*Cancer 3

(v) Suggest one possible cause for the onset of this uncontrolled cell division. 3
Smoking or (named type of) radiation or (exposure to) asbestos (fibres) or benzene or
viruses or HPV or hepatitis B virus or radon gas or immunosuppressant (drugs) or BRCA1
(gene) or BRCA2 (gene) or obesity or excessive exposure to sun (sunbeds) or alcohol or
(increasing) age or aflatoxins or H pylori or any valid cause

12.
(a)
(i) Why was it important that a random sampling technique was used?
Eliminate (prevent) bias and ensure results are accurate or ensure each point within
(study) area has equal chance of being sampled 3

(ii) Suggest two ways of presenting your results.

Bar chart / table / diagram / histogram / pie chart / trend graph Any two 3
Note: two answers required for the 3mks. This part is worth only one marking point.

(iii) Indicate one possible source of error that could have arisen during the survey.
Insufficient number of samples or unsuitable quadrat size or miscount (miscalculation) or
repeat count for each quadrat or misidentification or inconsistent when deciding if species
should be included in the count or any valid source 3

(b)
(i) Define the term food web.
Two or more interconnected food chains or more than one species at each trophic level 3

(ii) Identify two primary consumers from the food web shown.
Rabbit / earthworm / caterpillar 3
Note: two correct answers required. This part is worth only one marking point.

(iii) Define a food chain.

Sequence of organisms showing transfer of energy from one to the next or one organism
at each tropic level 3

(iv) Explain the term trophic level in relation to food chains.

Position on the food chain or feeding level (stage) or energy level 3

(v) Why are food chains generally limited to four or five members?
Large energy loss or little energy available to be passed on 3

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 Section C (continued) HIGHER LEVEL

(vi) Write out two separate food chains from this food web in which the fox occupies a different
trophic level in each example.
Grass → rabbit → fox 3
Grass → earthworm → frog → fox / grass → earthworm → mouse → fox 3
Note: arrows must go in correct direction. Food chains should read from top to bottom or
left to right.

(vii) All the food chains which make up this food web are grazing food chains. Explain why this
statement is true.
All (the food chains) start with an autotroph 3

(viii) Indicate one predator-prey relationship from this food web.

*Any named predator and matching prey 3
Fox and rabbit or frog and earthworm or fox and frog or hawk and frog or hawk and
sparrow or sparrow and caterpillar or hawk and mouse or mouse and earthworm
Note: both must be correct for the 3mks to be awarded.

(c)
(i) Why is it important that carbon dioxide is returned to the atmosphere?
Carbon (C) is a finite resource or so carbon (C) can be reused or so carbon (C) won’t run out
3
Note: carbon must be referenced, reference to CO2 unacceptable.

(ii) Name the process by which autotrophs remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
*Photosynthesis 3

(iii) Are humans examples of heterotrophs? Explain your answer.

Yes
(Humans) can’t make their own food or (humans) must obtain (their) food from other
organisms 3
Note: no marks can be awarded for answering yes, unless the explanation is correct. Yes
on its own cannot be awarded any marks, this part is worth only one marking point.

(iv) Apart from respiration or burning fossil fuels, state one other way in which CO2 may be released
into the atmosphere.
Decomposition (decay) or volcanic eruptions 3

(v) Adding carbon dioxide to the atmosphere is a form of pollution. Explain the underlined term.
Any harmful addition to the environment 3

HIGHER LEVEL BIOLOGY | Pre-Leaving Certificate, 2024 PAGE 13 OF 42

 HIGHER LEVEL Section C (continued)

(vi) Choose from any one of the following areas, domestic or agriculture or industry, and indicate in
the case of one named pollutant.
Source of pollutant. 3
Effect of pollutant. 3
Method of control. 3

