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De Cuong Hk1anh 112425hs - 410202416

The document is a study guide for a first mid-term English test for 11th-grade students at Yên Hòa High School for the 2024-2025 academic year. It covers key vocabulary, grammar structures, and test formats, including phonetics, reading comprehension, and sentence arrangement. Additionally, it includes practice questions related to health, nutrition, and cultural cooking experiences.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
9 views25 pages

De Cuong Hk1anh 112425hs - 410202416

The document is a study guide for a first mid-term English test for 11th-grade students at Yên Hòa High School for the 2024-2025 academic year. It covers key vocabulary, grammar structures, and test formats, including phonetics, reading comprehension, and sentence arrangement. Additionally, it includes practice questions related to health, nutrition, and cultural cooking experiences.

Uploaded by

Hy Hy
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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TRƯỜNG THPT YÊN HÒA ĐỀ CƯƠNG ÔN TẬP HỌC KỲ I

BỘ MÔN: TIẾNG ANH NĂM HỌC 2024 - 2025


MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - KHỐI 11

A. POINTS IN FOCUS
I. VOCABULARY
- Unit 1: Eat, drink and be healthy
- Unit 2: Get well
- Unit 3: Global warming
- Unit 4: Planet Earth
II. GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES
- Past simple vs. Present Perfect
- Verb patterns
- Question tags
- Future time clauses (When, If, Unless, Before, After, Until, As soon as, As long as)
- Second Conditional, wish/ if only
- Clauses of purpose
- To-infinitive after certain adjectives and nouns
- Verbs of perceptions
- Should, ought to, must, have to
- A/ an/ the/ zero articles
- Relative clauses
- Prepositions at the end of clauses
III. STRUCTURE OF THE TEST
- Phonetics: Word stress and pronunciation
- Grammar structures: Grammar and structures
- Sentence arrangements to form a meaningful paragraph or a letter
- Cloze text: 3 parts
- Reading comprehension: 2 parts

B. PRACTICE FOR THE FIRST MID-TERM TEST


UNIT 1: EAT, DRINK AND BE HEALTHY
Match the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from that of
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following question.
Question 1: A. agricultural B. appetite C. avocado D. catering
Question 2: A. nutritious B. delicious C. sugary D. dressing
Match the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from that of
the other three in the position of stress in each of the following question.
Question 3: A. bitter B. dessert C. detox D. fatty
Question 4: A. elegant B. appetite C. industry D. delicious
Match the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: Last Sunday, the Youth Union _______ a campaign to help students with eating disorders.
A. has launched B. launched C. was launched D. was launching
Question 6: She _____ never _____ such a delicious smoothie before.
A. has/tasted B. have/ taste C. has/ taste D. have/ tasted
Question 7: Every Sunday, my family gathers to enjoy a hearty meal, and I always volunteer ____________ my
special lasagna, which takes hours to prepare but seconds to devour.

1
A. to cook B. cooking C. cook D. cooked
Question 8: Embracing a healthy diet, she found herself experimenting with various superfoods,
incorporating kale and chia seeds into her meals, and discovering the joy of _________ energized and rejuvenated.
A. feeling B. having felt C. felt D. have felt
Question 9: You know eating too much sugar is bad for your health, _________?
A. isn’t it B. is it C. do you D. don’t you
Read the following restaurant review and mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 10 to 15.
The French Grill Restaurant
The French Grill Restaurant in Hanoi (10) _______ the best restaurant in Vietnam, reflecting the opinions and
reviews collected by TripAdvisor. Having served classic French cuisine with a local twist, the restaurant (11)
__________ a favorite among international patrons. Situated in the JW Marriott Hotel Hanoi, the restaurant aims
(12) _______ dishes like seared foie gras, classic caviar, and premium steak, with prices ranging from VND300,000
to VND700,000 ($13.06-30.46), under the expert leadership of French chef Jean-Francois Nulli.
Question 10. A. is voted B. was voted C. were voted D. be voted
Question 11. A. has become B. had become C. have become D. became
Question 12. A. to offer B. offering C. having offered D. have offered
Announcement of The Good Food Conference 2023: Path to 2030
We are thrilled to announce that the Good Food Conference 2023 (13)_____________ convened from
September 18-20 at the Fort Mason Center in San Francisco, CA. This year’s conference, themed “Path to 2030,”
brought together over 1,200 innovators, scientists, policymakers, industry leaders, philanthropists, and global
champions dedicated to transforming our food system.
Attendees had the opportunity (14) ______________ into the most pressing challenges and opportunities
within the field, exchange knowledge and insights across science, policy, and industry, and forge new connections.
The conference also (15) __________ a diverse array of alternative protein cuisine, leaving participants more
energized and committed than ever to a future where alternative proteins are mainstream.
We extend our heartfelt gratitude to this year’s sponsors for their invaluable support. Their diverse
backgrounds—from alternative protein specialists to multinational food companies—illustrate the growing and
diversifying alternative protein field.
All sessions from the Good Food Conference 2023 are now available for view, and we encourage everyone
to explore the wealth of knowledge shared during this groundbreaking event.
Question 13. A. successful B. successfully C. success D. succeed
Question 14. A. to delve B. delving C. delve D. having delved
Question 15. A. ignored B. excluded C. featured D. downplayed
Match the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct arrangement of the sentences to make a
meaningful letter in each of the following questions.
Question 16:
a. Could you please provide me with detailed information on the application process, eligibility criteria, and any key
dates or deadlines I should be aware of?
b. Thank you for considering my request. I am looking forward to the possibility of embarking on this exciting
culinary journey.
Warm regards,
Phan Thien Trang
c. Subject: Inquiry Regarding MasterChef America Contestant Application Process
Dear MasterChef America Casting Team,
I hope this message finds you well. My name is Phan Thien Trang, and I am writing to express my keen interest in
participating as a contestant on MasterChef America 2025. I have a profound passion for cooking and believe this
platform would be the perfect opportunity to showcase my culinary skills.
d. Additionally, I would appreciate guidance on preparing for the audition process.
A. a-b-c-d B. a-b-d-c C. c-a -d-b D. c-a-b-d
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Question 17:
a. To begin with, it aids in digestion by adding bulk to the stool, which helps prevent constipation and promotes
regular bowel movements.
b. Fiber is a crucial component of a healthy diet, offering numerous benefits for overall well-being.
c. Lastly, incorporating a variety of fiber sources, such as fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and legumes, into your
diet can support long-term health and prevent various chronic diseases.
d. Additionally, fiber can help control blood sugar levels by slowing the absorption of sugar, making it particularly
beneficial for individuals with diabetes.
A. a-b-c-d B. a-b-d-c C. c-d -a-b D. b-a-d-c
Match the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the
numbered blanks from 18 to 23.
HEALTHY LIVING
Millions of people today are overweight and out of shape. This is due in part to their diet, which is often
high in sugars and fats. Another reason is that (18) ___________, instead of doing something to keep ourselves fit.
Today hectic lifestyle also prevents us from spending as much time as we should on (19)____________.
Long hours at school and work don't leave much time for healthy eating. Convenience food, such as frozen meals
and canned vegetables, save time (20) _________. Fast food and take away are also responsible for many health
problems.
(21) ___________, a regular programme of exercise is essential. (22) _____________. Doing a little
exercise every day so as not to develop health problems is something that all of us should consider, young and old.
(23) ______________, it is for you to choose one and start today and get in shape.
(Source: Adapted from 'Laser B1+)
Question 18.
A. too many of us spend our evenings gluing to the television
B. too many of us spend our evenings glue to the television
C. too many of us spends our evenings gluing to the television
D. too many of us spends our evenings glue to the television
Question 19.
A. stay in shape B. staying in shape C. stay out of shape D. staying out of
Question 20.
A. but is often unhealthy B. and is often unhealthy C. or is often unhealthy D. so is often unhealthy
Question 21.
A. In order to enjoy a good health B. In order to enjoy good health
C. In order enjoying good health D. In order enjoying a good health
Question 22.
A. This can be anything from gentle forms of yoga to body building
B. Which can be anything from gentle forms of yoga to body building
C. What can be anything from gentle forms of yoga to body building
D. Can be anything from gentle forms of yoga to body building
Question 23.
A. If you do practise any form of exercise now
B. If you didn’t practise any form of exercise now
C. If you weren’t to practise any form of exercise now
D. If you don't practise any form of exercise now
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 24 to 28.
The sandwich is a popular food, and it got its name from John Montagu, the 4th Earl of Sandwich. (24)
__________ he was an important person from England in the 1700s, he liked to eat meat between slices of bread so

