NEET EXAM PAPER-2025

CODE:48
PHYSICS

1. A parallel plate capacitor made of circular plates is being charged such that the surface charge density on its
plates is increasing at a constant rate with time. The magnetic field arising due to displacement current is:
1) non-zero everywhere with maximum at the imaginary cylindrical surface connecting peripheries of the plates
2) zero between the plates and non-zero outside
3) zero at all places
4) constant between the plates and zero outside the plates

Ans: 1

2. An electric dipole with dipole moment 𝟓 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟔 𝐂𝐦 is aligned with the direction of a uniform electric field of
magnitude 𝟒 × 𝟏𝟎𝟓 𝐍/𝐂. The dipole is then rotated through an angle of 𝟔𝟎∘ with respect to the electric field.
The change in the potential energy of the dipole is:
1) 1.2 J 2) 1.5 J 3) 0.8 J 4) 1.0 J
Ans: 4

3. A ball of mass 0.5 kg is dropped from a height of 40 m. The ball hits the ground and rises to a height of 10
m. The impulse imparted to the ball during its collision with the ground is (Take 𝒈 = 𝟗. 𝟖 𝐦/𝐬 𝟐 )
1) 0 2) 84 NS 3) 21 NS 4) 7 NS

Ans: 3

4. The intensity of transmitted light when a polaroid sheet, placed between two crossed polaroids at 𝟐𝟐. 𝟓∘
from the polarization axis of one of the polaroid, is ( 𝑰 𝟎 is the intensity of polarised light after passing
through the first polaroid):
𝐼 𝐼 𝐼 𝐼
1) 0 2) 0 3) 0 4) 0
8 16 2 4

Ans: 2

5. The kinetic energies of two similar cars 𝑨 and 𝑩 are 100 J and 225 J respectively. On applying breaks, car A
stops after 1000 m and car B stops after 1500 m. If 𝑭𝑨 and 𝑭𝑩 are the forces applied by the breaks on cars A
and B, respectively, then the ratio 𝑭 𝑨 /𝑭 𝑩 is
1 1 3 2
(1) 2) 3) 4)
3 2 2 3

Ans: 4

6. The current passing through the battery in the given circuit, is:

1) 2.5 A 2) 1.5 A 3) 2.0 A 4) 0.5 A

Ans: 4
7. Three identical heat conducting rods are connected in series as shown in the figure. The rods on the sides
have thermal conductivity 𝟐𝑲 while that in the middle has thermal conductivity 𝑲. The left end of the
combination is maintained at temperature 𝟑𝑻 and the right end at 𝑻. The rods are thermally insulated from
outside. In steady state, temperature at the left junction is 𝑻𝟏 and that at the right junction is 𝑻𝟐. The ratio
𝑻𝟏 /𝑻𝟐 is

5 5 3 4
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 4 2 3
Ans: 1

8. In an oscillating spring mass system, a spring is connected to a box filled with sand. As the box oscillates,
sand leaks slowly out of the box vertically so that the average frequency 𝝎(𝒕) and average amplitude 𝑨(𝒕) of
the system change with time 𝒕. Which one of the following options schematically depicts these changes
correctly?

1) 2)

3) 4)
Ans: 3

9. 𝑨𝑩 is a part of an electrical circuit (see figure). The potential difference " 𝑽𝑨 − 𝑽𝑩 ", at the instant when
current 𝐢 = 𝟐 𝐀 and is increasing at a rate of 𝟏 𝐚𝐦𝐩/second is:

1) 9 volt 2) 10 volt 3) 5 volt 4) 6 volt

Ans: 2

10. A particle of mass 𝒎 is moving around the origin with a constant force 𝑭 pulling it towards the origin. If
Bohr model is used to describe its motion, the radius 𝒓 of the 𝒏th orbit and the particle's speed 𝒗 in the orbit
depend on 𝒏 as
1) 𝑟 ∝ 𝑛2/3 ; 𝑣 ∝ 𝑛1/3 2) 𝑟 ∝ 𝑛4/3 ; 𝑣 ∝ 𝑛−1/3 3) 𝑟 ∝ 𝑛1/3 ; v∝ 𝑛1/3 4) 𝑟 ∝ 𝑛1/3 ; 𝑣 ∝ 𝑛2/3
Ans: 1

11. In some appropriate units, time (𝒕) and position (𝒙) relation of a moving particle is given by 𝒕 = 𝒙𝟐 + 𝒙. The
acceleration of the particle is
2 2 2 2
1) + 3
2) + 3) − 3
4) − 3
(𝑥+1) 2𝑥+1 (𝑥+2) (2𝑥+1)

Ans: 4
12. A model for quantized motion of an electron in a uniform magnetic field 𝑩 states that the flux passing
through the orbit of the electron is 𝒏(𝒉/𝒆) where 𝒏 is an integer, 𝒉 is Planck's constant and 𝒆 is the
magnitude of electron's charge. According to the model, the magnetic moment of an electron in its lowest
energy state will be ( 𝒎 is the mass of the electron)
ℎ𝑒𝐵 ℎ𝑒𝐵 ℎ𝑒 ℎ𝑒
1) 2) 3) 4)
𝜋𝑚 2𝜋𝑚 𝜋𝑚 2𝜋𝑚
Ans: 3

13. A microscope has an objective of focal length 2 cm, eyepiece of focal length 4 cm and the tube length of 40
cm. If the distance of distinct vision of eye is 25 cm, the magnification in the microscope is
1) 150 2) 250 3) 100 4) 125

Ans: 4

14. There are two inclined surfaces of equal length (𝑳) and same angle of inclination 𝟒𝟓∘ with the horizontal.
One of them is rough and the other is perfectly smooth. A given body takes 2 times as much time to slide
down on rough surface than on the smooth surface. The coefficient of kinetic friction (𝝁 𝒌 ) between the
object and the rough surface is close to
1) 0.5 2) 0.75 3) 0.25 4) 0.40

Ans: 2

15. A full wave rectifier circuit with diodes (𝑫𝟏 ) and (𝑫𝟐 ) is shown in the figure. If input supply voltage 𝐕in =
𝟐𝟐𝟎𝐬𝐢𝐧(𝟏𝟎𝟎𝝅𝒕) volt, then at 𝒕 = 𝟏𝟓𝐦 𝐬𝐞𝐜

1) 𝐷1 and 𝐷2 both are forward biased 2) 𝐷1 and 𝐷2 both are reverse biased
(3) 𝐷1 is forward biased, 𝐷2 is reverse biased 4) 𝐷1 is reverse biased, 𝐷2 is forward biased
Ans: 3

16. A uniform rod of mass 20 kg and length 5 m leans against a smooth vertical wall making an angle of 𝟔𝟎∘
with it. The other end rests on a rough horizontal floor. The friction force that the floor exerts on the rod is
(take 𝐠 = 𝟏𝟎 𝐦/𝐬𝟐 )
1) 200 N 2) 200√3 N 3) 100 N 4) 100 √3 N
Ans: 4

17. Two identical charged conducting spheres 𝑨 and B have their centres separated by a certain distance.
Charge on each sphere is 𝒒 and the force of repulsion between them is 𝑭. A third identical uncharged
conducting sphere is brought in contact with sphere A first and then with 𝑩 and finally removed from both.
New force of repulsion between spheres 𝑨 and B (Radii of A and B are negligible compared to the distance of
separation so that for calculating force between them they can be considered as point charges) is best given
as:
𝐹 3𝐹 3𝐹 2𝐹
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 8 5 3

Ans: 2
18. Two cities X and Y are connected by a regular bus service with a bus leaving in either direction every T min.
A girl is driving scooty with a s peed of 𝟔𝟎 𝐤𝐦/𝐡 in the direction X to Y notices that a bus goes past her
every 30 minutes in the direction of her motion, and every 10 minutes in the opposite direction. Choose the
correct option for the period T of the bus service and the speed (assumed constant) of the buses.
1) 10 min, 90 km/h 2) 15 min, 120 km/h 3) 9 min, 40 km/h 4) 25 min, 100 km/h

