Chemistry Exam Review

Standard 1.1 Analyze the structure of atoms and ions.

_____ 1. As a consequence of the discovery of the nucleus by Rutherford,
which model of the atom is believed to be true?
A) A model in which the protons, electrons and neutrons are evenly distributed
throughout the volume of the atom.
B) A model in which the nucleus is made of protons, electrons, and neutrons
C) A model in which the nucleus is made of neutrons only
D) A model in which the nucleus is made of electrons and protons
E) A model in which the region outside the nucleus is largely empty space in which the
electrons are situated
_____ 2. The atomic number of an element is the total number of which particles in the nucleus?
A) neutrons D) protons and electrons
B) protons E) protons, electrons and
C) electrons neutrons
_____ 3. Most of the volume of an atom consists of
A) protons D) empty space
B) protons and neutrons E) neutrons
C) electrons
_____ 4. The mass number of an element is equal to
A) the total number of electrons in the nucleus
B) the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus
C) less than twice the atomic number
D) a constant number for the lighter elements
_____ 5. All atoms of the same element have the same
A) number of neutrons C) mass numbers
B) number of protons D) mass
_____ 6. Isotopes of the same element have different
A) numbers of neutrons D) atomic numbers
B) numbers of protons E) symbols
C) numbers of electrons

*Define Isotope: _________________________________________________________

_____ 7. In which of the following is the number of neutrons correctly represented?
A) F-19 has 0 neutrons D) Au-197 has 79 neutrons
B) As-75 has 108 neutrons E) U-238 has 146 neutrons
C) Mg-24 has 24 neutrons
_____ 8. How does the energy of an electron change when the electron moves closer to the
nucleus?
A) it decreases B) it increases C) it stays the same
_____ 9. What particle is emitted in alpha radiation?
A) electron C) helium nucleus
B) photon D) hydrogen nucleus
_____ 10. The splitting of a nucleus into two similar-sized pieces is called
A) fission C) neutron absorption
B) fusion D) transmutation
_____ 11. What particle decomposes to produce the electron of beta radiation?
A) proton C) electron
B) neutron D) muon

*The resulting element now has an extra _________________.

_____ 11. The most penetrating form of radiation is
A) alpha radiation C) gamma radiation
B) beta radiation D) visible radiation
_____ 12. In a neon light, when is the light given off?
A) when electrons return to their normal atomic orbital
B) when electrons absorb electrical energy
C) when protons move
D) when atoms collide
13. What color light is given off from a hydrogen atom when its electron drops from the n= 4 to n=2
energy level? And how much energy is this?

_____ 14. What is the approximate energy of a photon having a frequency of 4 x 107 hz? (h= 6.6 x
10-34 J.s)
A) 3 x 10-26 J D) 3 x 1042 J
-27
B) 3 x 10 J E) 1 x 10-18 J
-41
C) 2 x 10 J

*Formula used: ______________

_____ 15. Silicon occurs in nature in three isotopes, Si-28 at 92.21% abundancy, Si-29 at 4.70%
abundancy and Si-30 at 3.09% abundancy. According to this data, what is the average atomic mass
of silicon?
A) 29 amu B) 28.11 amu
C) 29.11 amu D) 40.38 amu
*Formula used: __________________________________________

16. Determine the following for electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength of 6.0 x 10-3 m.
( c = 3.0 x 108 m/s h = 6.626 x 10-34 Js)
a) What type of wave is this? _____________________________________
b) What is the frequency of the wave? ______________________________
c) What energy does the wave possess? ____________________________

*What formula can you use to calculate energy directly from wavelength: ____________
_____ 17. When Carbon-14 undergoes beta decay, what new element is
formed?
A) Carbon-12 B) Nitrogen-14 C) Oxygen-14
D) No new element can be formed from another element.
*What is Beta decay? ________________________________________
_____ 18. A certain radioactive isotope has a half life of three days. If 40 g of substance is present
at the beginning, how much is left nine days later?
A) 40 g C) 5 g
B) 20 g D) 4.4 g