3
that he could eat and play cards at the same time without (25) _________ a mess. As a result, sandwiches became
known as a quick and easy meal.
Over time, people (26) ________ to make many different kinds of sandwiches. They can be very simple,
like a cucumber sandwich, (27) __________ very fancy with lots of layers. Sandwiches are great because they can
be changed to fit (28) ________ anyone likes to eat, for any occasion, and they are eaten by people everywhere.
Nowadays, sandwiches keep changing as people try new ingredients and ideas from different places, and
they are still a basic part of food for many people. This shows that sometimes the simplest foods last the longest.
Question 24. A. Because B. Despite C. In spite of D. Although
Question 25. A. doing B. making C. building D. keeping
Question 26. A. start B. started C. have started D. starts
Question 27. A. and B. or C. but D. so
Question 28. A. what B. which C. that D. 0
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 29 to 33.
Gordon Ramsay, a famous chef, went on an exciting trip to New Zealand. He wanted to learn about the local
food and how the Māori people, who are indigenous to New Zealand, cook and eat. Ramsay tried cooking food in a
hāngi pit, which is a traditional Māori way of cooking using hot stones buried in the ground. This was a new
experience for him because he had to wait and trust the cooking process without checking the food all the time.
Ramsay also collected different foods from nature. He climbed trees to pick berries, dived into the sea to get
shellfish called pāua, and even tasted insects from a tree. He did all this to understand the special flavors of New
Zealand and use them in his cooking.
Ramsay, even though he is a very skilled chef, is always eager to learn more. His journey in New Zealand
shows how much he loves food and respects the cooking traditions of other cultures.
Question 29. What is the main purpose of Ramsay’s trip to New Zealand?
A. To explore Māori tradition and food B. To visit tourist attractions
C. To relax at the beach D. To learn about European cuisine
Question 30. What does the word ‘indigenous’ mean in the context of the article?
A. Traditional B. Local C. Modern D. Foreign
Question 31. Which of the following is NOT true about Ramsay’s journey?
A. He climbed trees for berries B. He tasted insects from a tree
C. He cooked in a hāngi pit D. He visited a fast-food restaurant
Question 32. Why does Ramsay gather ingredients from New Zealand’s ecosystems?
A. To sell them in his restaurants B. To learn about local flavors
C. To impress other chefs D. To win a cooking competition
Question 33. What is the central theme of the article?
A. Gordon Ramsay’s culinary journey B. New Zealand’s tourist attractions
C. The history of Māori cuisine D. The importance of cultural respect in cooking
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 34 to 40.
Healthy eating habits are essential for maintaining overall well-being. They involve consuming a balanced
diet rich in fruits, vegetables, whole grains, lean proteins, and healthy fats. This dietary approach provides the body
with necessary nutrients, supports immune function, and promotes energy levels.
A balanced diet also plays a crucial role in preventing chronic diseases such as obesity, heart disease,
diabetes, and certain cancers. By choosing nutrient-dense foods over processed items high in sugar, salt, and
unhealthy fats, individuals can manage their weight and reduce the risk of health complications.
Moreover, healthy eating habits contribute to mental health. Nutritious foods can enhance mood, cognitive function,
and reduce the symptoms of depression and anxiety. It’s also important for children and adolescents, as it supports
growth, development, and academic performance.

4
Incorporating a variety of foods, staying hydrated, and practicing mindful eating are key components of a
healthy diet. Planning meals, cooking at home, and understanding portion sizes can help sustain these habits long-
term.
In summary, adopting healthy eating habits is a proactive step towards a healthier life. It requires conscious
choices and lifestyle changes, but the benefits to physical and mental health are significant and long-lasting.
Question 34. What does the term ‘nutrient-dense’ refer to in the context of healthy eating?
A. Foods that are high in calories.
B. Foods that are rich in nutrients relative to their calorie content.
C. Foods that contain a lot of water.
D. Foods that are dense in texture.
Question 35. What is the main purpose of adopting healthy eating habits?
A. To enjoy a variety of flavors.
B. To maintain overall well-being and prevent chronic diseases.
C. To follow the latest diet trends.
D. To save money on groceries.
Question 36. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of healthy eating habits mentioned in the summary?
A. Enhancing mood. B. Supporting immune function.
C. Increasing the risk of heart disease. D. Promoting energy levels.
Question 37. According to the summary, what role does a balanced diet play in children and adolescents?
A. It decreases academic performance. B. It supports growth and development.
C. It limits their food choices. D. It increases their preference for junk food.
Question 38. It can be inferred from the summary that cooking at home may:
A. Lead to a less nutritious diet. B. Make it more difficult to manage portion sizes.
C. Help sustain healthy eating habits long-term. D. Increase the consumption of processed foods.
Question 39. The pronoun ‘they’ in the phrase “they can manage their weight” refers to:
A. Chronic diseases. B. Nutrient-dense foods. C. Processed items. D. Individuals.
Question 40. What does the pronoun ‘it’ refer to in the sentence “It’s also important for children and adolescents”?
A. A balanced diet. B. Mental health. C. Physical health. D. Mindful eating.
---The end---

UNIT 2: GET WELL


Match the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from that of
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following question.
Question 1: A. indigestion B.injection C. expectancy D. prescribe
Question 2: A. sprain B. symptom C. insomnia D. bruise
Match the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from that of
the other three in the position of stress in each of the following question.
Question 3: A. ankle B. eyebrow C. insure D. dizzy
Question 4: A. medicine B. dislocate C. malaria D. herbalist
Match the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: ________ you maintain a balanced diet and exercise regularly, you can prevent many common health
problems.
A. As long as B. As soon as C. Unless D. If only
Question 6: If I ________ more time, I would exercise every day to stay healthy.
A. have B. had C. has D. to have
Question 7: I wish my brother ________about the importance of regular check-ups.
A. knew B. know C. known D. knows

