Module 2 The Arbitrage-Free Valuation Framework (1)
Module 2 The Arbitrage-Free Valuation Framework (1)
Recall: The traditional method for determining bond price involves the
following Three steps :
1) Estimate the cash flows: Coupon and Principal
2) Determine the appropriate discount rate
3) Calculate the present value of the estimated cash flows.
This approach involves using a single discount rate (YTM) to determine
bond price. Implicit is the assumption that the yield curve is flat!!
Calculate the value of a 5 year, 6 % annual pay Eurobond with $100 face value.
Also calculate the YTM on the bond.
Assume the Eurobond is trading in the market at par. What arbitrage trades
shall you execute?
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Valuing a Bond with Embedded Options
• The bond valuation method used for the previous example is only apt for
option free-bonds and bonds with zero cash flow uncertainty. The method
cannot be extended to value bonds with embedded options because:
Complication 1: bonds with options have future cash flows that depend on
future interest rates (eg. callable, putable bonds)
• We can use the interest rate tree to value both, bonds that are option-free as
well as bonds with embedded options.
Period 2 𝑖
Period 1 1/2 𝑖
𝑖 𝑖 Interest rate at each node
Period 0 1/2
is the 1 period forward
Initial rate 1/2 𝑖 𝒊𝟐 interest rate.
𝑖 𝑖 Eg. uuui is the 1 period
1/2 𝑖 forward rate 3 years
1/2 𝑖 𝑖 from now.
Q2: If the lowest possible interest rate at time period 3 is given as 𝑖 , what
is the mathematical relationship of this lowest rate to 𝑖 , 𝑖 and 𝑖 ?
Given the interest rate tree shown below, what is the value of a 5% coupon, 3
year option-free Treasury bond?
𝑓 = 5.343%
𝑓 = 4.625%
𝑓 = 4.375%
𝑟 = 4.0%
𝑓 = 3.787%
𝑓 = 3.582%
4% 4.625% 5.343%
4% 4.625% 4.375%
4% 3.787% 4.375%
4% 3.787% 3.582%
Average Price
• For RMBS securities, the cash flows depend not only on the level interest
rate at a point in time (lower rates, higher prepayments) but also on the path
(re-financing burnout) that interest rates take over time
This implies that RMBS and similar securities have cash flows that are path
dependent.
Due to this path dependency, the simplistic backward induction approach is
replaced with a more complex Monte Carlo approach to valuing bonds.
• Term Structure Models can be ‘fit’ to binomial models i.e. determine the
values of the interest rates on the up node / down node etc.
• Modelling future path of rates is not only critical for scenario analysis &
stress testing of bonds, but also important in the valuation of complex fixed
income instruments (e.g. MBS, callable, putable bonds)
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Term Structure Models
• Although the models are based on continuous time, the models can
still be ‘fit’ to discrete period binomial trees.
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Term Structure Models
3. Class of Model
A. Equilibrium Models: model considers fundamental economic
variables that influence rates & uses them to model changes in rates.
• Unlike arbitrage free models, equilibrium models do not take the
yield curve as ‘given’ and do not force model parameters to take
on values that will produce a model bond price the same as current
market price. Neither do the models force the modelled yield curve
to equal the currently observed yield curve.
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Term Structure Models
Cox-Ingersoll-Ross Model
• Assumes interest rates are market equilibriums determined by the supply of
savings and demand for investment funds.
• The model is: 𝑑𝑟 𝑘 𝜃 𝑟 𝑑𝑡 𝜎 𝑟 𝑑𝑧
Drift Randomness
Where:
𝑑𝑟 = small change in short term interest rates σ = interest rate volatility
𝑑𝑧 = small random walk movement 𝑑𝑡 = small change in time
k = speed of mean reversion (higher ‘k’, faster mean reversion)
𝜃 = long run short-term interest rate r = the short term interest rate
𝜃 𝐫 = distance of rate from the mean
Cox-Ingersoll-Ross Model
• Model’s random element suggests that interest rate volatility depends on the
level of interest rates i.e. high (low) interest rates higher (lower) volatility.
