THE CODE OF CIVIL PROCEDURE, 1908

1. What is meaning of Prima-facie case? (2 Marks; 2011)

2. Define Judgment and contents of Judgment (5 Marks; 2017) (5
Marks; 2021)
3. Define ‘Mesne Profits’ (2 Marks; 2019)
4. Provisions of C.P.C. not extended to Provincial Small Causes Courts
(4 Marks; 2016)
5. What are the provisions of CPC not applicable to the Courts
constituted under the Provincial Small Causes Courts Act, 1887?
Explain with reference to relevant provisions of CPC. (5 Marks;
2021)
6. Constructive Res Judicata (2 Marks; 2011) (2 Marks; 2016)
7. Define the principle of ‘Res Judicata’. Explain the difference
between ‘Res Judicata’ and ‘Estoppel’ (10 Marks; 2019)
8. Explain Res Judicata Pro Veritatem occipitur (2½ Marks; 2021)
9. Explain Res subjudice (2½ Marks; 2021)
10. When is foreign Judgment conclusive? (2½ Marks; 2021)
11. What is the maximum period of detention in civil prison in
execution of a decree? ( 2½ Marks; 2021)
12. Compensatory Costs (2 Marks; 2011)
13. Precepts (2 Marks; 2016)
14. Write a short note on Interpleader Suit (3 Marks; 2019)
15. In what circumstances can a Judgment, decree or Order be
amended by the Court? (2 Marks; 2011)
16. What is a Judgment? What is a Decree? Whether the Judgement,
Decree or order be reviewed, amended or corrected by the same
Court? (5 Marks; 2019)
17. What are the grounds on which a review of a judgment can be
sought? (2½ Marks; 2021)
18. Explain the circumstances in which a Civil Court can review its
own Judgment or Order (2 Marks; 2011)
19. Anti-Suit Injunctions and when such injunction can be granted or
refused (4 Marks; 2016)
20. Mode of Execution of Decree – Specific Performance (2 Marks;
2016)
21. Mode of Execution of Decree – Permanent Injunction (2 Marks;
2016)
22. Mode of Execution of Decree – Restitution of Conjugal Rights (2
Marks; 2016)
23. In a Suit, who may be joined as Plaintiffs and Defendants?
Whether the Court has power to strike down the parties to the Suit,
if so under what circumstances (5 Marks; 2019)
24. Whether the Court has power of disposal of suit at the first
hearing? If so, narrate the circumstances (5 Marks; 2019)
25. What are the Principles governing impleadment of parties under
Order I Rule 10 of C.P.C. in a civil Suit? (5 Marks, 2021)
26. When can a Defendant be called upon to furnish security for
appearance and security for protection of property? (2 Marks; 2011)
27. Guiding Principles for grant or refusal of a Temporary Injunction
(2 Marks; 2011)
28. Circumstances under which additional evidence at Appellate
stage can be adduced (2 Marks; 2011)
29. When and how can additional evidence of document be
introduced in an Appellate Court? (2½ Marks; 2021)
30. Under what circumstances the plaint may be rejected? Explain
with reference to the provisions of CPC, 1908. (5 Marks; 2021)
31. What are the essential conditions for granting interim injunction
orders in a Suit? Briefly explain (5 Marks; 2021)
32. Explain Attachment before Judgment? Under what circumstances
can the Court pass an order for Attachment before Judgment?
Explain briefly. (5 Marks; 2021)
33. Burden of Proof, on whom initial burden of proof fall in a suit,
circumstances under which the burden of proof shift to the other
side. (5 Marks; 2021)
34. What are the conditions precedent for instituting a summary Suit
under Order XXXVII of CPC (2½ Marks; 2021)
35. Is the court required to conduct a preliminary enquiry by
recording evidence while entertaining an application for leave to
defend filed by the Defendant under Order XXXVII of CPC (2½
Marks; 2021)
36. When can a Receiver be Appointed (2 Marks; 2011)
37. Who is an Advocate Commissioner? Under what circumstances
can the Court appoint an Advocate Commissioner? (2½ Marks;
2021)
38. What is a Caveat? Under what provision of law is filed? What is
the effect of filing a caveat? (2½ Marks; 2021)
39. A Claim petition in Execution proceedings is dismissed on merits.
What is the remedy available to the claim petitioner? (3 Marks;
2014)
40. Ingredients essential to invoke Review jurisdiction by Court (3
Marks; 2014)
41. How is a suit to be filed with regard to a Minor’s property or
rights? If it is not properly presented, can it be returned? If not,
how can it be rejected? (2½ Marks; 2021)
42. Who is an Indigent person as per CPC? How and when can such a
person present a Suit? (2½ Marks; 2021)
43. When can a Court reject an application to sue as an indigent
person? (2½ Marks; 2021)
44. How can costs be recovered if a Suit filed by an indigent person
is decreed with costs? (2½ Marks; 2021)
45. Shot Notes - Abatement of a Suit. (2 Marks; 2021)
46. What are the various alternative dispute resolution methods
recognized in law? Cite relevant provisions of the statutes with the
case law where some of the said provisions have been discussed.
(10 Marks; 2021)
47. Write brief note on Circumstances under which a plaint can be
rejected (5 Marks; 2021)
48. Write brief note on Remedy available to a plaintiff when the suit
