SOFTWARE ENGINEERING MCQ QUESTIONS

UNIT-1 INTRODUCTION OF SOFTWARE ENGINEERING

1) What is the first step in the software development lifecycle?

A. System Design
B. Coding
C. System Testing
D. Preliminary Investigation and Analysis
Answer: D

2) What does the study of an existing system refer to?

A. Details of DFD
B. Feasibility Study
C. System Analysis
D. System Planning
Answer: C

3) What does RAD stand for?

A. Rapid Application Document
B. Rapid Application Development
C. Relative Application Development
D. None of the above
Answer: B

4) Which of the following prototypes does not associated with Prototyping Model?
A. Domain Prototype
B. Vertical Prototype
C. Horizontal Prototype
D. Diagonal Prototype
Answer: D

5) Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping Model?

A) Quick Design
B) Coding
C) Prototype Refinement
D) Engineer Product

Answer: D
6) What is the major drawback of the Spiral Model?
A. Higher amount of risk analysis
B. Doesn't work well for smaller projects
C. Additional functionalities are added later on
D. Strong approval and documentation control
Answer: B

7) Model selection is based on __________.

A. Requirements
B. Development team & users
C. Project type & associated risk
D. All of the above
Answer: D

8) Which of the following option is correct?

A. The prototyping model facilitates the reusability of components.
B. RAD Model facilitates reusability of components
C. Both RAD & Prototyping Model facilitates reusability of components
D. None
Answer: C

9) Which of the following models doesn't necessitate defining requirements at the earliest
in the lifecycle?
A. RAD & Waterfall
B. Prototyping & Waterfall
C. Spiral & Prototyping
D. Spiral & RAD
Answer: C

10) The agile software development model is built based on __________.

A. Linear Development
B. Incremental Development
C. Iterative Development
D. Both Incremental and Iterative Development
Answer: D

11) The __________ model helps in representing the system's dynamic behavior
A. Object Model
B. Context Model
 C. Behavioral Model
D. Data Model
Answer: C

12) The Spiral model was proposed by:

A. Barry Boehm
B. Winston Royce
C. Frederick Brooks
D. James Martin
Answer: A

13) Which model is best suited for projects with high risk and requirements that change
frequently?
A. Waterfall Model
B. Incremental Model
C. Spiral Model
D. RAD Model
Answer: C

14) In the Waterfall model, which phase comes first?

A. Design
B. Testing
C. Requirements Analysis
D. Coding
Answer: C

15) _________is a software development activity that is not a part of software processes.
A) Validation
B) Specification
C) Development
D) Dependence
Answer: D

16) Agile methodology emphasizes:

A. Comprehensive documentation
B. Strict processes
C. Customer collaboration
D. Sequential development
Answer: C
17) The V-Model is an extension of which model?
A. Spiral
B. Agile
C. Waterfall
D. RAD
Answer: C

18) RAD model stands for:

A. Rapid Application Development
B. Reliable Application Design
C. Rapid Agile Design
D. Random Architecture Development
Answer: A

19) Which model promotes development and testing simultaneously?

A. Waterfall
B. V-Model
C. Spiral
D. Agile
Answer: D

20) Which SDLC model requires customer involvement throughout the process?
A. Waterfall
B. Spiral
C. Agile
D. V-Model
Answer: C

21) The main drawback of the Waterfall model is:

A. Cost
B. Simplicity
C. Lack of user involvement
D. Flexibility
Answer: C

22) The term 'software crisis' was first used in:

A. 1955
B. 1968
C. 1975
D. 1980
Answer: B

23) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of the software crisis?

A. Software is delivered on time
B. Projects exceed budget
C. Poor software quality
D. Difficult to maintain
Answer: A

24) Software crisis is primarily due to:

A. Hardware limitations
B. Poor programming languages
C. Increasing complexity of software
D. Lack of computer memory
Answer: C

25) A key problem associated with software crisis is:

A. Increased performance
B. High reliability
C. Poor maintainability
D. Excessive documentation
Answer: C

26) Which of the following can help reduce software crisis?

A. Using older development models
B. Ad-hoc coding
C. Using software engineering principles
D. Increasing complexity
Answer: C

27) Software is considered different from hardware because:

A. It is manufactured
B. It is not engineered
C. It does not wear out
D. It is always reliable
Answer: C

28) Which of the following is a key characteristic of software?