Ans: 2

19. A container has two chambers of volumes 𝑽𝟏 = 𝟐 litres and 𝑽𝟐 = 𝟑 litres separated by a partition made of a
thermal insulator. The chambers contains 𝒏𝟏 = 𝟓 and 𝒏𝟐 = 𝟒 moles of ideal gas at pressures 𝒑𝟏 = 𝟏 𝐚𝐭𝐦
and 𝒑𝟐 = 𝟐 𝐚𝐭𝐦, respectively. When the partition is removed, the mixture attains an equilibrium pressure
of:
1) 1.4 atm 2) 1.8 atm 3) 1.3 atm 4) 1.6 atm
Ans: 4

20. De-Broglie wavelength of an electron orbiting in the 𝒏 = 𝟐 state of hydrogen atom is close to
(Given Bohr radius = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟓𝟐 𝐧𝐦)
1) 1.67 nm 2) 2.67 nm 3) 0.067 nm 4) 0.67 nm
Ans: 4

21. To an ac power supply of 220 V at 50 Hz, a resistor of 𝟐𝟎𝛀, a capacitor of reactance 𝟐𝟓𝛀 and an inductor of
reactance 𝟒𝟓𝛀 are connected in series. The corresponding current in the circuit and the phase angle
between the current and the voltage is, respectively
1) 15.6 A and 30∘ 2) 15.6 A and 45 ∘ 3) 7.8 A and 30∘ 4) 7.8 A and 45 ∘
Ans: 4

22. Which of the following options represent the variation of photoelectric current with property of light shown
on the 𝒙-axis?

1) A and D 2) B and D 3) A only 4) A and C

Ans: 3

23. A pipe open at both ends has a fundamental frequency 𝒇 in air. The pipe is now dipped vertically in a water
drum to half of its length. The fundamental frequency of the air column is now equal to:
3𝑓 𝑓
1) 2) 2𝑓 3) 4) 𝑓
2 2

Ans: 4
24. Two identical point masses 𝑷 and 𝑸, suspended from two separate massless springs of spring constants 𝒌𝟏
and 𝒌𝟐 , respectively, oscillate vertically. If their maximum speeds are the same, the ratio (𝑨𝑸 /𝑨𝑷) of the
amplitude 𝑨𝑸 of mass 𝑸 to the amplitude 𝑨𝑷 of mass 𝑷 is:
𝑘2 𝑘1 𝑘2 𝑘1
1) √ 2) √ 3) 4)
𝑘1 𝑘2 𝑘1 𝑘2

Ans: 2

25. The output (Y) of the given logic implementation is similar to the output of an/a _______ gate.

1) OR 2) NOR 3) AND 4) NAND

Ans: 2

26. An oxygen cylinder of volume 30 litre has 18.20 moles of oxygen. After some oxygen is withdrawn from the
cylinder, its gauge pressure drops to 11 atmospheric pressure at temperature 𝟐𝟕∘𝐂. The mass of the oxygen
withdrawn from the cylinder is nearly equal to:
𝟏𝟎𝟎
[Given, 𝑹 = 𝐉 𝐦𝐨𝐥−𝟏 𝐊 −𝟏, and molecular mass of 𝐎𝟐 = 𝟑𝟐,
𝟏𝟐
1 atm pressure = 𝟏. 𝟎𝟏 × 𝟏𝟎𝟓 𝐍/𝐦]
1) 0.116 kg 2) 0.156 kg 3) 0.125 kg 4) 0.144 kg

Ans: 2

27. In a certain camera, a combination of four similar thin convex lenses are arranged axially in contact. Then
the power of the combination and the total magnification in comparison to the power (𝒑) and magnification
(𝒎) for each lens will be, respectively
1) 4𝑝 and 𝑚 4 2) 𝑝 4 and 𝑚4 3) 4𝑝 and 4𝑚 4) 𝑝 4 and 4𝑚
Ans: 1

28. Two gases 𝑨 and 𝑩 are filled at the same pressure in separate cylinders with movable pistons of radius 𝒓𝑨
and 𝒓𝑩, respectively. On supplying an equal amount of heat to both the systems reversibly under constant
pressure, the pistons of gas 𝑨 and 𝑩 are displaced by 16 cm and 9 cm, respectively. If the change in their
internal energy is the same, then the ratio 𝒓𝑨 /𝒓𝑩 is equal to
2 √3 4 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
√3 2 3 4

Ans: 4

29. A balloon is made of a material of surface tension 𝑺 and its inflation outlet (from where gas is filled in it) has
small area 𝑨. It is filled with a gas of density 𝝆 and takes a spherical shape of radius 𝑹. When the gas is
allowed to flow freely out of it, its radius 𝒓 changes from 𝑹 to 0 (zero) in time 𝑻. If the speed 𝒗(𝒓) of gas
coming out of the balloon depends on 𝒓 as 𝒓𝒂 and 𝑻 ∝ 𝑺 𝜶 𝑨𝜷 𝝆𝜸𝑹𝜹 then
1 1 1 7 1 1 1 1 7
1) 𝑎 = − , 𝛼 = − , 𝛽 = −1, 𝛾 = , 𝛿 = 2) 𝑎 = , 𝛼 = , 𝛽 = − , 𝛾 = , 𝛿 =
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
1 1 3 1 1 1 5
(3) 𝑎 = , 𝛼 = , 𝛽 = −1, 𝛾 = +1, 𝛿 = 4) 𝑎 = − , 𝛼 = − , 𝛽 = −1, 𝛾 = − , 𝛿 =
2 2 2 2 2 2 2
Ans: 1
30. A bob of heavy mass 𝒎 is suspended by a light string of length 𝒍. The bob is given a horizontal velocity 𝒗𝟎 as
shown in figure. If the string gets slack at some point 𝑷 making an angle 𝜽 from the horizontal, the ratio of
the speed 𝒗 of the bob at point 𝑷 to its initial speed 𝒗𝟎 is:

cos 𝜃 1/2 sin 𝜃 1/2 1 1/2

1) ( ) 2) ( ) 3) (sin 𝜃) 1/2 4) ( )
2+3sin 𝜃 2+3sin 𝜃 2+3sin 𝜃
Ans: 2

31. A physical quantity 𝑷 is related to four observations 𝒂, 𝒃, 𝒄 and 𝒅 as follows:

𝑷 = 𝒂𝟑 𝒃𝟐/𝒄√𝒅
The percentage errors of measurement in 𝒂, 𝒃, 𝒄 and 𝒅 are 𝟏%, 𝟑%, 𝟐%, and 𝟒% respectively. The
percentage error in the quantity 𝑷 is
1) 13% 2) 15% 3) 10% 4) 2%

Ans: 1

32. The Sun rotates around its centre once in 27 days. What will be the period of revolution if the Sun were to
expand to twice its present radius without any external influence? Assume the Sun to be a sphere of uniform
density.
1) 115 days 2) 108 days 3) 100 days 4) 105 days
Ans: 2

33. The radius of Martian orbit around the Sun is about 4 times the radius of the orbit of Mercury. The
Martian year is 687 Earth days. Then which of the following is the length of 1 year on Mercury?
1) 172 earth days 2) 124 earth days 3) 88 earth days 4) 225 earth days
Ans: 3

34. A wire of resistance 𝑹 is cut into 8 equal pieces. From these pieces two equivalent resistances are made by
adding four of these together in parallel. Then these two sets are added in series. The net effective resistance
of the combination is:
𝑅 𝑅 𝑅 𝑅
1) 2) 3) 4)
16 8 64 32

Ans: 1

35. A photon and an electron (mass 𝒎) have the same energy 𝑬. The ratio (𝝀photon /𝝀electron ) of their de Broglie
wavelengths is: (𝒄 is the speed of light)
2𝑚 1
1) 𝑐√ 2) √𝐸/2𝑚 3) √𝐸/2𝑚 4) 𝑐√2𝑚𝐸
𝐸 𝑐

Ans: 1
36. A sphere of radius 𝑹 is cut from a larger solid sphere of radius 𝟐𝑹 as shown in the figure. The ratio of the
moment of inertia of the smaller sphere to that of the rest part of the sphere about the Y-axis is:

7 7 7 7
1) 2) 3) 4)
57 64 8 40

Ans: 1

37. An electron (mass 𝟗 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟑𝟏 𝐤𝐠 and charge 𝟏. 𝟔 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟏𝟗 𝐂 ) moving with speed 𝐜/𝟏𝟎𝟎 (𝐜 = speed of light) is
⃗⃗ of magnitude 𝟗 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟒 T perpendicular to its direction of motion. We wish
injected into a magnetic field 𝑩
⃗ together with the magnetic field so that the electron does not deflect
to apply an uniform electric field 𝑬
from its path. Then (speed of light 𝐜 = 𝟑 × 𝟏𝟎𝟖 𝐦𝐬−𝟏 )
1) 𝐸⃗ is parallel to 𝐵
⃗ and its magnitude is 27 × 102 V m−1
2) 𝐸⃗ is parallel to 𝐵
⃗ and its magnitude is 27 × 104 V m−1
3) 𝐸⃗ is perpendicular to 𝐵⃗ and its magnitude is 27 × 104 V m−1
4) 𝐸⃗ is perpendicular to 𝐵⃗ and its magnitude is 27 × 102 V m−1

Ans: 4

38. The electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by

𝑬𝒛 = 𝟔𝟎𝐜𝐨𝐬(𝟓𝒙 + 𝟏. 𝟓 × 𝟏𝟎𝟗 𝒕)𝐕/𝐦.
Then expression for the corresponding magnetic field is (here subscripts denote the direction of the field):
1) 𝐵𝑧 = 60cos(5𝑥 + 1.5 × 109 𝑡)𝑇 2) 𝐵𝑦 = 60sin (5𝑥 + 1.5 × 109 𝑡)𝑇
3) 𝐵𝑦 = 2 × 10−7 cos(5𝑥 + 1.5 × 109 𝑡)𝑇 4) 𝐵𝑥 = 2 × 10−7 cos(5𝑥 + 1.5 × 109 𝑡)𝑇
Ans: 3

39. A body weighs 48 N on the surface of the earth. The gravitational force experienced by the body due to the
earth at a height equal to one -third the radius of the earth from its surface is:
1) 32 N 2) 36 N 3) 16 N 4) 27 N

Ans: 4

40. An unpolarized light beam travelling in air is incident on a medium of refractive index 1.73 at Brewster's
angle. Then
1) both reflected and transmitted light are perfectly polarized with angles of reflection and refraction close to 60∘
and 30∘ , respectively.
2) transmitted light is completely polarized with angle of refraction close to 30∘
3) reflected light is completely polarized and the angle of reflection is close to 60∘
4) reflected light is partially polarized and the angle of reflection is close to 30 ∘

Ans: 3
41. A constant voltage of 50 V is maintained between the points 𝑨 and 𝑩 of the circuit shown in the figure. The
current through the branch CD of the circuit is:

1) 2.5 A 2) 3.0 A 3) 1.5 A 4) 2.0 A

Ans: 4

42. The plates of a parallel plate capacitor are separated by 𝒅. Two slabs of different dielectric constant 𝑲 𝟏 and
𝟑 𝒅
𝑲 𝟐 with thickness 𝒅 and , respectively are inserted in the capacitor. Due to this, the capacitance becomes
𝟖 𝟐
two times larger than when there is nothing between the plates.
If 𝑲 𝟏 = 𝟏. 𝟐𝟓𝑲𝟐, the value of 𝑲 𝟏 is:
1) 1.60 2) 1.33 3) 2.66 4) 2.33

Ans: 3

43. Consider the diameter of a spherical object being measured with the help of a Vernier callipers. Suppose its
10 Vernier Scale Divisions (V.S.D.) are equal to its 9 Main Scale Divisions (M.S.D.). The least division in the
M.S. is 0.1 cm and the zero of V.S. is at 𝒙 = 𝟎. 𝟏 𝐜𝐦 when the jaws of Vernier callipers are closed.
If the main scale reading for the diameter is 𝑴 = 𝟓 𝐜𝐦 and the number of coinciding vernier division is 8,
the measured diameter after zero error correction, is
1) 4.98 cm 2) 5.00 cm 3) 5.18 cm 4) 5.08 cm
Ans: 1

44. A 2 amp current is flowing through two different small circular copper coils having radii ratio 𝟏: 𝟐. The
ratio of their respective magnetic moments will be
1) 2: 1 2) 4: 1 3) 1: 4 4) 1: 2

Ans: 3

45. Consider a water tank shown in the figure. It has one wall at 𝒙 = 𝑳 and can be taken to be very wide in the 𝒛
direction. When filled with a liquid of surface tension 𝑺 and density 𝝆, the liquid surface makes angle
𝜽𝟎 (𝜽𝟎 ≪ 𝟏) with the 𝒙-axis at 𝒙 = 𝑳. If 𝒚(𝒙) is the height of the surface then the equation for 𝒚(𝒙) is:

𝒅𝒚
(take 𝜽(𝒙) = 𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝜽(𝒙) = 𝐭𝐚𝐧 𝜽(𝒙) = , 𝐠 is the acceleration due to gravity)
𝒅𝒙
𝑑2𝑦 𝜌𝑔 𝑑𝑦 𝜌𝑔 𝑑2 𝑦 𝜌𝑔 𝑑2 𝑦 𝜌𝑔
1) =√ 2) =√ 𝑥 3) = 𝑥 4) = 𝑦
𝑑𝑥 2 𝑆 𝑑𝑥 𝑆 𝑑𝑥 2 𝑆 𝑑𝑥 2 𝑆

Ans: 3
 CHEMISTRY

46. Identify the suitable reagent for the following conversion.

1) (i) NaBH4 , (ii) H + /H2 O 2) H2 /Pd − BaSO4

3) (i) LiAlH4 , (ii) H + /H2 O 4) (i) AlH(iBu)2 , (ii) H2 O
Ans: 4

47. The correct order of decreasing acidity of the following aliphatic acids is:
1) HCOOH > CH3 COOH > (CH3 )2 CHCOOH > (CH3 )3 CCOOH
2) HCOOH > (CH3 )3 CCOOH > (CH3 )2 CHCOOH > CH3 COOH
3) (CH3 )3 CCOOH > (CH3 )2 CHCOOH > CH3 COOH > HCOOH
4) CH3 COOH > (CH3 )2 CHCOOH > (CH3 )3 CCOOH > HCOOH
Ans: 1

48. Which one of the following reactions does NOT belong to "Lassaigne's test"?
1) Na  X 
 NaX 2) 2CuO  C  
 2Cu  CO2
3) Na  C  N 

 NaCN 4) 2Na  S 

 Na2 S
Ans: 2

49. If the rate constant of a reaction is 𝟎. 𝟎𝟑 𝐬 −𝟏, how much time does it take for 𝟕. 𝟐 𝐦𝐨𝐥 𝐋−𝟏 concentration of
the reactant to get reduced to 𝟎. 𝟗 𝐦𝐨𝐥 𝐋−𝟏 ?
(Given: 𝐥𝐨𝐠 𝟐 = 𝟎. 𝟑𝟎𝟏 )
1) 210 s 2) 21.0 s 3) 69.3 s 4) 23.1 s

Ans: 3

50. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: A hypothetical diatomic molecule with bond order zero is quite stable.
Statement II: As bond order increases, the bond length increases.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false 2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true 4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Ans: 4

51. Out of the following complex compounds, which of the compound will be having the minimum conductance
in solution?
1) [Co(NH3 )6 ]Cl3 2) [Co(NH3 )5 Cl]Cl 3) [Co(NH3 )3 Cl3 ] 4) [Co( NH3 )4 Cl2 ]
Ans: 3,4

52. Which of the following aqueous solution will exhibit highest boiling point?
1) 0.01 M Na2 SO4 2) 0.015 M C6 H12 O6 3) 0.01 M Urea 4) 0.01 M KNO3
Ans: 1
53. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): undergoes 𝐒𝐍 𝟐 reaction faster than