5
Question 8: Athletes and fitness enthusiasts may diet ___________ their performance and maintain optimal physical
condition.
A. enhancing B. to enhance C. enhance D. enhanced
Question 9: If only scientists could find a cure for stiff-person syndrome, Celine Dion _______ to sing and perform
without the struggle of muscle spasms and rigidity.
A. is able B. could be able C. will be able D. would be able
Read the following beauty spa opening announcement and mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 10 to 15.
Grand Opening Announcement
We are excited to invite you to the grand opening of Radiance Beauty Spa! Join us on Saturday, September 15th,
2024, from 10:00 AM to 6:00 PM for a special day of fun and relaxation.
Event Highlights:
• Tours: Look around our beautiful spa and see all the services we offer.
• Special Offers: Get great discounts on spa packages and (10) __________ only on the opening day.
• Free Treatments: Try mini facials, massages, and more, for free!
• Refreshments: Enjoy tasty snacks and drinks (11) __________ you relax.
• Raffle Prizes: Enter our raffle (12) _____________ amazing prizes, including a year of free spa services!
Location: Radiance Beauty Spa, 123 Tran Thai Tong Street, Hanoi.
We can’t wait to welcome you to our peaceful spa where beauty meets relaxation. Bring your friends and family for
a day of pampering and see why Radiance Beauty Spa is the best place for all your beauty needs.
RSVP: Please let us know if you’ll be joining us by calling (123) 456-7890 or emailing
[email protected].
See you there!
Question 10: A. treat B. treating C. treated D. treatments
Question 11: A. when B. while C. whereas D. during
Question 12: A. to win B. winning C. win D. to winning
Feel Better with Acupuncture!
Looking for a natural way (13) ___________your health? Try Harmony Acupuncture Clinic!
✨ Why Choose Us?
• Experienced Staff: Our certified acupuncturists know their stuff.
• Holistic Care: We treat the cause, not just the symptoms.
• Relaxing Space: Enjoy a calm and peaceful environment.
• Wide Range of Services: From pain relief to stress reduction, we’ve got you covered.
Special Offer: Get 20% (14) __________ your first session!
Contact Us: Call (123) 456-7890 or visit www.harmonyacupuncture.com to (15)___________ your
appointment.
Feel your best with Harmony Acupuncture Clinic. Your health matters!
Question 13: A. to improve B. improving C. improvement D. Improves
Question 14: A. of B. off C. from D. Away
Question 15: A. place B. put C. book D. do
Match the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct arrangement of the sentences to make a
meaningful letter in each of the following questions.
Question 16:
a. Moreover, analytical thinking is crucial for diagnosing issues and creating effective rehabilitation strategies.
b. Ultimately, a compassionate and dedicated approach ensures they provide the best care, helping patients regain
mobility and improve their quality of life.
c. A physical therapist must possess a blend of empathy, expertise, and patience.
d. Firstly, they need strong communication skills to explain treatment plans clearly and motivate patients.
e. In addition, physical stamina is essential for demonstrating exercises and assisting patients.
6
A. a-b-c-d -e B. a-b-d-c-e C. c-d -a-e -b D. c-a-b-e-d
Question 17:
a. Thank you for your time and assistance. I am looking forward to the possibility of attending and contributing to
the conference.
b. Subject: Inquiry About Participation in the PHC Annual Conference 2024
Dear Public Health Collaboration Team,
I hope this email finds you in good health. I am writing to request information regarding the PHC Annual
Conference scheduled for 18th-20th May 2024 in London. As a professional keen on advancing my knowledge in
public health, I am interested in attending this esteemed event.
c. Additionally, I would appreciate information on the opportunities for networking and any workshops that may be
available.
d. Could you kindly provide details on the registration process, conference agenda, and any prerequisites for
participation?
e. Warm regards,
[David Nguyen] [Doctor] [Viet Duc Hospital, 40 Trang Thi, Hanoi]
A. a-b-c-d-e B. b-c-a-e-d C. b-d-c-a-e D. b-a-d-c-e
Match the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the
numbered blanks from 18 to 23.
(18) ______________, they would likely see significant health benefits, such as lower risks of obesity, heart
disease, and type 2 diabetes. In the future, as more research highlights the negative impacts of excessive sugar
consumption, (19) _______________to encourage healthier eating habits. To maintain optimal health, (20)
_____________, aiming to prevent conditions like tooth decay and energy crashes. By focusing on whole foods with
natural sugars, (21) _____________, we can ensure our bodies receive essential nutrients while avoiding the pitfalls
of added sugars. (22) ________ supports physical health but also helps in managing cravings and maintaining
steady energy levels (23) _________.
Question 18.
A. If people were to reduce their sugar intake B. If people reduce their sugar intake
C. Were people reduce their sugar intake D. When people reduce their sugar intake
Question 19.
A. public health guidelines will likely become stricter B. public health guidelines likely become stricter
C. public health guidelines will likely become strictly D. public health guidelines likely become strictly
Question 20.
A. it’s important to limit added sugars in our diet B. it important limiting added sugars in our diet
C. it’s important limit added sugars in our diet D. it important to limit added sugars in our diet
Question 21.
A. like fruits B. as fruits C. such fruits D. more fruits
Question 22.
A. This approach not only B. Not only this approach
C. Not only does this approach D. Not only is this approach
Question 23.
A. throughout the day B. in the day C. for the day D. on the day
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 24 to 28.
Vitamins are essential nutrients (24) _________ our bodies need to function properly. They play a crucial role (25)
_________ various bodily processes, including metabolism, immunity, and cell repair. There are two types of
vitamins: fat-soluble (A, D, E, K) and water-soluble (C and B-complex). Fat-soluble vitamins are stored in the
body’s fatty tissues, (26) ________ water-soluble vitamins must be consumed regularly as they are not stored. A
(27) _______ diet rich in fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and lean proteins ensures adequate vitamin intake, (28)
__________ overall health and preventing deficiencies.
Question 24. A. that B. what C. whose D. who
7
Question 25.A. on B. in C. at D. for
Question 26.A. when B. while C. where D. whenever
Question 27.A. balance B. balancing C. balanced D. imbalanced
Question 28. A. to support B. supporting C. support D. supported
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 29 to 33.
Super Size Me is a 2004 film by Morgan Spurlock, in which he documents his experiment to eat only
McDonald's fast food three times a day, every day, for thirty days.
Spurlock made himself a short list of rules for the experiment, including an obligation to eat all of the three
meals he ordered. He also had to 'Super Size', which means accepting a giant potion every time the option was
offered to him. He ended up vomiting after the first Super Size meal he finished, after taking nearly twenty minutes
to consume it.
After five days Spurlock put on almost 5 kg, and he soon found himself feeling depressed, with no energy.
The only thing that got rid of his headaches and made him feel better was another McDonald's meal, so his doctors
told him he was addicted. More seriously, around day twenty, he started experiencing heart palpitations and one of
the doctors detected liver problems. However, in spite of his doctor's advice, Spurlock continued to the end of the
month and achieve a total weight gain of 11kg. His body mass index also increased from a healthy 23.2 to an
overweight 27.
It took Spurlock fifteen months to recover from his experiment and return to his original weight, but the film
also had a wider impact. Just after its showing in 2004, McDonald's phased out the Super Size option and healthier
options like salads appeared on the menu. Unfortunately, McDonald's denied the connection between the film and
the changes, but it is interesting to note how closely the coincided with the release of the film.
(Source: Solution Intermediate)
Question 29. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. An experiment with McDonald's fast food.
B. Putting on weight due to eating fast food.
C. Connection between fast food and heart diseases.
D. How fast food trigger liver damage.
Question 30. Which of the following is TRUE about Morgan Spurlock?
A. He had to eat Super Size meal once a week.
B. He had to eat Super Size meal twice a day.
C. He had to eat Super Size meal three times a week.
D. He had to consume Super Size for three meals a day.
Question 31. In paragraph 2, the word "giant" is closest meaning to______.
A. light B. balanced C. big D. healthy
Question 32. Which of the following could get rid of Spurlock's headache?
A. salad B. a McDonald's meal C. a pain killer D. nothing
Question 33. According to the passage, all of the following are the results of the experiment EXCEPT______.
A. Spurlock put on weight. B. the experiment affected his heart.
C. the experiment affected his liver. D. he became fairly relax and energetic.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 34 to 40.
In 2002, several obese teenagers in the USA sued McDonald's, claiming that the company was responsible
for making them fat. They argued that McDonald's deliberately misled them into thinking that their cheeseburgers
and other products were healthy and nutritious food. They claimed that the company had not warned them about the
health problems that can result from eating too much salty, high-fat food and drinking too many sugary drinks:
diabetes, high blood pressure and obesity. The mother of one of the children, who at the age of 15 weighed more
than 180 kilograms, said in her statement: 'I always believe McDonald's was healthy for my son.'
McDonald's rejected the claim that they were responsible for these teenagers' health problems. 'People don't
go to sleep thin and wake up obese,', said McDonald's lawyer, Brad Lerman. 'The understanding of what hamburgers
8
and French fries do has been with us for a long, long time,' he added. The judge agreed, and dismissed the case,
saying: 'it is not the place of the law to protect people against their own excesses.' In other words, if people choose to
eat a lot of unhealthy food, they can't blame the company that sold it to them.
Other similar lawsuits against fast food companies in the USA have also failed. In 2005, the US House of
Representatives passed a bill which became known as the 'Cheeseburger Bill'. It made it much harder for obese
people to take legal action against the food industry. However, the bill has not ended the arguments about
responsibility. There is some scientific evidence to suggest that fast food is addictive, and harmful too. So is selling
fast food the same, in a way, as drug-dealing?
Question 34. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. Obesity - who is to blame? B. Is fast food addictive?
C. Is fast food really healthy? D. How to get rid of fast food?
Question 35. According to the obese teenagers in the USA who used McDonald's, which of the following health
problems was NOT mentioned?
A. diabetes B. hypertension C. obesity D. heart disease
Question 36. In paragraph 2, the word "rejected" is closest in meaning to_______.
A. accepted B. denied C. ignored D. agreed
Question 37. In paragraph 2, the word "it" refers to_______.
A. law B. healthy food C. unhealthy food D. bill
Question 38. What happens if people choose to eat a lot of unhealthy food?
A. The company will be responsible for their health problems.
B. They may get financial support from the company.
C. They will surely succeed in lawsuits.
D. They can't force the company to be responsible for them.
Question 39. In paragraph 3, the word "failed" is closest meaning to _______.
A. not famous B. not important C. not successful D. not proud
Question 40. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about fast food?
A. salty and high-fat B. addictive C. nutritious D. harmful
---The end---
TRIAL TEST 01
Match the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from that of
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. although B. authenticity C. through D. Tablecloth
Question 2: A. city B. delicious C. facility D. place
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. estimate B. demonstrate C. specialize D. encourage
Question 4: A. device B. balance C. schedule D. trailer
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: They can hear the music from his room sometimes, ______?
A. don’t they B. can’t they C. haven’t they D. couldn’t they
Question 6: After Janet _____ her English course, she will go to the US to continue her study.
A. will finish B. has finished C. will have finished D. has finished
Question 7: He deserves ______ locked up for ever for what he did.
A. to be B. be C. being D. to being
Question 8: If we could all ______ an effort to keep this office tidier it would help.
A. make B. take C. have D. move
Question 9: Joe’s leg ______ while he was playing football.
A. broke B. was breaking C. was broken D. was being broken
9
Read the following advertisement and mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 10 to 12.
REINVENT YOUR KITCHEN AND TRANSFORM YOUR DIET!
Created by a chef, a housewife, and a lifestyle coach, simplydeliciou.com contains everything you need to add
variety and (10) _________ to your daily diet. Full of ideas, recipes, tips, and how-to videos, this revolutionary site
promises to turn your kitchen (11) ____________ a place for creativity and exploration. Your health will naturally be
improved.
From the comfort of your home, you can learn how best to shop at your neighborhood store, find ways to
reorganize your kitchen to maximize space and to encourage healthy decisions, explore international
(12)___________, refine your skills, and even try new cooking techniques!
Can’t wait to change your life? Simplydelicious.com is ready for you.
Question 10 : A. contribution B. nutrition C. promotion D. ingredients
Question 11 : A. from B. with C. into D. For
Question 12 : A. relations B. cultures C. cuisines D. Businesses
Read the following instruction and mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 13 to 15.
Operating the Rambo VM25 meat blender is a simple process. Before using, ensure that the blade assembly, lid,
and any other components are securely attached. To (13) _____________spills and ensure proper blending, do not
exceed the maximum fill line marked on the exterior of the glass jar. Start blending on low speed and gradually
increase as necessary (14) _____________ you reach the desired consistency. After usage, unplug the blender and
carefully remove the glass jar from its base. Thoroughly wash the glass jar, lid, and blade assembly with warm,
soapy water to ensure a thorough clean (15)_____________. By following these steps, you will ensure both the
safety and optimal performance of your Rambo VM25 meat blender.
Question 13. A. overlook B. prevent C. enhance D. Encourage
Question 14. A. until B. when C. before D. While
Question 15.
A. Periodically stop the machine, ideally every ten seconds, to prevent overheating.
B. To ensure safety, keep the lid firmly closed during the blending process.
C. Prior to use, position the blender on a stable surface.
D. Let each part of the blender dry thoroughly before reassembling for storage.
Match the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct arrangement of the sentences to make a
meaningful letter in each of the following questions.
Question 16:
a. Could you please provide detailed information on the eligibility criteria, application procedure, and any necessary
preparations or qualifications required to participate in the show? Additionally, I would appreciate any guidance on
important dates and deadlines for the application process.
b. Dear Sir/Madam,
c. I hope this letter finds you well. I am writing to inquire about the process for becoming a contestant on the
television show “The Road to Olympia” produced by VTV.
d. Thank you for your time and assistance. I look forward to your prompt response.
Yours faithfully,
A. a-b-c-d B. a-b-d-c C. b-c -a-d D. b-c-d-a
Question 17:
a. Despite its strong odor, durian’s nutritional profile makes it a valuable addition to a balanced diet.
b. Durian, often called the “king of fruits,” is packed with numerous health benefits. Rich in fiber, it aids digestion
and promotes gut health.
c. Additionally, durian contains potassium, which helps regulate blood pressure and supports heart health. Its high
antioxidant content, including anthocyanins and polyphenols, helps combat oxidative stress and inflammation,
potentially reducing the risk of chronic diseases.
d. The fruit is also a great source of vitamin C, which boosts the immune system and enhances skin health.
10
A. a-b-c-d B. a-b-d-c C. b-c -a-d D. b-d-c-a
Match the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the
numbered blanks from 18 to 23.
In a world of plenty, where enough food is produced to feed everyone on the planet, hunger should be a thing of
the past. (18) __________, conflict, climate change, disasters, inequality and – (19) ______ recently – the COVID-
19 pandemic mean one in nine people globally is still going to bed hungry and famine looms for millions.
Powered by the passion, dedication and professionalism of almost 21,000 staff worldwide, the World Food
Programme (WFP) works in over 120 countries and territories to bring life-saving food to people displaced by
conflict (20) ______ made destitute by disasters, and help individuals and communities find life-changing solutions
to the multiple challenges they (21) ______ in building better futures.
We work to enhance nutrition in women and children, support smallholder farmers in improving productivity
and (22) ______ losses, help countries and communities prepare for and cope with climate-related shocks, and boost
human capital through school feeding programmes.
In conflict situations, we bring relief to exhausted populations and use food assistance to build pathways to
peace and stability – work for (23) ______ WFP was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2020.
Question 18: A. However B. Although C. Because D.Therefore
Question 19: A. many B. much C. other D. most
Question 20: A. and B. since C. because D. for
Question 21: A. send B. face C. prove D. owe
Question 22: A. reducing B. distributing C. committing D. reminding
Question 23: A. that B. who C. which D. why
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 24 to 28.
Formula is a breast milk substitute made from a special dried-milk powder. Most infant formula is made from
cow’s milk, vitamins and minerals. Formula is (24) ______ with cooled boiled water and fed to babies in a bottle or
cup.
The nutrients in formula support a baby’s growth during their first 6 months. Once they reach 6 months, they
can start eating solids as well, (25) ______ a baby should not drink regular cow’s milk until they are at least 12
months old. The main sources of protein in formula come from cow’s milk. Formula also includes fat from vegetable
oils to (26) ______ a baby’s growth.
(27) ______ formulas have sources other than cow’s milk, such as soybeans or rice. These specialty formulas
have been altered, so they are easier to digest or are suitable for babies (28) ______ cannot tolerate cow’s-milk
protein or lactose. Specialty formulas should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional.
Question 24: A. learnt B. found C. mixed D. grew
Question 25: A. if B. and C. either D. but
Question 26: A. remember B. support C. prevent D. expect
Question 27: A. Some B. A Little C. Each D. Much
Question 28: A. which B. who C. where D. whose
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 29 to 33.
Think twice before ignoring that poppyseed-sized speck on your arm. It could be a tick, and its bite could make
you sick. Ticks are tiny, spider-like insects that live in the woods or areas where tall grasses or leaf piles provide
shade from sun and heat. They latch onto passing people or animals and crawl around until they find a spot where
they can attach and draw blood.
Ticks are most active from spring through fall. In Connecticut, we usually start to see a growing number of tick
bites starting around June and lasting until the end of summer and even into September.
If you spend time in the woods or grassy areas or have a dog or other pet that spends time there, then you’re a
tick bite target. But you may not know that you’ve been bitten because these bites are usually painless. That’s why
it’s important to recognize the signs of a possible bite, and the symptoms of a tick-borne disease.