A. Tangibility
B. Inflexibility
 C. Maintenance cost is low
D. Intangibility
Answer: D

29) Software is engineered, not:

A. Manufactured
B. Designed
C. Built
D. Written
Answer: A

30) The cost of software maintenance is typically:

A. Less than development
B. Equal to development
C. More than development
D. Negligible
Answer: C

31) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of software?

A. It wears out
B. It is developed, not manufactured
C. It is intangible
D. It can be replicated without cost
Answer: A

32) Software does not degrade over time, but it may become:
A. Corrupted
B. Obsolete
C. Tangible
D. Durable
Answer: B

33) Unlike hardware, software failures are mostly due to:

A. Physical wear
B. Manufacturing defects
C. Design faults
D. Dust accumulation
Answer: C
34) Which of the following is a challenge in software engineering?
A. Increasing hardware costs
B. Managing software complexity
C. Simple integration
D. Reduced demand
Answer: B

35) Scalability in software engineering refers to:

A. Decreasing performance over time
B. Ability to change platforms
C. Ability to handle growing workload
D. Improving UI only
Answer: C

36) Which is not a key software engineering challenge?

A. Dealing with legacy systems
B. Managing changing requirements
C. Minimizing code size
D. Ensuring software security
Answer: C

37) Software engineers need to balance:

A. Cost, time, and quality
B. Hardware, software, and firmware
C. Power, speed, and RAM
D. CPU, GPU, and Storage
Answer: A

38) Managing changing user requirements is hard because:

A. Users are uncooperative
B. Software is static
C. Requirements evolve during development
D. Software is flexible
Answer: C

39) Which of the following is a social challenge in software engineering?

A. Managing team communication
B. Choosing a language
C. Debugging tools
D. Testing strategies
Answer: A

40) Define Agile scrum methodology.

A) project management that emphasizes incremental progress
B) project management that emphasizes decremental progress
C) project management that emphasizes neutral progress
D) project management that emphasizes no progress
Answer: A

41) How is Incremental Model different from Spiral Model?

A) Progress can be measured for Incremental Model
B) Changing requirements can be accommodated in Incremental Model
C) Users can see the system early in Incremental Model
D) All of the mentioned
Answer: D

42) Which of the following is an emerging area in software engineering?

A. Assembly language programming
B. Cloud computing
C. Punch card programming
D. Batch processing
Answer: B

43) DevOps is a combination of:

A. Design and Operations
B. Development and Operations
C. Deployment and Observation
D. Debug and Optimize
Answer: B

44) Microservices architecture focuses on:

A. Building one large monolithic system
B. Breaking system into small independent services
C. Ignoring scalability
D. Writing large modules
Answer: B

45) Which of the following is associated with continuous integration and delivery?
A. Waterfall
B. Spiral
 C. Agile
D. RAD
Answer: C

46) AI in software engineering is used for:

A. Replacing all developers
B. Reducing software complexity
C. Automating testing and debugging
D. Slowing development
Answer: C

47) Big Data development deals with:

A. Small transactional systems
B. Large volumes of structured and unstructured data
C. Simple text processing
D. Embedded systems
Answer: B

48) Cybersecurity is becoming a part of software engineering due to:

A. Aesthetic reasons
B. No real threats
C. Increasing attacks and vulnerabilities
D. Hardware issues
Answer: C

UNIT-2 REQUIREMENT ANALYSIS

49) Requirement Engineering is the process of:

A. Writing code
B. Designing UI
C. Defining, documenting, and maintaining software requirements
D. Testing software
Answer: C

50)The first step in the requirement engineering process is:

A. Requirement elicitation
B. Feasibility study
C. Requirement analysis
 D. Requirement documentation
Answer: B

51) Feasibility study does NOT include:

A. Technical feasibility
B. Legal feasibility
C. Testing feasibility
D. Economic feasibility
Answer: C

52) Functional requirements describe:

A. How the system performs
B. System architecture
C. Specific behaviors and functions of the system
D. Performance issues
Answer: C

53) Non-functional requirements include:

A. Login and logout
B. Performance, scalability, security
C. Data entry
D. Reporting features
Answer: B

54) Which of the following is not a phase of requirement engineering?

A. Elicitation
B. Analysis
C. Coding
D. Specification
Answer: C

55) Requirement elicitation is also known as:

A. Gathering requirements
B. Testing requirements
C. Reviewing requirements
D. Validating requirements
Answer: A

56) Requirement validation is used to ensure:

A. Code works properly
 B. UI is user-friendly
C. Requirements are correct and complete
D. Users are satisfied
Answer: C

57) Why is Requirements Management Important ? It is due to the changes

A) to the environment
B) in technology
C) in customer’s expectations
D) in all of the mentioned.
Answer: D

58) Which one of these is a functional requirement?

