Circuit Analysis Exam, 2022-2023

Question 1

1. a

Applying nodal analysis at node 1,

v 1 12−V 1
3+ =
4 2

12+V 1=24−2 V 1

⇒V 1=4 V

but , , , V 0=12−V 1
12−( V) 12−(12−4)
weobsrvetha , I2= 0.⇒
88

I 2 =−0.5 A

12−4
I 1 −I 2= ....⇒ I 1−(−0.5)=4 ....⇒ I 1 =3.5
2

I 1 =3.5 A
 V1 4
I 1 −I 3= =
4 4

⇒ I 3=2.5

b)

+
V01

mesh 1,

12= 6(I1-I2)

⇒ I 1−I 2=2 ......................................(1)

mesh 2,

2V 0=( 2+ 4)(I 1−I 2)+8 I 2 .... ⇒.. V 0=3(I 1−I 2)+ 4 I 2

V 0=2( I 1−I 2) ⇒2(I 1−I 2)=3(I 1−I 2)+4 I 2

so ......... , I 1 =−3 I 2 ..........................( 2)

hence,

I2=-0.5 and I1=1.5

V 01=2( I 1−I 2)=4

Supper mesh

+
V02
-

mesh 1,

0=2( I 1 −I 2 )+ 4 (I 1 −I 3 )

⇒6 I 1−2 I 2−4 I 3=0 ......................................(1)

for the supper mesh,

−2V 0=4 I 3 +8 I 2+ 2( I 2 −I 1 )..... but V 02 =2(I 1−I 2) ⇒−2(2(I 1−I 2))=4 I 3 +10 I 2−2 I 1

⇒ I 1+ 3 I 2 +2 I 3=0................(2)

Applying KCL at node 1

I 3 + I 1=I 2+ 3
fitting in (1) and solving, we have

I 1 −I 2=2............................(3)
fitting in (2) and solving, we have,

I 1 +5 I 2=−6 ..................................(4)

(4)-(3) gives

−4
I3 =
3

fitting in (4), gives

−4 2
I 1 +5( )=−6 ⇒ I 1=
3 3

−4 5
I 3 =3+ I 2=3+( )=
3 3

but we have that,

2 4 2 4
V 02=2(I 1=I 2)=2( −(−( )))=2( + )=4
3 3 3 3

V 02 =4

but from superposition principle,

V 0=V 01 +V 02=4+ 4=8 V

Answer: V 0=8 V

Question 2.

lets use the circuit below to find the equivalent Capacitance.

40µF capacitor is in series with 3µF and so,

40×30 120
=
30+40 7
The circuit simplifies to

120/7

120/7 || 20

so, we have

120 260
+20=
7 7

the circuit further simplifies to:

 260/7

260/7 in series with 60:

so, we get.
260
( ) 60
7
C eq= =22.94 μ F
260
60+
7

we know that the charge stored in a capacitor is:\

Q=CV

consider the circuit below

the charge in the 60µF capacitor equals charge stored Across XY and this is equivalent to the charge in
the whole circuit I.e

C60 μ F =C eq×60=22.94×10−6 (60)=1.376×10−3

Q60μ F=Q20 μ F +Q
we will now use the fact that the charge across capacitors in parallel is proportionate to the their capacitance:

so,
C 20μ F 20 μ F −3 −4
Q 20μ F=( )Q T =( ) 1.376×10 =7.409×10 C
C 20 μ F +C 120 120
μF 20 μ F+ μF
7 7

C 120 120
μF
7
μF
7
Q=( )QT =( )1.376×10−3 =6.35×10−4 C
C 20μ F +C 120 120
μF 20 μ F+ μF
7 7

Or still,

Q=Q60 μ F −Q20μ F

b)
Q 1
V= And 2
E= (CV )
C 2
so,

Q60μ 1.376×10−3
V 60μ F= = =22.94 V
60 μ F 60×10−6

1 −6 2 −2
E60 μ F = (60×10 )(22.94) =1.579×10 J
2

Q20μ 7.409×10−4
V 20μ F= = =37.045 V
20 μ F 20×10−6

1 −6 2 −2
E20 μ F = (20×10 )(37.045) =1.372×10 J
2

Q30μ 6.35×10−4
V 30μ F= = =21.167 V
30 μ F 30×10
−6

1 −6 2 −3
E30μ F= (30×10 )(21.167) =6.720×10 J
2

Q40 μ 6.35×10−4
V 30μ F= = =15.875V
40 μ F 40×10
−6

1 −6 2 −3
E40 μ F = ( 40×10 )(15.875) =5.04×10 J
2

Question 3

let first find ω and the phasor domain representation of each parameter

ω=10rads-1
parameter time domain representation phasor/frequency domain
representation
0.05F -

0.5H - j ω L= j10×0.5=5 j
0.2H - j ω L= j10×0.2=2 j
V0 5 cos(10t+45) 5
(1+ j)
√2
we get the diagram below:

I0

+
Ix V0
-

-2j ,5j, 2 and -2j are in series :

also,1 and 2j are series:

adding their respective impedance, we obtain

from ohm’s law,

V0 5
V 0=2 I 0 ⇒ I 0= = (1+ j)
2 2 √2

also, from current divider law,

1+2 j 1+ 2 j
I 0= I s= I
(1+2 j)+(2+ j) 3(1+ j) s

we know I0 from above

so,

1+ j 5 (1+ j) 15 2j 15 2 j(1−2 j) 3
I s=3 I 0 =3. (1+ j) . = . = . = .(2+ j)
1+ 2 j 2 √2 1+ 2 j 2 √2 1+ 2 j 2 √ 2 5 √2

3 √5
I s= cos(10 t +26.57)
√2

2+ j 1+2 j 1+2 j 3 1 3+ 4 j 1 (3+4 j)(1− j) 1

I x= I s= I s= . (2+ j)= . = . = (7+ j)
(1+2 j)+(2+ j) 3(1+ j) 3(1+ j) √ 2 √2 1+ j √ 2 2 2 √2
 5 √2 5
I x= cos(10 t+ 8.13)= cos (10 t +8.13)
2 √2 2

Question 4.

we first fine Zth nowing that:

consider the circuit below for circumstance ,

we clearly see that (-10jΩ in series with 30Ω) || (40 in series with 20j)
so, we have

now we have to find Vth seen,

consider the circuit below to find Vth

Va Vb

with respect to the 2jA current source, (-10j is in series with 40) then in
parallel with (30 in series with 20j) that is , we have,

40-10j || 30+20j

note also that the current through 40 is same as that through -10j which is I1
and current through 30 is same as that through 20j which is I2

using current divider rule,

 40−10 j 4−1 j ( 4−1 j)(7− j) 1
I2 = (2 j)=2. ( j)=2. ( j)= . (11+ 27 j)=0.44+1.08 j
70+10 j 7+1 j 50 25
in the same manner,

30+20 j
I1 = .2 j=−0.44 +0.92 j
70+10 j

or simply,

I1=2j-I2

now,

VTh=Vb-Va=30I2+10jI1
VTh=10(3(0.44+1.08j)-0.44j-0.92)=10(0.4+2.8j)=4+28j
|V Th|=28.28

2
(28.28)
Pmax = =5 W
8(20)