11
We see a fair number of these diseases every summer. The three most common ones are Lyme disease,
anaplasmosis, and babesiosis, which black-legged ticks, also known as deer ticks, carry (although not all ticks are
infected). We also see ehrlichiosis, which comes from the lone star tick.
These infections typically present with flu-like symptoms, such as fever, chills, sweats, headache, body aches,
loss of appetite, nausea, or fatigue about one to two weeks after the bite of an infected tick. A bite from a tick
carrying the bacteria that causes Lyme-disease often leaves a trademark bullseye rash. Lyme disease may also cause
severe joint pain and swelling, especially the knees and other large joints as well as conduction system abnormalities
of the heart. All of these tick-borne diseases can be treated with antimicrobial therapy. If you become ill after
having been bitten by a tick or in places where ticks commonly live, schedule an appointment with your healthcare
provider.
Question 29: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. Insects Living in The Woods B. Be Aware of Ticks
C. The Signs of A Possible Bite D. A Trademark Bullseye Rash
Question 30: According to paragraph 1, ticks ______.
A. could make you sick
B. cannot live in areas where tall grasses
C. eat what people or animals leave on the ground
D. have many spots on their body
Question 31: The word which in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. babesiosis B. deer ticks C. lone star tick D. ehrlichiosis
Question 32: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. It’s important to recognize the symptoms of a tick-borne disease.
B. Lyme disease, anaplasmosis, and babesiosis are three most common diseases.
C. There are no flu-like symptoms after the bite of an infected tick.
D. An appointment with the healthcare provider is needed when being ill.
Question 33: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Ticks are popular from spring through fall only.
B. We must be cautious about ticks that draw blood and may cause other diseases.
C. There are no ticks in the woods or grassy areas with dogs around.
D. Lyme disease may be more dangerous than other diseases caused by ticks.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 34 to 40.
According to reports, children with respiratory diseases are swarming hospital rooms throughout West Bengal.
The majority of these are brought on by the adenovirus infection. The chief medical officers of health in each district
and the medical colleges spread throughout the state are both concerned about this disease. They have been
instructed to analyze the situation with the highest level of readiness and to inventory the available resources.
Children with this new viral illness are flooding paediatric care. In order to prevent the sickness from spreading
further, health authorities have issued a number of rules warning people to stay away from gatherings in hospitals.
Also, chief officers of health in every district and medical college across the state recommended that hospitals
maintain enough supplies of equipment like oxygen and pediatric ventilators.
Children who are infected are now occupying the paediatric critical care units (PICU) that are currently
overcrowded in many hospitals. Adenovirus infections are more common in people with weakened immune systems
and those with a history of respiratory or cardiac issues. Pediatric critical care units (PICUs) in many hospitals are
currently overflowing with diseased children due to the current circumstances. Adenovirus infections are more
common in those with weakened immune systems, a history of cardiac or respiratory issues, or damaged
immunological systems.
Adenoviruses are a type of virus that can cause mild to severe sickness in the body, especially in the respiratory
tract, according to the United Nations' Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). Children of any age can
contract infections from the virus, while newborns and small children are more frequently affected.

