Exam Date 18/03/2025

Centre Name Sumit Dhariwal Memorial Group of Institutions

Exam Time 4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.

2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

Section : Arithmetic

Q.1 Evaluate the following:

Ans 1. 5.2

2. 4.4

3. 2.48

4. 1.78

Q.2 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 78 and the third
number is 130. Find the average of the remaining two numbers?
Ans 1. 185.5

2. 208

3. 209

4. 184.5

Q.3 The monthly incomes of two friends Rakesh and Shivam, are in the ratio 5 : 7
respectively and each of them saves ₹87000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly
expenditure is 1 : 3, find the monthly income of Rakesh(in ₹).
Ans 1. 108750

2. 152250

3. 107750

4. 109750

Q.4 The value of

Ans 1. 9.54

2. 1.87

3. 12.99

4. 2.53

Q.5 A shirt was originally priced at ₹ 600. It is now on sale for ₹ 540. What is the percentage
decrease in the price?
Ans 1. 10%

2. 25%

3. 20%

4. 15%
Q.6 Find the least number, which, when divided by 20, 25, 35 and 40 leaves remainders 14,
19, 29 and 34, respectively.
Ans 1. 1238

2. 1498

3. 1389

4. 1394

Q.7 Sudhir purchased certain goods at the rate of ₹7,380 per dozen. He sold each one of
them at the rate of ₹575. What was his percentage loss? (Round up to two decimal
places)
Ans 1. 6.50%

2. 23.12%

3. 40%

4. 6.96%

Q.8 Which of the following ratio is smallest?

Ans 1. 13 : 53

2. 19 : 42

3. 16 : 54

4. 25 : 39

Q.9

Ans 1. 4

2. 2

3. 3

4. 5

Q.10 The average of first 118 even numbers is

Ans 1. 119

2. 119.5

3. 118.5

4. 120

Q.11 Abhi sold a dress to Pari for ₹10,000. Pari sold it to Mikki at 20% profit. Mikki modified it
with cost ₹,2000 and sold this dress to Sneha at a loss of 10%. The amount paid by
Sneha for the dress was:
Ans 1. ₹13,000

2. ₹12,600

3. ₹11,950

4. ₹14,200

Q.12 A grocery item was sold for ₹660 with 25% discount on its marked price. What is the
marked price?
Ans 1. ₹860

2. ₹880

3. ₹890

4. ₹870
Q.13 A cylindrical rod has an outer curved surface area of 1900 cm2. If the length of the rod is
39 cm, then the outer radius (in cm) of the rod, correct to two places of decimal, is:

Ans 1. 8.88

2. 7.75

3. 7.18

4. 6.27

Q.14 In what ratio should sugar costing ₹10 per kg be mixed with sugar costing ₹49 per kg so
that by selling the mixture at ₹54.6 per kg, there is a profit of 40%?
Ans 1. 27 : 8

2. 28 : 12

3. 31 : 11

4. 10 : 29

Q.15 6 men can complete a piece of work in 12 days while 4 women can do it in 18 days. In
how many days can 2 women and 2 men complete it?
Ans 1. 22 days

2. 18 days

3. 20 days

4. 23 days

Q.16 Evaluate: 41 - [36 - {48 ÷ 2 - (5 - 6 ÷ 2) ÷ 2}]

Ans 1. 27

2. 28

3. 30

4. 29

Q.17 The area of a rectangular field is 2400 m2. If the field is 80 m long, what is its perimeter?
Ans 1. 110 m

2. 210 m

3. 30 m

4. 220 m

Q.18 An Uber auto covers a distance of 120 km in 20 hours. What is its speed in km/h?
Ans 1. 16

2. 9

3. 10

4. 6

Q.19
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.20 Find the LCM of 10, 7 and 4.

