The statement, “The worm is 2 centimeters long.

” is a/an
a. observation – direct measurement that was seen and measured
b. inference – conclusion or guess based on observation
c. theory – broad, well-supported explanation
d. hypothesis – educated guess or prediction

The organelle that breaks down lipids, carbohydrates, proteins into simpler form to be used by
the cell is
a. vacuole – storage unit
b. lysosome – clean up crew
c. ribosome – protein builder
d. filament - cell framework

By what process does a severely cut portion of a starfish grow into a full starfish?
a. binary fission – parent cell divides into two equal parts, happens in unicellular organisms
b. budding
c. fragmentation – breaking into pieces, each grows
d. regeneration – regrowing lost parts

meaning, since the question talks about growing another starfish, the answer is fragmentation

How can we differentiate arthropods from annelids?

a. Arthropods have segmented body, annelids have non-segmented body
b. Arthropods have wings, annelids have legs
c. Arthropods have exoskeleton, annelids have endoskeleton
d. Arthropods have jointed legs, annelids have none

What type of tropism is shown in the situation where the plant’s roots grew towards the surface
of the ground?
a. Positive Phototropism – growing facing the light
b. Negative Phototropism – growing away from light
c. Positive Geotropism – growing under the ground (downward)
d. Negative Geotropism – growing towards the surface of the ground (upward)

Which of the following is not true of the Earth’s atmosphere?

a. Its layers mix, heat up, and interact with the top layer of the Earth’s crust
b. it traps heat on the form of the greenhouse effect
c. it blocks the sun’s rays
d. It contains the variety of marine life

What term is used to describe the ability to maintain a constant internal environment?
a. metabolism
b. growth and development
c. homeostasis
d. thermoregulation

Which is the smallest unit of life that can survive and reproduce on its own?
a. cell
b. organ
c. tissues
d. population

True of Trisomy 21:

a. an abnormality of chromosome inheritance in which there are 3 copies of chromosome
21
b. also known as Turner’s syndrome
c. presents with superior mental intelligence, tall stature, and protruding
d. results when an individual is missing 3 chromosome
Which of the following protists causes Malaria?
a. Amoeba
b. Euglana
c. Plasmodium
d. Paramecium

The deepest layer of the epidermis which consists of cuboidal or columnar cells plays a big role
for mitotic division every 19 days is the:
a. stratum spinosum
b. stratum granulosum
c. stratum corneum
d. stratum basale

Mitochondria is the site of cellular respiration. Which of the following is the final end product of
the process?
a. carbon dioxide
b. oxygen
c. NADH
d. ATP

Which of the following is the building block of carbohydrates?

a. Amino acid
b. Nucleotide
c. Fatty acid
d. Monosaccharide

What is the most common cause of cardiovascular disease?

a. Fatty deposits in the arteries
b. inadequate supply of red blood cells
c. lack of sodium in the diet
d. increased heartbeat

Where does glycolysis take place?

a. Ribosome
b. Lysosomes
c. Cytoplasm
d. Golgi bodies

Which of the following cannot be found in prokaryotes?

a. Cytoplasm
b. plasma membrane
c. membrane-bound nucleus
d. DNA

Which of the following organelles produces turbo pressure against cell wall and mainly acts as a
water reservoir?
a. plastids
b. vacuole
c. lysosomes
d. chloroplast

What is the branch of zoology that is devoted to the study of fish?

a. helminthology
b. Ichthyology
c. Chondrichthytes
d. Ornithology
The process involved in the production of mRNA using DNA as template is termed?
a. transcription
b. replication
c. gene manipulation
d. reverse transcription

Where would the vesicles from the endoplasmic reticulum proceed containing the polypeptide
for further modification?
a. nucleus
b. golgi complex
c. plasma membrane
d. mitochondria

Which of the following plant cells functions as a food storage?

a. collenchyma
b. parenchyma
c. sclerenchyma
d. guard cell

which of the following groups of organisms is a very good source of antibiotics?

a. Penicillium notatum
b. Aspergillus niger
c. Rhizopus stolonifera
d. None of the above

All monocots possess the following characteristics except:

a. scattered arrangement of vascular bundles
b. parallel veins
c. fibrous root system
d. floral parts in multiples of 4 or 5

What is the most abundant inorganic compound in the protoplasm?

a. fluid
b. blood
c. plasma
d. water

What is the unit of heredity?

a. gamete
b. gene
c. sperm
d. cell

Which is the richest type of tropical rain forest in the Philippines?