Area Pollutant Source Effect Control

Domestic Plastic (bags / Shopping or Non- Bag tax or buy
bottles / any packaging or biodegradable (less packaged)
valid) any valid or suffocate unpackaged
small animals food or refillable
or litter or any containers or
valid biodegradable
packaging or
reuse or recycle
Agriculture Slurry or silage Leached Algal bloom or Avoid spreading
effluent or (washed) from eutrophication on waterlogged
fertiliser or milk land or fish kill or (wet / frozen
hypoxia or any / steeply
valid sloping) land
or don’t spread
within 1.5m of
watercourse
Industry Sulfur dioxide Burning fossil Form acid rain Use of catalytic
(SO2) fuels scrubbers
in factory
chimneys
Carbon Incomplete Headaches or Use of (named)
monoxide (CO) combustion of
confusion or cleaner fuel or
fossil fuelsmemory loss use of hybrid
or nausea or (electric)
vomiting or vehicles
convulsions
or hypoxia or
death
Note: no marks for naming pollutant but answers must match named pollutant to be
awarded marks.
13.
(a)
(i) Explain the underlined term.
Correct amount of each food type (necessary for health) 3

(ii) Apart from the amount of physical activity an individual engages in, state one other reason that
balanced diets vary between individuals.
Age or gender (sex) or BMR or body composition 3

(iii) Which of the food groups shown in the food pyramid should make up the largest part of one’s
daily diet?
Bottom (group) or all three members of the bottom group 3
Note: in the second point all three members must be named.

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 Section C (continued) HIGHER LEVEL

(b)
(i) Explain the underlined term.
Taking food into the body (mouth) 3

(ii) Name one method by which mechanical digestion takes place. In the case of the method you
have named, indicate in what part of the alimentary canal it takes place.
Crushing (grinding / cutting) by teeth or peristalsis (muscular contractions) in oesophagus
((named part of) small intestine) or churning action in stomach or emulsification by bile
(salt) in (named part of) small intestine 2(3)
Note: method and site of action must match.

(iii) Explain the function of the hydrochloric acid found in the stomach.
Provides acidic environment (pH1) to allow (gastric) protease (rennin) to work or kills
micro-organisms (bacteria) 3
Note: providing acidic environment insufficient, must refer to protease (rennin) needing
acidic environment to function.

(iv) State two ways in which mucus protects the stomach wall from damage by the contents of the
gastric glands.
Mucus: protects wall of stomach from HCl (acid) / protects wall of stomach from (named)
enzyme 2(3)
Note: protection alone insufficient (it's indicated in the question), must indicate what it’s
being protected from.

(v) The wall of the small intestine has adaptations that help speed absorption. Name the adaptation that:
1. Increases the surface area over which absorption occurs.
Villi or micro villi or explained 3
2. Allows rapid diffusion of the end products of digestion into the bloodstream.
Thin wall or wall (only) one cell thick 3

(vi) State the function of the hepatic portal vein.

Carries (end) products of digestion to the liver 3

(c)
(i) Name any two parts of the large intestine.
Colon / caecum (or appendix) / rectum 3
Note: two correct parts must be named for the 3mks to be awarded. This part is worth only
one marking point.

(ii) State two functions of the large intestine.

Absorption of water / egestion (or explained) / absorb vitamins 2(3)

(iii) What term is used to describe the beneficial bacteria that live in the human digestive tract?
*Symbiotic 3

(iv) Give two examples of the beneficial effects of the bacteria you have named in part (iii).
Production of vitamins (B or K) / breakdown undigested food / neutralise (some) harmful
products of digestion / aid the immune system / compete with pathogens / inhibit cancer
cells 2(3)

(v) State two beneficial effects of a high-fibre diet.

Normalise bowel movements (prevent constipation) / lower cholesterol levels / can slow
the absorption of sugar (help control blood sugar levels) / aid in weight management
(foods high in fibre are filling so you eat less as you feel full for longer) / (may) reduce risk
of (some) cancers / (may) reduce risk of (named) cardiovascular disease / (may) reduce risk
of diverticulitis (haemorrhoids) / (may) reduce risk of gallstones (kidney stones) 2(3)

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 HIGHER LEVEL Section C (continued)

14.
(a)
(i) Explain the underlined term.
(Relating to) structure 3

(ii) Give one example of each type of mechanism.

Anatomical:
Thorns or stinging hairs (cells) or cuticle or leaf fall or any valid example 3
Allow: stomata
Chemical:
(Produce) heat shock proteins or stress proteins or growth regulators (tropism) or
unpalatable substances or sting or any valid example 3
Note: sting can only be accepted once.

(b)
(i) State two functions of the root.
Anchorage / absorption of water (minerals) / food storage 3
Note: absorption insufficient, must indicate what is being absorbed. Two answers required
for the 3 mks to be awarded, this part is worth only one marking point.