is dismissed for default (2½ Marks; 2021)
49. Write brief note on Matters adjudicated (2½ Marks; 2021)
50. Write brief note on Exemptions from attachment under Section
60 of the Code of Civil Procedure (5 Marks; 2021)
51. Write brief note on Attachment before judgment (5 Marks; 2021)
52. Write brief note on Caveat Petition (2 Marks)
53. Write brief note on Power of Courts to amend judgements and
decrees (2 Marks)
54. Write brief note on Restitution (2 Marks)
55. Write brief note on Claim Petition (2 Marks)
56. Write brief note on Review Petition (2 Marks)
57. Define judgement and what the judgement should contain?
58. How is a suit to be filed with regard to a minor's property or rights?
If it is not properly presented, can it be returned? If not, how can it
be rejected (2½ Marks; 2022)
59. Who is an indigent person as per CPC? How and when can such a
person present a suit? (2½ Marks; 2022)
60. When can a Court reject an application to sue as an indigent
person? (2½ Marks; 2022)
61. How can costs be recovered if a suit filed by an indigent person
is decreed with costs? (2½ Marks; 2022)
62. Write short notes on Abatement of a suit (2 Marks; 2022)
63. When is a foreign judgment conclusive? (2½ Marks; 2022)
64. What is the maximum period of detention in civil prison in
execution of a decree? (2½ Marks; 2022)
65. What are the grounds on which a review of a judgment can be
sought? (2½ Marks; 2022)
66. When and how can additional evidence or document be
introduced in an Appellate Court? (2½ Marks; 2022)
67. Write a brief note on Precept (5 Marks; 2022)
68. Write a brief note on Garnishee (5 Marks; 2022)
69. Explain and distinguish between Counter claim and set-off (6
Marks; 2022)
70. Explain and distinguish between Res judicata and Constructive
Res Judicata (6 Marks; 2022)
71. What is an ex-parte decree? Can an ex-parte decree be set
aside? If so, under what provision of law? (7 Marks; 2022)
72. Explain what is an exparte decree? What are the legal remedies
available under law to an aggrieved party against an exparte
decree? Enumerate the provision of law by citing case law. (10
Marks; 2022)
73. Briefly explain the grounds on which attachment before
judgment can be granted under Order XXXVIII Rule 5 of the Civil
Procedure Code, 1908. (8 Marks; 2022)
74. Explain the difference between 'Return of Plaint' and 'Rejection
of Plaint with reference to relevant provisions of the Civil Procedure
ate Code, 1908. Elucidate your answer with case law (10 Marks;
2022)
75. What is 'Written Statement? Can a 'Written Statement' be
amended and under what provision? After amendment of Civil
Procedure Code, 1908, What is the limitation period for filing
Written Statement? Can limitation for filing Written Statement be
extended by the Court? Discuss with case law. (10 Marks; 2022)
76. Define the following Terms: (2½ x 4 = 10 Marks; 2023)
a) Decree; b) Mesne profits; c) Legal representative; d) Judgment
Debtor
77. Distinguish Stay of suit and res judicata (5 Marks; 2023).
78. Distinguish Appointment of a Commissioner and Receiver (5
Marks; 2023).
79. Distinguish Inherent, pecuniary and territorial jurisdiction (5
Marks; 2023).
80. Explain Guidelines for appointment of Commissioners and
Receivers. (5 Marks; 2022)
81. Explain Appeal, Reference and Revision. (5 Marks; 2022)
82. Explain Resjudicata and Constructive Resjudicata. (5 Marks;
2022)
83. Can a plaint be rejected? Under what provision of law and on
what grounds can the plaint be rejected? (5 Marks; 2022)
84. Can a written statement be amended? If yes, under which Calm
provision? What is the period fixed for filing the written statement?
Can the Court extend the period for filing the written statement? (5
Marks; 2022)
85. What are factors required to be examined before passing an
order under Order 38 Rule 5 of the Code of Civil Procedure? (10
Marks; 2023)
86. Discuss the provision of Order 26 of the Code of Civil Procedure.
Explain whether an Advocate-Commissioner can be appointed to
gather evidence or not. Cite relevant case law. (10 Marks; 2023)
87. Whether amendment of plaint can be ordered after trial is over?
(5 Marks; 2023)
88. What is the difference between Section 47, Order 21 Rules 97
and Order 21 Rule 99 of the Code of Civil Procedure? (2 Marks;
2023)
89. Write a brief summary on the scope of enquiry in a petition filed
under Section 47 of the Code of Civil Procedure. (2 Marks; 2023)
90. Can a person, who is a pendente lite purchaser from the
defendant/ Judgement debtor, file an application under Order 21
 Rules 97 and Rule 99 of the Code of Civil Procedure, to resist
execution of a decree? Explain with the relevant provisions of the
Code of Civil Procedure. (2 Marks; 2023)
91. Can a person, who is a pendente lite purchaser from the plaintiff/
decree holder, be entitled to file Execution Petition though not a
part to a suit? Explain with the relevant provisions of the Code of
Civil Procedure. (2 Marks; 2023)