Ans 1. 1

2. 280

3. 140

4. 7
Q.21 The sum of 10 numbers is 432. Find their average.
Ans 1. 43.2

2. 41.2

3. 44.2

4. 42.2

Q.22 For a chemistry experiment, Veena has 60 ml of 25% solution of ferrous sulphate. How
many millilitres of 60% solution should she add to make a 30% solution of ferrous
sulphate?
Ans 1. 25 ml

2. 15 ml

3. 10 ml

4. 20 ml

Q.23 If 35% of k is 20 less than 1200% of 25, then k is:

Ans 1. 840

2. 760

3. 800

4. 780

Q.24 Train A leaves station M at 6:15 AM and reaches station N at 3:15 PM on the same day.
Train B leaves station N at 8:15 AM and reaches station M at 2:15 PM on the same day.
Find the time when Trains A and B meet.
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.25 Abhinav is thrice as efficient as Arpan and can finish a piece of work in 34 days less
than Arpan. In how many days can Arpan can finish this work?
Ans 1. 54

2. 51

3. 69

4. 48

Q.26 A pipe can fill a tank in 8 hours. Another pipe can empty the filled tank in 72 hours. If
both the pipes are opened simultaneously, then the time (in hours) in which the tank will
be two-third filled, is:
Ans 1. 18

2. 6

3. 12

4. 24

Q.27 What will be the compound interest on a sum of ₹75,000 after 2 years at the rate of 10%
per annum, compounded annually?
Ans 1. ₹90,750

2. ₹7,500

3. ₹75,000

4. ₹15,750
Q.28 The ages of Ayushi and Anmol are in the ratio of 2 : 7 respectively. After 4 years the
ratio of their ages will be 3 : 8. What is the difference in their present ages?
Ans 1. 6

2. 20

3. 8

4. 29

Q.29 Two banks, A and B, offered loans at 3.5% and 6% per annum, respectively. Gopal
borrowed an amount of ₹360000 from each bank. Find the positive difference between
the amounts of simple interest paid to the two banks by Gopal after 4 years (in ₹).
Ans 1. 35500

2. 36000

3. 37500

4. 37000

Q.30 In a general store, the marked price of a pack of 5 kg wheat flour is ₹220. The general
store owner sells it at ₹200. What is the percentage of discount given by the general
store owner? (Correct up to two decimal places)
Ans 1. 8.98%

2. 9.09%

3. 8.08%

4. 9.99%

Q.31 How many seconds will a boy take to run one complete round around a square field of
side 51 metres, if he runs at a speed of 9 km/h?
Ans 1. 79

2. 91

3. 81.5

4. 82

Q.32 For what prime number p in the number 3785p so that the number is exactly divisible by
3?
Ans 1. 1

2. 7

3. 3

4. 5

Q.33 The difference between the compound and simple interest accrued on ₹18,000 in 2
years was ₹405. What was the rate of interest percentage compounded per annum?
Ans 1. 16%

2. 13%

3. 12%

4. 15%

Q.34 In a race, an athlete covers a distance of 408 m in 68 sec in the first lap. He covers the
second lap of the same length in 136 sec. What is the average speed (in m/sec) of the
athlete?
Ans 1. 7

2. 1

3. 6

4. 4
 Q.35
Find the value of 14 -10 ÷ 14 13 × 14 -7
Ans 1.
14 -25
2.
14 -26
3.
14 -30
4.
14 -37

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.36 Refer to the following series and answer the question (all numbers are single digit
numbers only).

(Left) 2 2 1 3 8 1 4 1 4 8 3 6 8 6 2 1 3 7 4 4 1 (Right)

How many such odd digits are there each of which is immediately preceded by an even
digit and also immediately followed by a perfect square?
Ans 1. Four

2. Two

3. One

4. Three

Q.37 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

93 182 129 161 165 140 201 119 ?

Ans 1. 237

2. 221

3. 249

4. 240

Q.38 P, Q, R, S, T, U and V sit around a circular table facing the centre. Only one person sits
between P and Q when counted from the left of Q. U sits third to the right of T. V sits
third to the left of S. U sits to the immediate right of V. R is not an immediate neighbour
of V. How many people sit between R and P when counted from the right of P?
Ans 1. 4

2. 3

3. 2

4. 1
Q.39 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as
shown below.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.40 In a certain code language,

A × B means ‘A is the wife of B’
A + B means ‘A is the brother of B’
A ? B means ‘A is the father of B’
A ~ B means ‘A is the daughter of B’
Based on the above, how is E related to Y if 'E ~ N ? J + O × Y’?
Ans 1. Wife's sister

2. Wife's brother

3. Wife's father

4. Wife's mother
Q.41 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:

Some cats are dogs.

Some dogs are elephants.

All fishes are elephants.

