Series : Z2YWX SET ~ 3

Q.P. Code 57/2/3

Roll No.

Candidates must write the QP. Code

on the title page of the answer-book.

NOTE

() Please check that this question

paper contains 23 printed pages.
Please check that this question
paper contains 33 questions.
a) A-qa À
af grT 3t fes rsA-II) Q.P. Code given on the right hand
side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the
answer-book by the candidate.
aV) A I JR fegAI YF VE, av) Please write down the serial
number of the question in the
answer-book at the given place
before attempting it.
15 minute time has been allotted to
read this question paper. The
10.15 f l I I I 10.15 question paper will be distributed at
10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30
a.m., the candidates will read the
question paper only and will not
Write any answer on the answer
book during this period.

sfta faa (tgft6)

BIOLOGY (Theory)
rufta A: 3 HU HHIH HS: 70
Time allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 70

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General Instructions :
Read the following instructions carefully andfollow them :
() This question paper contais 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question paper is divided into FIVE sections Section A, B, C, D
and E.

(i) Section A - questions number 1 to 16 are multiple choice type questions.

Each question carries 1 mark.
(iv) Section B - questions number 17 to 2l are very short answer type
questions. Each question carries 2 marks.

(v) Section C- questions number 22 to 28 are short answer type questions.

Each question carries 3 marks.
(vi) Section D- questions number 29 and 30 are case-based questions. Each
question carries 4 markS. Each question has sub-parts with internal
choice in one of the sub-parts.

(ui) Section E - questions number 31 to 33 are long answer type questions.

Each question carries 5 marks.

(viii) There is no Overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided
in Sections B and E of question paper. A candidate has to write answer

for only oneof the alternatives in such questions.

Impaired
(ix) Kindly note that there is a separate question paper for Visually
candidates.
be
(x) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labelled diagrams should
drawn.

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 SECTION - A

Question Nos. 1to 16 are Multiple Choice type Questions, carrying 1 mark
each.
1. Some flowers are unisexual, this property of unisexuality of lowers
prevents which kind of pollination ?
(A) Both Autogamy and Geitonogamy
(B) Both Geitonogamy and Xenogamy
(C) Geitonogamy but not Xenogamy
(D) Autogamy but not Geitonogamy
2 Given below is the schematic representation of spermatogenesis in human
males :
At Puberty

III

IV

and IV in
Choose the option that shows the correct labelling of I, II,II
the given diagram.
II III IV
spermatid gec. spermatocyte spermatogonia
(A) spermatozoa
spermatid spermatogonia sec. spermatocyte spermatozoa
(B)
spermatogonia
sec. spermatocyte spermatozoa spermatid
(C)
(D) spermatogonia sec. spermatocyte spermatid spermatozoa

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3. Which one of the following options showa the correct evolutionary order of
the plants mentioned below ?
() Ferns (ii) Ginkgo
(ii) Zosterophyllum (iv) Gnetales

Choose the correct option.

(A) (), (iii). (ii), (iv) (B) (iii), (), (ii), (iv)
(C) ). (i1), (ii), (v) (D) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)

4. In molecular biology, who prop0sed that genetic information flows in one

direction ?

(A) Hargobind Khorana (B) Francis Crick

(C) Watson and Crick (D) Marshall Nirenberg

5. Given below is a heterogeneous RNA formed during Eukaryotic

transcription

5/S
How many introns and exons respectively are present in the hnRNA ?
(A) 7, 7 (B) 8, 7
(C) 8, 8 (D) 7, 8

6. Which of the following features correctly show the mechanism of sex

determination in honey-bees ?
(i) A zygote formed from the union of a
sperm and an egg develops into
a male.
females.
iü) Males have half the number of chromosomes as that of
chromosomes.
(ii) The females are diploid having 32
sons.
(iv) Males have a father and can produce
Choose the correct option :
(A) i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (ii)
(i) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iv)
(C)
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7 Study the items of Column-I and thO8e of Column-II :
Column-I Column-II
(a) RNA polymerase I (i) 18s rRNA
(b) RNA polymerase II (ii) SnRNAs
(c) RNA polymerase III (iii) hnRNA
Choose the option that correctly matches the items of Column-I with those
of Column-II:
(a) (b) (c)
(A) (1) (ii) (iiü)
(B) (i) (ii)
(C) () (ii) )
(D) ) (iii) (1)

