1

Class 11th JEE

Atomic Structure
Discovery of Sub atomic parties and Atomic Model
1. Gases are bad conductors of electricity. Their 6. When lithium vapours were filled in the discharge
conductivity may be increased by tube for anode rays experiment, the anode rays were
(A) Increasing the pressure as well as potential found to contain only Li+ ions (A = 7, Z= 3).
difference between the electrodes. Therefore, each particle of anode contains
(B) Decreasing the pressure as well as potential (A) 1 proton only.
difference between the electrodes. (B) 3 protons and 4 neutrons only.
(C) Decreasing the pressure and/or increasing the (C) 3 protons, 4 neutrons and 2 electrons.
potential difference between the electrodes. (D) 3 protons, 3 neutrons and 3 electrons.
(D) Increasing the pressure and/or decreasing the
potential difference between the electrodes. 7. In an oil drop experiment, the following charges (in
arbitrary units) were found on a series of oil droplets
2. The specific charge of cathode rays 4.5 × 10–18, 3.0 × 10–18, 6.0 × 10–l8,
(A) Depends on the nature of the gas. 7.5 × 10–18, 9.0 × 10–18. The charge on electron (in
(B) Depends on the material of the discharge the same unit) should be
tube. (A) 3.0 × 10–18 (B) 9.0 × 10–18
(C) Depends on the potential difference between
(C) 1.5 × 10–18 (D) 1.6 × 10–19
cathode and anode.
(D) Is a universal constant
8. Which of the following particle is not deflected in
the magnetic field?
3. Which of the following is not a fundamental
(A) Electron (B) Proton
particle?
(C) Neutron (D) Deuteron
(A) Electron (B) Proton
(C) Neutron (D) X-rays
9. The e/m ratio is maximum for
(A) Na+ (B) Al3+
4. Which of the following statement is incorrect
(C) H+ (D) Mg2+
(A) Cathode rays are emitted out from the surface
of cathode.
10. The specific charges of two particles A and B are in
(B) Cathode rays travel in straight line.
(C) Anode rays are heavier than cathode rays. the ratio 2 : 3. If the mass ratio mA : mB is 2 : 3, then
(D) Anode rays are emitted out from the surface the ratio of their charges eA : eB, is
of anode. (A) 1 : 1 (B) 4 : 9
(C) 9 : 4 (D) 2 : 3
5. The e/m ratio of anode rays produced in the
discharge tube, depends on the 11. Millikan's oil drop experiments is used to find
(A) Nature of the gas filled in the tube. (A) e/m ratio of an electron
(B) Nature of anode material. (B) Charge on an electron
(C) Nature of cathode material. (C) Mass of an electron
(D) All of these (D) Velocity of an electron
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12. An element having atomic number 25 and atomic 20. The increasing order for the values of e/m
weight 55 will have (charge/mass) is:
(A) 25 protons and 30 neutrons (A) e, p, n,  (B) n, p, e, 
(B) 25 neutrons and 30 protons (C) n, p, , e (D) n, , p, e
(C) 55 protons
(D) 55 neutrons 21. Imagine that in any atom about 50% of the space
is occupied by the atomic nucleus. If a silver foil
13. Which is not true with respect to cathode rays is bombarded with α-particles, majority of the
(A) A stream of electrons α –particles would
(B) Charged particles (A) Get scattered
(C) Move with same speed as that of light (B) Be absorbed by the nuclei
(D) Can be deflected by electric field (C) Pass through the foil undetected
(D) Get converted into photons
14. The mass to charge ratio (m/e) for a cation is
1.5 ×10–8 kg/C. What is the mass of this atom? 22. The fraction of volume occupied by the nucleus
19
(A) 2.4 10 g with respect to the total volume of an atom is
(A) 10–15 (B) 10–5
(B) 2.4 1027 g
(C) 10–30 (D) 10–10
(C) 2.4 1024 g
(D) None of the above 23. When a gold sheet is bombarded by a beam of α-
particles, only a few of them get deflected whereas
15. Positive ions are formed from the neutral atom by most go straight, undeflected. This is because
the (A) The force of attraction exerted on the α-
(A) Increase of nuclear charge particle by the oppositely charged electrons is
(B) Gain of protons not sufficient.
(C) Loss of electrons (B) A nucleus has a much smaller volume than
(D) Loss of protons that of atom
(C) The force of repulsion acting on the fast
16. Anode rays were discovered by moving α-particles is very small.
(A) Goldstein (B) J. Stoney (D) The neutrons in the nucleus do not have any
(C) Rutherford (D) J.J. Thomson effect on the α-particles

17. Cathode rays are 24. Two particles A and B having same e/m ratio are
(A) Protons (B) Electrons projected towards silver nucleus in different
(C) Neutrons (D) α-particles experiments with the same speed. The distance of
closest approach will be
18. The nature of anode rays depends upon (A) Same for both (B) Greater for A
(A) Nature of electrode (C) Greater for B (D) Depends on speed
(B) Nature of residual gas
(C) Nature of discharge tube 25. Which of the following is not a conclusion of
(D) All the above Rutherford’s atomic model?
(A) Most of the part inside an atom is empty.
19. The minimum real charge on any particle which can (B) Almost all mass of an atom is concentrated in
exist is the nucleus.
(A) 1.6 × 10–19 Coulomb (C) The size of nucleus is very small in
(B) 1.6 × 10–10 Coulomb comparison to the size of atom
(C) 4.8 × 10–10 Coulomb (D) Electron revolves around the nucleus in
(d) Zero definite orbits.
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Rutherford’s experiment on scattering of alpha

Radius of nucleus varies as R  R 0  A 
26. 1/3
34. where
particles showed for the first time that atom has
(A) Electrons (B) Protons R0 = 1.3 Fermi. What is the volume of Be8 nucleus
(C) Nucleus (D) Neutrons (approx.) [A = atomic mass]?
(A) 7  1038 cc (B) 7  1029 cc
27. α-particles are represented by
(A) Lithium atoms (B) Helium nuclei (C) 7  1045 cc (D) None of these
(C) Hydrogen nuclei (D) None of these
35. Which of the following models are not the same as
28. Which of the following properties of atom could be Thomson model of Atom?
explained correctly by Thomson Model of atom? (A) Plum Pudding model
(A) Overall neutrality of atom. (B) Watermelon model
(B) Spectra of hydrogen atom. (C) Raisin Pudding model
(C) Position of electrons, protons and neutrons in (D) Nuclear model
atom.
(D) Stability of atom.
36. Repeated same as Q. No. 1
29. The distance of closest approach of an -particle
37. Repeated same as Q. No. 2
fired towards a nucleus with momentum ‘P’ is r.
What will be the distance of closest approach when
38. Repeated same as Q. No. 3
the momentum of the -particle is 2P?
(A) 2r (B) 4r
(C) r/2 (D) r/4 39. Repeated same as Q. No. 4

30. -particles are projected towards the nucleus of 40. Repeated same as Q. No. 5
following metals with the same kinetic energy.
Towards which metal, the distance of closest 41. Repeated same as Q. No. 6
approach will be minimum?
(A) Cu(Z = 29) (B) Ag(Z = 47) 42. Repeated same as Q. No. 7
(C) Au (Z = 79) (D) Ca (Z = 20)
43. Repeated same as Q. No. 8
31. The fundamental particles present in the nucleus of
an atom are 44. Repeated same as Q. No. 9
(A) Alpha particles and electrons
(B) Neutrons and protons 45. The e/m ratio of cathode rays is x unit, when
(C) Neutrons and electrons hydrogen is filled in the discharge tube. What will
(D) Electrons, neutrons and protons
be its value, when deuterium (D2) is filled in it?
(A) x unit (B) x/2 unit
32. When α-particles are sent through a thin metal foil,
(C) 2x unit (D) x/4 unit
most of them go straight through the foil because
(A) Alpha particles are much heavier than electrons
(B) Alpha particles are positively charged 46. Repeated same as Q. No. 10
(C) Most part of the atom is empty space
(D) Alpha particles move with high velocity 47. Repeated as Question No 21

33. Neutron is a fundamental particle carrying 48. Repeated as Question No 22

(A) A charge of +1 unit and a mass of 1 unit
(B) No charge and a mass of 1 unit 49. Repeated as Question No 23
(C) No charge and no mass
(D) A charge of –1 and a mass of 1 unit 50. Repeated Question No. 24
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51. Repeated Question No. 25. 66. When a gold sheet is bombarded by a beam of α-
particles, only a few of them get deflected whereas
52. The ratio of specific charge of a proton and an most go straight, undeflected. This is because
-particle is: (A) The force of attraction exerted on the α-
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 particle by the oppositely charged electrons is
(C) 1 : 4 (D) 1 : 1 not sufficient.
(B) A nucleus has a much smaller volume than
53. Repeated same as Q. No. 20 that of atom
(C) The force of repulsion acting on the fast
54. Repeated same as Q. No. 14 moving α-particles is very small.
(D) The neutrons in the nucleus do not have any
effect on the α-particles
55. Repeated Q. No. 26

67. When atoms are bombarded with alpha particles,

56. Repeated Q. No. 27
only a few in million suffer deflection, others pass
out undeflected. This is because
57. Repeated same as Q. No. 11
(A) The force of repulsion on the moving alpha
particle is small
58. Repeated same as Q. No. 12 (B) The force of attraction on the alpha particle to
the oppositely charged electrons is very small
59. Repeated same as Q. No. 13 (C) There is only one nucleus and large number
of electrons
60. Repeated same as Q. No. 14 (D) The nucleus occupies much smaller volume
compared to the volume of the atom
61. When alpha particles are sent towards a thin metal
foil, most of them go straight through the foil 68. Repeated Question No. 52.
because
(A) alpha particles are much heavier than electrons 69. Repeated Question No. 16
(B) alpha particles are positively charged
(C) most part of the atom is empty space 70. Repeated same as Q. No. 33
(D) alpha particles move with high speed
71. The mass charge ratio for A+ ion is 1.97 ×
10–7 kg C–1. Calculate the mass of A atom.
62. Repeated same as Q. No. 31
(A) 9.1 × 10–26 (B) 3.1 × 10–25
(C) 3.16 × 10–26 (D) 9.1 × 10–25
63. Repeated same as Q. No. 17
72. Atomic radius is of the order of 10–8 cm and nuclear
64. The nature of anode rays depends upon
radius is of the order of 10–13 cm. Calculate what
(A) Nature of electrode
fraction of atom is occupied by nucleus?
(B) Nature of residual gas
(A) 10–20 (B) 10–15
(C) Nature of discharge tube
(C) 10–12 (D) None
(D) All the above