*Define half-life: _________________________________________________

____ 19. The heat of the sun is produced by

A) a redox reaction D) thousands of tiny ants
B) a nuclear fusion reaction holding up lit matches
C) a combustion reaction

*Define Fusion: __________________________________________________

Standard 1.2 Understand the bonding that occurs in simple compounds in terms of bond type,
strength and properties.
_____ 20. Which of the following crystals is the most malleable?
A) sodium chloride C) iron
B) ammonium nitrate D) sugar
*What type of substances are malleable: ____________________________________
_____ 21. Which of the following has the highest melting point?
A) CO2 C) KBr
B) C6H12O6 D) SO3
*What type of substances have high melting and boiling points? ________________
____ 22. Which of the following bonds would be MOST polar?
A) B-O C) B-N
B) B-Br D) B-F

*Define Polar: ______________________________________________

_____23. Which of the following bonds would be the LEAST polar?
A) C-O C) C-F
B) B) C-C D) C-N
_____ 24. Which of the following has a double bond?
A) H2O C) C2H4
B) C2H2 D) CN-
*Draw lewis structure:
_____ 25. The VSEPR theory gives information about why ___
A) atoms share electrons C) electron configurations are
B) molecules are shaped the the way they are
way they are D) dipole-dipole forces may be
attractive or repulsive
_____ 26. What is the shape of the water (H2O) molecule?
A) tetrahedral B) bent C) linear D) trigonal pyramidal

*Draw lewis structure:

_____ 27. Which of the following compounds exhibits hydrogen bonding?
A) HF C) H2O
B) NH3 D) All of the above
*What is hydrogen bonding? __________________________________________
_____ 28. How many electrons are shared in a double covalent bond?
A) 1 C) 3 E) 8
B) 2 D) 4
_____ 29. Which of the forces of molecular attraction is the strongest?
A) dipole interaction B) dispersion forces C) hydrogen bonds
_____ 30. The shape of the carbon tetrachloride (CCl4) molecule is ___.
A) linear C) tetrahedral
B) bent D) square

*Draw lewis structure:

_____ 31. If two elements have similar chemical properties, you would expect them to have
A) similar atomic masses D) the same number of outer
B) similar atomic radii electrons
C) the same number of energy
levels

*What do we call the other electron? __________________________

_____ 32. Which of the following pairs of elements is most likely to form an
ionic compound?
A) magnesium and fluorine C) oxygen and chlorine
B) nitrogen and sulfur D) sodium and aluminum

*Define ionic compound: ________________________________

_____ 33. How many unshared pairs of electrons are in a water molecule?
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
_____ 34. What type of compound is always an electrolyte?
A) polar covalent B) nonpolar covalent C) ionic
_____ 35. Which of the following is the correct formula for nickel (I) chloride?
A) NiCl2 C) NiCl
B) Ni2Cl D) NiCl3
Name the compounds. Write the correct name for each of the following compounds.
__________________________ 36. NaC2H3O2
___________________________ 39. Na3N
_____________________________37. Ba(OH)2
___________________________ 40. CCl4
___________________________ 38. CaO

Write the correct chemical formula for each of the following compounds.
_____________________ 41. Nickel (I) chloride _________________ 44. Dinitrogen pentoxide
______________ 42. Potassium permanganate _____________________ 45. Hydrochloric acid
_________________ 43. Sodium bicarbonate ______________________ 46. Boron trifluoride
*What do roman numerals represent? ___________________________

*When do you use prefixes such as mono- di- tri-? __________________________________

_____ 47. In the chemical formula Na2SO4, the subscript 2 indicates
A) that sodium is a diatomic element
B) that sodium is a polyatomic ion
C) that there are two atoms of sodium in one formula unit of sodium sulfate
D) that sodium has a positive 2 charge
_____ 48. The geometry of the H2S molecule can best be described as
A) tetrahedral B) linear C) bent D) trigonal pyramidal