Conclusions:

I. Some elephants may be cats.

II. Atleast some fishes are dogs.

Ans 1. Only I follows

2. Both I and II follow

3. Only II follows

4. Neither I nor II follows

Q.42 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. CE - FH

2. PR - SU

3. TU - XY

4. JL - MO

Q.43 In a row of 19 students facing north, Rina is 8th from the right end. If Suni is 9th to the
left of Rina, what is Suni's position from the left end of the line?
Ans 1. 2nd

2. 1st

3. 3rd

4. 4th

Q.44 M, N, O, P, Q, and R are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. P sits to the
immediate right of O. Q sits second to the right of P. R is not an immediate neighbour of
P. N sits second to the right of Q. Who sits to the immediate right of R?
Ans 1. M

2. N

3. Q

4. P

Q.45 In a certain code language, ‘DIME’ is coded as ‘4691’ and ‘MADE’ is coded as ‘9412’.
What is the code for ‘A’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 4

2. 1

3. 9

4. 2
Q.46 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All sparrows are dolphins.
All crows are bulbuls.
No bulbuls are sparrows.

Conclusions:
(I) Some dolphins are bulbuls.
(II) No crows are sparrows.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (I) follows.

4. Only conclusion (II) follows.

Q.47 Select the term from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in
the following series.

MNX 62, SRZ 54, YVB 46, EZD 38, ?

Ans 1. JDG 28

2. KEG 28

3. KDF 30

4. JEF 30

Q.48 If ‘+’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged, then what will come in
place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

32 ÷ 12 − 6 × 2 + 3 = ?
Ans 1. 40

2. 36

3. 35

4. 30

Q.49 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 2 / 5 6 @ 3 ? 8 3 7 6 * 7 # 2 7 * 9 \ $ 4 (Right)

How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans 1. Four

2. Three

3. Two

4. One

Q.50 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.
KGC−GCY
YUQ−UQM
Ans 1. SNI−OKG

2. SNI−NJF

3. SOK−NKF

4. WSO−SOK
Q.51 If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?
63 ÷ 70 × 14 − 12 + 15 = ?
Ans 1. 108

2. 105

3. 106

4. 104

Q.52 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

MTAH UBIP CJQX KRYF ?

Ans 1. SGZN

2. SZGN

3. SZNG

4. SGNZ

Q.53 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

919 918 915 910 903 ?

Ans 1. 896

2. 895

3. 894

4. 893

Q.54 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statement(s) is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
Some sugars are jaggery.
No jaggery is honey.

Conclusions:
(I) Some sugars are honey.
(II) Some jaggery are sugars.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

3. Only conclusion (I) follows.

4. Only conclusion (II) follows.

Q.55 XZ 42 is related to ZX 41 in a certain way. In the same way, ST 35 is related to TS 34. To

which of the following is QR 33 related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. RS 32

2. PQ 33

3. RQ 32

4. RP 34

Q.56 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

21, 34, 60, 99, 151 ?

Ans 1. 218

2. 212

3. 216

4. 214
Q.57 P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Only U sits
between R and Q. Q sits third to the left of T. S sits to the immediate left of T. P is not an
immediate neighbour of Q. How many people sit between P and U when counted from
the right of U?
Ans 1. 2

2. 1

3. 3

4. 4

Q.58 In a certain code language,

'A + B' means 'A is the sister of B',
'A − B' means 'A is the brother of B',
'A / B' means 'A is the wife of B',
'A ! B' means 'A is the husband of B',
'A * B' means 'A is the mother of B' and
'A × B' means 'A is the father of B'.

How is M related to B if 'M / Q × T − B + S'?

Ans 1. Sister

2. Mother

3. Father

4. Brother

Q.59 Kavish starts from Point A and drives 13 km towards East. He then takes a right turn,
drives 7 km, turns right and drives 15 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 9 km. He
takes a final right turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90 degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 3 km to the South

2. 2 km to the North

3. 3 km to the North

4. 2 km to the South
Q.60 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?)
will logically complete the series.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.61 In a certain code language, ‘have a party’ is coded as ‘ds fg rt’ and ‘party and enjoy’ is
coded as ‘tr ds gf’. How is ‘party’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. ds