THE LIMITATION ACT, 1963

1. What are the Provisions under the Limitation Act, 1963, governing
the computation of period of limitation to file a Suit, Appeal or
Application? How such period is to be reckoned? (5 Marks; 2019)
2. Cases in which exclusion of time is permissible as per Sec.15 (5
Marks; 2017)
3. When and how can time spent in litigation be excluded for
computing the period of limitation (4 Marks; 2021)
4. Can a fresh suit be instituted after excluding time spent in
litigation? Is the Court’s permission necessary for this? (4 Marks;
2021)
5. Does the Rule i.e., time spent in litigation, apply to original suits /
applications or even to appeals / revisions also? (4 Marks; 2021)
6. Explain the changes brought about by the Limitation act, 1963 with
regard to filing of suits for recovery of possession of immoveable
property based on previous possession and also based on title. (5
Marks; 2019)
7. What is the difference between Doctrine of limitation and
prescription. (3 Marks; 2019)
8. What is the difference between Doctrine of limitation and laches. (3
Marks; 2019)
9. What is the difference between Doctrine of limitation and
acquiescence. (4 Marks; 2019)
10. Discuss difference between Expression "sufficient Cause"
available under Sec.5 of the Limitation Act and Sec.34(3) of the
Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996. (5 Marks; 2019)
11. What is the difference between Section 5 and Section 14 of the
Indian Limitation Act? (5 Marks; 2019)
12. What is the purpose of Law of Limitation? Can a time barred
claim be filed, by taking recourse to Section 5 of the Limitation Act?
Explain the exception to the said Limitation period with reference to
Section 5 of the Indian Limitation Act. (5 Marks; 2021)
13. What is meant by condonation of Delay under the Limitation
Act? What is the difference between Sec 5 and Sec. 14 of the
Limitation Act; Explain with examples. (5 Marks; 2021)
14. When and how can time spent in litigation be excluded for
computing the period of limitation? (4 Marks; 2022)
15. Can a fresh suit be instituted after excluding the above period?
Is the Court's permission necessary for this? (4 Marks; 2022)
16. Does this rule apply only to original suits / application or even to
appeals / revisions also? (2 Marks; 2022)
17. Computation of period of limitation under Section 12 of
Limitation Act, 1963. (5 Marks; 2022) (5 Marks; 2023)
18. What is "adverse possession"? What are the essential conditions
necessary for claiming adverse possession? What is the time
prescribed for claiming adverse possession as against a private
property vis-a-vis Government property. (10 Marks; 2022)
19. What is the difference between Section 5 and Section 14 of the
Limitation Act? (5 Marks; 2022)
20. Is any application required to be filed for taking benefit under
Section 14 of the Limitation Act? Write a brief summary. (5 Marks;
2022)
21. What is the difference between Section 5 and Section 14 of the
Limitation Act? (5 Marks; 2023)

THE SPECIFIC RELIEF ACT, 1963

1. Narrate the amendments made to the Specific Relief Act, 1963 by
Act No.18 of 2018 w.e.f. 01/10/2018? (5 Marks; 2019)
2. Under what circumstances can a Summary Suit be filed under Sec.6
of the Specific Relief Act, 1963? (3 Marks; 2021)
3. Short Notes – Personal bars to relief under the Specific Relief Act
(2½ Marks; 2021)
4. Short Notes – Rectification of an Instrument (2½ Marks; 2021)
5. Short Notes – when cancellation of an instrument can be ordered
(2½ Marks; 2021)
6. Explain the circumstances under which cancellation of an
instrument be ordered. Whether a person who is not a party to the
instrument can claim cancellation of an instrument. (5 Marks; 2021)
7. Explain temporary and perpetual injunctions and when perpetual
injunction can be granted and refused? (5 Marks; 2021)
8. Short Notes – Interim Mandatory Injunction (2½ Marks; 2021)
9. Circumstances when an injunction be refused (4 Marks; 2016)
10. When can a Mandatory Injunction and damages in lieu of or in
addition to, injunction be granted (5 Marks; 2019)
11. A filed suit for specific performance of agreement to sell against
B. A filed suit earlier for the same relief against B which was
dismissed for default. In the later suit B filed an application to reject
the plaint on the ground that the suit is hit by principle of res
judicata. Whether the plaint is liable to be rejected? (5 Marks; 2021)
12. Write a note on Interim mandatory injunction (2½ Marks; 2022)
13. Write a note on Personal bars to relief under the Specific Relief
Act (2½ Marks; 2022)
14. Write a note on Rectification of an instrument (2½ Marks; 2022)
15. When cancellation of an instrument can be ordered? (2½ Marks;
2022)
16. Explain the relevant provisions under the Specific Relief Act,
1963 relating to recovery of possession of immovable property. (5
Marks; 2022)
17. What are the personal bars to obtain the relief of Specific
Performance of Contract under Section 16 of Specific Relief Act? (5
Marks; 2023)
18. What are the infrastructure Projects and the special provisions
made thereof under Specific Relief Act? (5 Marks; 2023)
19. Furnish the list of Infrastructure Projects under Specific Relief
Act, 1963. (5 Marks; 2022)
20. Explain when the court will refuse to grant injunction under
Section 41 of Specific Relief Act. (5 Marks; 2022)
21. What is an injunction? What are the necessary requirements for
granting interim injunction? What is the difference between
temporary injunction, permanent injunction and mandatory
injunction? (10 Marks; 2022)
22. What relief can be sought under the Specific Relief Act? When
specific relief can be denied and compensation can be awarded in
certain cases? Discuss elaborately with case law. (10 Marks; 2023)