8. Achild with blood group A has father with blood group B and the mother
with blood group AB. Choose the option that gives the correct genotypes of
father, mother and the child :
Father Mother Child

(A) .4 i .Bi .A i
(B) .4 .B JA i
(C) JBi JA JB .A i

(D) JB JB JA JB JA JA

finally
9. The decrease in the T-Lymphocytes count in human blood will
result in
(B) decrease in antibodies
(A) decrease in antigens
increase in antibodies (D) increase in antigens
(C)

continued for 80 minutes (till I|L

10. If Meselson and Stahl's experiment is
containing Nl5/Nl5.
generation) then what would be the ratio of DNA
Nlb/NI4 :N4/N4 in the medium ?
(B) 0:1:3
(A) 1:1:0
(D) 1: 4:0
(C) 0:1:8
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11. Select the correct statement from the following biotechnological
procedures :
(A) The polymerase enzyme joins the gene of interest and the vector
DNA.
(B) Gel electrophoresis is used for amplification ofa DNA segment.
(C) PCRis used for isolation and separation of gene of interest.
(D) Plasmid DNA acts as vector to transfer the piece of DNA attached to
it

12. For commercial and industrial production of citric acid, which one of the
following microbes is used ?
(A) Aspergillus niger (B) Lactobacillus sp.
(C) Clostridium butylicum (D) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

Question numbers 13 to 16 consist of two statements - Assertion (A) and

Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given
below :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (B) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
13. Assertion (A) : Corpus luteum secretes the hormone, progesterone.
Reason (R) : Hormone Progesterone is essential for maintenance of
the endometrium.

14. Assertion (A) : The number of white winged moths decreased after
industrialisation in England.
Reason (R) : Effects of industrialisation were more marked in rural
areas of England.

15. Assertion (A): Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae

are responsible for causing infectious disease in human
beings.
Reason (R) : A healthy person acquires the infection by inhaling the
aerosols released by an infected person.

endonuclease recognises
16. Assertion (A): Restriction and cuts them.
palindromie
sequence in DNA
Reason (R) : Palindromic sequence has two unique recognition sites
Patl and Pvul recognised by restrietion endonuclease.

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 SECTION - B
17. Student to attempt either option (A)or (B).
(A) Comment upon the mode of pollination in Vallisneria and Zostera.
OR

(B) Mention any four strategies adopted by flowering plants to prevent

self-pollination.

the
18. Study the given pedigree chart in which neither of the parents shows
trait but the trait is present in both male and female children.
Parents:

Generation I :

Answer the following questions :

trait in the
(a) Write about the trait, also explain the inheritance of such
progeny on the basis of given pedigree chart.
(b) Give one example of such trait in human beings.

19. Student to attempt either option (A) or (B).

where a medical doctor would
(A) Describe any two situations
(antitoxins) into the
recommend injection of a pre-formed antibodies
body of a patient.
OR

symptomsof malaria do not appear immediately after the entry

(B) The Anopheles
bitten by female
of sporozoites into the human body when
mosquito. Explain why it happens.

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20. (a) Write the scientific name of the source organism of the thermostable
DNApolymerase used in PCR.
(b) State the advantage of using thermostable DNA polymerase.

21. State the conclusions derived by David Tilman's long term ecosystem
experiments using outdoor plots.

SECTION -C
22. (a) List two reasons that make copper releasing IUDs as effective
contraceptives.
(b) Explain how the intake of oral contraceptive pills prevent pregnancy
in humans.

23. (a) A bilobed dithecous anther has 200 microspore mother cells per
microsporangium. How many male gametophytes can be produced by
this anther ?

(b) Write the composition of intine and exine layers of a pollen grains.