(ii) Identify two features on the diagram that help protect the root.
(Root) cap / epidermis 2(3)

(iii) Name the type of cell division that takes place in the meristem.
*Mitosis 3

(iv) Indicate one other part of the plant where a meristem is located.
Shoot tip or buds or nodes (of stem) or vascular cambium (or explained) or cork cambium
(or explained) 3

(v) What causes cells to grow longer in the zone of elongation.

Action of auxins (growth regulators) 3

(vi) Name the zone in which vascular tissue is located.

(Zone of) differentiation 3

(vii) Identify the two other types of tissue found in plants and in the case of one of the types you
have named, state its function.
Two types of tissue:
Dermal / ground 3
Note: both answers required here for the 3 mks to be awarded, this part is worth only one
marking point.
Function of one of the named types: 3
Dermal: *protection
Ground: support / photosynthesis
Note: even if no marks awarded above (e.g., only one tissue correctly named), marks can be
awarded here providing function matches correctly named tissue.

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 Section C (continued) HIGHER LEVEL

(c)
(i) Explain the relationship between the following pairs of terms:
1. Tissues and organs: An organ is a group of tissues 3
2. Organs and organ systems: An organ system consists of a number of organs (working
together) 3

(ii) Name one organ found in plants.

Leaf or stem or root or flower 3

(iii) Explain the term tissue culture.

Growth of cells on a (nutrient) medium or growth of cells outside the organism or growth
of cells in vitro 3
Note: the term tissue is unacceptable, must indicate growth of cells.
Accept: growth of cells outside an organism or growth of cells outside the body

(iv) State two conditions necessary for successful tissue culture.

Sterile (conditions) / nutrients / hormones (growth regulators) / suitable medium / suitable
temperature / suitable pH / oxygen supply 3
Note: two conditions needed for 3mks. This part is worth only one marking point.

(v) Give two examples of the use of tissue culture.

Stem cells / skin cells grown for use in skin grafts (replace burnt skin) / bone tissue
(cartilage) grown for use in reconstructive surgery / producing insulin (interferon) / micro-
propagation in plants / growing HeLa cells (to investigate viruses) / producing transgenic
plants / cancer research (example of cancer research) / IVF (or described) / vaccine
production / antibody production / replacement organs 2(3)

(vi) Comment on the genetic make-up of the cells produced in tissue culture.
(All cells) genetically identical or (all cells are) clones or (all cells are) contain exact same
genes as parent 3
Note: if the third alternative answer given exact is required.

15.
(a) (i) Apart from movement, state two other functions of the skeleton.
Protection (of internal organs) / support (or shape) / production of blood cells 3
Note: both answers required here for the 3 mks to be awarded, this part is worth only one
marking point.

(ii) Name the long bone directly attached to the pectoral girdle.
*Humerus 3

(iii) Identify one structural feature of the bone you have named in part (ii) that ensures it is light.
(Contains medullary) cavity (centre is hollow) or spaces in spongy bone 3

(b) (i) To which part of the skeleton does the vertebral column belong?
*Axial (skeleton) 3

(ii) State the exact number of vertebrae present in the thoracic region of the vertebral column.
*Twelve 3

(iii) Within a long bone, indicate the exact location of compact bone.
Around the edges of the shaft or outside the medullary cavity or diagram showing correct
location 3

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 HIGHER LEVEL Section C (continued)

(iv) Name the type of bone responsible for storing calcium.

*Compact (bone) 3

(v) Cartilage is an important component of the musculoskeletal system.

1. Name the biomolecule from which it is formed:
*Protein 3
2. Indicate the position of the cartilage relative to the vertebrae:
Between (them) 3
3. State its function:
Shock absorber or reduce friction 3

(vi) In the case of either arthritis or osteoporosis, suggest:

1. One possible method of prevention: 3
2. One possible treatment: 3
Note: the cause and treatment must match the named disorder. If no disorder, then no
marks can be awarded.
Arthritis:
Prevention: cut down on exercise that puts repeated stress on joints or use correct
footwear for the type of exercise
Treatment: painkillers or anti-inflammatory drugs or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory
drugs (NSAIDs) or anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) or physiotherapy or hydrotherapy or
occupational therapy or joint replacement
Note: drugs or medication alone insufficient, no marks may be awarded.
Osteoporosis:
Prevention: calcium-rich diet or load bearing exercise or HRT at (after) menopause
Note: HRT insufficient, must indicate at (after) menopause.
Treatment: hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or weight-bearing exercise or Calcium
and Vitamin D supplements or Selective Oestrogen Receptor Modulators (SERMs) or
Monoclonal Antibodies or Bisphosphonates (Antiresorptive medications)

(c) (i) What is the function of the general defence system?