2. fg

3. rt

4. gf

Q.62 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. AO – PF

2. KY – ZP

3. PY – IN

4. QE – FV
Q.63 Refer to the following letter, symbol series and answer the question. Counting to be
done from left to right only.
(Left) @ 5 7 ^ \ / 3 / $ % / * 2 # $ & \ / 3 > ^ (Right)
How many such numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol
and also immediately followed by another number?
Ans 1. One

2. None

3. Two

4. Three

Q.64 Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. Only G is kept above D. Only two boxes are kept between D and B. Only F
is kept below C. A is not kept immediately above B. How many boxes are kept between
G and E?
Ans 1. 3

2. 1

3. 4

4. 2

Q.65 In a certain code language, ‘ORANGE’ is coded as ‘321965’ and ‘BANANA’ is coded as
‘496969’. What is the code for ‘A’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 5

2. 9

3. 6

4. 3

Q.66 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

DGC8 FIE12 HKG16 JMI20 ?

Ans 1. ILP24

2. LOT23

3. LPI20

4. LOK24

Q.67 Select the option in which the numbers share the same relationship as that shared by
the given pair of numbers.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13, can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

12, 30
16, 38
Ans 1. 15, 35

2. 12, 27

3. 11, 29

4. 10, 26

Q.68 If ‘+’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘×’ are interchanged, then what will come in
place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

40 × 6 − 24 + 4 ÷ 5 = ?
Ans 1. 5

2. 10

3. 12

4. 9
 Q.69 Daniel starts from Point A and drives 12 km towards west. He then takes a right turn,
drives 8 km, turns right and drives 13 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 11 km.
He takes a final right turn, drives 1 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance)
and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns
are 90 degrees turns only unless specified)
Ans 1. 3 km to the north

2. 3 km to the south

3. 4 km to the south

4. 4 km to the north

Q.70 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

CUS : EQV
EYA : GUC
Ans 1. PCM : RGO

2. AVI : CRG

3. IHM : GDO

4. VIK : XEM

Section : General Awareness

Q.71 What is the main focus of Article 356 of the India Constitution?
Ans 1. National emergency

2. Fundamental duties

3. Special provisions for Jammu and Kashmir

4. President's rule in states

Q.72 Which of the following states is known for extensive cultivation of coffee in India?
Ans 1. Assam

2. Karnataka

3. Maharashtra

4. Punjab

Q.73 India's first bullet train project is under construction between which of the following
cities?
Ans 1. Ahmedabad - Mumbai

2. Delhi - Lucknow

3. Mumbai - Bangalore

4. Chennai - Hyderabad

Q.74 Which Article states that the State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people?

Ans 1. Article 36

2. Article 39

3. Article 40

4. Article 38

Q.75 In August 2024, which state assembly passed Compulsory Registration of Muslim
Marriages and Divorces Bill, 2024?
Ans 1. Meghalaya

2. Assam

3. Uttar Pradesh

4. Himachal Pradesh
Q.76 Which of the following statements about Gay-Lussac's Law is correct?
Ans 1. The volume of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature at constant pressure.

2. The pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume at constant temperature.

3. The total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the individual gases.

4. The pressure of a given mass of gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature at constant volume.

Q.77 What is the GDP growth forecast for India in FY 2025-26, according to the International
Monetary Fund (IMF)?
Ans 1. 6.3%

2. 6.5%

3. 6.0%

4. 6.8%

Q.78 The 29th Conference of Parties (COP-29) of the United Nations Framework Convention
on Climate Change from 11–22 November 2024 was held in ______________.
Ans 1. Azerbaijan

2. Canada

3. India

4. Italy

Q.79 Which of the following vegetation types are common in the Thar desert?
Ans 1. Mangroves

2. Dense temperate forests

3. Xerophytic shrubs and grasses

4. Tropical evergreen forests

Q.80 Government of India introduced the gender budget statement for the first time in the
year __________.
Ans 1. 2004-2005

2. 2001-2002

3. 2002-2003

4. 2005-2006

Q.81 Which two countries signed Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT) on 27 September 2024 to
boost investor confidence and enhance economic cooperation?
Ans 1. India and Uzbekistan

2. Sri Lanka and Kenya

3. USA and Philippines

4. South Korea and France

Q.82 What was a key feature of the economic reforms in India after 1991?
Ans 1. Decreased private sector involvement

2. Strict control over foreign investments

3. Nationalisation of industries

4. Liberalisation of trade policies

Q.83 Meerananda Barthakur is a famous _____ dancer.