A. Response time
B. Access control
C. File upload feature
D. Portability
Answer: C

59) Which one of these is a non-functional requirement?

A. User login
B. Sorting algorithm
C. System should respond in 2 seconds
D. Search by ID
Answer: C

60) Requirement classification involves:

A. Deleting requirements
B. Grouping them into types like functional and non-functional
C. Writing pseudocode
D. Designing architecture
Answer: B

61) Requirement prioritization is necessary because:

A. All requirements are equally important
B. Budget constraints may limit what can be built
C. Testing is expensive
D. Developers prefer it
Answer: B
62) The result of the requirement engineering process is a:
A. Source code
B. Software Design Document
C. Software Requirement Specification (SRS)
D. ER Diagram
Answer: C

63) Requirement review is important to:

A. Design the UI
B. Validate the requirements with stakeholders
C. Build test cases
D. Start coding early
Answer: B

64) Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?

A) elicitation
B) design
C) analysis
D) documentation
Answer: B

65) Requirement traceability helps in:

A. Tracking bugs
B. Mapping requirements to design, code, and tests
C. Creating test plans
D. Managing users
Answer: B

66) A DFD is used to represent:

A. Software code
B. System data flow
C. UI design
D. Algorithm
Answer: B

67) In DFDs, an external entity is represented by a:

A. Rectangle
B. Circle
C. Arrow
D. Diamond
Answer: A

68) ER diagram is mainly used to model:

A. Process flow
B. Data relationships
C. Software modules
D. UI navigation
Answer: B

69) In an ER diagram, a relationship is represented by a:

A. Circle
B. Rectangle
C. Diamond
D. Arrow
Answer: C

70) A Decision Table is used for:

A. Calculating values
B. Representing business logic
C. Drawing diagrams
D. Creating interfaces
Answer: B

71) Which of the following is not a DFD symbol?

A. A Data Store
B. Data Flow
C. Process
D. Loop
Answer: D

72) Primary key in ER diagram uniquely identifies:

A. Entity
B. Relationship
C. Attribute
D. Table
Answer: A

73) SRS IN IEEE 830 SRS stands for:

A. Software Ready Specification
B. Software Requirement Structure
 C. Software Requirement Specification
D. Standard Requirement Summary
Answer: C

74) IEEE 830 is a standard for:

A. Software design
B. SRS documentation
C. Project planning
D. Testing
Answer: B

75)Which is not a component of IEEE 830 SRS?

A. Introduction
B. Design constraints
C. User manual
D. Functional requirements
Answer: C

76) SRS helps in:

A. Designing test plans
B. Requirement understanding
C. Defining project scope
D. All of the above
Answer: D

77) Traceability matrix is often part of:

A. UI wireframe
B. Design document
C. SRS
D. Deployment plan
Answer: C

78) _______ is an indirect measure of software development process.

A) Cost
B) Effort Applied
C) Efficiency
D) All of the mentioned
Answer: D
79) Software project planning involves:
A. Writing code
B. Testing bugs
C. Estimating time, cost, and resources
D. Installing hardware
Answer: C

80) Which model is used for size estimation of a project?

A. Agile
B. COCOMO
C. RAD
D. Spiral
Answer: B

81) Which of these is NOT a phase in software project planning?

A. Risk assessment
B. Estimation
C. Integration testing
D. Scheduling
Answer: C

82) What is the full form of the “COCOMO” model?

A) Cost Constructive Estimation Model
B) Constructive Cost Estimation Model
C) Constructive Case Estimation Model
D) Constructive Cost Estimating Model
Answer: B

83)The COCOMO model was developed by:

A. Barry Boehm
B. Royce
C. Brooks
D. Pressman
Answer: A

84) Which model divides the project into organic, semi-detached, and embedded types?
A. Waterfall
B. Intermediate COCOMO
C. Basic COCOMO
D. Complete COCOMO
Answer: C

85) Which model provides effort estimation using cost drivers?

A. Basic COCOMO
B. Intermediate COCOMO
C. Agile
D. Waterfall
Answer: B

86) Complete COCOMO is also called:

A. Detailed model
B. Waterfall
C. Preliminary model
D. Prototype
Answer: A

87) Effort in COCOMO is measured in:

A. Lines of Code
B. Weeks
C. Person-months
D. Hours
Answer: C

88) Risk management in software aims to:

A. Avoid system upgrades
B. Predict and minimize potential problems
C. Remove bugs only
D. Delay the deadline
Answer: B

89)A known risk with a high probability of occurring is a:

A. Residual risk
B. Project risk
C. Business risk
D. Identified risk
Answer: D

90)Which of the following is not a step in risk management?