65. Repeated same as Q. No. 26 73. Repeated same as Q. No. 22

74. Rutherford’s -particle scattering experiment

proved that atom has
(A) Electrons (B) Neutron
(C) Nucleus (D) Orbitals
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75. The -particle scattering experiment of Rutherford

concluded that 83. The approximate radius of a H-atom is 0.05 nm, and
(A) The nucleus is made up of protons and that of proton is 1.5 × 10–15 m. Assuming both the
neutrons hydrogen atom and the nucleus to be spherical,
(B) The number of electrons is exactly equal to calculate fraction of the space in an atom of
number of protons in atom hydrogen that is occupied by the nucleus
(C) The positive charge of the atom is (A) 1.7 × 10–14 (B) 4.2 × 10–14
concentrated in a very small space (C) 2.7 × 10–14 (D) 3.2 × 10–14
(D) Electrons occupy discrete energy levels
84. Repeated same as Q. No. 45
76. Rutherford's scattering experiment is related to the
size of the 85. Repeated same as Q. No. 20
(A) Nucleus (B) Atom
(C) Electron (D) Neutron 86. Which of the following is true for cathode ray?
(A) It is not deflected by magnetic field.
77. Rutherford's alpha particle scattering experiment
(B) It is an electromagnetic wave.
eventually led to the conclusion that
(C) It emits X-ray, when strikes a metal.
(A) Mass and energy are related
(B) Electrons occupy space around the nucleus (D) It consist all the negative particles present in
(C) Neutrons are buried deep in the nucleus the atoms
(D) The point of impact with matter can be
precisely determined 87. Repeated same as Q. No. 2
78. Repeated same as Q. No. 66
88. From the discharge tube experiment, it is concluded
79. The radius of the nucleus is related to the mass that
number A by
(A) mass of proton is fractional.
(A) R = R0A1/2 (B) R = R0A
2 (B) matter contains electrons.
(C) R = R0A (D) R = R0A1/3
(C) matter contains nucleus.
80. If radius of the nucleus is 3.5 × 10–15 m then find the (D) positive rays are heavier than protons.
space or volume occupied by the nucleus.
(A) 1.8 × 10–43 m3 (B) 1.0 × 10–40 m3 89. The cathode rays experiment demonstrated that
(C) 2.5 × 10–43m3 (D) 1.8 × 10–40 m3 (A) -particles are the nuclei of He atoms.
(B) the e/m ratio for the particles of the cathode
81. Find the distance of closest approach when an 
rays varies gas to gas.
particle is projected towards the nucleus of silver
(C) cathode rays are streams of negatively
atom having speed v. (mass of a particle = m,
charged particles.
atomic number of Ag = 47)
(D) the mass of an atom is essentially all
188 Ke 2
(A) (B) 47 Ke2 contained its very small nucleus.
m V 2
(C) Ke2 (D) None of these

82. Find the radius of nucleus of an atom having

atomic mass number equal to 125. (Take R 0
= 1.3 × 10 – 1 5 m)
(A) 6.5 × 10 – 1 5 m (B) 5.5 × 10 – 1 5 m
(C) 6.5 × 10 – 1 1 m (D) 2.1 × 10 – 1 5 m
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90. Which of the following is not the possible path of 96. Which of the following is not a correct statement
cathode rays ejecting from the surface of cathode? according to Rutherford’s atomic model?
(A) 99% of mass of an atom is centered in the
nucleus.
(B) Most of the part inside the atom is empty.
(A) (B)
(C) The size of nucleus is very small in
comparison to the atoms.
(D) Electrons revolve around the nucleus in fixed
circular path.

(C) (D) 97. A proton and a deuteron are projected towards the
stationary gold nucleus, in different experiments,
with the same speed. The distance of closest
approach will be
(A) same for both
91. Repeated as Question No. 4.
(B) greater for proton
(C) greater for deuteron
92. The e/m ratio is maximum for (D) depends on speed
(A) Na+ (B) Al3+
+
(C) H (D) Mg2+ 98. If nucleus and atom are considered as perfect
spheres with the diameters 4 × 10–15 m and 2 × 10–10
93. Repeated same as Q. No. 7
m, respectively, then the ratio of the volumes of
nucleus and atom should be
94. Rutherford’s experiment which established the
nuclear model of the atom, used a beam of (A) 2 × 10–5 : 1 (B) 8 × 10–15 : 1
(A) -particles, which impinged on a metal foil (C) 1.25 × 1014 : 1 (D) 8 × 1015 : 1
and got absorbed.
(B) -rays, which impinged on a metal foil and 99. Which of the following statements about the
ejected electrons. electron is incorrect?
(C) helium atoms, which impinged on a metal foil (A) It is a negatively charged particle.
and got scattered. (B) The mass of electron is equal to the mass of
(D) helium nuclei, which impinged on a metal foil
neutron.
and got scattered.
(C) It is a basic constituent of all atoms.
95. Repeated same as Q. No. 25 (D) It is a constituent of cathode rays.

Bohr's Model for the Hydrogen Atom

100. Bohr’s model may be applied to 102. The ratio of circumference of third and second
(A) Na10+ ion (B) He atom orbits of He+ ion is
2+
(C) Be ion (D) C6+ ion (A) 3 :2 (B) 2 : 3
(C) 9 : 4 (D) 4 : 9
101. If the radius of first orbit of H–atom is x Å, then
the radius of the second orbit of Li2+ ion will be 103. An electron revolves round Li2+ nucleus at a
4x distance of 1.587 Å. The speed of electron should be
(A) x Å (B) Å (A) 2.188 × 106 m/s (B) 6.564 × 106 m/s
3
9x (C) 7.293 × 105 m/s (D) 7.293 × 106 m/s
(C) Å (D) 4x Å
2
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104. How much distance an electron revolving in 3rd 112. Magnitude of K.E. in an orbit is equal to
orbit of He+ ion will travel in one second. (A) Half of the potential energy
(A) 1.458 × 106 m (B) 3.28 × 106 m (B) Twice of the potential energy
(C) 4.862 × 105 m (D) 2.917 × 106 m (C) One fourth of the potential energy
(D) None of these
105. Which of the following is not a permissible value
of angular momentum of electron in H–atom? 113. Energy of orbit
(A) Increases as we move away from nucleus
h h
(A) 1.5 (B) 0.5 (B) Decreases as we move away from nucleus
 
(C) Remains same as we move away from nucleus
h (D) None of these
(C) 1.25 (D) All of these

114. If r1 is the radius of the first orbit of hydrogen
106. The ratio of energies of first excited state of He+ atom, then the radii of second, third and fourth
ion and ground state of H–atom is orbits in terms of r1 are
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 4 : 1
(A) r12 , r13 , r14 (B) 8r1, 27r1, 64r1
(C) 1 : 4 (D) 16 : 1
(C) 4r1, 9r1, 16r1 (D) 2r1, 6r1, 8r1
107. Which of the following quantity for an electron
revolving around the H–nucleus is independent to 115. The value of first Bohr radius of hydrogen atom is
the mass of electron? (A) 0.529 × l0–7cm (B) 0.529 × l0–8cm
(A) Distance from nucleus (C) 0.529 × l0–9cm (D) 0.529 × l0–10cm
(B) Kinetic energy
(C) Potential energy 116. The energy of electron in hydrogen atom in its
(D) Speed grounds state is –13.6 eV. The energy of the level
corresponding to the quantum number equal to 5 is
(A) –0.54 eV (B) – 0.85 eV
108. The ratio of the radius of two Bohr’s orbit of Li +2
(C) – 0.64 eV (D) – 0.40 eV
is 1 : 9. What would be their nomenclature
(A) K & L (B) L & M
117. The value of the energy for the first excited state
(C) K & M (D) K & N
of hydrogen atom will be
(A) –13.6eV (B) –3.40eV
109. According to Bohr’s theory. the angular
(C) –1.51eV (D) –0.85eV
momentum for an electron in 5th orbit is
118. The energy of an excited H-atom is –1.51 eV.
(A) 2.5h/π (B) 5 h/ π
Angular momentum of e– in the given orbit will
(C) 25h/ π (D) 5 π /2 π
be
(A) 3h/π (B) 3h/2π
110. The radius of first Bohr’s orbit for hydrogen is
(C) 2h/π (D) h/π
0.53Å. The radius of third Bohr’s orbit would be
(A) 0.79 Å (B) 1.59 Å
119. The radius of an orbit of Be+3 ion is 0.529Å. The
(C) 3.18 Å (D) 4.77 Å
velocity of electron in this orbit will be
111. If velocity of an electron in Ist orbit of H atom is (A) 0.545 × 106 m/s (B) 2.18 × 106 m/s
V, what will be the velocity of electron in 3rd (C) 4.36 × 106 m/s (D) 1.09 × 106 m/s
orbit of Li+2:
(A) V (B) V/3 120. Splitting of spectral lines when atoms are
(C) 3V (D) 9 V subjected to strong electric field is called:
(A) Zeeman effect (B) Stark effect
(C) Decay (D) Disintegration
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121. Stark effect refers to the 134. An electron from one Bohr stationary orbit can go
(A) Splitting up of the lines in an emission to next higher orbit
spectrum in the presence of external (A) By emission of electromagnetic radiation
electrostatic field. (B) By absorption of any electromagnetic
(B) Random scattering of light by colloidal radiation
particles (C) By absorption of electromagnetic radiation
(C) Splitting up of the lines in an emission of particular frequency
spectrum in a magnetic field (D) Without emission or absorption of
(D) Emission of electrons from metals when electromagnetic radiation
light falls upon them.
135. Magnitude of kinetic energy of electron in an orbit
122. Repeated same as Q. No. 100
is equal to
123. Repeated same as Q. No. 101
(A) Half of the potential energy
124. Repeated same as Q. No. 102
(B) Twice of the potential energy
125. Repeated same as Q. No. 103
(C) One fourth of the potential energy
126. Repeated same as Q. No. 104
(D) None of the above
127. Repeated same as Q. No. 105
128. Repeated same as Q. No. 106
136. For which species, Bohr's theory does not apply:
129. Repeated same as Q. No. 107
(A) H (B) Be
+
(C) He (D) Li2+
130. The potential energy of electron revolving in the
ground state of H atom is
137. The energy of electron in first orbit of He+ is
(A) –13.6 eV (B) –6.8 eV
(RH = –871.6 ×10–20 J). The energy of electron in
(C) –27.2 eV (D) Zero
the first orbit of H is:
(A) –871.6 × 10–20 J
131. The energy difference will be minimum of which
(B) –435.8 × 10–20 J
of the following energy levels of H–atom?
(A) n = 2 and n = 3 (B) n = 3 and n = 4 (C) –217.9 × 10–20 J
(C) n = 1 and n = 2 (D) n = 1 and n = 4 (D) –108.9 × 10–20 J