a. Molave forest
b. Dipterocarp forest
c. Mangrove forest
d. pine forest

sound travels the fastest in

a. solid
b. liquid
c. gas
d. vacuum

the cell wall of a plant cell is made of

a. lipid
b. cellulose
c. protein
d. cell membrane

which of the following is the correct sequence of the level of organization from lowest to
highest?
a. cells – system – organs – tissues
b. system – organs – tissues – cells
c. cells – tissues – organs – system
d. tissues – systems – cells – organs

Which kind of relationship is exhibited by algae and fungi in lichen?

a. commensalism
b. parasitism
c. symbiosis
d. competition

what causes camote leaves sold in markets to wilt?

a. decreased turgor pressure
b. increased turgor pressure
c. increased diffusion pressure
d. decreased air pressure

what is the product of biotechnology that has existed even before the industrial age?
a. chemical pesticide
b. vitamin C
c. synthetic medicine
d. leavened bread
Identify which of the following is NOT true about tapeworm:
a. they are animals
b. they are saprozoic
c. they have special saprotropgic
d. they are autotrophic

amoeba proteus is a very common amoeba that you use in the laboratory for experiments. what
do they use for experiments? what do they use for locomotion?

a. flagella
b. cilia
c. pseudopodia
d. feet

what type of reproduction is involved when an egg develops into a new organism without being
fertilized by a sperm?

a. budding
b. binary fission
c. parthenogenesis
d. fragmentation

what do you call the finger-like folds on the inner linings of the small intestine?
a. villi
b. appendix
c. rugae
d. cecum
What is that 3-carbon sugar formed during the light-independent reaction phase of the
photosynthesis?
a. ADP
b. NADPH
c. ATP
d. PGAL

40. The process of physical division in eukaryotic cell which enables growth and production of
worn-cell is known as
a. Eukaryotic
b. Prokaryotic
c. Meiosis
d. Mitosis

41. A fruit is a ________________.

a. ripened ovary
b. ripened ovule
c. ripened bud
d. ripened stigma

42. Which of the following is not true of fungi?

a. some are pathogenic
b. some are photosynthetic
c. some are edible
d. form symbiotic relationship with algae

43. What organs are controlled by the autonomic nervous system?

a. skeletal
b. muscle
c. heart
d. both A and C

44. How will you classify photosynthetic microorganisms under the two-kingdom scheme of
biological classification?
a. Under Kingdom Protista
b. Under Kingdom Monera
c. Under Kingdom Animalia
d. Under Kingdom Plantae

45. Plants wilt when the rate of ____________.

a. Water absorption is faster than transpiration
b. Transpiration is faster than water absorption
c. Photosynthesis is faster than transpiration
d. Weight loss after several weeks

46. What do you call the types of symmetry where the body parts are paired on either side of the
body?
a. Dorsal
b. Bilateral
c. Radial
d. Ventral

47. Which stage of incomplete metamorphism is undergone by grasshoppers?

a. Nymph, pupa, adult
b. Egg, larva, pupa, adult
c. Egg, nymph, adult
d. Egg, pupa, adult
48. What is the longest bone in the body?
a. Humerus
b. Femur
c. Tibia-fibula
d. Clavicle

49. Which causes our bones to turn brittle and easily break?
a. Turning into muscle tissues
b. Increase in flexibility
c. Turbidity decrease
d. Removal of collagen

50. How many bones does an adult human body have?

a. 206
b. 200
c. 217
d. 201

51. What do you call automatic responses to an external stimulus?

a. Reflex
b. Instinct
c. Impulse
d. All of these

52. What structure provides flexible support and protection to the spinal cord?
a. Skull
b. Ribs
c. Vertebral column
d. Sternum

53. Which form of RNA delivers information from DNA to be used in making protein?
a. Messenger RNA
b. Ribosomal RNA
c. Transfer RNA
d. All of these

54. Which of the following is not a type of cell?

a. Bacterium
b. Amoeba
c. Sperm
d. Virus

55. A type of chemical process within and in relation to living organisms ________.
a. Biotechniques
b. Biochemistry
c. Biology
d. Microbiology

56. What would you do if you were asked to apply the most basic process in the Science of
Taxonomy?
a. Map down organisms
b. Understand organisms
c. Differentiate organisms
d. Identify organisms