THE TRANSFER OF PROPERTY ACT, 1882

1. Define Transfer of Property and Actionable Claim. (5 Marks; 2021)

2. Define Transfer of Property, what Property may be transferred and
Exceptions (5 Marks; 2016) (5 Marks; 2021)
3. Explain – Condition restraining alienation with exceptions (3 Marks;
2015)
4. Explain – Rule against Perpetuity with its exceptions (3 Marks;
2015)
5. Define briefly ‘Vested Interest’ and ‘contingent Interest’ (5 Marks;
2021)
6. Explain the doctrine of feeding the grant of estoppel with reference
to provisions of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 and the Specific
Relief Act, 1963. (5 Marks; 2021)
7. Rights of Purchaser or Lease against persons with a title but
acquired title subsequently with reference to Transfer of Property
Act and Specific Relief Act (5 Marks; 2017)
8. What is ‘Lis pendens’? (2 Marks; 2019)
9. What are the principles of lis-pendens? Is there any exception to
this principle? Explain with case law. (5 Marks; 2019)
10. Write a short note on Essential requirement of a valid sale. (3
Marks; 2019)
11. Briefly explain the doctrine of Part performance enshrined in
Section 53-A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882? (7 Marks; 2021)
12. Can a contract of sale coupled with interest be cancelled after
the demise of the principal? (2½ Marks; 2021)
13. Explain – Right of Redemption (3 Marks; 2014)
14. Explain – Doctrine of Marshalling (3 Marks; 2014)
15. Tenant Holding over and Tenant at Sufferance (2 Marks; 2014)
16. What is ‘Holding Over’ under Transfer of Property Act? (2 Marks;
2019)
17. Define Onerous Gift, Circumstances when a gift can be revoked
(4 Marks; 2016)
18. What is the difference between a mortgage by conditional sale
and a document of sale with a condition of re-purchase? (5 Marks;
2019)
19. Name some of the document which are compulsorily registrable
according to Transfer of Property Act, 1892 and the Registration
Act, 1908 and state within what time a document compulsorily
registrable can be presented for registration, from the date of its
execution? (5 Marks; 2019)
20. Write brief note on Lis pendens (2½ Marks; 2021)
21. Explain what is "transfer of property". What can be transferred?
(5 Marks; 2022)
22. Define briefly 'a vested interest and a 'contingent interest. (5
Marks; 2022)
23. Explain and distinguish between Estoppel and Promissory
Estoppel (6 Marks; 2022).
24. Explain and distinguish between Vested Interest and Contingent
Interest (6 Marks; 2022)
25. Briefly explain the concept of 'lis-pendens and part performance
with reference to relevant provisions of the Transfer of Property
Act, 1882. (8 Marks; 2022)
26. Define 'Sale' under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882. How a
Sale is made? Does an agreement of sale create any right or title in
favour of the intending buyer? (8 Marks; 2022)
27. Explain Attestation in relation to an instrument (5 Marks; 2023)
28. Explain Actionable claim (5 Marks; 2023)
29. Explain Charged (5 Marks; 2023)
30. Explain Doctrine of Part performance (5 Marks; 2023)
31. Explain Usufructuary mortgage (5 Marks; 2023)
32. Explain Gift (5 Marks; 2023)
33. Write short notes on Doctrine of Part performance. (5 Marks;
2022)
34. Write short notes on Principle of marshalling securities. (5 Marks;
2022)
35. Write short notes on Subrogation. (5 Marks; 2022)
36. What is the difference between 'mortgage by conditional sale,
'usufructuary mortgage', 'English mortgage' and 'mortgage by
deposit of title deeds'? (5 Marks; 2023)

THE INDIAN CONTRACT ACT, 1872

1. Short Notes – Acceptance of Proposal (2½ Marks; 2021)

2. Short Notes – Reciprocal Promises (2½ Marks; 2021)
3. Short Notes – Free Consent (2½ Marks; 2021)
4. Who are competent to contract? Define ‘Free Consent’, and
‘Coercion’. Under what circumstances a contract becomes Voidable
(5 Mark; 2019)
5. Short Notes – Mistake of Fact (2 Marks; 2011)
6. Explain – Void Agreements (6 Marks; 2014)
7. Under what circumstances can a contract be held void, as being
contrary to public policy? Give illustrations (2½ Marks; 2021)
8. Short Notes – Lawful consideration (2½ Marks; 2021)
9. Short Notes – Wagering Contract (2 Marks; 2011)
10. Essential Requirements of a valid Sale (3 Marks; 2019)
11. Appropriation of Payments towards discharge of Debt (4 Marks;
2016)
12. Short Notes – Novation (2 Marks; 2011)
13. Short Notes – Quantum Meruit (2 Marks; 2011)
14. Short Notes – Non-gratuitous act (2 Marks; 2011)
15. Explain certain relations resembling those created by contract.
(10 Marks; 2021)
16. Principles applied for awarding breach of contract (5 Marks;
2021)
17. Short Notes – Continuing Guarantee (2 Marks; 2011)
18. Right of co-surety to claim contribution against co-surety and
right of surety against principal debtor (5 Marks; 2017)
19. Under what circumstances would a unilateral cancellation of a
contract be valid? Give illustrations. (2½ Marks; 2021)
20. Explain the concept of Agency with reference to how an agency
may be created and terminated (5 Marks; 2015)
21. Can a contract of sale coupled with interest be cancelled after
the demise of the principal? (2½ Marks; 2021)
22. Shot Notes - Agent and Principal (2 Marks; 2021)
23. Shot Notes - Fraud under the Contract Act (2 Marks; 2021)
24. What do you understand by the concept of unequal bargaining
power? Discuss its application to commercial contracts while
referring to section 23 and 28 of contract Act? (5 Marks; 2021)
25. Write short notes on Agent and principal (2 Marks; 2022)
26. Write short notes on Fraud under the Contract Act (2 Marks;
2022)
27. Write short notes on Acceptance of a proposal (2½ Marks; 2022)
28. Write short notes on Free consent (2½ Marks; 2022)
29. Write short notes on Lawful consideration (2½ Marks; 2022)
30. Write short notes on Reciprocal promises (2½ Marks; 2022)
31. What is difference between symbolic possession' and 'actual
possession? Briefly explain. (5 Marks; 2022)
32. Define 'contract? Explain the essentials of a valid contract. (8
Marks; 2022)
33. Elucidate Void and Voidable Contracts (5 Marks; 2023)
34. What are the essential elements of a valid and enforceable
Contract under Indian Contract Act? (10 Marks; 2023)