A. Risk identification
B. Risk analysis
 C. Risk budgeting
D. Risk mitigation
Answer: C

91) Which tool is commonly used for risk visualization?

A. PERT chart
B. Risk matrix
C. Gantt chart
D. Decision tree
Answer: B

92) Risk mitigation involves:

A. Ignoring risks
B. Preparing strategies to reduce risk impact
C. Calculating cost
D. Hiring more developers
Answer: B

UNIT-3 Designing software solution

93) What is the main goal of software design?

A) Coding efficiency
B) User interface creation
C) Transforming requirements into a blueprint for implementation
D) Testing
Answer: C

94) Which of the following describes a good software design?

A) High complexity and low maintainability
B) Low performance and high coupling
C) Simple, efficient, and easy to maintain
D) All of the above
Answer: C

95) Which document outlines the overall architecture and components of the software?
A) SRS
B) Test Plan
C) Design Document
D) Deployment Guide
Answer: C

96) Which phase of software development does software design follow?

A) Implementation
B) Testing
C) Requirements analysis
D) Deployment
Answer: C

97) The word which describes the importance of software design is?
A) Complexity
B) Quality
C) Efficiency
D) Accuracy
Answer: B

98 )What does modularization in software design promote?

A) Code duplication
B) Tightly coupled code
C) Separation of concerns
D) Increased complexity
Answer: C

99) A Design Structure Chart (DSC) is used to represent:

A) Code compilation steps
B) Control flow within a function
C) Hierarchical structure of modules
D) Database schemas
Answer: C

100) Which of the following is true about flowcharts?

A) They are used only in database design
B) They represent logic using symbols
C) They describe high-level software architecture
D) They show test cases
Answer: B

101) Pseudocode is typically used to:

A) Write executable programs
B) Represent database schema
 C) Express algorithms in human-readable format
D) Draw GUI screens
Answer: C

102) Architectural design is a creative process satisfying only functional- requirements of

a system.
A) True
B) Cannot be determined
C) False
D) None of these
Answer: C

103) Conceptual design focuses on:

A) Implementation language
B) UI layout
C) Understanding user needs and system functionality
D) Source code compilation
Answer: C

104) Technical design involves:

A) High-level architecture and detailed implementation design
B) User requirement gathering
C) Marketing the product
D) GUI wireframes only
Answer: A

105) Cohesion refers to:

A) The number of lines in a module
B) The degree of interdependence between modules
C) The degree to which elements of a module belong together
D) The code's runtime
Answer: C

106) Coupling refers to:

A) Internal complexity
B) Relationship between the elements of the same module
C) Degree of interdependence between modules
D) None of these
Answer: C
107) Which is the best combination for a software module?
A) High coupling, low cohesion
B) Low coupling, low cohesion
C) Low coupling, high cohesion
D) High coupling, high cohesion
Answer: C

108) Which type of coupling is the least desirable?

A) Data coupling
B) Control coupling
C) Common coupling
D) Content coupling
Answer: D

109) Relationship between cohesion and coupling:

A) High cohesion leads to high coupling
B) High cohesion leads to low coupling
C) No relationship
D) Low cohesion leads to low coupling
Answer: B

110) Top-down design starts from:

A) Coding
B) The most detailed components
C) The main system and breaks it down into smaller parts
D) Testing
Answer: C

111) Bottom-up design focuses on:

A) System testing first
B) User interface
C) Combining smaller modules to form larger systems
D) Requirements gathering
Answer: C

112) Hybrid design methodology combines:

A) Testing and debugging
B) Top-down and bottom-up approaches
C) Compilation and linking
D) Object and functional programming
Answer: B

113) Which of the following is a benefit of the top-down approach?

A) Easy to debug
B) Better understanding of low-level details
C) Quick code development
D) Clear overall architecture from the start
Answer: D

114) In object-oriented design, the primary focus is on:

A) Procedures
B) Functions
C) Data and objects
D) Flowcharts
Answer: C

115) Which of the following is a mechanism that allows several objects in an class
hierarchy to have different methods with the same name?
A) Aggregation
B) Polymorphism
C) Inheritance
D) All of the mentioned
Answer: B

116) Which of the following is not a programming principle?