57. Gibberellins cause growth by stimulating ___________.

a. Cell division
b. Dormancy
c. Cell growth
d. Germination

58. Identify which of the following is mismatched:

a. Endocytosis – phagocytosis and pinocytosis
b. Passive transport – diffusion and osmosis
c. Anabolism – cellular respiration
d. Catabolism – digestion of food

59. A series of membrane-bound channels free of ribosomes is called ____________.

a. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
b. Mitochondrion
c. Plastid
d. Rough endoplasmic reticulum

60. What kind of organism is the schistosoma which causes schistosomiasis, a tropical disease
traced to contaminated water?
a. Virus
b. Flatworm
c. Fungus
d. Protist

61. Which of the following statements is true of diffusion?

a. It requires an expenditure of energy by the cell
b. It is a passive process
c. It occurs when molecules move from a region of lower concentration to one of higher
concentration
d. It requires a membrane

62. Which are small, irregularly-shaped cells without nuclei but are rich in ATP?
a. Leukocytes
b. Thrombocytes
c. Lymphocytes
d. Erythrocytes

63. What branch of Biology is involved when one is studying the characteristic structure and
functions of all kinds of cells?
a. Cytology
b. Morphology
c. Physiology
d. Histology

64. Which biome grows tropical grassland with scattered individual trees and larger herbivores?
a. Tundra
b. Rain forest
c. Grassland
d. Savanna

65. What do you call that process in birds wherein they shed off feathers at least once a year?
a. Skinning
b. Molting
c. Furrowing
d. Migrating

66. The largest organ inside the human body is the _____________.
a. Brain
b. Heart
c. Liver
d. Lungs

67. Which genetic term pertains to the physical appearance of an individual?

a. Genotype
b. Phenotype
c. Haplotype
d. Clone

68. In applying crop technology, which of the following will you NOT use since these are not
genetically modified organisms?
a. Delayed ripening tomato
b. Cross-bred hybrid plants
c. A-enhanced golden rice
d. Drought resistant Bt. Corn

69. These are the characteristics you can find to show that the bacteria are the earliest life forms
in primitive earth, but NOT to include _______.
a. They are only organisms made of prokaryotic cells
b. They do not have a nuclear membrane
c. They produce sexually with parent producing two identical daughter cells
d. They have a single circular DNA

70. When the temperature of the body is greater than the surroundings, how does the body
maintain homeostasis?
a. By conduction
b. By manual exercise
c. By perspiration
d. By radiation
71. Which of the following is considered multicellular?
a. Embryo
b. Fertilized egg
c. Egg cell
d. Sperm cell

72. Which sphere on earth life exists?

a. Stratosphere
b. Biosphere
c. Lithosphere
d. Atmosphere

73. Which of the following is true of Phylum Chordata?

I. Presence of notochord that provides skeletal support
II. Pharyngeal slits that have become modified for gas exchange
III. Dorsal hollow nerve cord that develops into the central nervous system
a. II and III
b. I and II
c. I and III
d. I, II and III

74. Which of the following is true of mammals?

I. They have three chambered heart
II. They produce milk for the young
III. They are warm blooded
a. I and II
b. II and III
c. I and III
d. I, II and III

75. Which of the following is responsible for formation of blood cells?

a. Cartilage
b. Bone marrow
c. Joints
d. Tendons

76. Which of the choices is a dicot?

a. Sugarcane
b. Grass
c. Coconut
d. Mango

77. DNA replication involves unwinding two strands of parent DNA, copying each strand to
synthesize complementary strands, and releasing the parent and daughter DNA. Which of the
following accurately describes this process?
a. This is an anabolic process
b. This is a catabolic process
c. This is both anabolic and catabolic
d. This is a metabolic process but is neither anabolic or catabolic

78. Which of the choices is a monocot?

a. Guava
b. Banana
c. Star apple
d. Gumamela
79. The following are functions of plant’s roots except:
a. Absorbing water and minerals
b. Providing stable foundation for growth
c. Breaking down food into nutrients
d. Anchoring the plant in the soil

80. A plant placed in an airtight glass container and watered without allowing air into and out of
the container will eventually die because of the lack of
a. Oxygen
b. Water
c. Light
d. Carbon dioxide

81. According to Rutherford’s calculations, the volume of an atom is mostly _____

a. Positive charged particles
b. Negative charged particles
c. Neutrally charged particles
d. Empty space

82. The process which is not a type of mechanical disintegration is ____?

a. Frost wedging
b. Oxidation
c. Abrasion
d. Roof penetration

83. The element argon, with atomic number 18, belongs to which group?
a. Alkali metals
b. Lanthanides
c. Halogens
d. Noble gases