Ans 1. Manipuri

2. Kuchipudi

3. Sattriya

4. Kathak
Q.84 What is the name given to India’s first-ever AI teacher robot launched in a Kerala school
in March 2024?
Ans 1. Shalu

2. Vidya

3. Sophia

4. Iris

Q.85 What was the main objective of the Special Campaign 4.0 launched by the Department
of Financial Services in October 2024?
Ans 1. To attract foreign investments

2. To minimise pendency and institutionalise Swachhata

3. To increase revenue

4. To enhance employee productivity

Q.86 Which Constitutional Amendment conferred the constitutional status upon the National
Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST)?
Ans 1. 85th Amendment Act

2. 89th Amendment Act

3. 101st Amendment Act

4. 102nd Amendment Act

Q.87 Match the following.

Indus Valley Civilisation Site Excavator
(A). Harappa I. R Rao
(B). Dholavira II. JP Joshi
(C). Surkotada III. RS Bisht
(D). Lothal IV. Daya Ram Sahini
Ans 1. A-I; B-III; C-II; D-IV

2. A-II; B-IV; C-III; D-I

3. A-III; B-I; C-IV; D-II

4. A-IV; B-III; C-II; D-I

Q.88 What was the Goods and Services Tax (GST) collection for India in September 2024?
Ans 1. ₹1,65,000 crore

2. ₹1,70,500 crore

3. ₹1,73,240 crore

4. ₹1,80,000 crore

Q.89 Under whose leadership did the British forces suppress the Revolt of 1857 in Kanpur?
Ans 1. John Nicholson

2. General Hugh Rose

3. Colonel Oncell

4. Sir Colin Campbell

Q.90 In which of the following states is Sanchi Stupa currently situated?

Ans 1. Odisha

2. Rajasthan

3. Madhya Pradesh

4. Chhattisgarh
Q.91 Real gases deviate from the ideal gas law because of intermolecular interactions among
their molecules. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the pressure of
a real gas compared to the ideal gas pressure?
Ans 1. The pressure of real gas decreases by a correction term which is directly proportional to the square of the volume.

2. The pressure of real gas increases by a correction term which is inversely proportional to square of the volume.

3. The pressure of real gas increases by a correction term which is directly proportional to the square of the volume.

4. The pressure of real gas decreases by a correction term which is inversely proportional to the square of the volume.

Q.92 The Indian Army conducted which of the following Multilateral Annual Joint
Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) Exercises at Ahmedabad and
Porbandar in November 2024?
Ans 1. Operation Vijay 2024

2. Operation Kaveri

3. Operation Karuna

4. Sanyukt Vimochan 2024

Q.93 Which of the following sacred texts provide(s) most of the information about the social
and economic life of the early Vedic period?
Ans 1. Ramayana

2. Upnishadas

3. Mahabhatarta

4. Vedas

Q.94 1 kg L−1 = ______ g cm−3

Ans 1. 1000

2. 1

3. 100

4. 10

Q.95 A macromolecule consisting of ten or more monosaccharide units linked together by

glycosidic bonds is called:
Ans 1. a monosaccharide

2. a disaccharide

3. an oligosaccharide

4. a polysaccharide

Q.96 Which organisation partnered with NABARD to organise the 'Climate Changemakers'
dialogue in August 2024?
Ans 1. United Nations

2. International Monetary Fund

3. World Bank

4. Deutsche Gesellschaft für Internationale Zusammenarbeit (GIZ) GmbH

Q.97 To which political party does Omar Abdullah, who became the Chief Minister of Jammu
and Kashmir after the abrogation of Article 370, belong?
Ans 1. People's Democratic Party

2. Jammu and Kashmir National Panthers Party

3. Indian National Congress

4. National Conference
Q.98 How many biotech products were launched by Indian startups at the Global Bio-India
held in September 2024, highlighting the country's emerging talent in bioscience?
Ans 1. 11

2. 14

3. 5

4. 7

Q.99 The Government of India initiated and announced the policy of Special Economic Zones
to attract foreign investments in business. This was announced in the year ________.
Ans 1. 2002

2. 2007

3. 2000

4. 2005

Q.100 Cherrapunji and Mawsynram (receive annual rainfall exceeding 1,080 cm) are located in
which hills of Meghalaya?
Ans 1. Garo hills

2. Jaintia hills

3. Khasi hills

4. Shillong hills

Q.101 When did the revolt of 1857 start?

