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Cambridge IGCSE™
* 7 5 6 7 0 9 4 0 0 0 *

PHYSICS 0625/42
Paper 4 Theory (Extended) May/June 2024

1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the question paper.

No additional materials are needed.

INSTRUCTIONS
● Answer all questions.
● Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs.
● Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page.
● Write your answer to each question in the space provided.
● Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid.
● Do not write on any bar codes.
● You may use a calculator.
● You should show all your working and use appropriate units.
● Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 9.8 N (acceleration of free fall = 9.8 m / s2).

INFORMATION
● The total mark for this paper is 80.
● The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ].

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

DC (PB/SG) 330660/2
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2

1 A load is suspended from a thread. The vertical force on the thread due to the load is 0.75 N.

(a) Calculate the mass of the load.

mass = .......................................................... [2]

(b) Fig. 1.1 shows the load suspended from the thread.

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thread

load

Fig. 1.1

A wire is attached to the load at point X and pulled horizontally to the right.

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The tension in the horizontal wire is 1.2 N.

By drawing a scale diagram or by calculation, determine:

• the magnitude of the resultant of the force at X due to the load and due to the tension in
the wire
• the direction of the resultant relative to the vertical direction.

Show your working.

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magnitude of resultant force = ............................................................. N

direction of resultant relative to vertical = .............................................................. °

[4]
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(c) Forces may produce changes in the size and the shape of an object.

State two other changes that forces may produce.

1 ................................................................................................................................................

2 ................................................................................................................................................
[2]

[Total: 8]
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4

2 (a) Define acceleration.

...................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................. [1]

(b) A train has a total mass of 520 000 kg. The train accelerates at 1.1 m / s2.

(i) Calculate the time taken for the train to increase its speed from 15 m / s to 28 m / s.

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time = ......................................................... [2]

(ii) Calculate the force required to produce an acceleration of 1.1 m / s2 for this train.

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force = ......................................................... [2]

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(iii) The train uses electric motors.

Explain why the force on the train due to the motors is greater than the value calculated
in (ii).

...........................................................................................................................................

..................................................................................................................................... [1]

[Total: 6]
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3 A student drops a heavy ball from a vertical height of 1.8 m above the ground. The ball then falls to
the ground. It does not bounce after hitting the ground.

(a) Describe the transfers of energy of the ball between stores from when the ball begins to fall to
when it reaches the ground.

...................................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................
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...................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................. [3]

(b) Calculate the maximum speed of the ball. Ignore air resistance.

Show your working.

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maximum speed = .......................................................... [3]

[Total: 6]
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6

4 (a) State two ways that evaporation differs from boiling.

1 ................................................................................................................................................

2 ................................................................................................................................................
[2]

(b) Fig. 4.1 shows part of a container used to store a mixture of liquid and gaseous oxygen.

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steel walls of
container

vacuum

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Fig. 4.1

The temperature of the liquid oxygen is –160 °C.

(i) Determine the temperature of the liquid oxygen in K.

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temperature = ....................................................... K [1]

(ii) The container is made of steel and there is a vacuum between the inner and outer walls.
The outer wall of the container is at room temperature.

State two methods of thermal energy transfer that a vacuum prevents.

1 .........................................................................................................................................

2 .........................................................................................................................................
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[2]

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(c) Describe, in terms of particles, how a gas exerts a pressure on the walls of its container.

...................................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................. [3]

[Total: 8]
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5 Fig. 5.1 shows a ray of yellow light incident on a glass prism ABC.

yellow
B
light
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A C

Fig. 5.1
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(a) Explain why the ray does not change direction when it enters the prism at face AB.

...................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................. [1]

(b) The critical angle for the glass is 42°.

(i) Calculate the refractive index of the glass.

Show your working.

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refractive index = ......................................................... [2]

(ii) On Fig. 5.1, continue the path of the light through the prism and after it leaves the prism.
[3]

(c) Internet data can be transferred using infrared waves in optical fibres.
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State two advantages of using optical fibres to transmit data.