12
Adenoviruses can result in minor to serious illnesses. Common cold or flu-like symptoms, fever, sore throat,
acute bronchitis, pneumonia, pink eye, and acute gastroenteritis are among the severe symptoms that are
comparable. Pharyngeal-conjunctival fever and pneumonia are only a couple of the complications that can come
from harsh weather. Neurologic disorder, which affects the brain and spinal cord, bladder inflammation or infection,
and these conditions are among the less frequent symptoms.
Question 34: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. What is Adenovirus? B. Hospital Rooms in West Bengal
C. Pediatric Critical Care Units (PICUs) D. Acute Gastroenteritis
Question 35: According to paragraph 1, the majority of patients throughout West Bengal ______.
A. are infected with the adenovirus
B. are working in hospital rooms
C. chief medical officers of health
D. analyze the situation with the highest level of readiness
Question 36: The word authorities in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. stations B. organizations C. nations D. definitions
Question 37: The word damaged in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. twisted B. puzzled C. wicked D. impaired
Question 38: The word that in paragraph 5 refers to ______.
A. cold B. pneumonia C. severe symptoms D. gastroenteritis
Question 39: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. It’s recommended that hospitals maintain enough supplies of equipment.
B. Adenovirus infections are less common in people with weakened immune systems.
C. Adenoviruses can cause mild to severe sickness in the body.
D. A complication that can come from harsh weather is pneumonia.
Question 40: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. It’s crucial to inventory the available resources.
B. The paediatric critical care units (PICU) can do anything to save children.
C. Children are more vulnerable to adenoviruses with several complications.
D. Adenoviruses can only result in minor illnesses in children.
--- The end ---

C. PRACTICE FOR THE FIRST TERM TEST


UNIT 3: GLOBAL WARMING
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from that of
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. shortage B. endangered C. hydrogen D. organic
Question 2: A. gadget B. severe C. depletion D. decay
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. surround B. access C. typhoon D. marine
Question 4: A. depletion B. destruction C. metabolism D. industry
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: After he saw the stunning performance of the ballet dancers, he decided __________ his dream of
becoming a choreographer.
A. pursue B. pursuing C. to pursue D. pursued
Question 6: This perfume _________ amazing. I’ll buy it for my mom’s birthday.
A. smells B. feels C. sounds D. tastes

13
Question 7: The obtained data include the survey of the atmospheric ozone and its trends, including seasonal
ozone __________ in the polar regions.
A. deplete B. depletion C. depleted D. depletive
Question 8: They’re _________ these old houses to build a new office block.
A. knocking down B. clearing up C. putting down to D. putting out
Question 9: He finds it______ lasting friendships.
A. difficult to make B. difficult making C. is difficult to make D. difficulty in making
Read the following advertisement / school announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 10 to 15.
ARE YOU PASSIONATE ABOUT THE ENVIRONMENT?
Do you want to make a difference (10) _______ raising awareness about climate change?
Apply to Green Earth Initiative. We offer environmental advocacy training courses throughout the year:
No (11) _______ experience required
Affordable fees
Volunteer opportunities available
Contact (12) _______
Email: [email protected]
Address: 123 Green Lane, Eco City
Question 10: A. in B. on C. at D. for
Question 11: A. a B. an C. the D. Ø (no article)
Question 12: A. details B. detail C. detailed D. detailing
JOIN OUR CLIMATE ACTION DAY!
The Environmental Club would like to announce:
All members (13) _______ to participate in the Climate Action Day on September 15.
Each group is to prepare a presentation on a climate change topic. Each presentation should not exceed 10 minutes.
Each group is to (14) _______ one member to lead the discussion panel.
(15) _______ you have any questions, please contact the club president.
Question 13: A. are required B. requiring C. requires D. have required
Question 14: A. nominate B. dominate C. activate D. illustrate
Question 15: A. Should B. Had C. Were D. Do
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct arrangement of the sentences to make a
meaningful paragraph/letter in each of the following questions.
Question 16:
a. Additionally, reducing carbon emissions can help mitigate the effects of climate change.
b. Firstly, using renewable energy sources like solar and wind power can significantly reduce greenhouse gas
emissions.
c. Finally, individuals can make a difference by adopting sustainable practices in their daily lives.
d. Secondly, protecting forests and planting trees can absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
e. There are several effective ways to combat global warming.
A. e-b-d-a-c B. e-a-b-d-c C. b-d-a-c-e D. b-e-a-d-c
Question 17:
a. Also, when we do chores like sweeping or washing dishes, we're moving our bodies, which is good for our health.
b. Dear Mike, I hope you are well! I've been thinking about why it’s important for children to share the household chores
with their parents.
c. Sharing the household chores is really a good way to help us have more time to do fun things together.
d. Firstly, it helps keep our home tidy and clean, making it a nicer place to live.
e. Additionally, children learn to be responsible and take care of our things when they help with tasks at home.
f. Best wishes.
A. b-c-a-e-d-f B. b-d-a-e-c-f C. b-a-d-e-c-f D. b-e-d-a-c-f