THE INDIAN EASEMENTS ACT, 1882

1. Define Dominant and Servient Heritage and owners. (2½ Marks;

2021)
2. Explain Easement by Necessity and Quasi Easements (2 Marks;
2011)
3. Explain Easement by Necessity and Quasi Easements, customary
easements (5 Marks; 2021)
4. Illustration of Easement by Necessity (2 Marks; 2011)
5. Define Easement, Easement by Necessity and Quasi Easements (4
Marks; 2016)
6. Easement by Prescription acquired (2 Marks; 2016)
7. Can Easement be acquired by Prescription? If yes, what is the
period for private property and of Government property (2½ Marks;
2021)
8. Rights cannot be acquired by Prescription (2 Marks; 2016)
9. Difference between Licence and Easement (2 Marks; 2011) (2
Marks; 2014)
10. Define ‘Easement’ and ‘Licence’. What are Customary
Easements, and when Licence is transferable (5 Marks; 2019)
11. Under what circumstances will the right of easement be
extinguished? (2 Marks; 2011) (5 Marks; 2021)
12. Write brief note on Lease and license (2 Marks; 2021)
13. Define dominant and servient heritage and owners. (2½ Marks;
2022)
14. Can easement be acquired by prescription? If yes, what is the
period for private property and for government property? (2½
Marks; 2022)
15. Write a brief note on Easement (5 Marks; 2022)
16. Elucidate Easement by Prescription (5 Marks; 2022) (5 Marks;
2023)
17. What is an easement? Under what circumstances do the
easementary rights extinguish? (5 Marks; 2022)

THE HINDU SUCCESSION ACT, 1956

1. What are the Properties exempted from application of Hindu

Succession Act (2 Marks; 2016) (5 Marks; 2019)
2. How shall the property of a Female Hindu dying intestate devolve?
(5 Marks; 2019)
3. What are the Rights of a Minor in the Ancestral Property (5 Marks;
2019)
4. Elaborate and discuss in detail the disqualification of heirs. Explain
what will happen if there are no qualified heirs to inherit the
property of the deceased. (4 Marks; 2015)
5. What is ‘Intestate Succession’? (2 Marks; 2019)
6. Narrate the postulates of Sec.29A (3 Marks; 2015)
7. Briefly state how to determine whether property is 'self-acquired
property, or joint family property"? (5 Marks; 2019)
8. Section 6 of Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005. (5 Marks;
2022)

THE HINDU MARRIAGE ACT, 1955

1. What are the conditions for a valid Hindu Marriage? (2½ Marks;
2021)
2. Explain the concepts of Void and Voidable Marriages under Hindu
Marriage Act, 1955 (6 Marks; 2014)
3. Explain what is a Void Marriage, Voidable Marriage, Judicial
Separation, Divorce, Restitution of Conjugal Rights (5 Marks; 2021)
(10 Marks; 2022)
4. Narrate the circumstances under which the marriage can be
declared as null and void and further state the legitimacy of
children born of Void or Voidable Marriage, with reference to the
Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 (4 Marks; 2019)
5. What are the grounds for a divorce under the Hindu Marriage Act
available to both the spouses? (2½ Marks; 2021) (2½ Marks; 2022)
(10 Marks; 2023)
6. What are the conditions for a Hindu Marriage and explain Void and
Voidable Marriage. (5 Marks; 2021)
7. What are the considerations to be kept in mind by a Court in the
matter of grant of custody of minor children to one or the other
spouse? (5 Marks; 2021)
8. What are the principles governing recognition of a foreign Court
judgement in a matrimonial dispute relating custody? to divorce
and child (5 Marks; 2021)
9. Write brief note on Grounds of divorce under the Hindu Marriage
Act., (5 Marks; 2021)
10. What are the conditions for a valid Hindu marriage? (2 1/2
Marks; 2022)
11. Void marriages under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955. (5 Marks; 2022)

THE HINDU ADOPTIONS AND MAINTENANCE ACT, 1956

1. Write brief note on Essential requisites of adoption under the Hindu

Adoptions and Maintenance Act. (5 Marks; 2021)
2. Write brief note on Obligation to maintain children and aged
parents. (5 Marks; 2021)

THE HINDU MINORITY AND GUARDIANSHIP ACT, 1956

1. "Let no woman give or take a son in adoption except with the

consent of her lard". (Vashishtha)

(a) In the light of the above statement examine the power of a

Hindu women with regard to adoption. Do you think that the
changes brought about by the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance
Act, 1956 and further by the Personal Laws (Amendment) Act, 2010
have actually enlarged her power in this regard? Elaborate. (5
Marks, 2019)

(b) A married Hindu woman takes a son in adoption with the

consent of her husband (who is physically and mental fit). The
couple was issueless at the time of adoption. Decide the validity of
this adoption. (5 Marks; 2019)

2. Who is a 'natural guardian'? Powers and functions of a 'natural

guardian'. (5 Marks; 2021)