Prevent pathogens (disease causing organisms) entering the body 3

(ii) State two mechanisms by which the general defence system protects the body. In the case of
each mechanism you have named, indicate how it provides protection. 2(3)
(Dead cells in) skin: (physical / impenetrable) barrier; or sweat (sebum): contain chemicals
that kill (named type of) microorganism
(Blood) clotting: seals gap (and prevents entry)
Mucous membrane lining (of named system): secretes mucus which trap (named type of)
microorganism
Lysozyme (in tears / saliva): trap (named type of) microorganism (so preventing its entry)
Hydrochloric acid (HCl) in stomach: kills (named type of) microorganism
Cilia: move mucus (in the breathing system) to the pharynx where it is swallowed
Nasal hairs: remove suspended microorganisms from air
Lactic acid (low / acidic pH) in vagina: prevents growth of pathogens
Phagocytes (macrophages / phagocytic white blood cells): engulf foreign material
Interferon (named chemical): prevent entry of (named type of) virus to other cells
Inflammation (caused by release of histamine): results in arrival of more white blood cells
(to fight infection)
Note: mechanism and method must match. No marks awarded for named mechanism
alone. This part is worth only two marking points, each part needs both name and method.

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 Section C (continued) HIGHER LEVEL

(iii) What other term may be used to describe the immune system?
Specific defence system 3

(iv) Name the system in the human body responsible for producing B cells.
*Lymphatic ((lymph) system) 3
State the function of B cells in the immune system.
Recognise antigens or produce antibodies 3

(v) Explain the difference between active and passive immunity.

(In) active (immunity) the body makes antibodies and in passive (immunity) the body
makes (receives) them (the antibodies) 3
Note: the answer must contain both statements if marks are to be awarded.

(vi) Give one example of passive immunity.

Child receives antibodies from breast milk (from placenta) or receives antibodies made by
another organism or anti-tetanus injection or antibodies to protect against rabies 3

16. Any two of (a), (b), (c), (d) (30,30)

(a)
(i) Describe glycolysis
Glucose converted (broken down / oxidised) to pyruvate / ADP + phosphate converted to
ATP 2(3)

(ii) Name the part of the cell in which glycolysis occurs.

*Cytosol 3
Note: cytoplasm not acceptable

(iii) Explain why lactic acid is sometimes formed in animal tissue.

Absence of oxygen (O2) 3

(iv) Explain how Acetyl CoA is produced.

Pyruvate loses (a molecule of) CO2 3

(v) Identify the product produced during Krebs cycle that enters the electron transport chain.
*NADH 3

(vi) Describe the series of reactions that convert NADH to ATP.

High energy (energised) electron passed from NADH to (carrier) molecules / as electron
passes from molecule to molecule (along the electron transport system) / loses energy /
(which) is used to form (convert ADP + Pi to) ATP any three 3(3)

(vii) Explain the function of O2 in the process of respiration.

(O2) combines (removes) low energy electron from electron transport chain 3
Note: phrase in bold required in order to award the marks.

(b)
(i) Define the term secondary sexual characteristics.
Features that distinguish male from female other than sex organs or features that
distinguish the sexes but are not essential for reproduction 3

(ii) During which stage of a human’s life cycle do they begin to appear?
(Appear) during (around) puberty 3

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 HIGHER LEVEL Section C (continued)

(iii) Explain the function of the menstrual cycle.

To prepare (endometrium / uterus) for pregnancy (implantation) or egg development or
egg release (ovulation) 3

(iv) Name both hormones produced by the pituitary gland which play a role in the menstrual cycle.
Follicle stimulation hormone (FSH) / Luteinising hormone (LH) 2(3)

(v) What term is used to describe the events that occur at approximately:
1. Days 1 – 5
Menstruation or (having) a period 3
2. Day 14.
Ovulation or egg is released 3

(vi) Name the hormone responsible for the event you have named in part 2 above.
*Luteinising hormone (LH) 3

(vii) Name one female menstrual disorder.