14
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the
numbered blanks from 18 to 22.
Deforestation and Its Impact
Deforestation is a major environmental issue that affects our planet in many ways. Firstly, it leads to the loss
of biodiversity. When forests are destroyed, many species lose their habitats and face extinction. (18) _______,
deforestation contributes to climate change. Trees absorb carbon dioxide, and without them, more greenhouse gases
remain in the atmosphere, (19) _______ global warming.
Secondly, deforestation disrupts the water cycle. Trees play a crucial role in maintaining the balance of water
in the ecosystem. (20) _______, when they are cut down, this balance is disturbed, leading to problems like soil
erosion and reduced rainfall.
Finally, deforestation affects indigenous communities. Many people rely on forests for their livelihoods and
cultural practices. (21) _______, when forests are destroyed, these communities lose their homes and resources.
In summary, deforestation has far-reaching consequences that impact the environment, climate, and human societies.
(22) _______, it is essential to take action to protect and restore our forests.
Question 18: A. For example B. In addition C. However D. Therefore
Question 19: A. causing B. to cause C. caused D. cause
Question 20: A. As a result B. In contrast C. For instance D. Moreover
Question 21: A. Consequently B. Nevertheless C. Similarly D. Otherwise
Question 22: A. Because B. Thus C. Although D. Hence
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 28.
The Impact of Fossil Fuels
Fossil fuels have been a primary source of energy for many years. However, their use has significant
environmental consequences. Burning fossil fuels releases large amounts of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere,
contributing to global warming. (23) ______ and resulting climate change.
Moreover, extracting fossil fuels can cause environmental damage. Oil spills, for example, can devastate
marine ecosystems, (24) ______. Additionally, mining for coal can lead to deforestation and (25) ______.
Another issue is air pollution. The combustion of fossil fuels releases pollutants such as sulfur dioxide and nitrogen
oxides, (26) ______. These pollutants also contribute to the formation of acid rain, which can harm forests, lakes,
and buildings.
In summary, while fossil fuels have been essential for industrial development, (27) ______is severe. It is
crucial to transition to cleaner energy sources to (28) ______on our planet.
Question 23:
A. This increase in greenhouse gases leads to higher global temperatures
B. Which increase in greenhouse gases leads to higher global temperatures
C. Increasing on greenhouse gases leads to higher global temperatures
D. It makes greenhouse gases increase leads to higher global temperatures
Question 24:
A. affecting to the lives of countless sea creatures B. to affect the lives of countless sea creatures
C. to affect sea creatures lives countlessly D. affecting the lives of countless sea creatures
Question 25:
A. the destruction of natural habitats B. the natural habitats of the destruction
C. to destruct the natural habitats D. the destruction from natural habitats
Question 26:
A. that can cause respiratory problems in humans and animals
B. which can cause respiratory problems in humans and animals
C. Having caused respiratory problems in humans and animals
D. to cause respiratory problems in humans and animals
Question 27:
A. its environmental impact B. their environmental impact
15
C. our environmental impact D. this environmental impact
Question 28:
A. mitigate the negative effects B. increase the negative effects
C. exacerbate the negative effects D. ignore the negative effects
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 29 to 33.
The Greenhouse Effect
The greenhouse effect is a natural process that warms the Earth’s surface. When the Sun’s energy reaches the
Earth, some of it is reflected back to space and the rest is absorbed, warming the planet. The Earth then releases heat
in the form of infrared radiation. Greenhouse gases in the atmosphere, such as carbon dioxide, methane, and water
vapor, trap some of this heat, preventing it from escaping into space. This process keeps the Earth’s temperature at a
level suitable for life.
However, human activities have increased the concentration of these greenhouse gases, enhancing the
greenhouse effect and leading to global warming. Burning fossil fuels, deforestation, and industrial processes release
large amounts of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases into the atmosphere. This results in more heat being
trapped, causing the Earth’s average temperature to rise.
The consequences of an enhanced greenhouse effect are far-reaching. Rising temperatures can lead to more
extreme weather events, such as hurricanes, droughts, and heatwaves. Melting polar ice caps and glaciers contribute
to rising sea levels, which can flood coastal areas and displace communities. Additionally, changes in temperature
and precipitation patterns can disrupt ecosystems and affect biodiversity.
To mitigate the impact of the greenhouse effect, it is essential to reduce greenhouse gas emissions. This can
be achieved by transitioning to renewable energy sources, improving energy efficiency, and protecting forests.
International cooperation and policy measures are also crucial in addressing this global challenge.
Question 29: What is the main purpose of the greenhouse effect?
A. To cool the Earth’s surface B. To trap heat and warm the Earth’s surface
C. To reflect all of the Sun’s energy back to space D. To release heat into space
Question 30: What human activities have increased the concentration of greenhouse gases?
A. Planting trees and conserving energy B. Using renewable energy sources
C. Burning fossil fuels and deforestation D. Reducing industrial processes
Question 31: What are the consequences of an enhanced greenhouse effect?
A. Decreased sea levels and stable weather patterns B. More extreme weather events and rising sea levels
C. Increased biodiversity and stable ecosystems D. Reduced global temperatures
Question 32: What can be done to mitigate the impact of the greenhouse effect?
A. Increase the use of fossil fuels B. Reduce energy efficiency
C. Protect forests and use renewable energy sources D. Decrease international cooperation
Question 33: What does the word “mitigate” in the passage most likely mean?
A. To worsen B. To alleviate C. To ignore D. To increase
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 34 to 40.
More than 200 reindeer have died of starvation on the Norwegian archipelago of Svalbard, with scientists
blaming their deaths on climate change. The wild deer carcasses were found on the Arctic islands this summer by
researchers from the Norwegian Polar Institute (NPI), which said it had never logged so many deaths at once in 40
years of monitoring the animals’ population level. “It’s scary to find so many dead animals,” project leader Ashild
Onvik Pedersen told state broadcaster NRK. “This is an example of how climate change affects nature. It is just sad.”
Svalbard’s capital Longyearbyen, the northernmost town on earth, is thought to be warming quicker than any
other settlement on the planet, climate scientists warned earlier this year. The milder temperatures in the region led to
unusually heavy rainfall in December, leaving a thick layer of ice when the precipitation froze. This meant the
reindeer could not dig through the hardened tundra to reach the vegetation they graze on in their usual pastures, the
NPI said. Svalbard’s reindeer have been observed eating seaweed and kelp when food is scarce, but these are less
nutritious and cause them stomach problems.
16
A relatively high number of calves born last year increased the death toll, as the youngest and weakest are
often the first to die in harsh conditions. “Some of the mortality is natural because there were so many calves last
year. But the large number we see now is due to heavy rain, which is due to global warming,” said Ms. Onvik
Pedersen.
A team of three scientists spent 10 weeks investigating population of the Svalbard reindeer earlier this year.
Researchers warned the decline of reindeer would cause unwanted plant species, currently kept in check by the
animals’ grazing, to spread across Arctic ecosystems in Europe, Asia and North America.
Arctic reindeer and caribou populations have declined 56 per cent in the last two decades, a report by the
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration said last year. The report said food security was partly to blame
for falling herd numbers, while warmer summers could also put the animals at greater risk of diseases spread by flies
and parasites. The average temperature in Longyearbyen has risen by 3.7C since 1900, more than three times the
global average increase of about 1C. In 2016, the entrance to the town’s “Doomsday” seed vault – which stores
specimens of almost all the world’s seeds – was flooded following heavy rainfall.
(Adapted from https://www.independent.co.uk/)
Question 34: Which could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Climate change – The main cause for the death of hundreds of reindeer.
B. Global warming – What are the effects on nature?
C. Reindeer – The most vulnerable animals on the Arctic islands.
D. Climate change – What are the reasons?
Question 35: The word “logged” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______________.
A. cut down B. damaged C. recorded D. discovered
Question 36: The following are true about capital Longyearbyen, EXCEPT ___________.
A. It is believed to be the most quickly warming settlement on earth.
B. People in Longyearbyen suffered unusually heavy rain at the end of the year.
C. It is the northernmost town on our planet.
D. The reindeer here couldn’t stand the low temperature when the precipitation froze.
Question 37: The word “scarce” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by __________.
A. inappropriate B. insufficient C. abundant D. unlimited
Question 38: What does the word “these” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. seaweed and kelp B. Svalbard’s reindeer C. their usual pastures D. milder temperatures
Question 39: According to Ms. Onvik Pedersen, why is the death rate of reindeer so high this year?
A. Because of the high number of calves born. B. Because of heavy rain.
C. Because of natural selection. D. Because of the shortage of vegetation.
Question 40: It can be inferred from the passage that ______________.
A. Arctic reindeer play the most important role in the Arctic ecosystems.
B. the Arctic ecosystems are altering worse because of the global warming.
C. the clearest effect of climate change is the limit of food chain in the nature.
D. the harsh weather in Arctic islands only damages the new-born calves.
---The end---

UNIT 4: PLANET EARTH


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from that of
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. genius B. gorilla C. global D. gases
Question 2: A. floor B. flood C. moorland D. door
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. campaign B. global C. balance D. carbon
Question 4: A. pollution B. continue C. enormous D. disappear