A) DRY (Don't Repeat Yourself)
B) KISS (Keep It Simple, Stupid)
C) WET (Write Everything Twice)
D) YAGNI (You Aren't Gonna Need It)
Answer: C

117) Which of the following is considered a programming style?

A) Procedural
B) Object-oriented
C) Functional
D) All of the above
Answer: D

118) Which principle encourages breaking down a problem into reusable functions or
modules?
 A) DRY
B) SOLID
C) YAGNI
D) DAMP
Answer: A

119) Which characteristic does not represent good coding?

A) Readability
B) High redundancy
C) Maintainability
D) Efficiency
Answer: B

120) Which is true for good programming practices?

A) Complex code is better
B) Comments are not needed
C) Use of meaningful variable names
D) Avoid code reusability
Answer: C

121) Efficient code should:

A) Use more memory
B) Be slow but readable
C) Run fast and use minimal resources
D) Be complex and unreadable
Answer: C

122) What is code documentation?

A) Comments only
B) A guide for compiling
C) Explanation of code functionality and structure
D) Only UI guides
Answer: C

123) Which tool helps in checking code quality?

A) Compiler
B) Debugger
C) Linter
D) Browser
Answer: C
124) Information hiding is related to:
A) Making everything public
B) Providing all internal details
C) Hiding internal implementation and exposing only necessary parts
D) Encrypting data
Answer: C

125) Which of the following helps in achieving information hiding in OOP?

A) Inheritance
B) Polymorphism
C) C)Encapsulation
D) D)Overloading
Answer: C

126) Which of the following is a disadvantage of OOD ?

A) Easier maintenance
B) Objects may be understood as stand-alone entities
C) Objects are potentially reusable components
D) None of the mentioned
Answer: B

127) Which of the following is not a benefit of modular programming?

A) Easier maintenance
B) Code reusability
C) Increased complexity
D) Better readability
Answer: C

128) Which of these design techniques is most suitable for large projects?
A) Ad-hoc coding
B) Top-down with modularization
C) Code-first approach
D) Guess and check
Answer: B

129) What does a design pattern represent?

A) A new programming language
B) A proven solution to a common problem
C) A type of software
D) A file format
Answer: B

130) In OOP, inheritance allows:

A) Breaking modules
B) Code duplication
C) One class to acquire properties of another
D) Access to the internet
Answer: C

UNIT-4 software implementation

131) Which of the following best describes the relationship between design and
implementation in software development?
A) Design translates requirements into code; implementation defines the system
architecture.
B) Design focuses on user interfaces; implementation focuses on databases.
C) Design outlines the system architecture; implementation involves coding based on
that design.
D) Design and implementation are unrelated phases.
Answer: C) Design outlines the system architecture; implementation involves coding
based on that design.

132) In Boehm's software quality model, which of the following is NOT considered a
primary quality characteristic?
A) Maintainability
B) Portability
C) Efficiency
D) Security
Answer: D) Security

133) What is the main objective of software testing

A) To prove that the software is error-free
B) To detect software failures so that defects may be discovered and corrected
C) To assess the performance of the software
D) To demonstrate the software's functionality to stakeholders
Answer: B) To detect software failures so that defects may be discovered and corrected.
134) What are the various Testing Levels?
A) Unit Testing
B) System Testing
C) Integration Testing
D) All of the mentioned
Answer: D) All of the mentioned

135) Alpha testing is done at

A) Developer’s end
B) User’s end
C) Developer’s & User’s end
D) None of the mentioned
Answer: C) Developer’s end

136) Which of the following activities is part of verification in software testing?

A) Executing the code to check for defects
B) Reviewing design documents
C) Performing user acceptance testing
D) Evaluating the software in the production environment
Answer: B) Reviewing design documents.

137) Validation in software testing ensures that:

A) The product is built correctly according to specifications
B) The right product is built to meet user needs
C) The software complies with coding standards
D) The software is free of syntax errors
Answer: B) The right product is built to meet user needs.

138) Which role is primarily responsible for identifying defects in the software?
A) Developer
B) Project Manager
C) Tester
D) Business Analyst
Answer: C) Tester.

139) A key quality of a good software tester is:

A) Ability to write code efficiently
B) Strong attention to detail
C) Expertise in database management
D) Proficiency in project management
Answer: B) Strong attention to detail.

140) Which of the following is a common myth about software testing?

A) Testing improves software quality
B) Testing can be fully automated
C) Early testing saves time and money
D) Exhaustive testing is impossible
Answer: B) Testing can be fully automated.

141) The first step in the testing process is:

A) Test execution
B) Test planning
C) Test design
D) Test closure
Answer: B) Test planning.