84. Two different isotopes of the same element have

a. The same number of protons, neutrons, and electrons
b. The same number of protons and neutrons but different numbers of electrons
c. The same number of protons and electrons but different numbers of neutrons
d. The same number of neutrons and electrons but different numbers of protons

85. Which of the following is not true of a compound? It is

a. A pure substance
b. Composed of combinations of atoms
c. Held together by chemical bonds
d. A substance that cannot be broken down into simpler units

86. Which of the following is a compound?

a. Cemented wall
b. Dry ice
c. Gold
d. Tincture of iodine

87. Which is most likely to change the blue litmus paper to red?
a. Ammonia in water
b. Detergent solution
c. Lime water
d. Vinegar

88. Atoms that achieve an octet by sharing electrons form

a. Covalent bonds
b. Ionic bonds
c. Metallic bonds
d. Hydrogen bonds

89. Which can be classified as a homogeneous mixture?

I. Buko pie
II. Blood
III. Virgin coconut oil
IV. Mango juice
a. III only
b. I and II only
c. I, III, and IV only
d. II, III and IV only

90. An odorless and colorless matter boils at 100℃ and melts at 0℃. What inference can be
drawn from this observation?
a. It is a metal
b. It is a mixture
c. It is non-metal
d. It is a pure substance

91. There are millions of organic compounds but only thousands of inorganic compounds
because
a. Organic compounds were formed by living things
b. There is more carbon on Earth’s surface than any other element
c. Atoms of elements other than carbon never combine with themselves
d. Carbon atoms can combine with up to four other atoms, including other carbon atoms

92. A hydroxyl, -OH, functional group is found in

a. Ketone
b. Alkanes
c. Aldehydes
d. Alcohols

93. A hydrocarbon with a carbon-to-carbon triple bond is an

a. Alkane
b. Alkene
c. Alkyne
d. Alkaline

94. The combination of 2 or more substances in which identities of the individual substances are
retained is called?
a. Pairing
b. Bond
c. Union
d. Mixture

95. You know for sure that the compound named heptane has
a. More than 7 isomers
b. 7 carbon atoms in each molecule
c. Only single bonds
d. All of the above are correct

96. Carbon-12 atoms have ______________.

a. 6 electrons, 6 protons, 6 neutrons
b. 6 electrons, 12 protons, 6 neutrons
c. 12 electrons, 6 protons, 6 neutrons
d. 16 electrons, 6 protons, 6 neutrons
97. Which of the following is an organic compound?
a. Baking soda
b. Glucose
c. Limestone
d. Sulfuric acid

98. Which of the following is the molecular formula for hexane?

a. C5H11
b. C5H12
c. C6H12
d. C6H14

99. A hydrocarbon molecule is considered to be saturated if the molecule contains

a. Single covalent bonds, only
b. A double covalent bond, only
c. A triple covalent bond
d. Single and double covalent bonds

100. As a chemical bond forms between 2 hydrogen atoms in a system, energy is released and the
stability of the system _____.
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains the same
d. None of the above

101. A protein is a polymer formed from the linking of many

a. Glucose units
b. DNA molecules
c. Amino acid molecules
d. Monosaccharides

102. Petroleum is believed to have formed mostly from the anaerobic decomposition of buried
a. Dinosaurs
b. Fish
c. Pine trees
d. Plankton and algae

103. Chargaff’s rule states that DNA has:

a. The same numbers of purines as pyrimidines
b. The number of purines is twice the number of pyrimidines
c. The same number of A as T
d. The same number of G as C

104. Which of the following codons are a start codon and a stop codon, respectively?
a. AUG; UTA
b. AGU; TAT
c. AGU; TGA
d. AUG; UAA

105. What do the lytic and lysogenic cycles of viruses have in common?
a. The host cell dies
b. The virus dies
c. The virus inserts its genetic information into the host cell
d. Copies of the virus are immediately released from the host

106. Which biomolecule is considered the building blocks of tissues and organs?
a. Carbohydrates
b. Lipid
c. Nucleic acid
d. Protein

107. Which of the following serves as thermal insular in the body?

a. Carbohydrates
b. Fats
c. Nucleic acids
d. Proteins

108. In RNA, which is the correct complementary pairing of the nitrogenous bases?
a. AG and CU
b. AA and GG
c. AC and GC
d. AU and GC