17
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: Todd Endris, ________ lived next to the beach, was out on his surfboard.
A. that B. whom C. who D. which
Question 6: The book _______ my father bought me yesterday is about Planet Earth.
A. that B. what C. ,which D. whose
Question 7: These situations are very difficult to deal ____________ .
A. about B. at C. for D. with
Question 8: Who are those people getting help ____________ ?
A. to B. from C. of D. for
Question 9: We need to act quickly to___________ to climate change, or it will be a disaster for the whole planet.
A. adapt B. go back C. reverse D. transit
Read the following advertisement / school announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 10 to 15.
ARE YOU INTERESTED IN SUSTAINABLE LIVING?
Do you want to contribute (10) _______ promoting eco-friendly practices?
Join the EcoSchool Program.
We offer workshops and activities throughout the year:
No (11) _______ experience needed Low-cost participation Internship opportunities available Contact (12) _______
Email: [email protected]
Address: 456 Eco Street, Green Town
Question 10: A. in B. on C. at D. for
Question 11: A. a B. an C. the D. Ø (no article)
Question 12: A. information B. inform C. informative D. informing
JOIN OUR ECO-FRIENDLY WORKSHOP!
The EcoSchool Committee is excited to announce: All students (13) _______ to join the Eco-Friendly Workshop on
October 10. Each team is to create a project on sustainable living. Each project should not exceed 15 minutes. Each
team is to (14) _______ one member to present the project. (15) _______ you have any questions, please contact the
committee chairperson.
Question 13: A. are required B. requiring C. requires D. have required
Question 14: A. nominate B. dominate C. activate D. illustrate
Question 15: A. Should B. Had C. Were D. Do
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct arrangement of the sentences to make a
meaningful paragraph/letter in each of the following questions.
Question 16:
a. Additionally, animal testing often causes unnecessary suffering to animals.
b. Firstly, there are alternative methods available that do not involve animals.
c. Finally, many people believe that animal testing is ethically wrong.
d. Secondly, results from animal testing may not always be applicable to humans.
e. There are several reasons to oppose animal testing in medical research.
A.e-b-d-a-c B.e-a-b-d-c C.b-d-a-c-e D.b-e-a-d-c
Question 17:
a. Yesterday, Aunt Eva took me to some places of interest – the Statue of Liberty, the Brooklyn Bridge, and Central
Park.
b. Tomorrow we are going to watch a show at the theater Broadway.
c. The weather here is so great. It’s sunny and hot every day.
d. Dear Mom and Dad, I’m having a great time here in New York.
e. Wish you were here, Love Ami.
A. d–b–a–e–c B. a–e–d–b–c C. b–a–c–e–d D. d–a –c–b-e
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the
numbered blanks from 18 to 22.
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World overpopulation presents numerous challenges to our planet. Firstly, it leads to the depletion of natural
resources. As the population grows, the demand for water, food, and energy increases, (18) _______ the strain on our
environment. Secondly, overpopulation contributes to environmental degradation. More people mean more waste
and pollution, (19) _______ negatively impacts ecosystems. Additionally, overpopulation can lead to social issues
such as overcrowding and increased competition for jobs and housing. (20) _______ these challenges, it is crucial to
promote sustainable practices and family planning. Governments and organizations must work together to (21)
_______ awareness about the impacts of overpopulation. Education and access to healthcare are essential in (22)
_______ population growth. In summary, addressing world overpopulation requires a collective effort to ensure a
sustainable future for all.
Question 18: A. reducing B. increasing C. easing D. mitigating
Question 19: A. which B. that C. who D. where
Question 20: A. Despite B. Because of C. In addition to D. To address
Question 21: A. raise B. rise C. arise D. rouse
Question 22: A. controlling B. control C. controlled D. controls
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 28.
The Impact of Natural Disasters
Natural disasters have profound effects on communities and the environment. Earthquakes, for instance, can
cause buildings to collapse, (23) ______. Hurricanes and typhoons bring strong winds and heavy rains, leading to
flooding and (24) ______. Wildfires, (25) ______, can spread rapidly, devastating large areas of forest and wildlife
habitats.
Moreover, natural disasters can disrupt daily life and economic activities. They can displace people from
(26) ______, leading to temporary shelters and aid from governments and organizations. The aftermath of such
events often requires extensive recovery efforts, including rebuilding infrastructure and providing support to affected
populations.
In summary, while natural disasters are inevitable, (27) ______ to mitigate their impact and (28) ______.
Question 23:
A. destroying lives and infrastructure B. to destroy lives and infrastructure
C. having destroyed lives and infrastructure D. being destroyed lives and infrastructure
Question 24:
A. minor damage to homes and crops B. significant damage to homes and crops
C. trivial damage to homes and crops D. negligible damage to homes and crops
Question 25:
A. are often exacerbated by dry conditions B. often exacerbate dry conditions
C. often exacerbated by dry conditions D. to exacerbate by dry conditions
Question 26:
A. their homes B. its homes C. our homes D. this homes
Question 27:
A. it is crucial to have preparedness plans in place
B. making it crucial to have preparedness plans in place
C. which is crucial to have preparedness plans in place
D. this is crucial to have preparedness plans in place
Question 28:
A. to ensure swift recovery B. ensure swift recovery
C. swift recovery ensure D. they ensure swift recovery
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 29 to 33.
The Role of Zoos in Animal Conservation
Zoos have been a part of human culture for centuries, providing a place for people to see and learn about
animals from around the world. Modern zoos play a crucial role in animal conservation and education. They offer a
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safe haven for endangered species, protecting them from threats such as habitat loss and poaching. By participating
in breeding programs, zoos help to increase the population of endangered animals and sometimes reintroduce them
into the wild.
However, the role of zoos is not without controversy. Critics argue that keeping animals in captivity can lead
to physical and psychological stress. Animals in zoos often live in environments that are very different from their
natural habitats, which can affect their behavior and well-being. Despite these concerns, many zoos are working to
improve the living conditions of their animals by creating more naturalistic enclosures and providing enrichment
activities.
Zoos also play an important role in educating the public about wildlife conservation. Through educational
programs and exhibits, zoos raise awareness about the challenges facing wildlife and inspire people to take action to
protect the environment. By connecting people with animals, zoos foster a sense of empathy and responsibility
towards the natural world.
In conclusion, while there are valid concerns about the welfare of animals in zoos, they can play a positive
role in conservation and education if they prioritize the well-being of their animals and contribute to broader
conservation efforts.
Question 29: What is one of the main roles of modern zoos?
A. To entertain visitors B. To provide a safe haven for endangered species
C. To keep animals in captivity for profit D. To display animals in small cages
Question 30: What is a common criticism of zoos?
A. They do not have enough animals
B. They charge high entrance fees
C. They can cause physical and psychological stress to animals
D. They do not participate in breeding programs
Question 31: How do zoos contribute to animal conservation?
A. By keeping animals in small enclosures
B. By participating in breeding programs and reintroducing animals into the wild
C. By charging high entrance fees
D. By displaying animals for entertainment
Question 32: What is one way zoos are improving the living conditions of their animals?
A. By creating more naturalistic enclosures B. By reducing the number of animals
C. By increasing entrance fees D. By limiting visitor access
Question 33: What is the purpose of educational programs in zoos?
A. To entertain visitors B. To raise awareness about wildlife conservation
C. To increase zoo profits D. To reduce the number of animals in captivity
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 34 to 40.
Since the birth of the car in 1886, transport in big cities has changed a lot. It is no wonder many experts
think that there will be extraordinary changes in the next few decades.
As technology develops, highways, skylines, subways will be all transformed. Smarter roadways and
highways in cities outfitted with IoT sensors will process all kinds of data in real time and inform users of the best
transport options. Weather, crashes, traffic conditions will be communicated to users and smart stops will be found
everywhere providing renewable energy, green hydrogen or even greener energy, ensuring efficiency and safety on
every highway. Tunnels will also be a smart choice because of the reduction of traffic congestion. Underground
roads will be built in 3D with a lift system which will take vehicles deep underground and will allow traffic to attain
the greatest speed without intersections.
There will also be innovations in the sky. Air taxis are not a new idea, but in the future they will be
completely environment-friendly. Aviation gasoline will be no longer used. Green energy will be in place and cost-
effective air taxis will enable people to travel from one busy urban city to another in record time. New technologies
such as AI and the rollout of 5G will pave the way for fully autonomous innovation. Cars will not be the only thing
to go autonomous. Freight trucks, cargo vehicles, air taxis will all benefit from this technology and that is why the
term ‘driver’ will become extinct.
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Transport will go green. Electric or hydrogen power will be mainstream. There will still be issues to solve
such as safety, speed and cost, and of course governments will need to make new traffic laws.
Question 34: Which of the following could be the best title for the passage?
A. Go Autonomous - Go Green B. Go Slow - Go Green
C. Go Fast - Go Far D. Go Autonomous - Go Cheap
Question 35: The word transformed in paragraph 2 is opposite in meaning to_______.
A. remained unchanged B. increased dramatically C. appeared dissimilar D. varied slightly
Question 36: The word attain in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_______.
A. reach B. follow C. decrease D. change
Question 37: Which of the following is NOT stated in paragraph 2?
A. IoT sensors will inform users of the most suitable transport options.
B. Road users can communicate with one another about traffic conditions.
C. Smart stops will be available to ensure safety on the highway.
D. To reduce traffic congestion, underground roads can be a good choice.
Question 38: The word they in paragraph 3 refers to_______.
A. innovations B. air taxis C. intersections D. underground roads
Question 39: According to the passage, thanks to technology, _______.
A. people will be able to travel from one city to another very rapidly by air taxi
B. green energy, though quite expensive, will be really effective for air taxis
C. not only cars but also other vehicles will benefit greatly from the underground system
D. going autonomous and green will help solve all traffic-related problems
Question 40: It can be inferred from the passage that_______.
A. transport of the future, though very beneficial, is not without challenges
B. autonomous innovation is key to shifting to green transport
C. with the support of technology, underground travel will put an end to speeding
D. traffic jams will no longer be a problem thanks to IoT sensors and 5G technology
---The end---

TRIAL TEST O2
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from that of
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. with B. think C. through D. throw
Question 2: A. culture B. current C. volunteer D. underground
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. farming B. planet C. methane D. amount
Question 4: A. tradition B. efficient C. represent D. contribute
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: Burning fossil fuels is considered as one of ______ most obvious causes of global warming.
A. another B. a C. X D. the
Question 6: I enjoy ________ to classical music.
A. listening B. to listen C. listens D. listen
Question 7: Does the city government intend ________ anything about pollution?
A. do B. to do C. doing D. did
Question 8: I ________ Paris recently, and it was an unforgettable experience.
A. had visited B. have visited C. visited D. was visiting
Question 9: Having a balanced diet and ________ regularly are good ways to stay healthy.
A. working out B. speaking out C. taking out D. hanging out
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Read the following advertisement / school announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 10 to 15.
WANT TO BE A TUTOR?
Do you enjoy teaching? We're looking for tutors to join our team! If you like helping others learn, we want to hear
from you!
• Your job will involve assisting students (10) _________ their studies.
• No formal experience needed.
• Training will be provided, so don't worry if you haven't tutored before.
• (11)____________ working hours available.
We welcome anyone with a passion for teaching!
Please contact us for more details on how (12)________________.
Email: [email protected]
Address: 100 Olden Street, Ballack Clava
Question 10. A. with B. of C. for D. in
Question 11. A. Flexibility B. Flexible C. Flexibly D. Inflexible
Question 12. A. applying B. will apply C. apply D. to apply
ANNOUNCEMENT OF SCHOOL SPORTS DAY
The School Athletics Department is pleased to announce:
• All athletes (13) ______ to report at the school field by 08:00 AM on June 10.
• Each team must prepare and submit their entry list for each event. Each athlete is allowed to participate in a
maximum of three events.
• The school will (14) ______ trophies and medals for the winners in each category.
• (15) ______ you have any inquiries regarding the event schedule or rules, please contact the Athletics
Department.
Question 13: A. expect B. expecting C. are expected D. have expected
Question 14: A. distribute B. conduct C. organize D. execute
Question 15: A. Unless B. Whenever C. Should D. As
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct arrangement of the sentences to make a
meaningful paragraph/letter in each of the following questions.
Question 16:
a. In short, by implementing these steps, Vietnam can ensure the preservation and development of its World
Heritage sites for generations to come.
b. Firstly, the government and local communities need to work together to raise awareness about the importance of
protecting these sites.
c. There are several steps to preserve and develop cultural and historical heritage sites in Vietnam such as Ha Long
Bay, Hoi An Ancient Town, and My Son Sanctuary.
d. Secondly, sustainable tourism practices should be encouraged to ensure that tourism does not harm the sites or the
local communities.
e. Finally, research and conservation efforts should be continued to better understand and protect these invaluable
pieces of history and culture.
A. c – e – b – d – a B. c – b – d – e – a C. d – b – e – c – a D. a – b – c – d – e
Question 17:
a. Regularly engaging in hobbies and personal interests can have a profound impact on overall well-being.
b. These activities provide a much-needed break from the routine of daily life, offering a sense of refreshment and
rejuvenation.
c. Dear Sam, I've been reflecting on our discussion about balancing work and personal life, and I wanted to
emphasize the importance of hobbies.
d. Hobbies also allow for personal growth and skill development, which can be fulfilling and rewarding.
e. Best regards.