1 ................................................................................................................................................

2 ................................................................................................................................................
[2]

[Total: 8]
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10

6 (a) A sound wave travels through air. Fig. 6.1 shows a pressure–time graph for the air at
one place.

pressure

atmospheric
pressure time

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Fig. 6.1

(i) On Fig. 6.1:

• label one point C to indicate a compression

• label one point R to indicate a rarefaction.

[2]

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(ii) Explain why this graph cannot be used to find the wavelength of the sound wave.

...........................................................................................................................................

… .................................................................................................................................. [1]

(iii) The sound becomes louder and of lower pitch.

State what happens to:

the amplitude of the sound

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...........................................................................................................................................

the frequency of the sound.

...........................................................................................................................................
[1]
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(b) A sound of frequency 13 kHz is transmitted through water.

The speed of sound in water is 1500 m / s.

Calculate the wavelength of this sound in water.

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wavelength = ......................................................... [3]

(c) State the approximate speed of sound in air.

speed = ......................................................... [1]

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[Total: 8]
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12

7 (a) Fig. 7.1 shows three bars of steel, A, B and C.

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Fig. 7.1

A student is given the three pieces of steel. Two of the pieces are magnetised and one piece
is unmagnetised.

Describe and explain how the student determines which piece is unmagnetised using only
the three pieces of steel.

...................................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................

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...................................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................. [4]

(b) Fig. 7.2 shows a circuit diagram of a step‑down transformer.

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output
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Fig. 7.2

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(i) The mains voltage supplied to the transformer is 240 V. The output power of the
transformer is 45 W. The transformer is 100% efficient.

Calculate the input current to the transformer.

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input current = .......................................................... [3]

(ii) Draw a labelled diagram of a step‑down transformer. On the labels, state a suitable
material for each of the components.
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[3]

[Total: 10]
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8 (a) Fig. 8.1 shows a circuit. The circuit is designed to switch on a night light when the surroundings
are dark.

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Fig. 8.1

(i) On Fig. 8.1, draw the circuit symbol for a voltmeter used to measure the potential
difference (p.d.) across the light‑dependent resistor (LDR). [1]

(ii) The surroundings change from light to dark.

1. State the effect of this change on the resistance of the LDR.

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................................................................................................................................ [1]

2. State and explain the effect of this change on the p.d. across the light‑emitting diode
(LED).

......................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................

................................................................................................................................ [2]
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15

(b) Fig. 8.2 shows another circuit. Lamps A and B are identical filament lamps.

240 V

A
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Fig. 8.2

The current supplied by the power supply is 0.50 A.

Calculate the resistance of lamp A.

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resistance = ......................................................... [3]

[Total: 7]
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17

9 (a) Radioactive isotopes that emit ionising radiation are used in hospitals.

(i) State and explain two safety precautions necessary for the use of these isotopes in
medical procedures.

safety procedure 1 ............................................................................................................

explanation ........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................................
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safety procedure 2 ............................................................................................................

explanation ........................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................................
[2]

(ii) Give two reasons why alpha‑emitters are not used as radioactive tracers inside the body.

1 ........................................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................................
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2 ........................................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................................
[2]

(b) Sodium‑24 is an isotope of sodium (Na) that has a proton number of 11 and a nucleon number
of 24.

Sodium‑24 decays by emission of a beta‑particle to form an isotope of magnesium (Mg).

Use nuclide notation to write down the nuclide equation for this decay.
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[3]

[Total: 7]
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18

10 (a) The Solar System includes the Sun and planets.

State two other types of natural object that orbit the Sun.

1 ................................................................................................................................................

2 ................................................................................................................................................
[2]

(b) State the shape of the orbits of the planets.