Reason (R): Iodine is a better leaving group because of its large size.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) 𝐀 is true but 𝐑 is false
2) 𝐀 is false but 𝐑 is true
3) Both 𝐀 and 𝐑 are true and 𝐑 is the correct explanation of 𝐀
4) Both 𝐀 and 𝐑 are true but 𝐑 is not the correct explanation of 𝐀

Ans: 3

54. Consider the following compounds:

KO2 , H 2 O2 and H 2 SO4 .
The oxidation states of the underlined elements in them are, respectively
1) +1, −2, and +4 2) +4, −4, and +6 3) +1, −1, and +6 4) +2, −2, and +6
Ans: 3

55. Match List - I with List – II

List-I List-II

A. Haber process I. Fe catalyst

B. Wacker oxidation II. PdCl2

C. Wilkinson catalyst III. [(PPh3 )3 RhCl]

D. Ziegler catalyst IV. TiCl4 with Al(CH3 )3

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV 2) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III 4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Ans: 1

56. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Like nitrogen that can form ammonia, arsenic can form arsine.
Statement II: Antimony cannot form antimony pentoxide.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Ans: 1

57. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Ferromagnetism is considered as an extreme form of paramagnetism.
Statement II: The number of unpaired electrons in a 𝐂𝐫 𝟐+ ion (𝐙 = 𝟐𝟒) is the same as that of a 𝐍𝐝𝟑+ ion
(𝐙 = 𝟔𝟎).

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false 2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true 4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Ans: 1
58. Which one of the following reactions does NOT give benzene as the product?

1) 2)

3) 4)

Ans: 2

59. Match List - I with List – II

List-I List-II
A. 𝐗𝐞𝐎𝟑 I. 𝐬𝐩𝟑 𝐝; linear
B. 𝐗𝐞𝐅𝟐 II. 𝐬𝐩𝟑; pyramidal
C. 𝐗𝐞𝐎𝐅𝟒 III. 𝐬𝐩𝟑 𝐝𝟑; distorted octahedral
D. 𝐗𝐞𝐅𝟔 IV. 𝒔𝒑𝟑𝒅𝟐; square pyramidal

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I 2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III 4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
Ans: 3

60. How many products (including stereoisomers) are expected from monochlorination of the following
compound?

1) 5 2) 6 3) 2 4) 3
Ans: 2

61. Which of the following statements are true?

A. Unlike 𝑮𝒂 that has a very high melting point, Cs has a very low melting point.
B. On Pauling scale, the electronegativity values of N and Cl are not the same.
C. 𝐀𝐫, 𝐊 + , 𝐂𝐥−, 𝐂𝐚𝟐+, and 𝐒 𝟐− are all isoelectronic species.
D. The correct order of the first ionization enthalpies of 𝐍𝐚, 𝐌𝐠, 𝐀𝐥, and Si is 𝐒𝐢 > 𝐀𝐥 > 𝐌𝐠 > 𝐍𝐚.
E. The atomic radius of Cs is greater than that of Li and Rb.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) C and D only 2) A, C, and E only 3) A, B, and E only 4) C and E only
Ans: 4

62. The standard heat of formation, in 𝐤𝐜𝐚𝐥/𝐦𝐨𝐥 of 𝐁𝐚𝟐+ is:

[Given: standard heat of formation of 𝐒𝐎𝟐−
𝟒 ion (𝐚𝐪) = −𝟐𝟏𝟔 𝐤𝐜𝐚𝐥/𝐦𝐨𝐥, standard heat of crystallisation of
𝐁𝐚𝐒𝐎𝟒 ( 𝐬) = −𝟒. 𝟓 𝐤𝐜𝐚𝐥/𝐦𝐨𝐥, standard heat of formation of 𝐁𝐚𝐒𝐎𝟒( 𝐬) = −𝟑𝟒𝟗 𝐤𝐜𝐚𝐥/𝐦𝐨𝐥]
1) +133.0 2) +220.5 3) -128.5 4) -133.0
Ans: 3
63. Match List - I with List – II

List-I List-II
(Example) (Type of Solution)
A. Humidity I. Solid in solid
B. Alloys II. Liquid in gas
C. Amalgams III. Solid in gas
D. Smoke IV. Liquid in solid
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II 2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III 4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Ans: 4

64. 𝐂(𝐬) + 𝟐𝐇𝟐 ( 𝐠) → 𝐂𝐇𝟒( 𝐠);𝚫𝐇 = −𝟕𝟒. 𝟖 𝐤𝐉 𝐦𝐨𝐥−𝟏

Which of the following diagrams gives an accurate representation of the above reaction?
[𝐑 → reactants; 𝐏 → products]

1) 2)

3) 4)
Ans: 3

65. Sugar ‘X’

A. is found in honey.
B. is a keto sugar.
C. exists in 𝜶 and 𝜷-anomeric forms.
D. is laevorotatory.
' 𝑿 ' is:
1) Maltose 2) Sucrose 3) D-Glucose 4) D-Fructose
Ans: 4

66. Total number of possible isomers (both structural as well as stereoisomers) of cyclic ethers of molecular
formula 𝐂𝟒 𝐇𝟖𝐎 is:
1) 10 2) 11 3) 6 4) 8
Ans: 1

67. For the reaction 𝐀(𝐠) ⇌ 𝟐 𝐁( 𝐠), the backward reaction rate constant is higher than the forward reaction
rate constant by a factor of 2500, at 1000 K.
[Given: 𝐑 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟖𝟑𝟏 𝐋 𝐚𝐭𝐦 𝐦𝐨𝐥−𝟏 𝐊 −𝟏 ]
𝑲 𝒑 for the reaction at 1000 K is
1) 0.033 2) 0.021 3) 83.1 4) 2.077 × 105
Ans: 1
68. The ratio of the wavelengths of the light absorbed by a Hydrogen atom when it undergoes 𝐧 = 𝟐 → 𝐧 = 𝟑
and 𝐧 = 𝟒 → 𝐧 = 𝟔 transitions, respectively, is
1 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
9 4 36 16

Ans: 2

69. If the molar conductivity ( 𝚲𝒎 ) of a 𝟎. 𝟎𝟓𝟎 𝐦𝐨𝐥 𝐋−𝟏 solution of a monobasic weak acid is 𝟗𝟎 𝐒 𝐜𝐦 𝟐 𝐦𝐨𝐥−𝟏,
its extent (degree) of dissociation will be
[Assume 𝚲∘+ = 𝟑𝟒𝟗. 𝟔 𝐒 𝐜𝐦𝟐 𝐦𝐨𝐥−𝟏 and 𝚲∘− = 𝟓𝟎. 𝟒 𝐒 𝐜𝐦𝟐 𝐦𝐨𝐥−𝟏 . ]
1) 0.225 2) 0.215 3) 0.115 4) 0.125
Ans: 1

70. 5 moles of liquid X and 10 moles of liquid Y make a solution having a vapour pressure of 70 torr. The
vapour pressures of pure X and Y are 63 torr and 78 torr respectively. Which of the following is true
regarding the described solution?
1) The solution is ideal.
2) The solution has volume greater than the sum of individual volumes.
3) The solution shows positive deviation.
4) The solution shows negative deviation.
Ans: 4

71. Among the following, choose the ones with equal number of atoms.
A. 212 g of 𝐍𝐚𝟐 𝐂𝐎𝟑( 𝐬)[ molar mass = 𝟏𝟎𝟔 𝐠 ]
B. 248 g of 𝐍𝐚𝟐 𝐎(𝐬) [molar mass = 𝟔𝟐 𝐠 ]
C. 240 g of NaOH (s) [molar mass = 𝟒𝟎 𝐠 ]
D. 12 g of 𝐇𝟐 ( 𝐠) [molar mass = 𝟐 𝐠 ]
E. 220 g of 𝐂𝐎𝟐 ( 𝐠)[ molar mass = 𝟒𝟒 𝐠]

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) B, C, and D only 2) B, D, and E only 3) A, B, and C only 4) A, B , and D only
Ans: 4