*Draw lewis structure:

_____ 49. The geometry of the phosphorous trichloride molecule can best be described as
A) tetrahedral C) trigonal pyramidal
B) bent D) trigonal planar

*Draw lewis structure

Standard 1.3 Understand the physical and chemical properties of atoms based on their
position on the Periodic Table.
_____ 50. The representative elements are usually called
A) noble gases C) Group B elements
B) Group A elements D) Halogens
_____ 61. What is the chief characteristic of the noble gases?
A) very low reactivity C) high boiling point
B) red color D) high density

*Why? _________________________________________________
_____ 62. The modern periodic table is arranged according to
A) atomic mass C) mass number
B) atomic number D) alphabetical order

*Define atomic number: _____________________________________

_____ 63. The category of elements that is characterized by the filling of d orbitals is the
A) alkaline earth metals C) alkali metals
B) halogens D) transition metals
_____ 64. Which of the following is the correct electron configuration for an oxygen atom?
A) 1s2 2s2 2p6 C) 1s2 2s2 3s2 4s2
2 2 4
B) 1s 2s 2p D) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
______ 65. What is the next atomic orbital in the series, 1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, 3p, 4s, 3d?
A) 5s B) 2d C) 4d D) 4p
_____ 66. Which of the following has the greatest electronegativity?
A) potassium B) zinc C) chlorine D) calcium

*Define electronegativity: ______________________________________

_____67. Which of the following has the largest atomic radius?
A) lithium B) sodium C) hydrogen D) cesium

*What is the trend? __________________________________________

_____ 68. The amount of energy required to remove an electron completely from an atom is called
A) ionization energy C) a quantum
B) electronegativity D) atomic absorption

*What is the trend? _________________________________________

______69. Each period number in the periodic table corresponds to

A) a principal energy level C) an atomic mass
B) an energy sublevel D) an atomic number
_____ 70. Which of the following groupings contains only representative elements?
A) Cu, Co, Cd B) Ni, Fe, Zn C) Al, Mg, Li D) Hg, Cr, Ag
_____ 71. Why is the radius of a positive ion always less than the radius of its neutral atom?
A) the nucleus pulls the remaining electrons in closer
B) the number of principal energy levels is always reduced
C) the atomic orbitals contract all by themselves
D) electron speeds are reduced
_____72. The modern periodic table is arranged according to
A) atomic mass C) mass number
B) atomic number D) alphabetical order
_____ 73. Which of the following has the lowest electronegativity?
A) fluorine B) chlorine C) sodium D) potassium
_____74. Which of the following occurs when an alkaline earth metal (Group 2A) attains a stable
electron configuration?
A) it gains two electrons C) it loses two electrons
B) it gains 8 electrons D) it loses 8 electrons
*What would its charge be? __________
_____ 75. The electron configuration of K+ is most similar to that of
A) Ar B) Ca2+ C) Na+ D) K

*Define ion: __________________________________________________

 Standard 2.1 Understand the relationship among pressure, temperature, volume and phase.
____76. As the temperature of a substance decreases, the average kinetic energy of its particles
A) remains constant C) decreases
B) increases, then decreases D) increases
_____77. Which of the following substances takes the most heat energy to
raise the temperature of one gram of the substance by 1oC?
A) aluminum (c = 0.90 J/goC)
B) iron (c = 0.46 J/goC)
C) water (c = 4.18 J/goC)
D) silver (c = 0.24 J/goC)
*The underlined part is the definition of _______________________________.
_____78. When the particles of a solid gain enough kinetic energy to break
their ordered arrangement and slip past one another, the solid
A) melts C) decomposes
B) freezes D) vaporizes