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............................................................................................................................................. [1]

(c) Fig. 10.1 shows the orbit of an object around the Sun. At point A, the object is closest to the
Sun. At point B, the object is furthest away from the Sun.

A B
Sun

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Fig. 10.1

State and explain the energy transfer as the object travels from point A to point B.

statement ..................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................

explanation ................................................................................................................................

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...................................................................................................................................................
[2]

(d) Jupiter is 7.8 × 1011 m from the Sun. The speed of light in a vacuum is 3.0 × 108 m / s.

Calculate the time taken for light from the Sun to reach Jupiter.
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time = ......................................................... [2]

[Total: 7]
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11 (a) Name the galaxy that contains the Sun.

............................................................................................................................................. [1]

(b) Light observed from distant galaxies is redshifted.

State the theory of the Universe that this observation supports.

............................................................................................................................................. [1]

(c) Cosmic microwave background radiation (CMBR) is observed at all points in space.
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(i) State when this radiation was produced.

..................................................................................................................................... [1]

(ii) Explain why this radiation is now in the microwave region of the electromagnetic spectrum.

...........................................................................................................................................

..................................................................................................................................... [2]

[Total: 5]
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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/42
Paper 4 Theory (Extended) May/June 2024
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 80

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2024 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.

This document consists of 12 printed pages.

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Generic Marking Principles

These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers. They should be applied alongside the
specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptions for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these
marking principles.

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 1:

Marks must be awarded in line with:

 the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
 the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
 the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 2:

Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 3:

Marks must be awarded positively:

 marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit is given for valid answers which go beyond
the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme, referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
 marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
 marks are not deducted for errors
 marks are not deducted for omissions
 answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these features are specifically assessed by the
question as indicated by the mark scheme. The meaning, however, should be unambiguous.

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 4:

Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed instructions or in the application of generic level
descriptors.

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GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 5:

Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question (however; the use of the full mark range may
be limited according to the quality of the candidate responses seen).

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 6:

Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should not be awarded with grade thresholds or
grade descriptors in mind.

Science-Specific Marking Principles

1 Examiners should consider the context and scientific use of any keywords when awarding marks. Although keywords may be present, marks
should not be awarded if the keywords are used incorrectly.

2 The examiner should not choose between contradictory statements given in the same question part, and credit should not be awarded for
any correct statement that is contradicted within the same question part. Wrong science that is irrelevant to the question should be ignored.

3 Although spellings do not have to be correct, spellings of syllabus terms must allow for clear and unambiguous separation from other
syllabus terms with which they may be confused (e.g. ethane / ethene, glucagon / glycogen, refraction / reflection).

4 The error carried forward (ecf) principle should be applied, where appropriate. If an incorrect answer is subsequently used in a scientifically
correct way, the candidate should be awarded these subsequent marking points. Further guidance will be included in the mark scheme
where necessary and any exceptions to this general principle will be noted.

5 ‘List rule’ guidance

For questions that require n responses (e.g. State two reasons …):

 The response should be read as continuous prose, even when numbered answer spaces are provided.
 Any response marked ignore in the mark scheme should not count towards n.
 Incorrect responses should not be awarded credit but will still count towards n.
 Read the entire response to check for any responses that contradict those that would otherwise be credited. Credit should not be
awarded for any responses that are contradicted within the rest of the response. Where two responses contradict one another, this
should be treated as a single incorrect response.
 Non-contradictory responses after the first n responses may be ignored even if they include incorrect science.

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6 Calculation specific guidance

Correct answers to calculations should be given full credit even if there is no working or incorrect working, unless the question states ‘show
your working’.

For questions in which the number of significant figures required is not stated, credit should be awarded for correct answers when rounded
by the examiner to the number of significant figures given in the mark scheme. This may not apply to measured values.

For answers given in standard form (e.g. a  10n) in which the convention of restricting the value of the coefficient (a) to a value between 1
and 10 is not followed, credit may still be awarded if the answer can be converted to the answer given in the mark scheme.