• The random element (𝜎 𝑟 𝑑𝑧) is assumed to follow a standard normal
distribution with mean zero and standard deviation of 1.
Example:
Narnia a country in western Antarctica, currently has short-term interest rates of
3% with a long-run value for short term rates observed to be at 8%. Assuming a
speed of adjustment of 0.4 and annual volatility of 20%. Using the CIR model:
• Advise in which direction would next period’s short term interest rate be
headed (i.e. higher or lower)?
• Estimate the short term interest rate over two periods where the random walk
change 𝑑𝑧 is 0.5 in the first period and -0.1 in the second period.
Vasicek model
• Vasicek has the same drift term like CIR i.e. Vasicek model assumes that
short-term interest rates will reverts to its mean long-run value.
𝑑𝑟 𝑎 𝑏 𝑟 𝑑𝑡 𝜎𝑑𝑧
• Like CIR, in the Vasicek model the volatility term follows a random normal
distribution for which the mean is zero and the standard deviation is 1
• Key difference in Vasicek model is that the randomness of interest rates is
constant i.e. independent of the level of interest rate Implying that low
rates and high rates both have equal volatility.
• A key feature of Vasicek model is that it does not force interest rates to be
non-negative i.e. the model allows for negative interest rates.
Note: both CIR and Vasicek model may result in a term structure of interest
rates that does not match the observed yield curve.
However, if analyst believes parameters of the models (a, b, σ) are correct
then he/she can use the estimated rates to identify mis-pricings in the market.
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Arbitrage Free Models
• The ability to calibrate models to match market data is a desirable feature of
this model and highlights the key drawback of CIR and Vasicek models.
• CIR and Vasicek models have only a small number of free parameters (k, 𝜃
and σ) that need to be estimated. Whereas, arbitrage free models allow
parameters to vary deterministically with time, requiring a large number of
parameters to be estimated and thus allowing for market yield curve to be
estimated with accuracy.
• Since the yield curve is modelled with accuracy, it can be used to value
derivatives and bonds with embedded options.
• Like the Ho-Lee Model, the KWF model assumes a time-dependent drift, no
mean reversion and constant volatility.
• Key difference is that KWF models describes the dynamics of the log of the
short rate not the dynamics of the short rate.
• As a result, the KWF model assumes that the log of the short rate is
distributed normally, implying that short rate itself is distributed lognormally.
• Translation: KWF models the change in short rate as normally distributed,
and the rate as log-normally distributed
• Modeling the log of the short rate will prevent negative rates.
• A key issue with KWF model is that the tails of the log-normal distribution
are thinner than real world distributions, and this has pricing implications for
interest rate options.
• All models (CIR, Vasicek, Ho-Lee, KWF) discussed thus far were single
factor models. An example of the multi-factor model is Gauss+
• The Gauss+ model is used extensively in valuation and hedging.
• Gauss+ model incorporates short-, medium- and long-term rates:
o Long-term factor is mean reverting and reflects trends in macroeconomic
variables.
o Medium-term rate also reverts to the long-run rate.
o Short-term rate does not exhibit a random component, which is consistent
with the central bank controlling the short end of the rate curve.
• The above assumptions results in a hump-shaped volatility curve across
tenors, with medium-term rates being the most volatile.
B. $986.62 3 year 9%
C. $1,000.58
Q2: The table below shows a bond traded on three exchanges. Based on the
bond prices, and ignoring transaction costs, the best action that an investor
should take to profit from the arbitrage opportunity is to:
𝑓 = 5.4289%
𝑓 = 5.7354%
𝑟 = 3.5%
𝑓 = 4.44448%
𝑓 = 4.6958%
A. $102.42
B. $101.85
C. $103.58