Label the
graph

_____79. What is happening at the part of the graph marked 2?

A) a solid is melting
B) a liquid is freezing
C) the temperature of a solid is increasing
D) the temperature of a liquid is increasing
E) a liquid is boiling
_____ 80. What is the boiling point of the substance described by the graph above?
A) 0oC
B) 50oC
C) 100oC
D) 120oC
(81-84) A 25.0 g gold ingot with a temperature of 177oC is dropped into 200.0 g of ethanol at a temperature of 20oC.
The system comes to thermal equilibrium at 21oC. *SHOW ALL WORK W/ FORMULA
_____ 81. What gained heat and what lost heat?
A) The gold ingot gained heat and the ethanol lost heat.
B) The gold ingot and the ethanol both lost heat.
C) The gold ingot and the ethanol both gained heat.
D) The gold ingot lost heat and the ethanol gained heat.
_____ 82. What is the final temperature of the ethanol in Kelvins?
A) -252 K B) 21 K C) 1 K D) 294 K
_____ 83. How much heat was lost/gained in this problem?
A) 492 J B) 1oC C) 156 oC D) 9594 J
_____ 84. What is the specific heat of the gold ingot?
A) 2.46 J/goC C) 0. 235 J/goC D) not enough
o
B) 0.126 J/g C information to tell
 Label the
graph

_____ 85. What does point O represent on the diagram above?

A) the melting point C) the normal boiling point
B) the boiling point D) the triple point
_____ 86. What is happening along curve OM ?
A) melting C) sublimation
B) boiling D) vaporization
_____ 87. Which of the following processes is exothermic?
A) sublimation C) condensation
B) vaporization D) none of these

*Define exothermic: ________________________________________

88. If it takes 10.0 kJ of heat to raise the temperature of 100.0 g of a substance by
50oC, what is the specific heat of the substance?

89. How much heat is required to turn 27.0 g of water at 20.0oC to steam at 100.0oC?

_____90. The energy required to change one gram of a solid to a liquid at its melting point is the
A) specific heat C) heat of fusion
B) heat of vaporization D) heat of formation
*What is the variable/symbol for this? ___________
_____ 91. In what units must temperature be measured for all of the gas laws?
A) degrees Fahrenheit C) degrees Centigrade
B) degrees Celsius D) Kelvins
_____ 92. According to Gay-Lussac’s Law, what happens to the pressure of a gas if the absolute
temperature is cut in half?
A) the pressure doubles D) the pressure remains
B) the pressure is cut in half constant
C) the pressure quadruples

*Formula:
_____ 93. As the temperature of the gas in a balloon decreases ___.
A) the volume increases C) the pressure increases
B) the average kinetic energy D) all of the above
of the gas decreases

*Formula:
_____94. What is the volume occupied by 18 x 1023 molecules of fluorine at STP?
A) 22.4 L B) 44.8 L C) 56.0 L D) 67.2 L E) 78.4 L
_____95. What is the pressure when a liquid is boiling at its normal boiling point?
A) 0 atm B) 1 atm C) 2 atm D) 5 atm
_____96. If heat is added to a boiling liquid, what happens to the temperature of the liquid?
A) it increases B) it decreases C) it does not change
_____97. Which of these changes would NOT cause an increase in the pressure of a gaseous
system?
A) the container is made larger C) the temperature is increased
B) additional amounts of the same gas D) another gas is added to the
are added to the container container
_____ 98. A sample of gas occupies 40.0 mL at –123 C. What volume does it occupy at 27oC?
o