132. For which transition in H–atom, the amount of 138. The amount of energy required to remove the
energy released will be maximum? electron from a Li2+ ion in its ground state is how
(A) n = 4 to n = 2 (B) n = 5 to n = 2 many times greater than the amount of energy
(C) n = 2 to n = 1 (D) n = 7 to n = 2 required to remove the electron from an H atom in
its ground state?
(A) 9 (B) 2
133. Choose the incorrect relation on the basis of
(C) 3 (D) 5
Bohr’s theory
1
(A) Velocity of electron  139. The radius of Bohr′s first orbit in H-atom is 0.053
n
nm. The radius of second orbit in He+ would be:
1
(B) Frequency of revolution  2 (A) 0.0265 nm
n (B) 0.0530 nm
2
(C) Radius of orbit ∝n Z (C) 0.1060 nm
1 (D) 0.2120 nm
(D) Force on electron  4
n
 9

140. The ratio of the difference in energy between the 145. According to Bohr’s theory the radius of electron
first and the second Bohr orbit to that between the in an orbit described by principle quantum number
second and the third Bohr orbit is 𝑛 and atomic number Z is proportional to :
1 1 Z2
(A) (B) (A) z2 n 2 (B)
2 3 n2
4 27
(C) (D) Z2 n2
9 5 (C) (D)
n Z

141. The ionisation enthalpy of hydrogen atom is 1.312 146. According to Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom
× 106 J mol–1. The energy required to excite the (A) Total energy of the electron is quantized
electron in the atom from n1 = 1 to n2 = 2 is (B) Angular momentum of electron is quantized
(A) 8.51 × 105 J mol–1 (C) Both (A) and (B)
(B) 6.56 × 105 J mol–1 (D) None of the above
(C) 7.56 × 105 J mol–1
(D) 9.84 × 105 J mol–1 147. Bohr’s radius of 2nd orbit of Be3+ is equal to that
of
142. The statement that does not belong to Bohr’s (A) 4th orbit of hydrogen
model of atom, is (B) 2nd orbit of He+
(A) Energy of the electrons in the orbit is (C) 3rd orbit of Li2+
quantized (D) First orbit of hydrogen
(B) The electron in the orbit nearest to the
nucleus is in lowest energy state 148. Repeated same as Q. No. 100
(C) Electrons revolve in different orbits around 149. Repeated same as Q. No. 101
the nucleus
(D) The electrons emit energy during revolution 150. The ratio of spacing between the third and fourth
due to the presence of Coulombic forces of orbit to the spacing between sixth and seventh
attraction orbit of H–atom is
(A) 7 : 13 (B) 13 : 7
143. The frequency of radiation emitted when the (C) 16 : 49 (D) 1 : 1
electron falls from n = 4 to n = 1 in a hydrogen
atom will be (Given, ionisation energy of H = 2.18 151. If the mass of electron is doubled, the radius of
× 10–18 J atom–1 and h = 6.625 × 10–34 Js) first orbit of H–atom becomes approximately
(A) 1.54 × 1015 s–1 (A) 0.529 Å (B) 0.265 Å
(B) 1.03 × 1015 s–1 (C) 1.058 Å (D) 0.32 Å
(C) 3.08 × 1015 s–1
152. Repeated same as Q. No. 102
(D) 2.00 × 1015 s–1
153. The speed of electron revolving in the fourth orbit
of a hydrogen-like atom or ion is 1094 km/s. The
144. In the ground state of the H-atom, the electron is:
atom or ion is
(A) In the second shell
(A) H (B) He+
(B) In the nucleus
(C) Li2+ (D) Be3+
(C) Nearest to the nucleus
(D) Farthest from the nucleus 154. The ratio of time taken by electron in revolutions
round the H-nucleus in the second and third orbits
is
(A) 2 : 3 (B) 4 : 8
(C) 8 : 27 (D) 27 : 8
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155. Repeated same as Q. No. 105 164. Which of the following statement does not form
part of Bohr’s model of the hydrogen atom?
156. What is the angular speed of an electron revolving (A) Energy of the electrons in the orbit is
in the third orbit of He+ ion? quantized.
(A) 6.12 × 1015 s–1 (B) 1.63 × 10–16 s (B) The electron in the orbit which is nearest to
16 –1
(C) 1.92 × 10 s (D) 1.95 × 1015 s–1 the nucleus has the lowest energy.
(C) Electrons revolve in different orbits around
157. The force of attraction on electron by the nucleus the nucleus.
is directly proportional to (D) The position and velocity of the electrons in
n3 Z3 the orbit cannot be determined
(A) (B)
Z4 n4 simultaneously.
n4 Z2
(C) (D) 165. What is the separation energy (in eV) for electron
Z2 n4
present in the first excited state of Be3+?
(A) 13.6 eV (B) 27.2 eV
158. The K.E. of electron in He+ will be maximum in
(C) 40.8 eV (D) 54.5 eV
(A) third orbit (B) first orbit
(C) seventh orbit (D) infinite orbit
166. If in Bohr’s model, for unielectronic atom, time
period of revolution is represented as Tn, z where
159. As the orbit number increases, the K.E. and P.E.
n represents shell no. and Z represents atomic
for an electron:
number then the value of T1, 2 : T2, 1 will be :
(A) both increases
(A) 8 : 1 (B) 1 : 8
(B) both decreases
(C) 1 : 1 (D) 1 : 32
(C) K.E. increases but P.E. decreases
(D) P.E. increases but K.E. decreases
167. Which of the following is discreted in Bohr’s
theory?
160. The ratio of energies of first excited state of He+
(A) Potential energy
ion and ground state of H–atom is
(B) Kinetic energy
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 4 : 1
(C) Velocity
(C) 1 : 4 (D) 16 : 1
(D) Angular momentum
161. For which atom or ion, the energy level of the
168. What is the ratio of time periods (T1/T2) in second
second excited state is 13.6 eV?
orbit of hydrogen atom to third orbit of He+ ion?
(A) H (B) He+
(A) 8/27 (B) 32/27
(C) Li2+ (D) Li
(C) 27/32 (D) None of these
162. The orbit from which when electron will jump in
169. The energy of an electron moving in nth Bohr’s
other orbit, energy may be absorbed but not
13.6 2
emitted out, will be orbit of an element is given by E n  Z
(A) first orbit (B) second orbit n2
(C) seventh orbit (D) infinite orbit eV/atom (Z = atomic number). The graph of E vs.
Z2 (keeping “n” constant) will be:
163. For which transition in H-atom, the amount of
energy released will be maximum?
E
(A) n = 4 to n = 2 (A)
(B) n = 5 to n = 2
(C) n = 2 to n = 1
2
(D) n = 7 to n = 2 Z
 11

2
Z 170. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
consistent with the Bohr theory of the atom (and
no others)?
(B) E (a) An electron can remain in a particular orbit
as long as it continuously absorbs radiation
of a definite frequency.
(b) The lowest energy orbits are those closest to
the nucleus.
E (c) All electrons can jump from the K shell to
(C)
the M shell by emitting radiation of a
definite frequency.
2
Z (A) a, b, c (B) b only
(C) c only (D) a, b

E
(D)

2
Z

Developments Leading to the Bohr’s Model of Atom

171. Small packets of light are called 176. The energy of a photon is directional proportional to
(A) Proton (B) Quanta I. wave number
(C) Photon (D) Spectrum II. Frequency
III. wavelength
172. Which of the following electromagnetic radiation Select the correct option.
have greater frequency? (A) Both I and II
(A) X-rays (B) Ultraviolet rays (B) Both I and III
(C) Radio waves (D) Visible rays (C) Both II and III
(D) Only II
173. Two electromagnetic radiations have wave numbers 177. A near UV photon of 300 nm is absorbed by a gas
in the ratio 2 : 3. Their energies per quanta will be in and then re-emitted as two photons. One photon is
the ratio red with the wavelength 760 nm. Hence, wavelength
(A) 3 : 2 (B) 9:4 of the second photon is
(C) 4 : 9 (D) 2:3 (A) 460 nm (B) 1060 nm
(C) 496 nm (D) 300 nm
174. A radio station is emitting the radiations of
frequency 2 × 104 Hz. If its frequency is doubled, 178. Select the correct statement.
(A) Wavelength will be doubled. (A) Visible light consists of electromagnetic
(B) Energy per quanta will be doubled. waves of oscillating electric and magnetic
(C) Wave number will be halved. fields
(D) All of these (B) In vacuum types of all electromagnetic
radiation travel at the same speed
175. Electromagnetic radiation travels through vacuum at (C) Both (A) and (B) are correct statements
a speed of (D) None of the above is correct statement
(A) 6.02 × 1010 ms–1 (B) 9.1 × 1012 ms–1
(C) 3 × 108 ms–1 (D) Zero ms–1
 12

179. Which one of the following is not the characteristic 184. Calculate frequency of a photon having an energy of
of Planck's quantum theory of radiation 2 electron volt
(A) The energy is not absorbed or emitted in (A) 4.8 × 1014s–1 (B) 4.8 × 1010s–1
14 –1
whole number or multiple of quantum (C) 2.0 × 10 s (D) 3.5 × 10–7s–1
(B) Radiation is associated with energy
(C) Radiation energy is not emitted or absorbed 185. How many photons of lights having a wavelength of
continuously but in the form of small packets 5000 Å are necessary to provide 1 joule of energy.
called quanta (A) 2.5 × 101 photons (B) 8.5 × 1011 photons
(D) This magnitude of energy associated with a (C) 4.5 × 1018 photons (D) 2.5 × 1018 photons
quantum is proportional to the frequency
186. Calculate the number of photons emitted in 10 hours
180. How many photons are emitted per second by a by a 60 W sodium lamp (λ for photon = 5893 Å)
5mW laser source operating at 632.8 nm?
(A) 6.4 × 1024
(A) 1.6  1016 (B) 1.6  1013 (B) 7.2 × 1024
(C) 1.6  1010 (D) 1.6  103 (C) 2.1 × 1019
(D) 3.3 × 1019
181. Which of the following statements is false.
(A) The energy of red photon is more than the 187. A bulb of 40 W is producing a light of wavelength
energy of violet photon 620 nm with 80% of efficiency then the number of
(B) The momentum of photon is inversely photons emitted by the bulb in 20 seconds are
proportional to its wavelength (A) 2 × 1018 (B) 1018
(C) The energy of a photon is inversely
(C) 1021 (D) 2 × 1021
proportional to its wavelength
(D) The particle nature of electromagnetic
188. Find out the number of photons emitted by a 60watt
radiations is able to explain the photoelectric
bulb in one minute, if wavelength of an emitted
effect
photons is 620 nm
(A) 1.125 × 1022 (B) 7 × 1022
182. The energy of a radiation of wavelength 8000 Å is
(C) 1.125 × 1020 (D) 2.1 × 1015
E1 and energy of a radiation of wavelength 16000 Å
is E2. What is the relation between these two
189. A particular radio station broadcast at a frequency
(A) E1 = 6E2 (B) E1 = 2E2 of 1120 Kilo Hertz. What is the Wave Length (in m)
(C) E1 = 4E2 (D) E1 = ½ E2 of the radiation is…….
190. The frequency of yellow light having wavelength
183. Certain sun glasses having small amount of AgCl 600 nm is
incorporated in the lenses, on exposure to light of (A) 5.0 × 1014 Hz (B) 2.5 × 107Hz
appropriate wavelength turns to Gray colour to (C) 5.0 × 107Hz (D) 2.5 × 1014 Hz
reduce the glare following the reactions 191. One quantum is absorbed per gaseous molecule of
AgCl  Ag  Gray   Cl
hv
Br2 for converting into Br atoms. If light absorbed
If the heat of reaction for the decomposition of has wavelength 5000 Å, calculate energy required in
AgCl is 248 kJ mol–1, what maximum wavelength is kJ/mol
needed to induce the desired process? (A) 250 kJ/mol (B) 239.4 kJ/mol
(A) 4.83 × 10–7 m (B) 2.45 × 10–7 m (C) 320 kJ/mol (D) 239.4 J/mol
(C) 4.83 × 10–8 m (D) 7.83 × 10–7 m
192. Same as 171