Ans 1. 11 May 1857

2. 10 May 1857

3. 10 June 1857

4. 11 June 1857

Q.102 Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with languages?

Ans 1. Twelfth Schedule

2. Tenth Schedule

3. Eighth Schedule

4. Sixth Schedule

Q.103 Example of a gaseous conductor is ____________.

Ans 1. nitrogen

2. oxygen

3. argon

4. wet air

Q.104 In 2011, the sex ratio (number of females per 1000 males) at all India level was 943 and
the same for rural areas was ______________.
Ans 1. 931

2. 949

3. 929

4. 952

Q.105 Which of the following crops increases the natural fertility of soils through nitrogen
fixation?
Ans 1. Cereal grains

2. Pulses

3. Root vegetables

4. Oilseeds
Q.106 During the winter months, the weather conditions in India are primarily influenced by
the high-pressure system over which region?
Ans 1. Central and Western Australia

2. Central and Western Asia

3. Central and Southern Europe

4. Central and Eastern Asia

Q.107 Which of the following is true regarding the removal of a judge of a High Court in India?
Ans 1. A judge can only be removed after an address from Parliament, supported by a special majority.

2. The procedure for removal of a High Court judge differs from that of a Supreme Court judge.

3. A judge can be removed on any grounds as decided by the President.

4. The President can remove a judge without any parliamentary involvement.

Q.108 In August 2024, The Madras High Court declared which of the following Sections
unconstitutional?
Ans 1. Section 123 of the Registration Act

2. Section 45 of the Registration Act

3. Section 77-A of the Registration Act

4. Section 50 of the Registration Act

Q.109 Who among the following founded the secret Congress Radio, which broadcast
messages of independence and anti-British propaganda and made significant
contributions to the freedom struggle?
Ans 1. Aruna Roy

2. Usha Mehta

3. Sunitha Krishnan

4. Kalpana Datta

Q.110 Which Article of the Indian Constitution allows the State to make special provisions for
the advancement of any socially and educationally backward class?
Ans 1. Article 17

2. Article 15

3. Article 16

4. Article 18

Q.111 Which of the following are the two main fibre crops grown in India?
Ans 1. Rayon and Nylon

2. Wool and Silk

3. Cotton and Jute

4. Flax and Hemp

Q.112 The frequency and paths of the tropical depressions originating from the Bay of Bengal
are mainly determined by the position of which of the following?
Ans 1. Tropic of Cancer

2. Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ)

3. Equator

4. Tropic of Capricorn

Q.113 After which of the following wars did the British company rule formally begin in India?
Ans 1. Battle of Plassey

2. Third Battle of Panipat

3. Second Carnatic War

4. Battle of Buxar
Q.114 Khelo India Rising Talent Identification (KIRTI) programme was inaugurated at which
place in March 2024 with an aim to hunt sporting talents in school children between 9
and 18 years of age?
Ans 1. Dehradun

2. Chandigarh

3. New Delhi

4. Lucknow

Q.115 Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for the promotion of international
peace and security as a directive principle?
Ans 1. Article 51

2. Article 48

3. Article 41

4. Article 44

Q.116 The Golden Quadrilateral Project of Government of India was launched in the year 2001,
this project aimed at development of ______________.
Ans 1. waterways

2. railways

3. airports

4. highways

Q.117 The word 'Veda' is derived from which of the following root words?
Ans 1. Vedi

2. Vit

3. Vid

4. Ved

Q.118 Emani Sankara Sastry is known for playing which of the following musical instruments
in India?
Ans 1. Sitar

2. Veena

3. Been

4. Tabla

Q.119 What was HDFC Bank’s net interest margin (NIM) for Q2 FY25?
Ans 1. 3.55%

2. 3.46%

3. 3.47%

4. 3.50%

Q.120 Who among the following first demanded Swaraj, or self-rule, as the goal of the Indian
National Congress at the 1906 Calcutta session?
Ans 1. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

2. Subhas Chandra Bose

3. Dadabhai Naoroji

4. AO Hume