109. What is the main function of the hormone oxytocin in the body?
a. Controls water excretion by the kidneys
b. Stimulates conversion of glycogen to glucose
c. Controls blood–glucose level and storage of glycogen
d. Stimulates contraction of the uterine muscles and secretion of milk by the mammary
glands

110. The action of disrupting the three-dimensional shape of a protein is termed

a. Dehydration
b. Denaturation
c. Deamination
d. Hydrolysis
111. Which of the following tells us that energy cannot be created nor destroyed, but it can be
transferred from one location to another and converted to and from other forms of energy?
a. 1st Law of Thermodynamics
b. 2nd Law of Thermodynamics
c. 3rd Law of Thermodynamics
d. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics

112. Having thermodynamics in mind, what do you call the finite quantity of matter or
prescribed region of space?
a. System
b. Boundary
c. Heat
d. Surroundings

113. What kind of system is present in thermodynamics if there’s no mass permitted to cross the
boundary, heat can enter or leave the system but not the mass?
a. Open System
b. Closed System
c. Mixed System
d. Thermodynamics

114. Which of the following is the energy transferred to or from an object through the application
of force along a displacement?
a. Energy
b. Power
c. Work
d. Thermodynamics
115. Vhal put on his backpack of weight 120 N. He then starts running on level ground for 100
meters before starting to climb up a ladder up a height of 100 meters. How much work was
done?
a. 1200 J
b. 1500 J
c. 1400 J
d. 1700 J

116. What will happen to a moving object if the sum of all the forces acting on it is zero?
a. It will accelerate uniformly
b. It will slow down and stop
c. It will change the direction of its motion
d. It will continue moving with constant velocity

117. An object is thrown straight up. Which of the following is TRUE about the sign of work
done by the gravitational force while the object moves up and down?
a. Work is zero on the way up, work is zero on the way down
b. Work is negative on the way up, work is negative on the way down
c. Work is negative on the way up, work is positive on the way down
d. Work is positive on the way up, work is negative on the way down

118. Celso is making a picture frame. He sticks a nail into a piece of wood and hits the nail with
a hammer. Which form of energy is NOT released when the hammer hits the nail?
a. Chemical
b. Kinetic
c. Sound
d. Thermal
119. When coal is burned to produce electricity, the electrical energy produced is less than the
potential energy of the coal. Which BEST explains this observation?
a. The amount of energy in the coal is not known
b. As the coal is heated, the molecules move so fast that they are destroyed
c. Some of the potential energy in the coal is converted into forms of energy other than
electricity
d. Some of the potential energy in the coal requires more intense heat so that can be compared to
electricity

120. Which of Newton’s laws best explains why motorists should always wear seat belts?
a. Law of Inertia
b. Law of Acceleration
c. Law of Interaction
d. Law of Gravitation

121. An electric rice cooker operates at 240 V and uses a current of 8 amperes. What is the
resistance of the rice cooker?
a. 20 Ohms
b. 30 Ohms
c. 40 Ohms
d. 50 Ohms

122. What is TRUE of all combinations of resistors arranged in parallel?

I. Current splits down each leg of the combination.
II. Voltage is constant across each leg of the combination.
III. Resistance is the same for each leg of the combination.
a. I and II only
b. I and II only
c. II and II only
d. I, II and III
123. Which states that the sum of all potential rises and potential drops in any loop (closed
circuit) is zero?
a. Coulomb’s Law
b. Kirchoff’s Law
c. Law of Electrolysis
d. Ohm’s Law

124. What happens to the current if resistance increases?

a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. No change
d. Cannot be determined

125. What is the resistance of an electric bulb drawing 1.2 A current and 6.0 V?
a. 0.2 Ω
b. 0.5 Ω
c. 2 Ω
d. 5 Ω

126. Radiant energy can be converted to electrical energy using ______.

a. light bulbs
b. engines
c. solar cells
d. electricity

127. Who discovered the relationship between magnetism and electricity that serves as the
foundation for the theory of electromagnetism?
a. Luigi Galvani
b. Hans Christian Oersted
c. Andre Ampere
d. Charles Coulomb

128. A substance that attracts pieces of iron

a. Conductor
b. Semiconductor
c. Magnet
d. All of the above

129. Who demonstrated the theory of electromagnetic induction in 1831?

a. Michael Faraday
b. Andre Ampere
c. James Clerk Maxwell
d. Charles Coulomb

130. Heat is the _______________.

a. total internal energy of an object
b. average kinetic energy of molecules
c. measure of potential energy of molecules
d. same thing as a very high temperature