Hardy-Weinberg
24. How does the process of Natural Selection affect
equilibrium ? Explain with the help of graphs.

autosomal
25. Using a Punnett square workout the distribution of an
between a
phenotypic feature in the first filial generation after a cross
single locus.
homozygous female and a heterozygous male for a

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26. Samples of blood and urine of a portaperson are collected before any
sports event for drug tests.
(a) Why there is a need to conduct such tests?
(b) Name the drugs the authorities usually look for.
(c) Write the generic names of two plants from which these drugs are
obtained.

27. An application of biotechnology in agriculture involves the production of

pest resistant plants, using "cry" gene from a bacterium, Bacillus
thuringiensis.
(a) Proteins coded by which specific Bt. toxin gene control corn borer ?
(b) How does Bt. toxin produced by the bacterium kill the insect ?
Explain.

28. Study the pie chart given below, representing the global biodiversity and
proportionate number of species of major taxa.
Other animal groups
Crustaceans
Y

Invertebrates

Answer the following questions :

(a) Identify 'X and Y in the given pie chart.
(b) Which one of the two 'X or Y, is the most species-rich taxonomic
group and by what percentage ?
(c) Name the level of Biodiversity represented by the following :
(i) Estuaries and alpine meadows in India
(ii) The medicinal plant Rauwolfia vomitoria.

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 SECTION - D
Questions No. 29 and 30 are case based questions.
29. Immunity in our body is of two types : (i) Innate immunity and
(ii) acquired immunity. Innate immunity is a non-specific defence
mechanism, whereas acquired immunity is pathogen-specific; it is called
specific immunity too. Acquired immunity is characterised by memory.
Antibodies are specific to antigens and there are different types of
antibodies produced in our body : they are IgA, IgE, IgG and IgM. It
shows primary response when it encounters the pathogen for the first
time and secondary response during the subsequent encounters with the
same Antigen/Pathogen.
(a) Name the two types of specialised cells which carry out the primary
and secondary immune response.

(b) Why is the antibody-mediated immunity also called as humoral

immune response ?

Attempt either sub-part (c) or (d):

(c) The organ transplants are often rejected if not taken from suitable
compatible persons.

(i) Mention the characteristic of our immune system that is

responsible for the graft rejection.

(ii) Name the type of immune response and the cell involved in it.
OR

(d) How is active immunity different from passive immunity ?

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 30. The process of copying the genetic information from one strand of DNA
into RNA is termed as transcription. The principle of complementarity of
bases governs the process of transcription, als0 except that uracil comes in
place of thymine.
Study the complete transcription unit given below and answer the
following questions :

3 5
D
5' ’3'
B
(a) Name the main enzyme involved in theprocess of transcription.
(b) Identify coding strand and template strand of DNA in the
transcription unit.
Attempt either sub-part (c) or (d):
(c) Identify (C) and (D) in the diagram, mention their significance in the
process of transcription.
OR

(d) Describe the location of (C) and (D) in the transcription unit.

SECTION - E

31. Student to attempt either option (A) or (B).

(A) ) Give a schematic representation of oogenesis in human females.
(ii) Mention the number of chromosomes at each stage. Correlate
the life phases of the individual with the stages of the process.
OR

(B) i) Describe the three types of pollination that can occur in a

chasmogamous bisexual flower.
(i1) Draw the diagram of amature pollen grain released at the two
celled stage and label four partsin it.

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32. Student to attempt either option (A) or (B).
(A) () Explain how is a bacterial cell made 'competent' to take up
recombinant DNAfrom the medium.
(i1) Explain the steps of amplification of gene of interest using PCR
technique.
OR

(B) (1) What are transgenic animals ?

(i) Why are these animals being produced ? Explain any four
reasons.

33. Student to attempt either option (A)or (B).

(A) ) Explain giving three reasons why tropics show greatest levels of
species diversity.
(iü) Draw a graph showing species-area relationship. Name the
naturalist who studied such relationship. Write theobservation
made by him.
OR

(B) i) The world is facing the accelerated rate of species extinctions

due to human activities. Explain any three major causes cf
biodiversity losses.
(ii) Describe Ex situ' approach for conserving biodiversity. Give
any two examples.

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