72. Which of the following are paramagnetic?

A. [𝐍𝐢𝐂𝐥𝟒]𝟐−
B. 𝐍𝐢(𝐂𝐎)𝟒
C. [𝐍𝐢(𝐂𝐍)𝟒 ]𝟐−
D. [𝐍𝐢(𝐇𝟐 𝐎)𝟔]𝟐+
E. 𝐍𝐢(𝐏𝐏𝐡𝟑 )𝟒

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A and D only 2) A, D and E only 3) A and C only 4) B and E only
Ans: 1

73. If the half-life (𝐭 𝟏/𝟐 ) for a first order reaction is 1 minute, then the time required for 𝟗𝟗. 𝟗% completion of
the reaction is closest to:
1) 5 minutes 2) 10 minutes 3) 2 minutes 4) 4 minutes
Ans: 2
74. Energy and radius of first Bohr orbit of 𝐇𝐞+and 𝐋𝐢𝟐+ are
[Given 𝐑 𝐇 = 𝟐. 𝟏𝟖 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟏𝟖 𝐉, 𝐚𝟎 = 𝟓𝟐. 𝟗𝐩𝐦 ]
1) En(Li2+ ) = −19.62 × 10−16 J; rn (Li2+ ) = 17.6pm
En (He+) = −8.72 × 10−16 J; rn (He+ ) = 26.4pm
2) En(Li2+ ) = −8.72 × 10−16 J; 𝑟𝑛 (Li2+ ) = 17.6pm
En (He+) = −19.62 × 10−16 J; rn (He+ ) = 17.6pm
3) En(Li2+ ) = −19.62 × 10−18 J; rn (Li2+) = 17.6pm
En (He+) = −8.72 × 10−18 J; rn (He+ ) = 26.4pm
4) En(Li2+ ) = −8.72 × 10−18 J; rn (Li2+ ) = 26.4pm
En (He+) = −19.62 × 10−18 J; rn (He+ ) = 17.6pm

Ans: 3

75. Among the given compounds I-III, the correct order of bond dissociation energy of 𝐂 − 𝐇 bond marked with
* is:

1) III > II > I 2) II > III > I 3) II > I > III 4) I > II > III
Ans: 3

76. Dalton's Atomic theory could not explain which of the following?
1) Law of multiple proportion 2) Law of gaseous volume
3) Law of conservation of mass 4) Law of constant proportion
Ans: 2
77. Identify the correct orders against the property mentioned
A. 𝐇𝟐 𝐎 > 𝐍𝐇𝟑 > 𝐂𝐇𝐂𝐥𝟑 - dipole moment
B. 𝐗𝐞𝐅𝟒 > 𝐗𝐞𝐎𝟑 > 𝐗𝐞𝐅𝟐 - number of lone pairs on central atom
C. 𝐎 − 𝐇 > 𝐂 − 𝐇 > 𝐍 − 𝐎 - bond length
D. 𝐍𝟐 > 𝐎𝟐 > 𝐇𝟐 - bond enthalpy

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A, C only 2) B, C only 3) A, D only 4) B, D only
Ans: 3
78. Match List I with List II.

List I List II
(Name of Vitamin) (Deficiency disease)
A. Vitamin B12 I. Cheilosis

B. Vitamin D II. Convulsions

C. Vitamin 𝐁𝟐 III. Rickets

D. Vitamin 𝑩𝟔 IV. Pernicious anaemia

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV 2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV 4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Ans: 4
79. The correct order of decreasing basic strength of the given amines is :
1) N -ethylethanamine > ethanamine > N -methylaniline > benzenamine
2) benzenamine > ethanamine > N -methylaniline > N-ethylethanamine
3) N-methylaniline > benzenamine > ethanamine > N-ethylethanamine
4) N-ethylethanamine > ethanamine > benzenamine > N-methylaniline
Ans: 1

80. The correct order of the wavelength of light absorbed by the following complexes is,
A. [𝐂𝐨(𝐍𝐇𝟑)𝟔]𝟑+
B. [𝐂𝐨(𝐂𝐍)𝟔]𝟑−
C. [𝐂𝐮(𝐇𝟐𝐎)𝟒]𝟐+
D. [𝐓𝐢(𝐇𝟐𝐎)𝟔]𝟑+

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) C < D < A < B 2) C < A < D < B 3) B < D < A < C 4) B < A < D < C

Ans: 4

81. Which one of the following compounds does not decolourize bromine water?

Ans: 3

82. Predict the major product ' 𝑷 ' in the following sequence of reactions –

Ans: 3
83. Match List I with List II

List-I List-II
(Mixture) (Method of Separation)
A. CHCl3 + C6 H5 NH2 I. Distillation under reduced
pressure
B. Crude oil in petroleum industry II. Steam distillation
C. Glycerol from spent-lye III. Fractional distillation
D. Aniline - water IV. Simple distillation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II 2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II 4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Ans: 3

84. Which among the following electronic configurations belong to main group elements?
A. [Ne]3 s 1 B. [Ar]3 d3 4 s 2 C. [Kr]4 d10 5 s 2 5p5
D. [Ar]3 d10 4 s 1 E. [𝑅𝑛]5𝑓 0 6𝑑 2 7𝑠2

Choose the correct answer from the option given below :

1) D and E only 2) A, C and D only 3) B and E only 4) A and C only

Ans: 4

85. Which one of the following compounds can exist as cis-trans isomers?
1) 1,1-Dimethylcyclopropane 2) 1,2-Dimethylcyclohexane
3) Pent-1-ene 4) 2-Methylhex-2-ene
Ans: 2

86. Phosphoric acid ionizes in three steps with their ionization constant values 𝐊 𝐚𝟏 , 𝐊 𝐚𝟐 and 𝐊 𝐚𝟑 , respectively,
while K is the overall ionization constant.
Which of the following statements are true?
A. log K = log K a1 + log K a2 + log K a3
B. H3 PO4 is a stronger acid than H2 PO4− and HPO42−.
C. 𝐾𝑎1 > 𝐾𝑎2 > 𝐾𝑎3
𝐾𝑎3 +𝐾𝑎2
D. 𝐾𝑎1 =
2

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) B , C and D only 2) A, B and C only 3) A and B only 4) A and C only

Ans: 2

87. Match List I with List II

List-I List-II
(Ion) (Group Number in
Cation Analysis)
A. Co2+ I. Group-I
B. Mg 2+ II. Group-III
C. Pb2+ III. Group-IV
D. Al3+ IV. Group-VI

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I 2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I 4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Ans: 4
88. Higher yield of NO in N2 ( g) + O2 ( g) ⇌ 2NO(g) can be obtained at
[ ΔH of the reaction = +180.7 kJ mol−1 ]
A. . higher temperature
B. lower temperature
C. higher concentration of N2
D. higher concentration of O2

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) B, C, D only 2) A, C, D only 3) A, D only 4) B, C only

Ans: 2

89. Given below are two statements :

Statement I: Benzenediazonium salt is prepared by the reaction of aniline with nitrous acid at 273 − 278 K. It
decomposes easily in the dry state.
Statement II: Insertion of iodine into the benzene ring is difficult and hence iodobenzene is prepared through the
reaction of benzenediazonium salt with KI.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Ans: 3

90. The major product of the following reaction is:

Ans: 4
 Biology

91. In the above represented plasmid an alien piece of DNA is inserted at EcoRI site. Which of the following
strategies will be chosen to select the recombinant colonies?

1) White color colonies will be selected.

2) Blue color colonies grown on ampicillin plates can be selected.
3) Using ampicillin & tetracyclin containing medium plate.
4) Blue color colonies will be selected.