193. Repeated same as Q. No. 172

 13

205. How long would it take a radio wave of frequency

194. Repeated same as Q. No. 173 6 × 103 s–1 to travel from mars to the earth, a
distance of 8 × 107 km
195. Repeated same as Q. No. 174 (A) 1.5 × 102 s (B) 2.66 × 102 s
(C) 2.66 × 10–2 s (D) none of these
196. Repeated same as Q. No. 175
206. Repeated same as Q. No. 179
197. Repeated same as Q. No. 176
207. The energy of a photon is calculated by
198. Repeated same as Q. No. 177 (A) E = hv (B) h = Ev
E h
(C) h (D) E
199. Repeated same as Q. No. 178 v v
208. Repeated same as Q. No. 182
200. A photo sensitive surface is receiving light of
wavelength 5000 Å at the rate of 10–7 J/s. The
209. Repeated same as Q. No. 183
number of photons received per second is
(A) 2.5 × 1011 (B) 3.0 × 1032
(C) 2.5 × 1018 (D) 2.5 × 109 210. Repeated same as Q. No. 184

201. As its closest approach, the distance between the 211. Repeated same as Q. No. 185
Mars and the Earth is found to be 60 million km.
When the planets are at this closest distance, how 212. Repeated same as Q. No. 186
long would it take to send a radio message from a
space probe sent to Mars from Earth? 213. Repeated same as Q. No. 187
(A) 5 s (B) 200 s
(C) 0.2 s (D) 20 s 214. How many photons of light having a wavelength of
5000 Å are necessary to provide 1 joule of energy.
202. The frequency of yellow light having wavelength (A) 2.8 × 1018 photons
600 nm is (B) 2.5 × 1017 photons
(A) 5.0 × 1014 Hz (B) 2.5 × 107 Hz (C) 2.5 × 1018 photons
7
(C) 5.0 × 10 Hz (D) 2.5 × 1014 Hz (D) 2.6 × 1014 photons

203. The Vivid Bharti Station of All India Radio 215. A photon of 300 nm is absorbed by a gas and then
broadcast on a frequency of 1368 KHz. Calculate it-emits two photons. One emitted photon has
the wavelength of the Electromagnetic waves wavelength 500 nm. Calculate energy of other
emitted by the transmitter. photon emitted out.
(A) 219.3 m (B) 210 m (A) 2.65 × 10 14 Joule
(C) 140 m (D) 200 m (B) 2.65 × 10 -19 Joule
(C) 9.26 × 10 -12 Joule
204. Calculate the frequency of yellow radiations have (D) can`t be determined
wavelength of 5800 Å
(A) 5.1 × 1014 s–1 (B) 2.5 × 107 s–1 216. Find out the number of photons emitted by a 60 watt
(C) 4.8 × 1010 s–1 (D) 2.0 × 1014 s–1 bulb in one minute, if wavelength of an emitted
photon is 620 nm
(A) 1.125 × 1022 (B) 7 × 1022
(C) 1.125 × 1020 (D) 2.1 × 1015
 14

217. A particular radiostation broadcast at a frequency of 222. Repeated same as Q. No. 172
1120 Kilo Hertz another radio station broadcast at a
frequency of 98.7 mega Hertz. What are the 223. Repeated same as Q. No. 174
wavelength of radiations from each station
respectively. 224. Wavelength of photon having energy 1 eV would be
(A) 267.86 m, 3.04 m (B) 252.86 m, 3.04 m (A) 1.24 × 10–4 m (B) 1.24 × 10–6 m
(C) 142.58 m, 4.03 m (D) 200 m, 30 m (C) 1.24 × 10–5 m (D) 1.24 × 104 m
225. A green bulb and a red bulb arc emitting the
218. Calculate the energy of a photon of sodium light of radiations with equal power. The correct relation
wavelength 5.862 × 10–16 m in Joules. between numbers of photons emitted by the bulbs
(A) 2.9 × 10–10 J (B) 3.38 × 10–10 J per second is
(C) 4.65 × 10–10 J (D) 2.52 × 1016 J (A) ng = nr (B) ng < nr
(C) ng > nr (D) unpredictable
219. One quanta is absorbed per gaseous molecule of Br2
for converting into Br atoms. If light absorbed has 226. Wavelength of photon which have energy equal to
wavelength 5000 Å, calculate energy required in average of energy of photons with 1 = 4000 Å and
kJ/mol 2 = 6000Å will be
(A) 250 kJ/mol (B) 293.4 kJ/mol (A) 5000 Å (B) 4800 Å
(C) 320 kJ/mol (D) 239.4 kJ/mol (C) 9600 Å (D) 2400 Å
220. How many photons are emitted per second
by a 5 mW laser operating at 620 nm?
(A) 5.3 × 1016 (B) 1.56 × 1016
19
(C) 1.56 × 10 (D) 2.52 × 1016

221. A radio station emits the radiations of 400 kHz. The

metre band of station is
(A) 400 (B) 750
(C) 1333.33 (D) 7.5

Photoelectric Effect, Dual Behaviour of Electromagnetic Radiation

227. The threshold frequency for the ejection of electrons 229. The threshold frequency n0 for a metal is 6 × 1014 s–1.
from potassium metal is 5.3 × 1014 s–1. Will the Calculate the kinetic energy of an electron emitted
photon of a radiation having energy 3.3 × 10–19 J when radiation of frequency n = 1.1 × 1015 s–1 hits
exhibit photoelectric effect? (h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js). the metal.
(A) Occur (B) Not occur (A) 3.313 × 10–19 J
(C) CND (D) Both A and B (B) 2 .13 × 10–19 J
(C) 5.53 × 10–19 J
228. Light of wavelength λ falls on metal having work (D) 3.313 × 10–14 J
function hc/λ0 Photoelectric effect will take place
only if
(A)   30 (B)   20
0
(C)   0 (D) 
2
 15

230. Which of the following is an incorrect graphical 233. A photon of wavelength 3000 Å strikes a metal
representation based on photoelectric effect? surface, the work function of the metal being 2.20
eV. Calculate the kinetic energy of the emitted
photo electron
(A) (A) 3.08 × 10–19 J (B) 3.08 × 10 J
–19
(C) 2 × 10 J (D) 3.08 × 1020 J

234. The number of electrons ejected from the metal

surface after a light wave of certain minimum
frequency strikes on the metal surface is
proportional to the
(B)
(A) Frequency of light
(B) Brightness of light
(C) Velocity of light
(D) Wavelength of light

235. When the frequency of the incident radiation on a

(C) metallic plate is doubled, KE of the photoelectrons
will be
(A) Doubled
(B) Halved
(C) More than doubled
(D) Increases but less than doubled

236. Photoelectric emission is observed from a metal

surface with incident frequencies v1 and v2 where
(D)
v1 > v2. If the kinetic energies of the photoelectrons
emitted in the two cases are in the ratio 2 : 1, then
the threshold frequency v0 of the metal is
v1  v2
(A) v1  v2 (B)
231. When certain metal was irradiated with light h
frequency 0.4 ×1013 Hz the photo electrons emitted (C) 2v1  v2 (D) 2v2  v1
had twice the kinetic energy as did photo electrons
237. In the emission of photoelectrons, the number of
emitted when the same metal was irradiated with photoelectrons emitted per unit time depends upon
light frequency 1.0 ×1013 Hz. Calculate threshold (A) energy of the incident radiation
frequency (v0) for the metal. (B) intensity of the incident radiation
(A) 1.6 × 1010 Hz (B) 1.6 ×10–13 Hz (C) frequency of the incident radiation
(D) wavelength of the incident radiation
(C) 1.6 × 1013 Hz (D) none of these
238. In order to increase the kinetic energy of ejected
232. The work function for a metal is 4 eV. To emit a photoelectrons, there should be an increase in
photo-electron of zero velocity from the surface of (A) intensity of radiation
the metal, the wavelength of incident light should be (B) Wavelength of radiation
(A) 2700 Å (B) 1700 Å (C) Frequency of radiation
(D) Both wavelength and intensity of radiation
(C) 5900 Å (D) 3100 Å
 16

239. The work-function for photoelectric effect: 254. Photoelectrons are liberated by ultra-violet light of
(A) Depends upon the frequency of incident light wavelength 2000 Å from a metallic surface for
(B) Is same for all metals which the photoelectric threshold is 4000 Å.
(C) Is different for different metals
Calculate maximum kinetic energy of electrons
(D) None of these
emitted with
240. The threshold wavelength for ejection of electrons (A) 4.969 × 10-19 J (B) 2 × 10-19 J
from a metal is 330 nm. The work function for the
photoelectric emission from the metal is (C) 4.969 × 10-9J (D) none of these
(h = 6.6 × 10–34 J-s) 255. Repeated same as Q. No. 231
(A) 1.2 × 10–18 J (B) 6.0 × 10–19 J
(C) 1.2 × 10–12 J (D) 6.0 × 10–12 J 256. Repeated same as Q. No. 232