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f. Whether it's gardening, painting, or playing a musical instrument, these activities can also foster creativity and
boost self-esteem.
A. c-a-b-f-d-e B. c-f-b-d-a-e C. c-b-d-f-a-e D. c-d-f-b-a
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the
numbered blanks from 18 to 22.
Scientists are studying genes that could mean long life for us all. There are already many, many people who
live more than a hundred. There are many (18) ________ studies of communities where a healthy old age is typical.
In Calabria, a small village has a population of about 2,000. And of these 2,000 people, there are (19) ________
eight people over a hundred years old.
In the past, scientists looked at some conditions such as diet and lifestyle for an explanation of long life.
However, these days they are also looking at genetic factors. Eric Topol, a researcher, says that there are probably
genes that protect people (20) ________ the effects of the ageing process. The new research into long life
investigates groups of people who have a genetic (21) ________ . In Calabria, researchers constructed the family
trees of the 100-year-old people. They looked at family information from the 19th century to today. They think that
there are genetic factors that give health benefits to the men. This is interesting because (22) ________ , in Europe,
women live longer than men.
(Adapted from https://www.ngllife.com/long-and-healthy-life)
Question 18: A. linguistic B. impossible C. part-time D. scientific
Question 19: A. at last B. at once C. at least D. at ease
Question 20: A. of B. from C. with D. on
Question 21: A. connection B. movement C. emission D. treatment
Question 22: A. fortunately B. generally C. additionally D. specifically
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 28.
Many scientists believe our love of sugar may be an addiction. (23) _________, the sugar enters our blood
and affects parts of our brain. (24) _________. Then the good feeling goes away, leaving us wanting more. All tasty
foods do this, but sugar has a (25) _________. In this way, it is in fact an addictive drug, one that doctors
recommend we all cut down on. “It seems like every time I study an illness and (26) _________, to the first cause, I
find (27) _________, back to sugar,” says scientist Richard Johnson. One-third of adults worldwide have high blood
pressure, and up to 347 million have diabetes. Why? "Sugar, we believe, is one of the culprits, if not the major
culprit," says Johnson. So what is the solution? It’s obvious that we need to eat less sugar. Many schools are
replacing sugary desserts with healthier options like fruit. Other schools are growing their own foods in gardens, or
(28) _________, like walking tracks so students and others in the community can exercise.
Question 23.
A. As we will eat or drink sugary foods B. Eating and drinking sugary foods
C. After we ate or drank sugary foods D. When we eat or drink sugary foods
Question 24.
A. This makes us feel good B. It makes us to feel good
C. Which makes us feel good D. Making us to feel good
Question 25.
A. strong particularly effect B. particularly effect strong
C. particularly strong effect D. effect strong particularly
Question 26.
A. trace a path B. a path to be traced C. tracing a path D. a path tracing
Question 27.
A. my way B. our way C. their way D. his way
Question 28.
A. facilities to build B. build facilities C. to build facilities D. building facilities
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 29 to 33.
23
Several cities are dealing with the crisis of overpopulation, causing a dearth of resources. Social and
economical imbalance among citizens creates problems in a community. As technology grows, the concept of
Artificial Intelligence and Internet of Things can be used into planning Smart cities which can gradually tackle
several issues in a coexistent society.
The building of a smart city requires large investments by the government. Nonetheless, it is one of the best
changes possible in lifestyles if done with conscious implementation. Smart cities are designed for optimum usage of
space and resources along with an efficient and optimum distribution of benefits. It also aims at increasing
connectivity at various levels among citizens, as well as between the administration and population. Public
properties such as schools, roads, and hospitals are improved. The system can tackle several redundancies of the
present system and save time and money. As technology is rapidly advancing, one can acknowledge that one needs
to develop their lifestyles accordingly to adapt to present-day demands.
Smart cities are meant to be environment-friendly. There are devices which can keep track of air purity level,
as well as other environmental and health-related factors. The investment in such a city should also include the
maintenance of a conscious work-force which shall review and amend the system. Therefore, a smart city shall only
reach a wholesome stage if it stands up to the social and psychological needs of the population.
Source: https://bwsmartcities.businessworld.in/article/Why-We-Need-Smart-Cities/19-02-2019-167307/
Question 29: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. The Crisis of Overpopulation
B. The Concept and Benefits of Smart cities
C. Artificial Intelligence and Human Needs
D. Planning and Building Smart Cities
Question 30: The word “dearth” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. scarcity B. surplus C. balance D. abundance
Question 31: According to paragraph 2, what is the purpose of a smart city?
A. To separate administration and population
B. To replace current cities completely
C. To maximise the usage of space and resources and enhance connectivity among citizens
D. To increase government control over citizens
Question 32: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. the building of a smart city B. the government
C. conscious implementation D. the usage of spaces and resources
Question 33. According to paragraph 3, which of the following is TRUE about smart cities?
A. Smart cities are solely about environmental protection.
B. All smart cities have achieved a wholesome stage.
C. A smart city should only focus on the social needs of the population.
D. Devices in smart cities can monitor environmental and health-related factors.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 34 to 40.
Global warming, a phenomenon that has emerged as one of the most pressing challenges facing our planet
today, refers to the gradual increase in Earth’s average surface temperature. This rise in temperature is primarily
attributed to human activities, particularly the emission of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere. The consequences
of global warming are far-reaching and have profound implications for the environment, ecosystems, and human life.
Human activities, such as burning fossil fuels for energy, deforestation, industrial processes, and agriculture,
release significant amounts of greenhouse gases, including carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), and nitrous oxide
(N2O), into the atmosphere. These gases create a "greenhouse effect," trapping heat from the sun and preventing it
from escaping back into space. As a result, the Earth's temperature gradually rises, leading to global warming.
One of the most evident consequences of global warming is the melting of polar ice caps and glaciers. As
temperatures rise, vast ice sheets in Antarctica and Greenland are losing mass at an alarming rate, contributing to
rising sea levels. This phenomenon poses a severe threat to low-lying coastal regions and small island nations,
increasing the risk of devastating floods and displacing millions of people.
24
The warming climate also disrupts weather patterns, leading to more frequent and intense extreme weather
events. Heatwaves, hurricanes, cyclones, and droughts become more common, inflicting considerable damage to
ecosystems, agriculture, and infrastructure. The agricultural sector faces challenges in adapting to changing growing
conditions, which can result in food shortages and price fluctuations.
Additionally, global warming poses a grave threat to biodiversity. Many plant and animal species struggle to
adapt to the rapidly changing climate or face habitat loss due to shifting temperatures. Consequently, some species
may become extinct, disrupting delicate ecosystems and affecting the balance of nature.
(Adapted from Bloomberg.com)
Question 34. What is the main focus of the passage?
A. The Impact of Human Activities on Climate Change
B. The Consequences of Global Warming on Polar Ice Caps
C. The Threat of Extreme Weather Events Due to Global Warming
D. The Implications of Global Warming on Biodiversity
Question 35. The word "pressing" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________ .
A. urgent B. neglectable C. stressful D. adaptive
Question 36. Which greenhouse gases are mentioned in the passage as contributing to the greenhouse effect?
A. Oxygen (O2) and Carbon Monoxide (CO) B. Carbon Dioxide (CO2) and Methane (CH4)
C. Nitrogen (N2) and Sulfur Dioxide (SO2) D. Hydrogen (H2) and Ozone (O3)
Question 37. The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to ________ .
A. greenhouse effect B. heat C. the sun D. threat
Question 38. The word "devastating" in paragraph 3 is opposite in meaning to ________ .
A. beneficial B. profound C. constructive D. destructive
Question 39. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about global warming?
A. Global warming refers to the gradual increase in Earth’s average surface temperature.
B. The primary cause of global warming is the emission of greenhouse gases from human activities.
C. Global warming leads to a decrease in sea levels due to melting ice caps.
D. Global warming has far-reaching consequences for the environment and human life.
Question 40. What is the likely outcome for low-lying coastal regions and small island nations due to global
warming?
A. These regions will experience reduced rainfall and droughts.
B. The temperatures in these regions will decrease gradually.
C. They will face an increased risk of flooding and displacement of people.
D. The agricultural sector in these regions will become more productive.
---The end---

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