131. Why does a blue t-shirt appear blue?

a. Blue is absorbed by the t-shirt
b. Blue is emitted by the t-shirt
c. Blue is reflected by the t-shirt
d. Blue is reflected by the t-shirt
132. Under which type of light do we easily get sunburned?
a. Infrared
b. Microwave light
c. Ultraviolet
d. Visible light

133. What phenomenon is a result of the bending of light particles that causes haloes, sundogs,
and mirage?
a. Refraction
b. Reflection
c. Interference
d. Dispersion

134. What kind of mirror is also known as a converging mirror?

a. Concave
b. Convex
c. Rear mirror
d. Side mirror

135. What is the value and symbol of the speed of light?

a. 3.0 x 10^8 m/s² : c
b. 3.0 x 10^8 m/s : v
c. 3.0 x 10^8 m/s² : v
d. 3.0 x 10^8 m/s : c

136. According to Einstein, what is considered the fourth dimension?

a. Curled dimension
b. Horizontal dimension
c. Space dimension
d. Time dimension

137. Which of the following is the BEST description of white light?

a. It is a mixture of every color.
b. It is a mixture of seven colors.
c. It is a mixture of red, blue and yellow.
d. It is a pure color that cannot be broken up.

138. The number of vibrations that occur in 1 second is called ___________________.

a. Period
b. Frequency
c. Amplitude
d. Sinusoidal

139. He proposed the continental drift theory?

a. Alfred Wallace
b. Alfred Wegener
c. Charles Darwin
d. Lavoisier

140. The part of the electromagnetic spectrum that our eyes can detect is _________________.
a. Ultraviolet
b. Infrared
c. Visible
d. All of the above

141. _______ is the science that is devoted to the study of the earth’s place in the universe, its
structure, and the processes that occur that contribute to its change.
a. Physics
b. Biological Science
c. Earth Science
d. General Science

142. Which of the following is a direct result of the tilt of the Earth’s axis?
a. uneven periods of day and night
b. differences of the seasons between the hemispheres
c. the occurrences of solstice
d. all of the above

143. Scientists, through experimentation, believe that the earth possesses _______.
a. a liquid inner core and a solid outer core
b. a solid core and a liquid mantle
c. a liquid outer core and a solid inner core
d. has a solid crust and a liquid mantle

144. The continental drift theory can be explained as ________.

a. the movement of the Earth’s tectonic plates
b. the gradual widening of the oceans
c. the movement of the large land masses on the crust
d. the gradual shrinking of continents

145. Mike was asked to identify the rock samples by the way they split into definite pieces. He
does this by identifying the samples’ _______.
a. Hardness
b. Streak
c. Cleavage
d. Specific gravity
146. All of the following occur in the Troposphere except _______.
a. Storms
b. Tornadoes
c. cloud formations
d. aurora

147. Which of the following are not true?

I. Land breezes occur in the daytime
II. Sea breezes occur when the land is warmer than the body of water
III. Breezes are caused by convection in the atmosphere
IV. Mountain breezes occur in the evening
a. I and IV
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. III and IV

148. Heat and pressure change rocks into

a. igneous rocks
b. sedimentary rocks
c. metamorphic rocks
d. clastic rocks

149. Given Nitrogen (N), Oxygen (O) and Carbon Dioxide (CO₂), which item below shows the
correct order in terms of increasing abundance in the atmosphere?
a. N, O, CO₂
b. O, CO₂, N
c. CO₂, O, N
d. O, N, CO₂
150. The relationship between rocks that are continually changing over long periods of time is
called
a. Geology
b. Mineralogy
c. rock cycle
d. weathering

151. The science that studies the atmosphere and weather phenomena is
a. Astronomy
b. Astrology
c. Meteorology
d. Space Science

152. The primary cause for the continuous cycling of water in the earth is the _______.
a. Wind
b. Soil
c. Sun
d. Earth’s rotation

153. From November to February, the dominant monsoon in our country is the ______ monsoon.
a. Northwest
b. Southwest
c. Northeast
d. Southeast

154. An unknown mineral was found to be lustrous, ductile, and resistant to scratching. Most
probably, the mineral is _______.
a. a gemstone
b. Siliceous
c. Metallic
d. Non-metallic