142) What type of software testing is generally used in Software Maintenance?

A) Regression Testing
B) System Testing
C) Integration Testing
D) Unit Testing
Answer: A) Regression Testing

143) Which principle states that testing should start as early as possible in the software
development life cycle?
A) Defect clustering
B) Pesticide paradox
C) Early testing
D) Testing shows presence of defects
Answer: C) Early testing.

144) A test case plan typically includes:

A) Test objectives
B) Test environment details
C) Test deliverables
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above.

145) Unit testing is primarily concerned with:

A) Testing the complete application
 B) Testing individual components or modules
C) Testing the interaction between modules
D) Testing the user interface
Answer: B) Testing individual components or modules.

146) System testing evaluates:

A) Individual units of code
B) The integration of modules
C) The complete and integrated software product
D) The performance of the database
Answer: C) The complete and integrated software product.

147) Which testing technique involves evaluating the software without executing the
code?
A) Dynamic Testing
B) Static Testing
C) Black Box Testing
D) Regression Testing
Answer: B) Static Testing

148) What does the term white box testing refer to?
A) Testing without viewing the software code
B) Testing User Interface
C) Testing based on software’s internal logic and structure
D) Testing with external tools
Answer: C) Testing based on software’s internal logic and structure

149) What is the primary goal of regression testing?

A) To test new functionalities
B) To ensure that recent code changes haven't adversely affected existing
functionalities
C) To validate user requirements
D) To perform load testing
Answer: B) To ensure that recent code changes haven't adversely affected existing
functionalities

150) In white-box testing, which of the following is examined?

A) Software requirements
B) Internal structures and workings of the application
C) User interface design
 D) System integration
Answer: B) Internal structures and workings of the application

151) Which testing method focuses on the functionality of the software without
knowledge of the internal code structure?
A) White Box Testing
B) Black Box Testing
C) Unit Testing
D) Integration Testing
Answer: B) Black Box Testing

152) What is the main purpose of alpha testing?

A) To perform testing by end-users at their premises
B) To perform testing by developers at the development site
C) To test the software under extreme conditions
D) To perform automated testing
Answer: B) To perform testing by developers at the development site

153) Beta testing is typically conducted:

A) By the development team before release
B) By end-users after the product is released
C) In the production environment by real users
D) By automated testing tools
Answer: C) In the production environment by real users

154) Which of the following is a characteristic of black box testing?

A) Requires knowledge of internal code
B) Tests are based on software requirements and specifications
C) Focuses on code logic
D) Involves code walkthroughs
Answer: B) Tests are based on software requirements and specifications

155) What is the primary focus of system testing?

A) Testing individual modules
B) Testing the complete integrated system
C) Testing user interfaces
D) Testing database interactions
Answer: B) Testing the complete integrated system

156) Which testing level is concerned with the interactions between integrated units?
 A) Unit Testing
B) System Testing
C) Integration Testing
D) Acceptance Testing
Answer: C) Integration Testing

157) What is the main objective of unit testing?

A) To test the entire application
B) To test individual components or functions
C) To test the user interface
D) To test the system's performance
Answer: B) To test individual components or functions

158) Which of the following is a non-functional testing type?

A) Regression Testing
B) Load Testing
C) Unit Testing
D) Integration Testing
Answer: B) Load Testing

159) What does the 'V' in the V-Model of software development represent?
A) Verification and Validation
B) Version Control
C) Variable Testing
D) Visual Testing
Answer: A) Verification and Validation

160) Which of the following is a white-box testing technique?

A) Equivalence Partitioning
B) Boundary Value Analysis
C) Statement Coverage
D) Error Guessing
Answer: C) Statement Coverage

161) What is the primary goal of compliance testing?

A) To ensure the software meets user requirements
B) To ensure the software adheres to standards and regulations
C) To test the software's performance under load
D) To identify security vulnerabilities
Answer: B) To ensure the software adheres to standards and regulations
 UNIT-5 software maintenance

162) What is the primary goal of project management?

A) Maximize profits
B) Ensure customer satisfaction
C) Complete the project on time and within budget
D) Develop innovative solutions
Answer: C) Complete the project on time and within budget

163) Which of the following is not a goal of project management?

A) Avoiding customer complaints
B) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
C) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
D) Keeping overall costs within budget
Answer: A) Avoiding customer complaints

164) What does SPMP stand for?

A) Software Project Manager's Plan
B) Software Project Management Plan
C) Software Product Management Plan
D) Software Product Manager's Plan
Answer: B) Software Project Management Plan

165) Which activity is not part of project planning?