Ans: 1

92. The protein portion of an enzyme is called:

1) Apoenzyme 2) Prosthetic group 3) Cofactor 4) Coenzyme
Ans: 1

93. Given below are two statements:

Statement I : The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is solar energy.
Statement II: The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem is called net
primary productivity (NPP).
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
Ans: 1

94. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : A typical unfertilised, angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is 8 nucleate and 7 -celled.
Reason ( 𝐑 ): The egg apparatus has 2 polar nuclei.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
1) 𝐀 is true but 𝐑 is false
2) 𝐀 is false but 𝐑 is true
3) Both 𝐀 and 𝐑 are true and 𝐑 is the correct explanation of 𝐀
4) Both 𝐀 and 𝐑 are true but 𝐑 is NOT the correct explanation of 𝐀

Ans: 1

95. Neoplastic characteristics of cells refer to:

A. A mass of proliferating cell
B. Rapid growth of cells
C. Invasion and damage to the surrounding tissue
D. Those confined to original location

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A, B, D only 2) B, C, D only 3) A, B only 4) A, B, C only

Ans: 4
96. Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of gymnosperms?
1) Seeds are absent.
2) Gymnosperms have flowers for reproduction.
3) Seeds are enclosed in fruits.
4) Seeds are naked.
Ans: 4

97. Match List - I with List - II.

List-I List-II
A. Progesterone I. Pars intermedia
B. Relaxin II. Ovary
C. Melanocyte III. Adrenal
stimulating hormone Medulla
D. Catecholamines IV. Corpus luteum

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III 2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III 4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Ans: 3

98. Which chromosome in the human genome has the highest number of genes?
1) Chromosome 1 2) Chromosome 10 3) Chromosome X 4) Chromosome Y
Ans: 1

99. Which of the following statements about RuBisCO is true?

1) It is an enzyme involved in the photolysis of water.
2) It catalyzes the carboxylation of RuBP.
3) It is active only in the dark.
4) It has higher affinity for oxygen than carbon dioxide.
Ans: 2

100. The first menstruation is called:

1) Diapause 2) Ovulation 3) Menopause 4) Menarche
Ans: 4

101. Which of the following genetically engineered organisms was used by Eli Lilly to prepare human insulin?
1) Virus 2) Phage 3) Bacterium 4) Yeast
Ans: 3

102. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrate.
Reason (R): The members of subphylum vertebrata possess notochord during the embryonic period, the
notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in adults.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
1) 𝐀 is true but 𝐑 is false
2) 𝐀 is false but 𝐑 is true
3) Both 𝐀 and 𝐑 are true and 𝐑 is the correct explanation of 𝐀
4) Both 𝐀 and 𝐑 are true but 𝐑 is not the correct explanation of 𝐀
Ans: 3
103. What is the main function of the spindle fibe rs during mitosis ?
1) To repair damaged DNA 2) To regulate cell growth
3) To separate the chromosomes 4) To synthesize new DNA

Ans: 3

104. Match List II with List II :

List-I List-II
A. Alfred Hershey and I. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Martha Chase
B. Euchromatin II. Densely packed and dark-stained
C. Frederick Griffith III. Loosely packed and light-stained
D. Heterochromatin IV. DNA as genetic material
confirmation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II 2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III 4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

Ans: 1

105. Match List II with List II.

List-I List-II
A. Adenosine I. Nitrogen base
B. Adenylic acid II. Nucleotide
C. Adenine III. Nucleoside
D. Alanine IV. Amino acid

Choose the option with all correct matches.

1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

Ans: 1

106. In frog, the Renal portal system is a special venous connection that acts to link :
1) Kidney and intestine 2) Kidney and lower part of body
3) Liver and intestine 4) Liver and kidney
Ans: 2

107. Which of the following are the posttranscriptional events in an eukaryotic cell?
A. Transport of pre-mRNA to cytoplasm prior to splicing.
B. Removal of introns and joining of exons.
C. Addition of methyl group at 5′ end of hnRNA.
D. Addition of adenine residues at 3′ end of hnRNA.
E. Base pairing of two complementary RNAs.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) B, C, E only 2) C, D, E only 3) A, B, C only 4) B , C, D only
Ans: 4

108. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA following the equation.
1) 2n + 1 2) 2 N 2 3) N 2 4) 2𝑛
Ans: 4
109. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Both wind and water pollinated flowers are not very colourful and do not produce nectar.
Reason (R) : The flowers produce enormous amount of pollen grains in wind and water pollinated flowers.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) 𝐀 is true but 𝐑 is false
2) 𝐀 is false but 𝐑 is true
3) Both 𝐀 and R are true and R is the correct explanation of 𝐀
4) Both 𝐀 and 𝐑 are true but 𝐑 is NOT the correct explanation of 𝐀
Ans: 4

110. Epiphytes that are growing on a mango branch is an example of which of the following?
1) Predation 2) Amensalism 3) Commensalism 4) Mutualism
Ans: 3

111. Find the correct statements :

A. In human pregnancy, the major organ systems are formed at the end of 12 weeks.
B. In human pregnancy the major organ systems are formed at the end of 8 weeks.
C. In human pregnancy heart is formed after one month of gestation.
D. In human pregnancy, limbs and digits develop by the end of second month.
E. In human pregnancy the appearance of hair is usually observed in the fifth month. Choose the correct
answer from the options givepbelow:
1) B , C, D and E Only 2) A , C , D and E Only
3) A and E Only 4) B and C Only
Ans: 2

112. Identify the part of a bio-reactor which is used as a foam braker from the given figure.

1) D 2) C 3) A 4) B
Ans: 2

113. Frogs respire in water by skin and buccal cavity and on land by skin, buccal cavity and lungs.
Choose the correct answer from the following :
1) The statement is false for water but true for land
2) The statement is false for both the environment
3) The statement is true for water but false for land
4) The statement is true for both the environment
Ans: 1

114. Consider the following statements regarding function of adrenal medullary hormones :
A. It causes pupilary constriction
B. It is a hyperglycemic hormone
C. It causes piloerection
D. It increases strength of heart contraction Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A, C and D Only 2) D Only 3) C and D Only 4) B, C and D Only
Ans: 4
115. Read the following statements on plant growth and development.
A. Parthenocarpy can be induced by auxins.
B. Plant growth regulators can be involved in promotion as well as inhibition of growth.
C. Dedifferentiation is a pre -requisite for re-differentiation.
D. Abscisic acid is a plant growth promoter.
E. Apical dominance promotes the growth of lateral buds.

Choose the option with all correct statements.

1) A, D, E only 2) B, D, E only

3) A , B, C only 4) A, C, E only

Ans: 3

116. Which of the following hormones released from the pituitary is actually synthesized in the hypothalamus?
1) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) 2) Adenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)
3) Luteinizing hormone (LH) 4) Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
Ans: 4

117. Which of the following is an example of non-distilled alcoholic beverage produced by yeast?
1) Beer 2) Rum 3) Whisky 4) Brandy
Ans: 1

118. What is the pattern of inheritance for polygenic trait?

1) Autosomal dominant pattern 2) X-linked recessive inheritance pattern
3) Mendelian inheritance pattern 4) Non-mendelian inheritance pattern
Ans: 4

119. Match List - II with List - II.

List-I List-II
A. Head I. Enzymes
B. Middle piece II. Sperm motility
C. Acrosome III. Energy
D. Tail IV. Genetic material
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I 2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II 4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Ans: 3

120. Which of the following is an example of a zygomorphic flower?

1) Pea 2) Chilli 3) Petunia 4) Datura
Ans: 1

121. Which of following organisms cannot fix nitrogen?

A. Azotobacter B. Oscillatoria C. Anabaena
D. Volvox E. Nostoc

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) B only 2) E only 3) A only 4) D only

Ans: 4
122. Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?
1) Zoos and botanical gardens 2) Protected areas
3) National Park 4) Wildlife Sanctuary
Ans: 1

123. Who is known as the father of Ecology in India?

1) Ram Udar 2) Birbal Sahni 3) S. R. Kashyap 4) Ramdeo Misra
Ans: 4

124. Given below are two statements:

Statement I : In the RNA world, RNA is considered the first genetic material evolved to carry out essential life
processes. RNA acts as a genetic material and also as a catalyst for some important biochemical reactions in living
systems. Being reactive, RNA is unstable.
Statement II : DNA evolved from RNA and is a more stable genetic material. Its double helical strands being
complementary, resist changes by evolving repairing mechanism.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
1) Statement I is correct but statement II. is incorrect
2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
Ans: 3

125. Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Transfer RNAs and ribosomal RNA do not interact with mRNA.
Statement II: RNA interference (RNAi) takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defence.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Ans: 2

126. Match List - I with List - II.

List-I List-II
A. Heart I. Erythropoietin
B. Kidney II. Aldosterone
C. Gastro-intestinal tract III. Atrial natriuretic factor
D. Adrenal Cortex IV. Secretin

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II 2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV 4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Ans: 2

127. All living members of the class Cyclostomata are:

1) Symbiotic 2) Ectoparasite 3) Free living 4) Endoparasite
Ans: 2
128. Streptokinase produced by bacterium Streptococcus is used for
1) Liver disease treatment 2) Removing clots from blood vessels
3) Curd production 4) Ethanol production
Ans: 2

129. Role of the water vascular system in Echinoderms is :

A. Respiration and Locomotion
B. Excretion and Locomotion
C. Capture and transport of food
D. Digestion and Respiration
E. Digestion and Excretion

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1) B and C Only 2) B, D and E Only
3) A and B Only 4) A and C Only

Ans: 3

130. Match List I with List II.

List-I List-II
A. Pteridophyte I. Salvia
B. Bryophyte II. Ginkgo
C. Angiosperm III. Polytrichum
D. Gymnosperm IV. Salvinia

Choose the option with all correct matches.