T.S. LAND ENCROACHMENT ACT, 1905

1. Explain the procedure to evict an encroacher / unauthorised

occupant as per the provisions of A.P. Land Encroachment Act,
1905. (5 Marks; 2021)

T.S. BUILDINGS (LEASE RENT & EVICTION) CONTROL ACT, 1960

1. Whether failure on the part of the Tenant in paying the rents on the
ground that he entered into an oral agreement of sale with the
owner of the property to purchase the same would amount to wilful
default on the part of the tenant in payment of rents. Whether he
is liable to be evicted straight away on that ground. (5 Marks; 2015)
2. Provisions for recovery of Possession of Premises owner by
members of Armed Forces, Employees of State & Central
Government and Widows (4 Marks; 2016)
3. Increase in Fair Rent fixed under Sec.4 of the Act, 1960 (4 Marks;
2016)
4. Who is a landlord' and who is 'tenant' under the Telangana State
Rent (Lease, Rent and Eviction) Control Act, 1960? Under what
circumstances can a 'tenant' be evicted under the aforesaid Act? (9
Marks)
5. Whether tenancy is inheritable or not? If so, what rights will be
passed on to the legal heirs? (10 Marks; 2023)

THE INDIAN REGISTRATION ACT, 1908 & THE INDIAN STAMP

ACT, 1899

1. What are the documents, which compulsorily require registration

and what are the consequences of an unregistered document? (6
Marks; 2014)
2. Whether an un-registered and insufficient stamped agreement of
sale dated 02/03/2003 is admissible in evidence in suit for specific
performance (5 Marks; 2017)
3. Can a document which is compulsorily registerable be admitted in
evidence, if yes, for what limited purpose. (5 Marks; 2021)
4. Who are the persons who can present a document for Registration
as per the Registration Act, 1908? What is the manner / scope of
enquiry by the Registrar when a document is presented for
Registration? Can Registrar refuse to register a document? (10
Marks; 2021)
5. Who are the persons who can present a document for Registration
as per the Registration Act, 1908? What is the manner/scope of
enquiry by the Registrar when a document is presented for
 Registration? Can Registrar refuse to register a document? (10
Marks; 2022)
6. The procedure to be followed under Indian Stamp Act when a
document not duly stamped is produced in evidence. (5 Marks;
2023)
7. Narrate the provisions of law dealing with Admission of deficit
stamped documents in Evidence in a court (5 Marks; 2022)
8. What are the documents which are compulsorily registerable under
the Registration Act? What are the consequences of non-
registration? Can a document which is compulsorily registerable but
not registered be admitted in evidence? If yes, for what purpose?
(10 Marks; 2022)
9. Explain the difference between 'agreement of sale' and 'sale deed'.
Whether immovable property can be transferred without
registration? (5 Marks; 2023)

THE INDIAN SUCCESSION ACT, 1925

1. Briefly state what are the principles governing proof of Wills with
special reference to what can be termed 'suspicious circumstances
in the context of execution of Wills? (10 Marks; 2021)
2. Write a brief note on Probation of will (5 Marks; 2022)

GENERAL QUESTIONS
1. Name any two fundamental duties under the Constitution of India.
(2 Marks; 2019)
2. What is ‘Probate’ (2 Marks; 2019)
3. Who is a ‘Testamentary Guardian’?
4. Shot Notes - Vis Major (2 Marks; 2021)
5. Shot Notes - Plain language interpretation of a Statue (2 Marks;
2021)

PROBLEMS
1. ‘A’ purchased a piece of land in 1980 measuring 4 acres. He is
cultivating it through his Manager. ‘A’s’ name is mutated in the
official records like ‘1-B’ etc. ‘A’ had to leave to USA for his job and
staying in USA since 15 years. His neighbour ‘B’ owns the adjacent
land. Taking advantage of the regular absence of ‘A’ and the
periodic absence of the Manager, ‘B’ periodically cuts the crop /
fruits in A’s land and sells the same also to third parties and
receives payments also through Bank Transfer.
‘B’ due to his old age sells the property to ‘X’ through a
registered sale deed. Included in this sale deed is A’s property also.
‘X’ tries to take possession of the entire property but is obstructed
by the Manager of ‘A’.
‘X’ files a suit for ‘recovery’ of possession and claims title both
through the sale deed executed in his favour and states that his
vendor ‘B’ has perfected his title over A’s Property (AC.4-00 Cents)
also through adverse possession.
‘A’, files a counter claim for cancellation of the sale deed and for
an injunction against ‘X’
Discuss with the relevant sections and case law, the correctness
of the pleas raised by both parties (10 Marks; 2021)

2. A filed suit for specific performance of agreement to sell against B.

A filed suit earlier for the same relief against B which was dismissed
for default. In the later Suit B filed an application to reject the
plaint on the ground that the suit is hit by principle of res judicata.
Whether the plaint is liable to be rejected? (5 Marks; 2021)

3. A and B are the owners of adjacent residential plots, separated by a

compound wall belonging to A. A with an intention to attend repairs
of the compound wall, entered into the land of B. B objected the
entry of A into his land to attend repairs. Whether A is entitled to
claim any right to enter into the land of B to attend repairs of
 compound wall. Explain the nature of right, if any, with reference
to the Indian Easements Act, 1882. (10 Marks; 2021)

4. A obtained decree against B for recovery of amount, filed execution

petition, during pendency of execution petition, B paid part of the
decretal amount outside the Court to A which is not certified by the
Court. B contended that he discharged the decree debt in part,
filed an application for recording part satisfaction after one year
from the date of payment. Whether part satisfaction of the decree
be recorded? If so, explain reasons with reference to the provision
of CPC, 1908 and the Limitation Act, 1963. (5 Marks; 2021)