A) Project estimation
B) Project scheduling
C) Project monitoring
D) Risk management
Answer: C) Project monitoring

166) Which of the following is a common reason for project failure?

A) Clear project goals and timelines
B) Insufficient planning and poor communication
C) Proper resource allocation
D) Regular stakeholder meetings
Answer: B) Insufficient planning and poor communication
167) What is the term for the process that a project manager follows throughout the entire
life of a project?
A) Manager Life Cycle
B) Project Management
C) Project Management Life Cycle
D) All of the mentioned
Answer: C) Project Management Life Cycle

168) Which of the following is not considered a risk in project management?

A) Testing
B) Specification delays
C) Product competition
D) Staff turnover
Answer: A) Testing

169) Which risks are associated with the overall size of the software to be built or
modified?
A) Business impact risks
B) Process definition risks
C) Product size risks
D) Development environment risks
Answer: C) Product size risks

170) How is a 66.6% probability of risk typically categorized?

A) Very low
B) High
C) Low
D) Moderate
Answer: B) High

171) Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing
the costs of a software development project?
A) Hardware and software costs
B) All of the mentioned
C) Travel and training costs
D) Effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
Answer: B) All of the mentioned
172) What is the focus of quality planning in project management?
A) For the team
B) For the project
C) For the project manager
D) For the customers
Answer: B) For the project

173) Which task is part of software maintenance?

A) Initial system design
B) Coding new features
C) Creating new software
D) Fixing software bugs
Answer: D) Fixing software bugs

174) Regression testing is primarily related to:

A) Functional testing
B) Development testing
C) Data flow testing
D) Maintenance testing
Answer: D) Maintenance testing

175) Which type of software maintenance includes modifications applied to keep the
software product up-to-date?
A) Corrective Maintenance
B) Adaptive Maintenance
C) Perfective Maintenance
D) Preventive Maintenance
Answer: B) Adaptive Maintenance

176) Which type of software maintenance includes modifications done to improve

performance or maintainability?
A) Corrective Maintenance
B) Adaptive Maintenance
C) Perfective Maintenance
D) Preventive Maintenance
Answer: C) Perfective Maintenance
177) What is the first step in the project management process?
A) Initiating the project
B) Monitoring project progress
C) Defining project risks
D) Planning the project timeline
Answer: A) Initiating the project

178) Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a
software system?
A) Version management
B) System management
C) Change management
D) Internship management
Answer: D) Internship management

179) What is the primary output of the planning phase in project management?
A) The final deliverable
B) A detailed project plan
C) Stakeholder analysis
D) A project timeline
Answer: B) A detailed project plan

180) What is a Project Dependency?

A) A requirement where one task relies on the completion of another
B) Ignoring project constraints
C) Tasks that can be completed without any coordination
D) A document with only technical constraints
Answer: A) A requirement where one task relies on the completion of another

181) Which type of software maintenance includes modifications to prevent future

problems of software?
A) Corrective Maintenance
B) Adaptive Maintenance
C) Perfective Maintenance
D) Preventive Maintenance
Answer: D) Preventive Maintenance
 UNIT-6 Software Configuration management

182) What is the primary goal of software re-engineering?

A) To develop new software from scratch
B) To improve the maintainability of existing software
C) To replace old hardware systems
D) To reduce the number of software developers
Answer: B) To improve the maintainability of existing software

183) Which of the following is NOT a step in the software re-engineering process?
A) Reverse engineering
B) Restructuring
C) Forward engineering
D) Market analysis
Answer: D) Market analysis

184 ) Reverse engineering in software involves:

A) Developing software from requirements
B) Analyzing software to identify its components and interrelationships
C) Testing software for bugs
D) Deploying software to end-users
Answer: B) Analyzing software to identify its components and interrelationships

185) Which of the following is a benefit of software re-engineering?

A) Increased software complexity
B) Reduced software performance
C) Improved software maintainability
D) Decreased software reliability
Answer: C) Improved software maintainability

186) Forward engineering refers to:

A) Analyzing existing software
B) Developing new software from specifications
C) Testing software modules
D) Maintaining legacy systems
Answer: B) Developing new software from specifications
187) What is the main purpose of Software Configuration Management?
A) To manage software development teams
B) To control changes in software
C) To design software architectures
D) To test software modules
Answer: B) To control changes in software

188) Which of the following is NOT an activity in SCM?