241. Repeated same as Q. No. 234

257. The energy required to remove an electron from
metal X is 3.31 × 10 –20 J. Calculate the maximum
242. Repeated same as Q. No. 230
wavelength of light that can photo eject an electron
from metal X
243. A 600 W mercury lamp emits monochromatic
radiation of wavelength 331.3 nm. How many (A) 40 µm (B) 6 µm
photons are emitted from the lamp per second? (C) 7 µm (D) 5 µm
(h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js, velocity of light = 3 × 108 ms–1)
(A) 1 × 1019 (B) 1 × 1020 258. Repeated same as Q. No. 233
21
(C) 1 × 10 (D) 1 × 1023
259. Repeated same as Q. No. 229
244. Repeated same as Q. No. 235
260. Repeated same as Q. No. 227
245. Repeated same as Q. No. 236
261. Repeated same as Q. No. 237
246. Repeated same as Q. No. 237
262. Radiations of frequency, v, are incident on a
247. Repeated same as Q. No. 238
photosensitive metal. The maximum kinetic energy
248. Repeated same as Q. No. 239 of photoelectrons is E. When the frequency of the
incident radiations is doubled, what is the maximum
249. In photoelectric effect the number of photo- kinetic energy of the photoelectrons?
electrons emitted is proportional to: (A) 2E (B) E/2
(A) Intensity of incident beam
(C) E + hv (D) E – hv
(B) Frequency of incident beam
(C) Velocity of incident beam
(D) Work function of photo-cathode 263. Repeated same as Q. No. 238
250. Repeated same as Q. No. 240
264. Repeated same as Q. No. 240
251. Repeated same as Q. No. 229
1987.8
265. A bulb emits light of wavelength nm.
7
252. Repeated same as Q. No. 228
The bulb is rated as 200 W and 14% of the energy is
emitted as light. How many photons are emitted by
253. Repeated same as Q. No. 181 the bulb per second?
(A) 1.2 × 1021 (B) 4 × 1010
11
(C) 1.33 × 10 (D) 4 × 1019
 17

266. Light of wavelength , strikes a metal surface with 268. If 0 is the threshold wavelength for photoelectric
intensity X and the metal emits Y electrons per emission from a metal surface,  is the wavelength
second of maximum kinetic energy Z. What will of light falling on the surface of metal and m is the
happen to Y and Z if X is halved? mass of electron, then the maximum speed of
(A) Y will be halved and Z will be doubled ejected electrons is given by
(B) Y will be doubled and Z will be halved  2h 
1/ 2
 2hc 
1/ 2

(C) Y will be halved and Z will remain the same (A)  m ( 0   )  (B)  m ( 0   ) 
   
(D) Y will remain same and Z will be 1/2 1/2
 2hc   0      2h  1 1  
(C)    (D)    
 m   0     m   0   
267. Photoelectric emission is observed from a metal
surface for frequencies v1, and v2 of the incident
radiation (v1 > v2). If maximum kinetic energies of
the photoelectrons in the two cases are in the ratio 1
: K, then the threshold frequency for the metal is
given by
v2  v1 Kv2  v1
(A) (B)
K 1 K 1
Kv1  v2 Kv1  v2
(C) (D)
K K 1

Atomic Spectra

269. Electronic transition in He+ ion takes from n2 to n1

shell such that: 273. For the same electronic transition in the following
2n2  3n1  18 atom or ion, the frequency of the emitted radiation
2n2  3n1  6 will be maximum for
(A) H–atom
What will be the total number of photons emitted
(B) D – atom
when electrons transit to n1 shell
(C) He+ ion
(A) 21 (B) 15
(D) Li2+ ion
(C) 20 (D) 10
274. The number of possible spectral lines in Brackett
270. Which of the following electron transitions in a
series in hydrogen spectrum, when the electrons
hydrogen atom will require the largest amount of
present in the ninth excited state return to the
energy?
ground state, is
(A) From n =1 to n = 2
(A) 36 (B) 45
(B) From n = 2 to n = 4
(C) 5 (D) 6
(C) From n = 5 to n = 1
(D) From n = 3 to n = 5
275. Find the value of wave number ( v ) in terms of
271. What is the shortest wavelength line in the Paschen Rydberg’s constant, when transition of electron
series of Li2+ ion? takes place between two levels of He+ ion whose
sum is 4 and difference is 2.
R 9
(A) (B) 8R 32R
9 R (A) (B)
9 9
1 9R
(C) (D) 3R
R 4 (C) (D) None of these
4
272. Line spectra is characteristic of:
(A) Molecules (B) Atoms
(C) Radicals (D) None of these
 18

276. The emission spectrum of hydrogen is found to 784R 33

(C) (D)
satisfy the expression for the energy change. ΔE (in 33 784R
 1 284. The wavelength of a spectral line emitted by
1 
joules) such that E  2.18  1018  2  2  J 16
n 
 1 n2  hydrogen atom in the Lyman Series is cm.
15R
where n1 = 1, 2, 3…… and n2 = 2, 3, 4…….. The What is the value of n2? (R = Rydberg constant)
spectral lines correspond to Paschen series to
(A) n1 = 1 and n2 = 2, 3, 4 285. The wave number of the spectral line in the
(B) n1 = 3 and n2 = 4, 5, 6 emission spectrum of hydrogen will be equal to 8/9
times the rydberg constant if the electron jumps
(C) n1 = 1 and n2 = 3, 4, 5
from:
(D) n1 = 2 and n2 = 3, 3, 5 (A) n = 3 to n = 1 (B) n = 10 to n = 1
(C) n = 9 to n = 1 (D) n = 2 to n = 1
277. The shortest wavelength in H spectrum of Lyman
series when RH = 109678 cm–1 is. 286. the energy difference will be minimum of which of
(A) 1002.7 Å (B) 1215.67 Å the following energy levels of H – atoms?
(A) n = 2 and n = 3 (B) n = 3 and n = 4
(C) 1127.30 Å (D) 911.7 Å
(C) n = 1 and n = 2 (D) n = 1 and n = 4

278. No. of visible lines when an electron returns from 287. Repeat Same as Q.No. 269
5th orbit to ground state in H spectrum
288. Repeat same as on Q.No. 275
279. In hydrogen spectrum which of the following lies in
the wavelength range 350 –700 nm?
(A) Balmer series (B) Lyman series 289. What is the shortest wavelength line in the Paschen
(C) Brackett series (D) Paschen series series of Li2+ ion?
R 9
280. Transition of an electron from n = 3 to n = 1 level (A) (B)
9 R
results in
1 9R
(A) Emission spectrum (B) Band spectrum (C) (D)
R 4
(C) Infrared spectrum (D) X-ray spectrum

290. What is the maximum wavelength line in the Lyman

281. What is the lowest energy of the spectral line
series of He+ ion?
emitted by the hydrogen atom in the Lyman series?
1
5hR H c 4hR H c (A) 3R (B)
(A) (B) 3R
36 3
4
3hR H c 7Rh (C) (D) None of these
(C) (D) 4R
4 144
291. Which of the following electron transitions in a
282. In a sample of H-atom electrons make transition hydrogen atom will require the largest amount of
from 5th excited state to ground state, producing all energy?
possible types of photons, then number of lines in (A) From n =1 to n = 2
infrared region are (B) From n = 2 ton = 4
283. Calculate wavelength of 3rd line of Brackett series (C) From n = 5 to n = 1
in hydrogen spectrum (D) From n = 3 to n = 5
784 33R
(A) (B)
33R 784 292. Line spectra is characteristic of:
(A) Molecules (B) Atoms
 19

(C) Radicals (D) None of these

293. The spectrum produced from an element is:

(A) Atomic spectrum
(B) Line spectrum
(C) Absorption spectrum
(D) Any one of the above

294. Repeat same as on Q.No. 273

295. An electron jumps from the fourth orbit to the first

orbit in a H-atom. The number of photons liberated
out will be
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 6

296. Repeat Same as Q.No. 274

297. As the number of orbit increase from the nucleus,

the difference between the adjacent energy levels:
(A) Increases (B) Remains constant
(C) Decreases (D) None of these

298. In H-atom, wave number ratio is 108:7 is for

(A) first Lyman and first Balmer transition
(B) first Lyman and first Brackett transition
(C) first Lyman and first Paschen transition
(D) first Lyman and second Balmer transition

299. When electron jumps from the fourth orbit to the

second orbit in He+ ion, the radiation emitted out
will fall in
(A) ultraviolet region
(B) visible region
(C) infrared region
(D) radio wave region

300. Repeated same as question no. 295

301. The wavelength of radiation emitted out in the

transition n = 4 to n = 1 in Li2+ ion is
135 R 16
(A) (B)
16 135 R
16 R 135
(C) (D)
135 16 R

302. What is the frequency of the second line of the

Paschen series in the spectrum of He+ ion?
64 R.C 64 R
(A) (B)
225 225
225 225 C
(C) (D)
64 R 64 R
 20

303. What is the wave number of the radiation of lowest

frequency in the Lyman series of the spectrum of 305. What transition in the hydrogen spectrum would
Li2+ ion? have the same wavelength as the Balmer transition n
4 27R = 4 to n = 2 of He+ spectrum?
(A) (B)
24 R 4 (A) n = 4 to n = 2 (B) n = 4 to n = 1
27RC 4C (C) n = 2 to n = 1 (D) n = 3 to n = 2
(C) (D)
4 27 R
306. Number of possible spectral lines in the brackett
304. The given diagram indicates the energy levels of a series in hydrogen spectrum, when electrons present
certain atom. When the system moves from 2E level in the ninth excited state return to the ground state,
to E level, a photon of wavelength  is emitted. The is
wavelength of the photon emitted during its (A) 36 (B) 45
transition from 4E/3 level to E level is (C) 5 (D) 6

307. The binding energy of an electron in the ground

state of hydrogen-like ions in whose spectrum, the
third line the Balmer series is equal to 108.5 nm, is
(A) 13.6 eV (B) 54.4 eV
(A) /3 (B) 3/4 (C) 122.4 eV (D) 14.4 eV
(C) 4/3 (D) 3
 21

Quantum mechanical Model of Atom

308. What possibly can be the ratio of the de-Broglie 314. The de Broglie wavelength of a tennis ball of mass 60 g
wavelengths for two electrons each having zero moving with a velocity of 10 m/s is approximately:
initial energy and accelerated through 50 volts and (Planck’s constant, h = 6 × 10–34 Js)
200 volts (A) 10–33 m (B) 10–31 m
(A) 3 : 10 (B) 10 : 3 (C) 10–16 m (D) 10–25 m
(C) 1 : 2 (D) 2 : 1
315. Calculate the wavelength (in nanometer) associated
309. The approximate wavelength associated with a with a proton moving at 1.0 × 103 ms–1. (Mass of
gold-ball weighing 200 g and moving at a speed of proton = 1.67 × 10–27 kg and h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js).
5 m/h is the order of: (A) 0.40 (B) 40.0
(A) 10–10 m (B) 10–20 m (C) 14.0 (D) 0.14
(C) 10–30 m (D) 10–40 m
316. For which of the following particles will it be most
difficult to experimentally verify the de Broglie
310. An -particle is accelerated through a potential relationship?
difference of V volts from rest. The de Broglie’s (A) A dust particle (B) An electron
wavelength associated with it is: (C) A proton (D) An -particle
150 0.286
(A) Å (B) Å
V V 317. Which of the following matter waves will have the
shortest wavelength, if travelling with same kinetic
0.101 0.983
(C) Å (D) Å energy?
V V
(A) Electron (B) -particle
(C) Neutron (D) Proton
311. If wavelength is equal to the distance travelled by
the electron in one second, then: 318. The de Broglie equation suggests that an electron has
h h (A) Particle nature
(A)   (B)  
p m (B) Wave nature
(C) Particle-wave nature
h h
(C)   (D)   (D) Radiation behaviour
p m
319. Which of the following has least De broglie 
312. A particle X moving with a certain velocity has a de (A) electron (B) proton
Broglie wavelength of 1 Å. If particle Y has a mass (C) CO2 (D) SO2
of 25% that of X and velocity 75% that of X, de
Broglie wavelength of Y will be: 320. A helium molecule is moving with a velocity of
(A) 3 Å (B) 5.33 Å 2.40 × 102 ms–1 at 300 K. The De-broglie
(C) 6.88 Å (D) 48 Å wavelength is about
(A) 0.416 nm (B) 0.83 nm
313. De Broglie wavelength of an electron after being (C) 803 Å (D) 8000 Å
accelerated by a potential difference of V volt from
rest is: 321. In H-atom, if ‘x’ is the radius of the first Bohr orbit,
de Broglie wavelength of an electron in 3rd orbit is
12.3 12.3
(A)   Å (B)   Å (A) 3x (B) 6x
h V
9x x
12.3 12.3 (C) (D)
(C)   Å (D)   Å 2 2
E m
 22