Unless a separate mark is given for a unit, a missing or incorrect unit will normally mean that the final calculation mark is not awarded.
Exceptions to this general principle will be noted in the mark scheme.

7 Guidance for chemical equations

Multiples / fractions of coefficients used in chemical equations are acceptable unless stated otherwise in the mark scheme.

State symbols given in an equation should be ignored unless asked for in the question or stated otherwise in the mark scheme.

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Acronyms and shorthand in the mark scheme

Acronym / shorthand Explanation

A mark Final answer mark which is awarded for fully correct final answers including the unit.

C mark Compensatory mark which may be scored when the final answer (A) mark for a question has not been awarded.

B mark Independent mark which does not depend on any other mark.

M mark Method mark which must be scored before any subsequent final answer (A) mark can be scored.

Brackets ( ) Words not explicitly needed in an answer, however if a contradictory word / phrase / unit to that in the brackets is seen
the mark is not awarded.

Underlining The underlined word (or a synonym) must be present for the mark to be scored. If the word is a technical scientific term,
the word must be there.

/ or OR Alternative answers any one of which gains the credit for that mark.

owtte Or words to that effect.

ignore Indicates either an incorrect or irrelevant point which may be disregarded, i.e., not treated as contradictory.

insufficient An answer not worthy of credit on its own.

CON An incorrect point which contradicts any correct point and means the mark cannot be scored.

ecf [question part] Indicates that a candidate using an erroneous value from the stated question part must be given credit here if the
erroneous value is used correctly here.

cao Correct answer only.

ORA Or reverse argument.

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Question Answer Marks

1(a) 0.077 kg OR 77 g A2

g = W / m OR (m =) W / g OR 0.75 / 9.8 C1

1(b) B1
use of Pythagoras’ theorem e.g. a2 + b2 = c2
2 vectors at right angles OR
OR (force =) √(1.22 + 0.752)

1.4 (N) B1

58(°) A2

C1
resultant force including correct direction of arrow OR use of trigonometry to find angle e.g. tan = 1.2 / 0.75

1(c) any two from: B2

 velocity
 speed
 direction
 acceleration / deceleration
 moment

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Question Answer Marks

2(a) change in velocity per unit time OR rate of change of velocity OR (a =) v / t B1

2(b)(i) 12 s A2

(t =) v / a OR 13 / 1.1 C1

2(b)(ii) 570 000 N A2

F = ma OR (F =) ma OR (F =) 520 000  1.1 C1

2(b)(iii) (additional force is needed to overcome) friction OR air resistance OR drag B1

Question Answer Marks

3(a) gravitational (potential) energy (store before / as the ball falls) B1

kinetic energy (store) increases (as the ball falls) OR energy transferred to kinetic energy (store as the ball falls) B1

(energy transferred from) kinetic energy (store) to internal / thermal energy (store) B1

3(b) 5.9 m / s A3

()Ep = ()Ek OR Ep lost = Ek gained OR gravitational potential energy lost = kinetic energy gained OR mg()h = ½mv2 C1

v2 = 2g()h OR v2 = 2  9.8  1.8 OR v2 = 35(.28) C1

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Question Answer Marks

4(a) (evaporation:) (only) at the surface OR B1

boiling: happens throughout the liquid

(evaporation:) takes place at any temperature OR B1

boiling: takes place at a specific temperature / boiling point

4(b)(i) 113 (K) B1

4(b)(ii) conduction B1

convection B1

4(c) particles collide with the walls / container B1

(particles) exert a force on the walls OR collision with walls produces a change in momentum (of particles) B1

pressure is force per unit area OR p = F / A OR pressure is rate of change of momentum per unit area B1