In the case of the disorder you have named above, state:
1. One possible cause. 3
2. One method of treatment. 3
Note: the cause and treatment must match the named disorder. If no disorder, then no
marks can be awarded. However, no marks are awarded for naming the disorder on its
own, this part is worth only two marking points.
Endometriosis:
Cause: genetic (family history) or menstrual blood flowing into oviduct or defects in uterus
(fallopian tubes) or short menstrual cycle or menstruating before age of 11 (may increase
the risk)
Treatment: HRT (birth control pills) or surgery (laparoscopy / hysterectomy) or
gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) medications
Fibroids:
Cause: genetic (family history) or abnormal hormonal response or (possible link to)
oestrogen or starting periods at an early age or obesity or vitamin D deficiency or diet
higher in red meat and lower in green vegetables
Treatment: HRT (birth control pills) or surgery or gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
medications
(c)
(i) Name the kingdom to which yeast belongs.
*Fungi 3

(ii) State one feature visible in the diagram which indicates yeast is a eukaryotic organism.
Membrane bound nucleus 3
Note: do not accept either of the following: any other named organelle or contain
membrane bound organelles.

(iii) Name one other kingdom that contains eukaryotic organisms.

Protista or Plants or Animals 3

(iv) Identify which of the labelled parts contain the structural carbohydrate chitin.
*(Cell) wall 3

(v) What term is used to describe reproduction in yeast?

*Budding 3
Name the type of cell division involved in this process.
*Mitosis 3

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 Section C (continued) HIGHER LEVEL

(vi) With regard to their mode of nutrition, explain why the members of this kingdom play an
important role in the recycling of nutrients in nature.
Saprophytes / breakdown (decompose) dead (decaying) organic matter (organisms) 2(3)

(vii) Name any two harmful effects of members of this kingdom.

(Named) food spoilage / destroy (named) crop (causing financial losses) / spoilage of fabrics
/ spoilage of leather / (named) human disease (athlete’s foot / ringworm / thrush candiasis
/ tetanus / typhoid / diphtheria / aspergillosus / pneumonia / syphilis / gonorrhoea) /
poisonous mushrooms / mycoses 2(3)

(d)
(i) Name one other excretory organ.
Kidney or skin 3

(ii) Identify the muscles located between the ribs.

*Intercostal (muscles) 3

(iii) In the case of the alveoli and their associated capillaries, state one feature of each that allows
for efficient gaseous exchange. 3+3
Alveoli: membrane (wall) is thin (one cell thick) or large surface area or large numbers or
moist surface
Capillaries: membrane (wall) is thin (one cell thick) or close contact with alveoli or large
number (capillary network / highly branched) or large surface area

(iv) Name the process by which gaseous exchange takes place.

*Diffusion 3

(v) Describe what happens to the diaphragm during exhalation.

It (diaphragm) moves up 3

(vi) Exhalation is a passive process. What does this mean?

No energy required 3

(vii) Outline the process by which the brain controls the breathing process.
Medulla oblongata / monitors concentration (level) of CO2 in blood 2(3)
Note: answer must reference the concentration (level) of CO2 in blood, otherwise the
second 3mks cannot be awarded.

(viii) Name the vein that leaves the lungs.

*Pulmonary (vein) 3

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 HIGHER LEVEL Section C (continued)

17. Any two of (a), (b), (c), (d) (30,30)

(i) The medulla oblongata controls involuntary actions. Name one such involuntary action.
Breathing or heart function or digestion or sneezing or coughing or swallowing or blood
pressure or vomiting 3

(ii) Name the part of the brain that controls voluntary actions.
*Cerebellum 3

(iii) With regard to the spinal cord

1. Name the fluid located in the central canal: *cerebrospinal (fluid) 3
2. State the function of this fluid: *protection 3
3. Indicate in which part of the spinal cord the grey matter is located: centre or middle 3
4. Identify the part of a neuron located in the grey matter: cell bodies (and dendrites) 3
Note: cell bodies required, dendrites alone insufficient to award the marks.
5. Indicate the part of the spinal cord through which motor neurons leave: ventral root 3

(iv) Name the type of neuron responsible for transmitting impulses from sense organs to the central
nervous system.
*Sensory (neuron) 3

(v) What causes the conduction of nerve impulses along neurons?