5. A filed suit against B for recovery of amount on the basis of

promissory note in the Junior Civil Judge’s Court on the reopening
date of the Court after summer vacation, as limitation for filing the
suit was expired during the vacation. The plaint was returned on
the third day of presentation of the plaint on the ground that the
Junior Civil Judge has no jurisdiction to try the Suit and it is triable
by Small Cause Court. The plaint was presented before the Small
Causes Court on the same date of return of the Plaint and the same
is registered. B contended by filing written statement that the suit
is barred by limitation. Decide giving reasons. (5 Marks; 2021)

6. ‘A’ borrows ₹ 10,000/- from ‘B’ and executes a promissory note

evidencing that he has borrowed the said sum, with a promise that
he will repay the amount within a period of 1 year. The period of 1
year expired on 01/01/2015. ‘A did not pay the stipulated amount
within 1 year as promised. When ‘B’ was persistently following up
with ‘A’ to repay the borrowed amount, then ‘A’ paid an amount of
₹ 1,000/- on 01/01/2017 and made an endorsement to that effect in
the promissory note. Thereafter, he does not pay the amount and
tells ‘B’ that he will not repay the balance amount. What are the
 legal options available to ‘B’ to recover the balance amount due
from ‘A’? What is the period of limitation for filing a suit for
recovery of the said amount? When does the period of limitation
run in this particular case? Advise ‘B’ by giving reasons for your
answer. (5 Marks; 2021)

7. A filed a suit against the Government for perpetual injunction in the

year 1990. The suit was decreed restraining the Government from
interfering with the peaceful possession and enjoyment of ‘A’
without due process of law. An eviction order was passed under the
provision or the Land Encroachment Act against 'A’ for his eviction
from the disputed site. ‘A’ contended that summary proceedings
under the Land Encroachment Act could not have been taken by
the Government as the civil suit for injunction had been decreed in
his favour. 'A' further contended that due process of law would
mean evicting him only by instituting a civil suit for recovery of
possession
Frame the issues and write a judgment, in brief, on the above
subject. (10 Marks; 2021)

8. Due to COVID-19 lockdown many business establishments have not

done any business and suffered huge losses. One such business
establishment ‘PROTEC INDUSTRIES PVT. LTD.’, which was running
a corporate office in a building taken on lease, refused to pay rent
to the landlord citing the reason that the company is not liable to
pay rent during the lock down period by invoking force majeure
clause in the lease deed. Explain whether force majeure clause
would apply to the said business establishment / lessee during the
CoVID-19 lockdown period and what would be the options available
to it. (2½ Marks; 2021)
9. A started constructing a house by taking permission from the
GHMC. The permission was granted for Ground + 2 upper floors. ‘A’
constructed Ground + 3 floors. Thereby ‘A’ constructed an
unauthorized third floor. Without issuing any notice under the
provisions of the GHMC Act, GHMC demolished the third floor. A'
instituted a suit for damages against GHMC for the loss caused to
him on account of demolition of the third floor and for not following
the provisions of the GHMC Act.
a. Is the suit for damages maintainable?
b. On what count can the GHMC be made responsible for damages.
c. Even, if admittedly, the third floor is an unauthorised
construction, can ‘A’ maintain a suit for damages on the plea of
non-compliance of the provisions of the GHMC Act?
d. What relief can be granted by the Court in such a dispute? (10
Marks; 2021)

10. ‘A’ borrowed ₹ 3,000/- from ‘B’ against a promissory note. He

acknowledged the debt within three years. He refused to pay the
debt. ‘B’ wants to sue ‘A’. Draft a Plaint and a Written Statement
taking all possible defences. (10 Marks; 2019)

11. A, the owner of vacant land (property), settled the same in

favour of B Municipal Corporation by executing a registered
settlement deed with absolute rights but directed B to use the
property for establishing Urdu Girls High School and run the same,
if B fails to use the property as directed by A is entitled to recover
the possession of the same?
As B failed to establish and run Urdu Girls High School in the
property settled, A filed Suit against B for recovery of possession of
the property in view of the specific condition in settlement deed.
B filed written statement contending that a School is being run in
the property though not Urdu Girls High School and the property is
 being used for official purposes only. It was further contended that
A is not entitled to recover possession as the transfer is with
absolute right, and the direction to use the property is invalid. Both
parties adduced evidence in support of their specific pleas.
Is A entitled to recover possession of property in view of
violation of the direction in the Settlement Deed? Write Judgment
with reasons. (5 Marks; 2017)

12. P married X in 1976 and had B a son, by her. P then married Y in

1986, while still married to and during the lifetime of X, and had C a
daughter, by her. P died intestate in 2010. Would Y and / or C have
any right in law to inherit a share in P’s property? P, X, B, Y and C
are all Hindus. Explain. (2 Marks; 2015)

13. A, the daughter of B, who is the head of a joint Hindu family was
married after 05/09/1988 i.e., the commencement of Sec.29A of the
Hindu Succession Act. She brought an action seeking partition
against B and her brothers C and D. The Defence of the defendants
is that partition too place among them on 06/10/1984. Whether A is
entitled a Decree for partition? Your answer must be supported by
reasons. (3 Marks; 2015)