A) 182 mL C) 80.0 mL
B) 8.80 mL D) 20.0 mL
_____ 99. What does the ideal gas law allow a scientist to calculate that the other laws do not?
A) number of moles B) pressure C) volume D) temperature
_____ 100. Under laboratory conditions of 25.0oC and 99.5 kPa, what is the maximum number of
liters of ammonia that could be produced from 1.50 L of nitrogen according to the following equation?
N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
A) 3.22 L B) 3.00 L C) 2.70 L D) 3.33 L
Standard 2.2 Analyze chemical reactions in terms of quantities, product formation, and
energy.
____ 101. How does collision theory explain the effect of changing the concentration of
reactants on the rate of a reaction?
a. Decreasing the concentration decreases the rate of the reaction because there are few
reactants to take part in collisions.
b. Decreasing the concentration increases the rate of the reaction because there is more
room for particles to collide.
c. Decreasing the concentration increases the rate of reaction because there is more room
for particles to rebound after colliding.
d. The collision theory cannot explain the effect of changing the concentration of reactants.
102. On the diagram to the right, label the following: reactants,
products, activated complex, activation energy, enthalpy of reaction (H)

103. Is the reaction shown in the diagram to the right exothermic or

endothermic and how do you know?

_____104. Which of the following is a chemical property?

I. reactivity of a metal (according to the activity series)
II. flammability III. mass IV. density
A) I only B) II only C) I and II only D) II and IV only E) I, II and IV
_____ 105. During a lab experiment, a gas is produced in a test tube. A flaming wooden splint is
held near the opening of the test tube and a loud pop is heard. The gas must be
A) oxygen B) carbon dioxide C) hydrogen D) chlorine
_____ 106. During another lab experiment, a gas is produced in a test tube. When a glowing
wooden splint is held near the opening of the test tube, it bursts into flame. The gas must be
A) oxygen B) carbon dioxide C) hydrogen D) chlorine
_____ 107. During a lab experiment, a piece of zinc is submerged in silver nitrate solution. It looks
like something fuzzy is forming on the piece of zinc. What is the “fuzzy” stuff?
A) mold B) hydrogen gas C) nitrogen gas D) silver crystals

*Write out reaction: ________________________________________

Predict the products and write a balanced chemical equation for each of the following reactions:
108. A zinc bar is dropped into a beaker of aqueous hydrochloric acid.

109. Ethane (C2H6) undergoes complete combustion.

110. Aqueous solutions of lead (II) nitrate and sodium chloride are mixed.

111. AgNO3 (aq) + Na2SO4 (aq) → _______________________________

112. CaCl2 (aq) + Na2SO4 (aq) → _______________________________

113. HCl (aq) + Zn (s) → _________________________________________

114. HCl (aq) + Ag(s) → __________________________________________

_____ 205. An acid-base neutralization reaction is what type of reaction?

A) redox C) double replacement E) decomposition
B) single replacement D) synthesis

Al2(SO4)3(aq) + 6 NaOH(aq) → 3 Na2SO4(aq) + 2 Al(OH)3(s)

115. If 2.0 moles of aluminum sulfate are to be reacted, how many moles of aluminum hydroxide will
be formed?

116. What is the molar mass of aluminum hydroxide?

117. How many moles of sodium sulfate are 35.5 g of sodium sulfate?

118. How many atoms are in one formula unit of aluminum sulfate?

119. Hydrazine (dinitrogen tetrahydride) is used as a liquid rocket fuel. Hydrazine reacts with oxygen
gas to produce nitrogen and water.
a) Write a balanced chemical equation for this reaction.

b) If 640 g of hydrazine is reacted in the presence of 10 moles of oxygen gas, how many
grams of nitrogen gas are produced?

120. 25g of zinc chloride reaction with 25 grams of sodium nitrate. What is the limiting reagent? What
is the theoretical yield?