322. The wavelength of a charged particle _____ the 329. A microscope using suitable photons is employed to
square root of the potential difference through locate an electron in an atom within a distance of
which it is accelerated. 0.1Å. What is the uncertainty involved in the
(A) is inversely proportional to measurement of its velocity?
(B) is directly proportional to (A) 2.69 × 106ms–1
(C) is independent of (B) 5.79 × l05ms–1
(D) is unrelated with
(C) 5.79 × 106ms–1
(D) 4.62 × 106ms–1
323. Which of the following should be the wavelength of
an electron its mass is 9.1 × 10–31 kg and its velocity
1/10 of that of light and the value of h is 6.6252 × 330. The uncertainty in position and velocity of a particle
10–34 joule second? are 10–10 m and 5.27 × 10–24 ms–1 respectively.
(A) 2.446 × 10–7 metre Calculate the mass of the particle (h = 6.625 × 10–34
(B) 2.246 × 10–9 metre Joule sec.)
(C) 2.435 × 10–11 metre (A) 0.099 Kg
(D) 2.246 × 10–13 metre (B) 0.089 Kg
(C) 0.99Kg
324. What is the de-Broglie wavelength associated with (D) None of these
the hydrogen electron in its third orbit
(A) 9.96 × 10–10 cm (B) 9.96 × 10–8 cm 331. If the uncertainty in position of a moving particle is
(C) 9.96 × 104 cm (D) 9.96 × 108 cm 0 then find out ΔP
(A) 0 (B) 1
325. If the velocity of hydrogen molecule is 5 × 104 cm (C) Infinite (D) None of these
o
sec–1, then its de-Broglie wavelength in ( A ) is 332. The Uncertainty in the momentum of an electron is
1.0 × 10–5 kg ms–1. The Uncertainty in its position
326. A cricket ball of 0.5 kg is moving with a velocity of will be: (h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js)
100 m/sec. The wavelength associated with its
(A) 1.05 × 10–28m
motion is
(B) 1.05 × 10–26 m
(A) 1/100 cm (B) 6.6 × 10–34 m
(C) 5.27 × 10–30m
(C) 1.32 × 10–35 m (D) 6.6 × 10–28 m
(D) 5.25 × 10–28 m

327. The uncertainty in the positions of an electron and

333. Calculate the uncertainty in velocity of a cricket ball
proton is equal, the ratio of the uncertainties in the
of mass 150 g if the uncertainty in its position is of
velocity of an electron and proton is
the order of 1 Å (h = 6.6 × 10–34 Kg m2s–1)
(A) 103 : 1 (B) 1 : 1838
(A) 3.499 × 10–24ms–1
(C) 3672 :1 (D) 1836 :1
(B) 3.499 × 10–21ms–1
328. A golf ball has a mass of 40g, and a speed of 45ms–1. (C) 3.499 × 10–20ms–1
If the speed can be measured with in accuracy of (D) 3.499 × 1021 ms–1
2%, calculate the uncertainty in the position.
(A) 2.52 × 10–33 m 334. The uncertainty in measuring the speed of a particle
(B) 3.02 × 10–33 m is zero. Uncertainty in measuring its position will be
(C) 1.46 × 10–33 m
h
(A) Zero (B)
4
(D) 0.82 × 10–33 m
h
(C) (D) infinite
4m
 23

335. Uncertainty in measuring the speed of a particle is 341. If an electron is travelling at 200 m/s within 1 m/s
numerically equal to the uncertainty in measuring its uncertainty, what is the theoretical uncertainty in its
position. The value of these uncertainties will be position in m (micrometer)?
h
(A) Equal to
4m 342. Which of the following orbital is the complete wave
h function represented by 410 ?
(B) Less than (A) 4s (B) 3p
4m
(C) 4p (D) 4d
h
(C) Greater than
4m 343. Which one of the following expressions represent
(D) Both (A) or (C) the electron probability function (D)?

336. If uncertainty in position and momentum of a (A) 4r dr2 (B) 4r 2 dr 
particle is numerically equal, then the minimum (C) 4r 2 dr 2 (D) 4r dr 
uncertainty in speed of the particle should be

(A)
h
(B)
1 h 344. Which orbital is represented by 4,2,0
2 2m 
(A) 4d (B) 3d
h 1 h (C) 4p (D) 4s
(C) (D)
 m 
345. Which of the following is the correct form of
–10
337. The mass of a particle is 10 g and its diameter is Schrodinger wave equation?
10–4 cm. If its speed is 10–6 cm/s with 0.0001%  2  2  2 162 m
uncertainty in measurement, the minimum (A)    E V   0
2 x 2 y 2 z h2
uncertainty in its position is
(A) 5.28 × 10–8 m (B) 5.28 × 10–7m  2  2  2 82 m
(B)    E V   0
(C) 5.28 × 10–6m (D) 5.28 × 10–9m x 2 y 2 z 2 h2
 2  2  2 4 2 m
338. Uncertainty in the position of an electron (C)     E V   0
(mass = 9.1 × 10–31 kg) moving with a velocity 300 x 2 y 2 z 2 h2
m/s accurate up to 0.001% will be  2  2  2 82 m2
(A) 5.76 × 10–3m (B) 1.92 × 10–2m (D)    E V   0
–3
x 2 y 2 z 2 h2
(C) 3.84 × 10 m (D) 19.2 × 10–4m
346. Same as 342
339. Which of the following is the most correct
expression
for Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle? 347. Number of nodal surface in 5s orbital is
h (A) 5 (B) 4
(A) x.p  (C) 3 (D) 0
4
h
(B) x.p  348. The orbital having two nodal surfaces is:
4
(A) 1s (B) 2s
h
(C) x.p  (C) 3s (D) 2p
4
h
(D) x.v  349. Which of the following orbitals has two spherical
4 nodes?
(A) 2s (B) 4s
340. The Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle can be (C) 3d (D) 6f
applied to
(A) A cricket ball (B) A foot ball
(C) A jet aeroplane (D) An electron
 24

350. Which orbital has only positive values of wave 354. The circumference of the third orbit of He+ ion is x
function at all distances from the nucleus: m. The de-Broglie wavelength of electron revolving
(A) 1s (B) 2s in this orbit will be
𝑥
(C) 2p (D) 3d (A) 3 m (B) 3x m
𝑥
(C) m (D) 9x m
351. The set of quantum numbers, n = 2, l = 2, ml = 0: 9

(A) Describes an electron in a 2s orbital

(B) Describes one of the five orbitals of a similar 355. The momentum of a photon of wavelength 6626 nm
type will be
(C) Describes an electron in a 2p orbital (A) 10–28 kg ms–1 (B) 10–25 kg ms–1
(D) Is not allowed (C) 10–31 kg m–1 (D) zero

352. The mass of an electron is m, charge is e and it is 356. Repeat same as on Q.No. 334
accelerated from rest through a potential difference
of V volts. The velocity acquired by electron will 357. Repeat same as on Q.No. 335
be:
V eV
358. Repeat same as on Q.No. 336
(A) (B)
m m
359. Repeat same as on Q.No. 337
2eV
(C) (D) zero
m
360. Repeat same as on Q.No. 338

353. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of electron and

361. Which orbital is represented by the complete wave
proton moving with the same speed is about
function, 410?
(A) 1836 : 1 (B) 1 : 1836
(C) 1 : 1 (D) 1 : 2 (A) 4s (B) 3p
(C) 4p (D) 4d

Orbitals and Quantum Numbers

362. Number of nodal surface in 5s orbital is….. 368. Which of the following radial distribution graphs
corresponds to l = 2 for H atom for the least value
363. Repeat same as on Q.No. 348 of n for which l = 2 is allowed?

364. Angular and spherical nodes in 3s

(A) 1, 1 (B) 1, 0
(C) 2, 0 (D) 0, 2 (A)

365. In H-atom energy of electron is determined by

(A) only n (B) 𝑛, 𝑙
(C) 𝑛, 𝑙, 𝑚
(D) All the four-quantum number
(B)
366. Which of the d-orbital lies in the xy plane
(1) dyz (2) dxz
2 2
(3) dx – y (4) dz2

367. Repeat same as on Q.No. 350

(C)
 25

376. An electron has principal quantum number 3. The

number of its (i) subshells and (ii) orbitals would
be respectively:
(D) (A) 3 and 5 (B) 3 and 7
(C) 3 and 9 (D) 2 and 5

377. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell of an

369. Wave function of an orbital is plotted against the atom is determined by the following:
distance from nucleus. The graphical (A) 2n2 (B) 4l + 2
representation is of: (C) 2l + 1 (D) 4l – 2

378. Which one of the following set of quantum

numbers is not possible for electron in the ground
state of an atom with atomic number 19?
(A) n = 2, l = 0, m = 0
(B) n = 2, l = l, m = 0
(A) 1s (B) 2s (C) n = 3, l = l. m = –1
(C) 3s (D) 2p (D) n = 3, l = 2, m = +2

370. A subshell 𝑛 = 5, 𝑙 =3 can accommodate 379. In order to designate an orbital in an atom, the
(A) 10 electrons (B) 14 electrons number of quantum number required are
(C) 18 electrons (D) None of these
380. For a given value of azimuthal quantum number 𝑙,
371. Consider the argon atom. For how many electrons the total number of values for the magnetic
does this atom have ml = +1? quantum number 𝑚 are given by:
(A) 1 (B) 6 (A) 𝑙 + 1 (B) 2𝑙 + 1
(C) 4 (D) 2 (C) 2𝑙 + 2 (D) 𝑙 + 2