(Movement of) ions 3

(vi) Why do nerve impulses cross the synaptic cleft in one direction only?
Neurotransmitter vesicles (swellings) only located on presynaptic side (of synaptic cleft) or
neurotransmitters only produced on one side of synaptic cleft 3

(b)
(i) Explain the term metabolism.
(All) the chemical reactions in an organism (in cells / in the body) 3

(ii) What is the role of enzymes in metabolic reactions?

Alter rate of (speed up) reaction or lower activation energy of reaction 3

(iii) Name the organelle in which proteins are produced.

*Ribosomes 3

(iv) To which part of an enzyme does the substrate attach?

Active site 3

(v) Explain how the part you have named in (iv) above ensures enzyme specificity.
Only one substrate fits (matches) the (shape of) the active site 3

(vi) Enzymes can be denatured in a number of ways.

1. Explain the underlined term: active site destroyed or loss of shape or loss of function 3
2. Name the factor you altered during your practical work in order to denature an enzyme: heat
3
Note: no other answer acceptable as heat is the only factor used to denature an enzyme on
the syllabus.

(vii) What is an immobilised enzyme?

An enzyme that is fixed (attached / trapped) or an enzyme in (on) a gel (inert substance) 3

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 Section C (continued) HIGHER LEVEL

(viii) State one advantage of using immobilised enzymes.

Reusable (longer-lasting) or recovered easily or pure product or (allows for) continuous
flow process 3

(ix) Identify one application of the use of immobilised enzymes.

(Production of) lactose-free milk or (convert) corn starch to corn syrup or production of
fructose or (immobilised rennin in) cheese production or (named) antibiotic production or
biodiesel production or (used as) biosensors or any correct application 3

(c)
(i) Define the term homeostasis.
(Ability to) maintain a constant (stable) internal environment 3

(ii) Suggest one reason homeostasis is important to plants.

(For) metabolism or (for) enzyme activity 3

(iii) Explain the role of the cuticle in relation to homeostasis.

Prevent (reduce) water loss 3

(iv) In which of the labelled parts is the rate of photosynthesis highest?

*Palisade (cells) 3
Explain.
Highest (greatest) concentration of chloroplasts (chlorophyll) 3

(v) Suggest two ways in which a leaf is well-adapted for photosynthesis.

Flat (broad / large surface area) / thin / (presence of) air spaces / (presence of a) vascular
system / large number of chloroplasts / (presence of) stomata 3
Note: two correct answers required if the marks are to be awarded. This part is worth only
one marking point.

(vi) With regard to the stomata, name

1. The gas: *CO2 (carbon dioxide) 3
2. The cells which control their opening: *guard (cells) 3

(vii) Like the stomata, the lenticels also function in gaseous exchange. On what part of the plant are
they located?
*Stem 3

(viii) State one example of a plant which uses a modified leaf as a means of storing food.
Onion or daffodil or tulip or garlic or snowdrop or bluebells or hyacinth or narcissus or
Bryophllum (kalanchoe / mother of thousands) or African violet or Piggy back plant or
Devil’s backbone plant or cabbage or celery or any correct example 3

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 HIGHER LEVEL Section C (continued)

(d)
(i) 1. Name the structure labelled Q in the diagram.
Bicuspid valve 3
Note: valve is required in the answer.
2. From which organ does part P receive blood?
Lungs 3
3. Identify the blood vessel which carries blood away from part R.
Pulmonary artery 3

(ii) Name the structure that separates the left and right sides of the heart.
*Septum 3

(iii) Identify one way in which cardiac muscle differs from all other muscle tissue.
Never tires 3

(iv) 1. Name the type of signal emitted by the sinoatrial node?

*Electrical (signal) 3
2. State the location of the atrioventricular node.
In septum between right atrium and right ventricle or in septum near tricuspid valve 3
3. What effect does stimulation of the atrioventricular node have on the heart muscle?
(It causes) contraction of the ventricles 3
Note: ventricles required if marks are to be awarded.

(v) What is a pulse?

Contraction of (wall of) artery or expansion of artery or due to pumping of heart (left
ventricle) or rate at which heart beats 3

(vi) Suggest one reason a pulse is easily located at the wrist.

Artery close to (near) skin (so easy to feel the contraction of muscle) 3

PAGE 24 OF 42 HIGHER LEVEL BIOLOGY | Pre-Leaving Certificate, 2024