14. K, the Hindu widow of R, a Hindu himself, sold a house to N in

January, 1954, though there was no legal necessity. S, the
reversioner of R, filed a Suit challenging the said sale and sought
declaration of his title over the said house. During the pendency of
the suit, the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 came into force. K died in
May, 1957. It is contended by N that K became the full owner of the
said house as the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, had come into force
by the date K died and hence, the sale by her in his favour is
protected. What is the legal position? Discuss. (3 Marks; 2015)
15. A filed a suit for specific performance of an agreement of sale
against B. Pending the said suit, the defendant / owner transferred
by a registered sale deed the suit schedule property to C, who got
impleaded as defendant No.2. C seeks to file a written statement by
raising several objections, not pleaded by B, whether C can be
allowed to plead new grounds or defence? Explain. (2 Marks; 2015)

16. A filed a suit against B for specific performance of an agreement of

sale dated 01/03/2009 in respect of the suit schedule property. C
who is a third party to the suit proceedings filed an application
under Order I Rule 10 of C.P.C. for his impleadment as Defendant
No.2 claiming that he acquired title and possession under a gift
deed executed by D. it is also claimed by C that he filed a suit for
injunction against B in respect of the suit schedule property and the
same was decreed ex-parte on 05/11/2010. It is also contended
that neither A nor B is in possession and the suit agreement is
fabricated. Whether C is entitled to be impleaded? Give reasons for
your answer. (8 Marks; 2012)

17. A is a pharmaceutical company carrying on business in

manufacture and distribution of its goods at Hyderabad. A
appointed B as a distributor of its products and to that effect an
agreement was entered into between A and B at Hyderabad.
Pursuant to the said agreement, stocks were supplied to B at
Hyderabad against the payments made by B. Subsequently, certain
disputes arose between A and B and therefore B demanded the
repayment of amounts made by him together with interest. Since A
refused, B filed a suit for recovery of the said amounts in the Court
at Hyderabad. Though the entire cause of action arose at
Hyderabad, A raised an objection to the jurisdiction of the Court on
the basis of a specific clause in the agreement that ‘the agreement
is subject to Pune jurisdiction’. Whether the suit in the Court at
 Hyderabad is maintainable? Give reasons for your answer. (8
Marks; 2012)

18. A suit filed by X against Y is dismissed. The appeal by X is also

dismissed. One year thereafter in other similar proceedings, the
Supreme Court delivered a judgment in favour of the Plaintiff. Can X
ask he Trial Court to review its judgment? Give brief reasons for
your answer. (2 Marks; 2012)

19. X files a suit against Y for specific performance of agreement of

sale relating to immovable property but in the plaint, he fails to
seek possession of the property. The suit comes to the stage of
arguments and at that stage he files a petition for amendment of
plaint to seek possession. Whether or not the proviso to Order VI
Rule 17 to of C.P.C. becomes a bar? What is the legal position
regarding amendment in the above suit when X seeks
compensation in addition to the relief of specific performance? Give
reasons for your answer? (2½ Marks; 2011)

20. X filed a suit for permanent and mandatory injunction against Y

alleging that Y was threatening to dispossess him from his
premises, and had erected a wall in front of X's door thereby
blocking his entry into his own house. X prays for interim
mandatory Injunction directing Y to remove that wall so that he
may use his premises. Y opposes interim mandatory injunction on
the main ground that eld its grant would amount to decreeing the
suit. Discuss the law and deliver the order. (10 Marks; 2019)

21. "A" enters into an oral agreement of sale with "B' for purchase of
property for a total consideration of ₹ 10,00,000/- and pays ₹
8,00,000/- as advance on 01/01/2021. Thereafter to avoid any
differences, the terms of agreement are reduced into writing and
the parties sign the document of agreement of sale on 15/01/2021.
 One of the clauses in the agreement of sale is that time is not an
essence of the contract. The time stipulated in the contract is that
the balance sale consideration should be paid in 2 months from the
date of entering into contract and get the sale deed executed in
favour of "A" or his nominees. "A" intimate’s "B" through a Legal
Notice dated 10/03/2021 that he is ready with the balance sale
consideration and asks "B" to come receive the balance sale
consideration and register the property in his name. "B" gives a
Reply Notice that he is no longer interested in selling the property
to "A", as he has a better offer from "C" and going to sell the
property to "C" only. Can "B" rescind from the agreement of sale at
this stage and sell the property to "C"? What are the legal remedies
available to "A"? If "A" files a suit against "B", will "A" succeed in
the suit"? If the answer is yes, give reasons. (10 Marks)

22. "A" purchased a piece of land in 1980 measuring 4 acres. He is

cultivating it through his manager. "A'S" name is mutated in the
official records like "1-B" etc. "A" had to leave to USA for his job and
is staying in USA since 15 years. His neighbour "B" owns the
adjacent land. Taking advantage of the regular absence of "A" and
the periodic absence of the Manager, "B" periodically cuts the
crop/fruits in A's land and sells the same also to third parties and
receives payment also through Bank transfer.
"B" due to his old age sells the property to "X" through a registered
sale deed. Included in this sale deed is A's property also. "X" tries to
take possession of the entire property but is obstructed by the
Manager of "A".
"X" files a suit for "recovery" of possession and claims title both
through the sale deed executed in his favor and states that his
ventor "B" has perfected his title over "A's" property (Ac. 4-00
cents) also through adverse possession.
 "A" files a counter claim for cancellation of the sale deed and for an
injunction against 'X'.
Discuss with the relevant sections and case law, the correctness of
the pleas raised by both parties (10 Marks)

Write short notes on Vis major (2 Marks; 2022)

Write short notes on Plain language interpretation of a statue (2
Marks; 2022);