372. Repeat same as on Q.No. 351 381. What is the maximum number of electrons in an
atom that can have the following quantum
373. The minimum angular momentum of an electron numbers 𝑛 = 4, 𝑚𝑙 = +1
with the magnetic quantum numbers –1, 0, +1
3h h 382. The maximum number of atomic orbitals
(A) (B)
2  associated with a principal quantum number 5
2h 3h is….
(C) (D)
 2
383. Which one of the following is the set of correct
374. The values of four quantum numbers of valence quantum numbers of an electron in 3𝑑 orbital?
electron of an element X is n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = (A) 𝑛 = 3, 𝑙 = 0, 𝑚 = 0, 𝑠 = −1/2
1 (B) 𝑛 = 2, 𝑙 = 3, 𝑚 = 0, 𝑠 = +1/2
. The element is
2 (C) 𝑛 = 3, 𝑙 = 1, 𝑚 = 0, 𝑠 = −1/2
(A) K (B) Ti (D) 𝑛 = 3, 𝑙 = 2, 𝑚 = 1, 𝑠 = +1/2
(C) Na (D) Sc
384. The quantum levels upto 𝑛 = 3 has:
375. Two electrons in the same orbital may be (A) 𝑠 and 𝑝-levels
identified with: (B) 𝑠, 𝑝, 𝑑, 𝑓-levels
(A) n (B) l (C) 𝑠, 𝑝, 𝑑-levels
(C) m (D) s (D) s – levels
 26

385. The orientation of an atomic orbital is governed 391. If there are three possible values (–1/2, 0, +1/2)
by: for the spin quantum number, then the maximum
(A) Magnetic quantum number capacity of second orbit will become
(B) Principal quantum number (A) 8 Electrons (B) 6 Electrons
(C) Azimuthal quantum number (C) 12 Electrons (D) 27 Electrons
(D) Spin quantum number
392. The electrons identified by quantum numbers n
and l,
386. The angular momentum of an electron in 2 𝑝-
(i) n = 4, l = 1 (ii) n = 4, l = 0
orbital is:
(iii) n = 3, l = 2 (iv) n = 3, l = 1
h h can be placed in the order of increasing energy
(A) (B)
2 2 from the lowest to highest, as
2h (A) iv < ii < iii < i (B) ii < iv < i < iii
(C) (D) None of these (C) i < iii < ii < iv (D) iii < i < iv < iii


393. Which quantum number differs for the two

387. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers
electrons present in K-shell of an atom?
is correct for an electron in 4𝑓-orbital?
(A) Principal quantum number
1 (B) Azimuthal quantum number
(A) 𝑛 = 3, 𝑙 = 2, 𝑚 = −2, 𝑠 = +
2 (C) Magnetic quantum number
1 (D) Spin quantum number
(B) 𝑛 = 4, 𝑙 = 4, 𝑚 = −4, 𝑠 = –
2
1 394. Repeat same as on Q.No. 369
(C) 𝑛 = 4, 𝑙 = 3, 𝑚 = +1, 𝑠 = +
2
395. A subshell n = 5, l = 3 can accommodate:
1 (A) 10 electrons
(D) 𝑛 = 4, 𝑙 = 3, 𝑚 = +4, 𝑠 = +
2 (B) 14 electrons
(C) 18 electrons
388. The number of waves in an orbit are (D) None of these
(A) n2 (B) n
(C) n – 1 (D) n – 2 396. In H-atom energy of electron is determined by
(A) only n
(B) n, l
389. Which one of the following sets of quantum
(C) n, l, m
numbers represents the highest energy level in an
(D) All the four quantum number.
atom?
1 397. Maximum electron(s) in an atom having
(A) 𝑛 = 4, 𝑙 = 0, 𝑚 = 0, 𝑠 = +
2 n = 3, l = 2?
1 (A) 1 (B) 2
(B) 𝑛 = 3, 𝑙 = 1, 𝑚 = 1, 𝑠 = + (C) 5 (D) 10
2
1 398. How many electrons in an atom can have n = 4, l
(C) 𝑛 = 3, 𝑙 = 2, 𝑚 = −2, 𝑠 = + 1
2 = 2, m = –2 and s   ?
2
1
(D) 𝑛 = 3, 𝑙 = 0, 𝑚 = 0, 𝑠 = + (A) 1 (B) 2
2 (C) 5 (D) 10

390. The total number of orbitals for (n + l) = 4 is 399. Not considering the electron spin, the degeneracy
(A) 4 (B) 16 of first excited state (n = 2) of H-atom is:
(C) 32 (D) 9 (A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 8
 27

409. Arrange the following orbitals of H-atom in the

400. Repeat same as on Q.No. 249 increasing order of their energy.
3px, 2s, 4dxy, 3s, 4pz, 3py, 4s
401. The energy of different orbitals in an atom or ion (A) 2s < 3s = 3px = 3py < 4s = 4pz = 4dxy
having only one electron, depends on (B) 2s < 3s < 3px = 3py < 4s = 4pz = 4dxy
(A) n only (B) n and l only (C) 2s < 3s < 3px = 3py < 4s = 4pz = 4dxy
(C) n, l and m only (D) n, l, m and s (D) 2s < 3s = 3px = 3py < 4s < 4pz < 4dxy
402. The size of an orbital is given by
410. Which two orbitals are located along the axis, and
(A) principal quantum number
not between the axis?
(B) azimuthal quantum number
(C) magnetic quantum number (A) dxy ,dz2 (B) dxy, pz
(D) spin quantum number (C) dyz, px (D) p z ,d x 2  y2

403. The types and number of orbitals belonging from

the fifth orbit are, respectively, 411. For which of the following sets of quantum
(A) 5, 25 (B) 25, 5 numbers, an electron will have the highest energy?
(C) 4, 16 (D) 5, 5 n l m s
(A) 3 2 1 –1/2
404. Two electrons in the same orbital can be (B) 4 3 –1 +1/2
distinguished by (C) 4 1 –1 +1/2
(A) n (B) l (D) 5 0 0 –1/2
(C) m (D) s
412. Which of the following statements concerning the
405. The orbital angular momentum of an electron is 2s four quantum numbers is false?
orbital is
(A) n gives idea of the size of an orbital
1 h
(A)   (B) 0 (B) l gives the shape of an orbital
2 2 (C) m gives the energy of the electron in the
h h orbital
(C) (D) 2
2 2 (D) s gives the direction of spin of the electron
in an orbital
406. The orbital angular momentum of a 4p electron
will be
413. The orbital angular momentum of 3p electron is :
h h
(A) 4. (B) 2. (A) 3h
2 2
h h (B) 6h
(C) 6. (D) 2.
2 4 (C) zero
407. The number of nodal planes in 2px orbital is h
(A) zero (B) 1 (D) 2
2
(C) 2 (D) infinite
414. When the value of azimuthal quantum number is
408. The number of radial nodes of 3s, 3p and 3d 3, the maximum and minimum values of spin
electrons are, respectively, multiplicity are
(A) 0, 1, 2 (A) 1, 8 (B) 8, 1
(B) 2, 1, 0 (C) 6, 1 (D) 7, 0
(C) 2, 2, 2
(D) 1, 3, 5 415. The number of orbitals having (n + l) < 5 is
(A) 9 (B) 8
(C) 4 (D) 10
 28

416. The total number of orbital for (n + l) = 4 is 419. Repeat same as on Q.No. 393
(A) 4 (B) 16 420. Correct set of four quantum numbers for the
(C) 32 (D) 9 valence electron of rubidium (Z = 37) is
(A) 5, 0, 0, +1/2 (B) 5, 1, 0, +1/2
417. Repeat same as on Q.No. 391 (C) 5, 1, 1, +1/2 (D) 6, 0, 0, +1/2

418. If the numbers of orbitals of a particular type were 421. Correct set of quantum numbers defining the
(3l + 1), but spin quantum numbers were only highest energy electron in scandium (I) ion is
+1/2 and –1/2, then d-type orbitals will contain a (A) n = 3, l = 1, m = 0, s = –1/2
maximum of _____ electrons (B) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = –1/2
(A) 10 (B) 14 (C) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2
(C) 7 (D) 5 (D) n = 3, l = 2, m = 2, s = +1/2

Filling of Orbitals in Atom

422. Pauli’s exclusion principle states that

(A) Pairing of electrons does not occur in
orbitals of the same subshell until each of
them is first singly occupied.
(D) The value of m for d is zero.
(B) Orbitals are filled in order of their z2

increasing energy.
(C) No two electrons in an atom can have the 426. If the electronic structure of the oxygen atom is
same set of four quantum numbers
(D) None of these. written as 1s2, 2s2 it would violate
(A) Uncertainty principle
423. The electrons would go to lower energy levels (B) Pauli's exclusion principle
first and then to higher energy levels according to (C) Hund’s rule
which of the following (D) Aufbau principle.
(A) Aufbau principle 427. In potassium the order of energy level for 19th
(B) Pauli’s exclusion principle electrons?
(C) Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity (A) 3s > 3d (B) 4s < 3d
(C) 4s > 4p (D) 4s = 3d
(D) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
428. The representation of the ground state electronic
424. The orbital diagram in which the Aufbau principle
is violated configuration of He by box-diagram as  is
wrong because it violates
(A) (B) (A) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
(B) Bohr 's quantization theory of angular
(C) (D) momenta
(C) Pauli's exclusion principle
(D) Hund's rule.
425. Which one is a wrong statement?
(A) total orbital angular momentum of electron 429. In a set of degenerate orbitals, the electrons
in s-orbital is equal to zero. distribute themselves to retain similar spins as far
(B) An orbital is designated by three quantum as possible. This statement is attributed to:
numbers while an electron in an atom is (A) Pauli’s exclusion principle
designated by four quantum number. (B) Aufbau principles
(C) Hund’s Rule
(D) Slater rule
(C) The electron configuration of N atom is
 29

432. Which of the following configuration is violating

430. Which of the following rules could explain the Pauli’s exclusion principle?
presence of three unpaired electrons in N-atom?
(A) Hund’s rule
(B) aufbau’s principles
(A)
(C) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
(D) Paulis exclusion principle

431. Paulis exclusion principle states that: (B)

(A) nucleus of an atom contains no negative
charge
(B) electrons move in circular orbits around
(C)
nucleus
(D) (B) and (C)
(C) electrons occupy orbitals of lowest energy
(D) All the four quantum numbers of two
electrons in an atom cannot be equal. 433. The electrons, identified by quantum numbers n
and l,
(i) n = 4, l = 1 (ii) n = 4, l = 0
(iii) n = 3, l = 2 (iv) n = 3, l = 1
Can be placed in order of increasing energy, from
the lowest to highest, as
(A) iv < ii < iii < i (B) ii < iv < i < iii
(C) i < iii < ii < iv (D) iii < i < iv < ii