1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II 2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I 4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Ans: 4

131. Which are correct:

A. Computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging detect cancers of internal organs.
B. Chemotherapeutics drugs are used to kill non-cancerous cells.
C. 𝛼-interferon activate the cancer patients' immune system and helps in destroying the tumour.
D. Chemotherapeutic drugs are biological response modifiers.
E. In the case of leukaemia blood cell counts are decreased.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) C and D only 2) A and C only 3) B and D only 4) D and E only
Ans: 2

132. What are the potential drawbacks in adoption of the IVF method?
A. High fatality risk to mother
B. Expensive instruments and reagents
C. Husband/wife necessary for being donors
D. Less adoption of orphans
E. Not available in India
F. Possibility that the early embryo does not survive
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A , B , C, D only 2) A , B , C, E, F only
3) B, D, F only 4) A, C, D, F only

Ans: 3
133. Consider the following:
A. The reductive division for the human female gametogenesis starts earlier than that of the male gametogenesis.
B. The gap between the first meiotic division and the second meiotic division is much shorter for males compared
to females.
C. The first polar body is associated with the formation of the primary oocyte.
D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) surge leads to disintegration of the endometrium and onset of menstrual bleeding.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) 𝐵 and 𝐷 are true 2) B and C are true 3) A and B are true 4) A and C are true
Ans: 3

134. In bryophytes, the gemmae help in which one of the following?

1) Nutrient absorption 2) Gaseous exchange 3) Sexual reproduction 4) Asexual reproduction
Ans: 4
135. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The primary function of the Golgi apparatus is to package the materials made by the endoplasmic
reticulum and deliver it to intracellular targets and outside the cell.
Reason ( 𝐑 ): Vesicles containing materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum fuse with the cis face of the Golgi
apparatus, and they are modified and released from the trans face of the Golgi apparatus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) 𝐀 is true but 𝐑 is false
(2) 𝐀 is false but 𝐑 is true
(3) Both 𝐀 and 𝐑 are true and 𝐑 is the correct explanation of 𝐀
(4) Both 𝐀 and 𝐑 are true but 𝐑 is not the correct explanation of 𝐀
Ans: 3

136. Which one of the following statements refers to Reductionist Biology?

1) Chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.
2) Behavioural approach to study and understand living organisms.
3) Physico-chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.
4) Physiological approach to study and understand living organisms.
Ans: 3

137. After maturation, in primary lymphoid organs, the lymphocytes migrate for interaction with antigens to
secondary lymphoid organ(s) / tissue(s) like:
A. thymus
B. bone marrow
C. spleen
D. lymph nodes
E. Peyer's patches

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) E, A, B only 2) C, D, E only 3) B, C, D only 4) A, B, C only

Ans: 2
138. Match List I with List II :
List-I List-II
A. The Evil Quartet I. Cryopreservation
B. Ex situ conservation II. Alien species invasion
C. Lantana camara III. Causes of biodiversity losses
D. Dodo IV. Extinction
Choose the option with all correct matches.
1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I 2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV 4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Ans: 4
139. How many meiotic and mitotic divisions need to occur for the development of a mature female gametophyte
from the megaspore mother cell in an angiosperm plant?
1) 1 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis 2) No Meiosis and 2 Mitosis
3) 2 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis 4) 1 Meiosis and 2 Mitosis
Ans: 1

140. Which of the following type of immunity is present at the time of birth and is a nonspecific type of defence in
the human body?
1) Cell-mediated Immunity 2) Humoral Immunity
3) Acquired Immunity 4) Innate Immunity
Ans: 4

141. Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Fig fruit is a non-vegetarian fruit as it has enclosed fig wasps in it.

Statement II : Fig wasp and fig tree exhibit mutual relationship as fig wasp completes its life cycle in fig fruit and
fig fruit gets pollinated by fig wasp.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
Ans: 2

142. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Cells of the tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus.
Reason (R): Presence of more than one nucleus in the tapetum increases the efficiency of nourishing the
developing microspore mother cells.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) 𝐀 is true but 𝐑 is false
(2) A is false but ℝ is true
(3) Both 𝐀 and 𝐑 are true and 𝐑 is the correct explanation of 𝐀
(4) Both 𝐀 and ℝ are true but 𝐑 is NOT the correct explanation of 𝐀

Ans: 3

143. From the statements given below choose the correct option:
A. The eukaryotic ribosomes are 80 S and prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S.
B. Each ribosome has two sub-units.
C. The two sub-units of 80 S ribosome are 60 S and 40 S while that of 70 S are 50 S and 30 S .
D. The two sub-units of 80 S ribosome are 60 S and 20 S and that of 70 S are 50 S and 20 S .
E. The two sub-units of 80 S are 60 S and 30 S and that of 70 S are 50 S and 30 S .
1) A, B, E are true 2) B, D, E are true
3) A, B, C are true 4) A, B, D are true
Ans: 3

144. Which one of the following enzymes contains 'Haem' as the prosthetic group?
1) Succinate dehydrogenase 2) Catalase
3) RuBisCo 4) Carbonic anhydrase
Ans: 2
145. What is the name of the blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart in a frog?
1) Pulmonary vein 2) Vena cava
3) Aorta 4) Pulmonary artery
Ans: 2

146. Given below are the stages in the life cycle of pteridophytes. Arrange the following stages in the correct
sequence.
A. Prothallus stage
B. Meiosis in spore mother cells
C. Fertilisation
D. Formation of archegonia and antheridia in gametophyte.
E. Transfer of antherozoids to the archegonia in presence of water.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
1) D, E, C, A, B 2) E, D, C, B, A 3) B, A, D, E, C 4) B, A, E, C, D
Ans: 3

147. The blue and white selectable markers have been developed which differentiate recombinant colonies from
non-recombinant colonies on the basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic
substrate.
Given below are two statements about this method:
Statement I : The blue coloured colonies have DNA insert in the plasmid and they are identified as recombinant
colonies.
Statement II : The colonies without blue colour have DNA insert in the plasmid and are identified as recombinant
colonies.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Ans: 2

148. Which of the following microbes is NOT involved in the preparation of household products?
A. Aspergillus niger
B. Lactobacillus
C. Trichoderma polysporum
D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
E. Propionibacterium sharmanii

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) C and D only 2) C and E only 3) A and B only 4) A and C only

Ans: 4

149. Silencing of specific mRNA is possible via RNAi because of -

1) Complementary tRNA 2) Non-complementary ssRNA
3) Complementary dsRNA 4) Inhibitory ssRNA
Ans: 3

150. The complex II of mitochondrial electron transport chain is also known as

1) Cytochrome c oxidase 2) NADH dehydrogenase
3) Cytochrome bc 1 4) Succinate dehydrogenase
Ans: 4
151. While trying to find out the characteristic of a newly found animal, a researcher did the histology of adult
animal and observed a cavity with presence of mesodermal tissue towards the body wall but no mesodermal
tissue was observed towards the alimentary canal. What could be the possible coelome of that animal?
1) Schizocoelomate 2) Spongocoelomate
3) Acoelomate 4) Pseudococlomate
Ans: 4

152. Given below are two statements:

Statement I : In a floral formula ⊕ stands for zygomorphic nature of the flower, and G stands for inferior ovary.
Statement II : In a floral formula ⊕ stands for actinomorphic nature of the flower and 𝐺 stands for superior ovary.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Ans: 2

153. Given below are two statements :

Statement I : In ecosystem, there is unidirectional flow of energy of sun from producers to consumers.
Statement II : Ecosystems are exempted from 2nd law of thermodynamics.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
Ans: 1

154. Which of the following is the unit of productivity of an Ecosystem?

1) KCalm −3 2) (KCalm−2 )yr−1 3) gm −2 4) KCalm−2
Ans: 2

155. With the help of given pedigree, find out the probability for the birth of a child having no disease and being
a carrier (has the disease mutation in one allele of the gene) in 𝐅𝟑 generation.