155. When wind, water or the activity of animals carry soil from one place to another, this
process is known as _______.
a. Weathering
b. Erosion
c. Sedimentation
d. Decantation

156. Which of the following is NOT an agent of weathering?

a. Flowing water
b. Transport of animals
c. Changing air temperature
d. Movement of wind

157. When an earthquake occurs, the actual point where it originates is called the ______.
a. Epicenter
b. Focus
c. Fault line
d. Fissure

158. A “carbon footprint” is the _______.

a. amount of space you occupy
b. the amount of carbon paper you use
c. the amount of greenhouse gases you emit
d. none of the above

159. Which cloud is considered to be an indicator of fair weather?

a. Nimbus
b. Cumulus
c. Cirrus
d. Stratus

160. All of the following are renewable energy sources except ________.
a. Tides
b. Sunlight
c. Geothermal vents
d. Coal mines

161. _______ is a region of space containing a huge amount of mass compacted into an
extremely small volume with a gravitational influence so strong that nothing, not even light, can
escape its grasp.
a. Accretion disks
b. Black hole
c. Alternate universe
d. Parallel universe

162. Which of the following is NOT a minor member of the Solar System?
a. Comets
b. Asteroids
c. Moons
d. Sun

163. Venus is the hottest planet in the Solar System because _______.
a. it is the nearest planet to the sun
b. it is covered by thick atmosphere of carbon dioxide
c. it rotates faster than the other planets
d. it is twice the size of the Earth

164. The Moon exhibits different phases because _______.

a. it revolves around the Earth
b. it rotates around its axis
c. the Earth revolves around the Sun
d. the Earth’s axis is tilted

165. Nicolas Copernicus proposed which model of the solar system?

a. Tychonic Model
b. Ptolemaic Model
c. Geocentric Model
d. Heliocentric Model

166. What type of planets are Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars?
a. Early planets
b. Terrestrial planets
c. Small planets
d. Hot planets

167. The most widely accepted theory on the origin of the solar system is
a. Big Bang
b. Conservation of matter
c. Protoplanet nebular
d. Collision of planets

168. Our Sun is _________________.

a. one of several stars in the solar system
b. the brightest star in the night sky
c. an average star, considering mass and age
d. a protostar

169. Approximately how old is the universe?

a. 5 billion years
b. 10 billion years
c. 14 billion years
d. 25 billion years

170. During which moon phase are solar eclipses experienced?

a. Full moon
b. New moon
c. First quarter
d. Last quarter

171. Four students were discussing the conditions where solar eclipses occur. Who among them
has the correct information?
I. Mark – it occurs when the moon is between the sun and Earth
II. Melvin – it occurs when the Earth is between the sun and moon
III. Justin – it occurs when the sun is between the moon and the Earth
IV. Frank – it occurs when the sun, moon, and Earth form 90-degree angles
a. Mark
b. Melvin
c. Justin
d. Frank

172. What is the more common name for the constellation Canis Minor?
a. Little dog
b. Little cat
c. Big dog
d. Big cat

173. Approximately, how many days does it take the moon to complete one rotation around the
Earth?
a. 25 days
b. 26 days
c. 27 days
d. 28 days

174. Which planet do the moons Phobos and Deimos belong to?
a. Mercury
b. Venus
c. Mars
d. Earth

175. In which galaxy does Earth exist?

a. Milky Way Galaxy
b. Andromeda Galaxy
c. Canis Major Galaxy
d. Canis Minor Galaxy

176. If the Earth has completed three revolutions, how many rotations has it completed?
a. 1094 ¼ rotations
b. 1094 ¾ rotations
c. 1095 ¾ rotations
d. 1095 ¼ rotations
177. What is the highest volcanic mountain in the solar system that is located on Mars?
a. Mt. Everest
b. Olympus Mons
c. Ascraeus Mons
d. Mt. Pinatubo

178. What was the first microsatellite launched by the Philippines?

a. Apollo 13
b. Sputnik
c. Diwata
d. Maya

179. What was the name of the space mission that landed the first humans on the moon?
a. Apollo
b. Skylab
c. Gemini
d. Mercury

180. What is the color of the hottest star in the Universe?

a. Red
b. Blue
c. Yellow
d. Orange

181. Why is science valued?

a. Because science has helped in improving living conditions
b. Because science has helped in satisfying many basic human needs
c. Because science has caused detrimental effects to the environment
d. Both A and B