_____ 121. Carbon disulfide, CS2, is what percent carbon by mass?

A) 76% B) 16% C) 42% D) 84%

_____ 122. Which of the following is NOT an empirical formula?

A) NaC2H3O2 B) C2H4 C) CO2 D) CO

_____ 123. If the percent composition of a compound is found to be 58.8% C, 9.8% H, and 31.4% O,
what will be the empirical formula of the compound?
A) C5H10O2 C) C4H9O2
B) C6H10O3 D) C2H5O
_____ 124. If a compound has an empirical formula of CH3O and a molar mass 62 g/mol, what is its
molecular formula?
A) CH3O C) C2H6O2
B) C2H3O2 D) C3H18O3
_____ 125. If 6.54 g of zinc are reacted with excess hydrochloric acid at STP how much hydrogen
gas is produced?
A) 2.24 L C) 4.48 L
B) 2.24 g D) 1.12 L
_____ 126. How much copper metal would have to be reacted with excess AgNO3 in order to obtain
10.0 g of silver?
A) 2.94 g B) 5.88 g C) 8.49 g D) 17.0 g

Standard 3.1 Understand the factors affecting rate of reaction and chemical equilibrium.
_____127. How does a catalyst speed up a chemical reaction?
A) by lowering the activation energy
B) by increasing the concentration of ions in the reaction vessel
C) by providing spectator ions that cheer the other ions on
D) by forming an activated complex
E) by producing enzymes in the cell
_____ 128. When a chemical reaction reaches equilibrium, which of the following is true?
I. There are more products than reactants
II. There is an equal amount of products and reactants
III. The rate of the forward reaction equals the rate of the reverse reaction
IV. The amount of reactants and products does not change
A) I only B) III only C) I and III only D) III and IV only E) II, III and IV

_____ 129. Le Chatelier’s principle states that if a system is in equilibrium and a condition is
changed, the equilibrium will
A) remain unchanged C) shift to minimize the amount of
B) shift to minimize the amount of products
reactants D) shift to restore equilibrium

2NO(g) + Cl2(g) → 2NOCl(g)

130. Write the equilibrium constant expression (Keq) for this reaction.

131. If the system is in equilibrium and more chlorine gas is added, which way will the equilibrium
shift?

132. If the system is in equilibrium and NOCl is removed, which way will the equilibrium shift?

133. If the pressure on the system is increased, which way will the equilibrium shift?

134. If chlorine gas is removed from the system, which way will the equilibrium shift?

_____ 135. What is the hydrogen ion concentration of a solution with a pH of 7.5?
A) 7.5 x 10-13 M B) 3.2 x 10-8 M C) 3.2 x 10-7 M D) 0.88 M
_____ 136. If it takes 35.0 mL of a 0.1 M HCl solution to neutralize 25.0 mL of a NaOH solution, what
is the concentration of the base?
A) 1.4 M B) 0.07 M C) 0.14 M D) 0.7 M
_____ 137. How many grams of potassium dichromate would be needed to make 500.0 mL of a
1.500 M solution?
A) 145.5 g B) 194.0 g C) 220.5 g D) 441.0 g
_____ 138. A 10.0 mL aliquot from a 6.0 M HCl solution is diluted to 50.0 mL. What is the
concentration of the new solution?
A) 1.2 M C) 8.3 M E) 30.0 M
B) 3.0 M D) 12.0 M

_____ 139. Which of the following is NOT an electrolyte?

A) SnCl4 C) NiNO3
B) SO2 D) MgCl2
E) all of the above are electrolytes

140. How much potassium bromide is in 500 mL of a saturated solution at 50 oC?

141. How would you describe a solution of 155 g of KNO3 dissolved in 100 g of water at 75oC?

_____ 141. An unknown substance is found. It dissolves in water and the solution conducts
electricity, has a slippery feel and turns litmus paper blue. The substance must be
A) a base B) an acid C) a salt
D) there is not enough information to tell

142. Mark each of the following A for an acid, B for a base, S for a salt and N for neither.

_____ a) HC2H3O2 _____ b) K2SO4 _____ c) NH4OH

_____ d) Ca(OH)2 _____ e) H2CO3 _____f) N2O5

_____ 143. Another name for a solution is

A) a heterogeneous mixture
B) a homogeneous mixture
C) the Tyndall effect
D) an alloy
E) supersaturated