A) Configuration identification
B) Configuration control
C) Configuration auditing
D) Software deployment
Answer: D) Software deployment

189) A baseline in SCM is:

A) A tool for software testing
B) A reference point in the software development process
C) A type of software bug
D) A programming language
Answer: B) A reference point in the software development process

190) Which of the following is a version control system?

A) JIRA
B) Git
C) Slack
D) Trello
Answer: B) Git

191) Configuration auditing ensures:

A) Software code is free of bugs
B) Changes are properly implemented and documented
C) Software is deployed on time
D) Developers follow coding standards
Answer: B) Changes are properly implemented and documented

192) Software Quality Assurance (SQA)

The main objective of Software Quality Assurance is to:
A) Develop new software features
B) Ensure software meets quality standards
C) Deploy software to users
D) Train software developers
Answer: B) Ensure software meets quality standards

193) Which of the following is NOT a part of SQA activities?

A) Code reviews
B) Testing
C) Marketing
D) Auditing
Answer: C) Marketing

194) SQA plans typically include:

A) Project timelines
B) Quality goals and metrics
C) Marketing strategies
D) Financial forecasts
Answer: B) Quality goals and metrics

195) Which standard is commonly associated with software quality?

A) ISO 9001
B) IEEE 802.11
C) HTML5
D) CSS3
Answer: A) ISO 9001

196) Verification in SQA refers to:

A) Ensuring the product meets user needs
B) Checking if the product is built correctly
C) Deploying the product
D) Marketing the product
Answer: B) Checking if the product is built correctly

197) CMMI stands for:

A) Capability Maturity Model Integration
B) Computer Model Management Interface
C) Capability Management Model Integration
D) Computer Maturity Model Integration
Answer: A) Capability Maturity Model Integration
198) Which of the following is NOT a level in the CMMI maturity model?
A) Initial
B) Managed
C) Optimizing
D) Planning
Answer: D) Planning

199) At which CMMI level is the software process characterized as "Quantitatively

Managed"?
A) Level 2
B) Level 3
C) Level 4
D) Level 5
Answer: C) Level 4

200) Which of the following best describes a software process framework?

A) A collection of testing tools
B) A detailed software application model
C) A basic structure that defines the software development process
D) A database design template
Answer: C) A basic structure that defines the software development process

201) A major critique of maturity models like CMMI is that they:

A) Don’t include documentation
B) Are too easy to implement
C) Focus more on processes than actual results
D) Ignore the role of project managers
Answer: C) Focus more on processes than actual results

202) What is the primary focus of ISO 9000 standards?

A) Software product design
B) Software development methodology
C) Quality management and assurance
D) Hardware reliability
Answer: C) Quality management and assurance

203) Which of the following is a similarity between ISO 9000 and SEI CMM?
A) Both are mandatory for all software organizations
B) Both ensure high-speed performance in applications
C) Both aim to improve the software development process
 D) Both require using object-oriented languages
Answer: C) Both aim to improve the software development process

204) The ISO 9001 standard is mainly applicable to:

A) Education sector
B) Software companies only
C) Organizations wanting to establish a quality management system
D) Government policies
Answer: C) Organizations wanting to establish a quality management system

205) What is a key difference between SEI CMM and ISO 9000?
A) ISO is applicable only to IT firms
B) SEI CMM provides a maturity model, while ISO does not
C) ISO is more detailed than SEI CMM
D) SEI CMM focuses on hardware only
Answer: B) SEI CMM provides a maturity model, while ISO does not

206) ISO certification is issued by:

A) Software Engineering Institute
B) Any project manager
C) International Organization for Standardization
D) Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers
Answer: C) International Organization for Standardization

207) Which of the following best defines CASE tools?

A) Software tools for editing source code only
B) Tools that automate software engineering activities
C) Hardware tools used in software design
D) Operating systems for software development
Answer: B) Tools that automate software engineering activities

208) CASE tools are generally categorized into how many broad classes?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer: B) 3 CASE tools are often classified as Upper CASE, Lower CASE, and Integrated
CASE tools.)
209) What is the primary focus of Upper CASE tools?
A) Code generation
B) Testing and debugging
C) Requirements and design phases
D) Maintenance
Answer: C) Requirements and design phases

210) Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using CASE tools?

A) Improved software quality
B) Reduced development time
C) Increased manual intervention
D) Better documentation
Answer: C) Increased manual intervention

211) An Integrated CASE (I-CASE) tool supports:

A) Only design and coding phases
B) Only testing
C) The entire software development life cycle
D) Only requirement analysis
Answer: C) The entire software development life cycle