182. The physical sciences include physics (the study of physical things), chemistry (the study of
matter), and astronomy (the science of celestial objects). What facet of science is illustrated
here?
a. Science as a set of skills
b. Science as a broad body of knowledge
c. Science as a global human endeavor
d. Science as a social activity

183. The six basic scientific process skills are observation, communication, classification,
measurement, inference, and prediction. What scientific facet is shown here?
a. Science as a set of skills
b. Science as a broad body of knowledge
c. Science as a global human endeavor
d. Science as a social activity

184. It is concerned about teaching, learning, and understanding science.

a. Science process skills
b. Science teacher
c. Science workshop
d. Science education

185. It is a series of processes for validating and expanding scientific knowledge.

a. Scientific literacy
b. Scientific method
c. Scientific name
d. Scientific jargon
186. It refers to addressing our own needs without jeopardizing future generations’ potential to
do the same. We need not only natural but also social economic resources.
a. Sustainability
b. Scientific literacy
c. Science education
d. Development goals

187. The United Nations’ Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are made to serve as a shared
blueprint for peace and prosperity for people and the planet now and into the future. What facet
of science is illustrated here?
a. Science as a set of skills
b. Science as a broad body of knowledge
c. Science as a global human endeavor
d. Science as a social activity

188. Though mainly an activity aimed to preserve ecological balance and conservation, recycling
can create jobs and reduce solid waste collection, transportation, and disposal costs. Monetary
profit can also be made from selling recyclable materials. What facet of science is illustrated
here?
a. Science as a set of skills
b. Science as a broad body of knowledge
c. Science as a global human endeavor
d. Science as a social activity

189. All of the following statements are TRUE except:

a. The teaching of science appreciates the benefits and limitations of science and its applications
b. The teaching of science develops inquiring minds and curiosity about the world
c. The teaching of science obscures the understanding of the international nature of science
d. None of the above.
190. This strategy aims to expose students to a broad range of concepts/topics and disciplines
until they master them by studying them repeatedly but with varying degrees of difficulty.
a. Teaching outside specialization
b. Spiral progression
c. Learning loss
d. Educational disruption

191. When experimenting with the growth of a plant, a scientist uses three of the same type of
plants, two different fertilizers, equal light, and equal water. What type of variable is the water?
a. Dependent
b. Independent
c. Control
d. Interdependent

192. In an experiment to determine what type of acid is the MOST corrosive (destructive), which
of these would NEED to be a controlled variable?
a. The acids used
b. The material the acid is poured on
c. The size of the hole created by the acid
d. None of the above

193. Students were involved in an experiment to investigate whether playing music while they
took a test affected their scores. What would their test scores be?
a. Independent variable
b. Dependent variable
c. Controlled variable
d. Hypotheses

194. If you were running an experiment to determine the temperature at which beans sprout the
fastest, what would be the independent variable?
a. The number of beans you plant
b. The height of the sprouts you grow
c. The amount of water you give the beans
d. The temperature at which each bean is kept

195. If you are planning on teaching your young students about the scientific method, which of
the following strategies are most developmentally appropriate?
a. Have students list each step of the scientific method
b. Have students talk with a partner about each step of the scientific method
c. Have students repeat the steps in the scientific method with each experiment
d. Have students read about what the scientific method is

196. Pedagogical approach in teaching biology through hands-on activities and creative projects?
a. Inquiry based
b. Metacognitive
c. Interactive
d. Lecture

197. How would you BEST describe developmentally appropriate practices?

a. Approaches educators take to create meaningful, authentic assessments.
b. Approaches educators take to create meaningful, grade-level experiences that promote
learning
c. Approaches students take to perform well on assessments
d. Approaches students take to learn grade-level content.

198. Teaching ______ allows even younger students to ask questions, investigate them, and
make observations to draw conclusions.
a. Communication skills
c. Literacy skills
b. Collaboration and determination
d. Critical thinking and problem solving

199. Why should educators teach science skills to younger students?

a. It is required by law and local government units.
b. Our society needs more scientists, starting them early may encourage them to choose a career
in science.
c. It can help them form a foundation of knowledge that’s useful in higher classes.
d. Younger students should NOT be taught science concepts, as that is advanced teaching they
are not ready for.

200. What are some basic concepts teachers can introduce to younger children to help them in
science?
a. Waves, atoms, magnetism
b. Names of shapes, names of fluids, names of construction materials (scissors, tape, etc.)
c. Krebs cycle, electricity, quantum mechanics
d. Molecular structures, atoms, theory of relativity