Question Answer Marks

5(a) ray travels along the normal OR angle of incidence = 0(°) B1

5(b)(i) n = 1 / sin c OR (n =) 1 / sin c OR (n =) 1 / sin 42 (°) M1

1.5 A1

5(b)(ii) ray reflected at BC AND no refracted ray M1

ray hits AC with angle of incidence = 0 ° A1

correct refraction of candidate’s ray into air at AC B1

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Question Answer Marks

5(c) any two from: B2

 high rates (of data transmission) / fast (data transmission)
 carry large amounts (of data / information)
 secure
 little signal / data loss
 glass is transparent to (some) infrared

Question Answer Marks

6(a)(i) C marked and labelled at a peak of the sine wave B1

R marked and labelled at a trough of the sine wave B1

6(a)(ii) graph / it does not show (variation with) displacement B1

6(a)(iii) (amplitude) increases AND (frequency) decreases B1

6(b) 0.12 m A3

v = f  OR ( =) v / f OR () = 1500 / 13 000 C1

1500 / 13 000 OR 1.2  10N C1

6(c) 330 m / s ⩽ speed ⩽ 350 m / s B1

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Question Answer Marks

7(a) (end of) one piece of steel brought close to (the end of) another piece owtte B1

look to see if there is repulsion/attraction AND test between different ends/poles owtte B1

any two from: B2

 repeat a valid test between the other pieces
 only magnets repel each other OR the pieces that repel are magnets
 attractions at both ends indicates one of them is unmagnetised
OR the piece that only attracts is unmagnetised
OR the piece that does not repel (at both ends) is unmagnetised

7(b)(i) 0.19 A A3

Ip Vp = Is Vs OR (Ip =) Is Vs / Vp OR (Ip =) 45 / 240 OR Ip Vp = 45 OR power in primary = power in secondary C1

(Ip= ) 45 / 240 C1

7(b)(ii) labelled diagram showing: B3

 (soft) iron core
 copper (coils)
 primary and secondary (coils) labelled AND fewer coils on secondary than on primary

Question Answer Marks

8(a)(i) correct voltmeter symbol connected across LDR B1

8(a)(ii)1 (resistance) increases B1

8(a)(ii)2 (p.d.) increases because resistance of parallel combination of LDR and LED increases B1

greater proportion of (total) p.d. across LDR / LED / parallel combination of LDR and LED B1

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Question Answer Marks

8(b) 960  A3

current in each bulb = 0.25 OR R = V / I OR (R =) V / I C1

resistance = 240 / 0.25 OR 1 / 480 = 1 / R + 1 / R C1

Question Answer Marks

9(a)(i) any two from: B2

 reduce exposure time AND low(er) amount of radiation absorbed
 increase distance between source and hospital staff AND lower amount of radiation reaches staff
 use of shielding (e.g. walls, lead etc.) AND radiation absorbed by shielding / cannot penetrate through shielding
 use isotopes with short half-life AND lower amount of radiation emitted from patient / radiation (above background)
emitted for a shorter period of time
 use of film badge / dosimeter AND manage individuals exposure owtte
 restrict pregnant staff / patient in hospital AND radiation may harm foetus owtte

9(a)(ii) high ionisation (within body) B1

radiation would not reach detector (outside body) B1

9(b) 24 24
11Na → 12
Mg + -10

24 B1
11Na on LHS
0 B1
-1
 on RHS

24 B1
12
Mg on RHS

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Question Answer Marks

10(a) any two from: B2

 minor planets OR dwarf planets
 comets
 asteroids

10(b) elliptical B1

10(c) kinetic energy (store) decreases AND potential energy (store) increases (as object moves from A to B) B1

energy is conserved B1

10(d) 2.6  103 s A2

v = s / t OR (t =) s / v OR 7.8  1011 / 3.0  108 C1

11(a) Milky Way B1

11(b) Big Bang (Theory) B1

11(c)(i) shortly after the Universe was formed B1

11(c)(ii) Universe has expanded B1

(radiation) has been redshifted (to the microwave region of the electromagnetic spectrum) B1

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