Electronic Configuration of Atoms

434. How many unpaired electrons are present in the 438. The electronic configurations of 24Cr and 29Cu are
ground state of chromium (Z=24)…. abnormal
(A) Due to extra stability of exactly half filled
435. Not considering the electron spin, the degeneracy and exactly fully filled sub shells
of first excited state (𝑛 = 2) of H atom is…… (B) Because they belong to d-block
(C) Both (A) & (B)
436. Which of the following has the maximum number (D) None of the above
of unpaired electrons?
(A) Mn 439. Which of the following electron configurations is
(B) Ti correct for copper, (atomic number 29)?
(C) V (A) [Ar] 3d10 4s1 (B) [Kr] 3d9 4s1
(D) Al (C) [Ar] 3d9 4s2 (D) [Kr] 3d10 4s1

437. The magnetic moment order is correctly given in 440. Which of the following electron configurations is
2 3 4 3
(A) Fe  Fe  Mn  Cr correct for iron, (atomic number 26)?
(A) [Kr]4s1 3d6 (B) [Kr]4s1 3d7
(B) Cr3  Mn 4  Fe2  Fe3
(C) [Ar]4s2 3d6 (D) [Kr]4s2 3d6
(C) Cr3  Mn 4  Fe3  Fe2 ]
(D) Fe2  Cr3  Fe3  Mn 4 441. Magnetic moment of X3+ ion of 3d series is 35
BM.
What is atomic number of X3+?
 30

442. Isobars have

(A) Same number of protons (C)
(B) Same number of neutrons
(C) Same number of nucleons
(D)
(D) Same number of electrons

450. Consider the argon atom. For how many electrons

443. Be2+ is isoelectronic with which of the following
does this atom have ml = 1?
ions?
(A) 1 (B) 6
(A) H+ (B) Li+
(C) 4 (D) 2
(C) Na+ (D) Mg2+
451. Repeat same as on Q.No. 440
444. Which of the following pairs represent isotones?
77 78 195 190
(A) 33 As, 34Se (B) 78 Pt, 76 Os 452. Repeat same as on Q.No. 439
108 112 178 137
(C) 47 Ag, 48 Cd (D) 72 Hf , 56 Ba
453. Same as 438
445. Chlorine exists in two isotopic forms, Cl-37 and
Cl-35 but its atomic mass is 35.5. This indicates 454. Which of the following has the maximum number
the ratio of Cl-37 and Cl-35 is approximately: of unpaired electrons?
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 1 (A) Mn (B) Ti
(C) 1 : 3 (D) 3 : 1 (C) V (D) Al

446. Which one of the following constitutes a group of 455. An atom have d8 configuration. The maximum
the isoelectronic species? number of electrons in the same spin is
(A) N2 ,O2 , NO ,CO (A) 5 (B) 3
(B) C22 ,O2 ,CO, NO (C) 8 (D) 2

(C) NO ,C22 ,CN  , N 2

456. How many unpaired electrons are present in

(D) CN , N2 ,O22 ,C22 ground state of chromium (Z = 24)?
(A) 1
447. Isodiaphers are atoms having (B) 5
(A) p/n constant (B) (p × n) constant (C) 6
(C) (n – p) constant (D) (n – p) different (D) 0

448. Which of the following pairs isodiaphers? 457. The charge on an electron is equal to:
24 23
(A) C14 23
6 and Na11 (B) Mg12 and Na11 (A) 1.6 × 10–19 C of –ve charge
(B) 2.6 × 10–19 C of –ve charge
(C) He42 and O16
8 (D) C12 15
6 and N7
(C) 1.6 × 10–22 C of –ve charge
(D) 1.6 × 10–23 C of –ve charge

449. Which of the following electronic configuration

458. Which among the following is an example
has maximum energy?
oftriatomic molecule?
(A) Ammonium hydroxide
(A) (B) Carbon-dioxide
(C) Helium
(B) (D) Hydrogen
 31

459. Sulphur has atomicity equals to 466. The electronic configuration of isotopes of an
(A) 4 (B) 8 element is _______.
(C) 10 (D) 1 (A) same (B) similar
(C) different (D) none of these
460. An example of polyatomic ion is:
(A) Sulphate (B) Iodide 467. The mass number A is given by _______ (Z is
(C) Sulphide (D) Nitride atomic number and N is number of neutrons)
(A) A = Z – N
461. Consider the following statements: (B) A = Z + N
I. Those particles which have more or (C) A = N – Z
lesselectrons than the normal atoms are (D) A = 2 (Z + N)
calledions.
II. A group of atoms that act as an ion is 468. An atom of ______ contains no neutrons.
knownas polyatomic ion. (A) Protium
State the correct statement/s: (B) deuterium
(A) II only (C) tritium
(B) II only (D) None of these
(C) Both I and II
(D) Neither I nor II 469. The difference between the number of neutrons
and the protons is positive for _______
462. What is the absolute charge of a proton? (A) hydrogen atom
(A) +1.602176 × 10–27 (B) deuterium atom
(B) –1.602176 × 10–19 (C) tritium atom
(C) +1.602176 × 10–19 (D) none of these
(D) –1.602176 × 10–27
470. An element with the atomic number equal to one,
463. The atoms of an element that have the same exists in three isotopes namely 1H1, 2H1 and 3H1.
number of protons and different numbers of Which of these has only one electron its outermost
neutrons are called _____ shell ?
(A) isotopes (A) 1H1
(B) isobars (B) 2H1
(C) isotones (C) 3H1
(D) isomers (D) all the three

464. Isotopers of en element have _____ atomic 471. In which isotope of oxygen out of O16, O17, and
number but _______ mass numbers. O18 there are the equal number of protons,
(A) same, same electrons and neutrons?
(B) different, same (A) O16
(C) same, different (B) O17
(D) different, different (C) O18
(D) none of these
465. ________ occupy the same place in the periodic
table. 472. Which isotope of chlorine out of 35Cl17 37Cl17 has a
(A) isobars greater number of neutrons than the protons?
(B) isotopes (A) 17Cl35
(C) isotones (B) 17Cl37
(D) none of these (C) neither of the two
(D) both
 32

473. The atoms that have the same mass number but 479. Which of the following pair represents isobars?
different atomic numbers are called _____ (A) 17O8 and 16O8
(A) isobars (B) 40K19 and 40Ca20
(B) isotopes (C) 15N7 and 16O8
(C) isotones (D) 235U92 and 238U92
(D) isomers
480. An isotone of 14C6 is _______
474. Which is true about the isobars? (A) 16O8
(A) they have the same mass number and same (B) 13C6
atomic number (C) 17O8
(B) they have the same mass number and (D) 16N7
different atomic number
(C) they have different mass numbers and same 481. Which of the following is isoelectronic with Cl-1?
atomic number (A) S2–
(D) they have different mass numbers and (B) P3–
different atomic number (C) K+
(D) All
475. Which of the following statements holds good for 482. Two nuclei A and B are isotonic with mass
40
Ar18, 40K19 and 40Ca20? numbers 15 and 16 respectively. If A contains 7
(A) they have equal number of protons and protons, then the number of protons in B would be
electrons ______
(B) they have equal number of protons and (A) 7
neutrons taken together (B) 8
(C) they have equal number of neutrons in their (C) 9
respective nuclei (D) 10
(D) none of the above
76
483. Ge32 is isotonic with ______
476. Atom that have different atomic numbers, and (A) 77Ge32 (B) 78As33
different mass number but the same number of (C) 78Ge32 (D) 77As33
neutrons are called ______.
(A) isotopes 484. Which of the following atoms contain the largest
(B) isobars number of neutrons?
(C) isotones (A) 210Bi83 (B) 208Bi83
(D) isomers (C) 209Pb84 (D) 208Pb84

477. Which of the following statement is true for 14C6, 485. U-235, Np-235 and Pu-235 are called:
15
N7 and 16O8? (A) isotopes
(A) they have equal number of protons (B) isotones
(B) they have equal number of electrons (C) isobars
(C) they have equal number of neutrons (D) none of these
(D) they have equal mass number
486. Which one of the following atoms is not isotonic
478. Which of the following pairs represents isotones? with rest of the others?
(A) 1H1 and 2H1 (A) C-13
(B) 40Ar18 and 40K19 (B) C-14
(C) 14C6 and 16O8 (C) O-16
(D) 20Ne10 and 23Na11 (D) N-15
 33

32
487. 16S and 15Pb31 are 494. An example of pain of isotopes is
(A) isotopes (A) 40 40
20 Ca and18 Ar
(B) isotones 40 24
(C) isobars (B) 20 Ca and12 Mg
(D) isomers 35 37
(C) 17 Cl and17 Cl
23 37
(D) 11 Na and17 Cl
488. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched
40 40
(A) Isotopes 20 Ca,19 K
30 31 32
(B) Isotones 14 Si,15 P,16 S
16 17 18
(C) Isobars 8 O,8 O,8 O
(D) Isoelectronic N–3, O–2, Cr+3

489. Which one of the following pairs are isoelectronic

and isotopic?
[Atomic number Ca = 20, Ar = 8, K = 19, Mg =
12, Fe = 26, Na = 11]
(A) 39K+ and 40K+
(B) 24Mg2+ and 25Mg
(C) 56Fe3+ and 57Fe2+
(D) 23Na and 24Na+

490. Which of the following are iso-electronic species?

(A) Co2, NO2
(B) No–2, CO2
(C) CN–, CO
(D) SO2, CO2

491. Which of the following is a pair of isoelectronic

species?
(A) Cl2O3, lCl2–
(B) lCl2– , ClO2
(C) lF2+, l3–
(D) ClO2–, ClF2+

492. Number of neutrons isPhosphide ion will be

_____ if the mass number of phosphorous is 31
and atomic number is 15
(A) 15 (B) 16
(C) 31 (D) 32

493. The different physical properties of an isotope

depend on
(A) protons and electrons
(B) electrons and neutrons
(C) number of neutrons
(D) nucleons
 34

20
495. The Isotone of 10 A would be
18
(A) 8 B
18
(B) 9 B
22
(C) 10 B
23
(D) 11 B

496. An atom which has a mass number of 14 and 8

neutrons is
(A) isotope of oxygen
(B) isobar of oxygen
(C) isotope of carbon
(D) isobar of carbon

40 40
497. 18 Ar and 20 Ca have the same number of
(A) electron
(B) proton
(C) nucleons
(D) Both (A) & (C)

498. What is the relation between K+ and Cl– ion?

(A) they are isotones
(B) they are isotopes
(C) they are isobars
(D) they are isoelectronic

499. Which of the following pair is an isoelectronic

pair?
(A) Na+ and Cl–
(B) Al+3 and S–2
(C) CN– and Si
(D) O–2 and S–2