1) 1/8 2) Zero 3) 1/4 4) 1/2

Ans: 4
156. In the seeds of cereals, the outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a proteinrich layer called :
1) Integument 2) Aleurone layer 3) Coleoptile 4) Coleorhiza
Ans: 2

157. Match List II with List II :

List-I List-II
A. Chlorophyll a I. Yellow-green
B. Chlorophyll b II. Yellow
C. Xanthophylls III. Blue-green
D. Carotenoids IV. Yellow to Yellow-orange

Choose the option with all correct matches.

1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III 2) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I 4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Ans: 4

158. Who proposed that the genetic code for amino acids should be made up of three nucleotides?
1) Jacque Monod 2) Franklin Stahl 3) George Gamow 4) Francis Crick
Ans: 3

159. Histones are enriched with -

1) Phenylalanine & Leucine 2) Phenylalanine & Arginine
3) Lysine & Arginine 4) Leucine & Lysine
Ans: 3

160. Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT essential for gene cloning?
A. Restriction enzymes
B. DNA ligase
C. DNA mutase
D. DNA recombinase
E. DNA polymerase

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) D and E only 2) B and C only 3) C and D only 4) A and B only

Ans: 3

161. A specialised membranous structure in a prokaryotic cell which helps in cell wall formation, DNA
replication and respiration is :
1) Cristae 2) Endoplasmic Reticulum
3) Mesosome 4) Chromatophores
Ans: 3

162. Which factor is important for termination of transcription?

1) 𝜌 (rho) 2) 𝛾 (gamma) 3) 𝛼 (alpha) 4) 𝜎 (sigma)

Ans: 1

163. Which of the following statement is correct about location of the male frog copulatory pad?
1) Second digit of fore limb 2) First digit of the fore limb
3) First and Second digit of fore limb 4) First digit of hind limb
Ans: 2
164. Which of the following diagrams is correct with regard to the proximal (P) and distal (D) tubule of the
Nephron.

1) 2)

3) 4)
Ans: 4

165. Identify the statement that is NOT correct.

1) Antigen binding site is located at C-terminal region of antibody molecules.
2) Constant region of heavy and light chains are located at C-terminus of antibody molecules.
3) Each antibody has two light and two heavy chains.
4) The heavy and light chains are held together by disulfide bonds.
Ans: 1

166. Match List I with List II :

List-I List-II
A. Scutellum I. Persistent nucellus
B. Non-albuminous seed II. Cotyledon of Monocot seed
C. Epiblast III. Groundnut
D. Perisperm IV. Rudimentary cotyledon

Choose the option with all correct matches.

1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II 2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I 4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Ans: 3

167. Find the statement that is NOT correct with regard to the structure of monocot stem.
1) Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed. 2) Phloem parenchyma is absent.
3) Hypodermis is parenchymatous. 4) Vascular bundles are scattered.
Ans: 3
168. Twins are born to a family that lives next door to you. The twins are a boy and a girl. Which of the following
must be true?
1) They were conceived through in vitro fertilization.
2) They have 75% identical genetic content.
3) They are monozygotic twins.
4) They are fraternal twins.

Ans: 4
169. Sweet potato and potato represent a certain type of evolution. Select the correct combination of terms to
explain the evolution.
1) Homology, convergent 2) Analogy, divergent
3) Analogy, convergent 4) Homology, divergent
Ans: 3
170. Which one of the following phytohormones promotes nutrient mobilization which helps in the delay of leaf
senescence in plants?
1) Gibberellin 2) Cytokinin 3) Ethylene 4) Abscisic acid
Ans: 2

171. Why can't insulin be given orally to diabetic patients?

1) Because of structural variation 2) Its bioavailability will be increased
3) Human body will elicit strong immune response 4) It will be digested in Gastro-Intestinal (GI) tract
Ans: 4
172. Name the class of enzyme that usually catalyze the following reaction :
S − G + S# → S + S# − G
Where, G → a group other than hydrogen
S → a substrate
S # → another substrate
1) Transferase 2) Ligase 3) Hydrolase 4) Lyase
Ans: 1
173. Given below are two statements :
Statement I: The DNA fragments extracted from gel electrophoresis can be used in construction of recombinant
DNA.
Statement II : Smaller size DNA fragments are observed near anode while larger fragments are found near the
wells in an agarose gel.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
Ans: 3

174. The correct sequence of events in the life cycle of bryophytes is

A. Fusion of antherozoid with egg.
B. Attachment of gametophyte to substratum.
C. Reduction division to produce haploid spores.
D. Formation of sporophyte.
E. Release of antherozoids into water.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
1) B, E, A, D, C 2) D, E, A, B, C 3) D, E, A, C, B 4) 𝐵, 𝐸, 𝐴,𝐶, 𝐷

Ans: 1
175. Genes R and Y follow independent assortment. If RRYY produce round yellow seeds and try produce
wrinkled green seeds, what will be the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation?
1) Phenotypic ratio - 9: 3: 3: 1 2) Phenotypic ratio - 9: 7
3) Phenotypic ratio -1:2 4) Phenotypic ratio -3:1
Ans: 1
176. Each of the following characteristics represent a Kingdom proposed by Whittaker. Arrange the following in
increasing order of complexity of body organization.
A. Multicellular heterotroph with cell wall made of chitin.
B. Heterotroph with tissue/organ/organ system level of body organization.
C. Prokaryotes with cell wall made of polysaccharides and amino acids.
D. Eukaryotic autotrophs with tissue/organ level of body organization.
E. Eukaryotes with cellular body organization.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
1) A, C, E, D, B 2) C, E, A, B, D 3) A , C, E, B, D 4) C, E, A, D, B
Ans: 4
177. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
A. Centromere I. Mitochondrion
B. Cilium II. Cell division
C. Cristae III. Cell movement
D. Cell membrane IV. Phospholipid
Bilayer

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I 2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV 4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Ans: 2

178. Which one of the following equations represents the Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth of population?
𝑑𝑁 𝑁−𝐾 𝑑𝑁 𝑟−𝐾 𝑑𝑁 𝐾−𝑁 𝑑𝑁 𝐾−𝑁
1) = 𝑟𝑁 ( ) 2) =𝑁( ) 3) = 𝑟( ) 4) = 𝑟𝑁˙ ( )
𝑑𝑡 𝑁 𝑑𝑡 𝐾 𝑑𝑡 𝐾 𝑑𝑡 𝐾
Ans: 4

179. Match List - I with List - II.

List-I List-II
A. Emphysema I. Rapid spasms in muscle due to
low Ca++ in body fluid

B. Angina II. Damaged alveolar walls and

Pectoris decreased respiratory surface
C. Glomerulonephritis III. Acute chest pain when not
enough oxygen is reaching to
heart muscle
D. Tetany IV. Inflammation of glomeruli of
kidney

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I 2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II 4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Ans: 2

180. Cardiac activities of the heart are regulated by:

A. Nodal tissue
B. A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata
C. Adrenal medullary hormones
D. Adrenal cortical hormones

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1) A, C and D Only 2) A, B and D Only
3) A, B and C Only 4) A, B, C and D

Ans: 3

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