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CS8591 Computer Networks - Unit I Introduction and
Physical Layer - Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)

CS8591 Computer
Networks

Unit I Introduction and Physical

Layer

(Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ))

Networks – Network Types – Protocol Layering – TCP/IP Protocol suite –

OSI Model – Physical Layer: Performance – Transmission Media
- Switching – Circuit-switched Networks – Packet Switching.

1. Data communication is

A. Exchange of data between two devices via transmission medium

B. Visual Communication

C. Non Verbal Communication

D. None of the above

Ans. A

2. Which of the following is not the criteria necessary for an effective and efficient network?

A. Excellence B. Performance C. Reliability D. Security.

Ans. A

3. Performance of the network depends on

A. Number of users

B. Type of transmission medium

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 C. Capabilities of the connected hardware and the efficiency of the software

D. All of the above

Ans. D

4. Reliability is measured by

A. Frequency of failure

B. Time it takes a link to recover from the failure

C. Network’s robustness in a catastrophe

D. All of the above

Ans. D

5. Security issues include

A. Protecting data from unauthorized access and viruses.

B. state of feeling safe and being free from worry

C. Protection against difficulties

D. None of the above.

Ans. A

6. Fundamental characteristics that determine the effectiveness of the data communication system are

A. Delivery:

B. Accuracy

C. Timeliness

D. All of the above

Ans. D

7. The advantages of distributed processing are

A. Security/encapsulation

B. Distributed databases

C. Faster problem solving

D. All of the above

Ans. D

8. A protocol is

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A. a set of rules that govern data communication B. A Device C. A Network D. A Standard Ans.

9. Standards are

A. agreed upon rules

B. synonymous with rule

C. rules

D. None of the above

Ans. A

10. A Data Communication System consists of

A. 2 components B. 3 Components C. 4 Components D. 5 Components

Ans. D

11. Communication between two devices (Data flow/Transmission mode) can be

A. Simplex

B. Half-duplex

C. Full-duplex

D. All of the above

Ans. D

12. Simplex Communication is

A. Unidirectional

B. Bidirectional at the same time

C. Bidirectional not at the same time

D. None of the above

Ans. A

13. Half Duplex Communication is

A. Unidirectional

B. Bidirectional at the same time

C. Bidirectional not at the same time

D. None of the above

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Ans. C

14. Duplex Communication is

A. Unidirectional

B. Bidirectional at the same time

C. Bidirectional not at the same time

D. None of the above

Ans. B

15. A Computer Network is

A. A group of interconnected computers

B. System of roads

C. System of railway lines

D. All of the above

Ans. A

16. The need of computer networks is

A. Allowing computers to communicate with each other

B. Sharing resources

C. Sharing information

D. All of the above

Ans. D

17. Distributed processing is

A. A task is divided among multiple computers

B. Instead of one single large machine being responsible for all aspects of process, separate computers handle a
subset

C. use of more than one processor to perform the processing for an individual task

D. All of the above

Ans. D

18. The amount of time required for a message to travel from one device to another is

A. Transit time B. Response time C. Waiting time D. Collision time

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Ans. A

19. The elapsed time between an inquiry and a response is

A. Transit time B. Response time C. Waiting time D. Collision time

Ans. B

20. Performance is often evaluated by the following networking metrics

A. Throughput B. Delay C. Distance D. both (a) and (b)

Ans. D

21. Physical communication pathway that transfers data from one device to another is

A. Link

B. Data communication

C. Line configuration

D. All of the above

Ans. A

22. The way two or more communication devices attach to a link is

A. Link

B. Data communication

C. Line configuration

D. All of the above

Ans. C

23. Topology is

A. The way a network is laid out physically

B. Link

C. Line Configuration

D. All of the above

Ans. A

24. The following is not a topology.

A. Mesh B. Star C. Ring D. Circle

Ans. D

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25. In topology, every device has a dedicated point-to-point link to every other device.

A. Mesh B. Star C. Ring D. Bus

Ans. A

26. In a topology) network with n nodes, there are n x (n -1) /2 direct links.

A. Mesh B. Star C. Ring D. Bus

Ans. A

27. Advantages of Mesh topology are

A. Mesh topology is robust

B. Better privacy and security

C. Failure of one link will not disturb other links & it helps the network manager to find the fault location and
solution

D. All of the above

Ans. D

28. Disadvantages of Mesh topology are

A. Large amount of cabling and I/O ports are required.

B. Installation and reconnection are difficult.

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. C

29. Assume five devices are arranged in a mesh topology. How many cables are needed?

A. 8 B. 6 C. 10 D. 4

Ans. C

30. Assume five devices are arranged in a mesh topology. How many ports are needed for each device?

A. 8 B. 6 C. 10 D. 4

Ans. D

31. Topology in which every device has a dedicated point-to-point link to a central controller (HUB) only is

A. Mesh B. Star C. Bus D. Ring

Ans. B

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32. In a Star topology network with n nodes, there are direct links;

A. n B. n-1 C. n+1 D. n+2

Ans. A

33. Assume five devices are arranged in a star topology. How many cables are needed?

A. 5 B. 6 C. 10 D. 4

Ans. A

34. Advantages of Star topology are

A. Star topology is robust and less expensive.

B. Fault identification and fault isolation are easy.

C. Modification of star network is easy.

D. All of the above

Ans. D

35. Disadvantages of star topology are

A. If the central hub fails, the whole network will not work.

B. Communication is possible through the hub.

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. C

36. Topology in which one long cable acts as a backbone to link all the devices in the network is

A. Mesh B. Star C. Bus D. Ring

Ans. C

37. Advantages of bus topology are

A. Easy Installation.

B. Less cabling and less number of I/O ports is required.

C. Less cost.

D. All of the above

Ans. D

38. Disadvantages of bus topology are

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 A. Network traffic is high.

B. Fault isolation and reconnection is difficult & Adding new device is difficult.

C. A break in the bus cable stops all transmissions

D. All of the above

Ans. D

39. Topology in which each device has a dedicated point-to-point link with only the two devices on either side
of it is

A. Mesh B. Star C. Bus D. Ring Ans.

40. In a Ring topology network with n nodes, there are direct links;

A. n B. n-1 C. n+1 D. n+2

Ans. A

41. In topology, the repeater is used to regenerate the signals during transmission.

A. Mesh B. Star C. Bus D. Ring Ans.

42. Advantages of ring topology are

A. Easy to install and reconfigure.

B. Link failure can be easily found out.

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. C

43. Disadvantages of ring topology are

A. Maximum length of ring and number of devices are limited.

B. Failure of one node on the ring affects the entire network & Addition of nodes or removal of nodes disrupts the
network.

C. Signal traffic is unidirectional.

D. All of the above

Ans. D

44. A topology is a type of network topology that uses two or more other network topologies.

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A. Mesh B. Star C. Bus D. Hybrid Ans.

45. Categories of Networks are

A. Local Area Networks (LAN)

B. Metropolitan Area Networks (MAN)

C. Wide Area Networks (WAN)

D. All of the above

Ans. D

46. A Network covering a limited physical area upto 10 km (approximately) is

A. Local Area Network (LAN)

B. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)

C. Wide Area Network (WAN)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

47. A Network covering a town or a city (10 km - 100 km approximately) is

A. Local Area Network (LAN)

B. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)

C. Wide Area Network (WAN)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

48. A Network covering a large geographical area (beyond 100 km) often a country or continent or even
whole world is

A. Local Area Network (LAN)

B. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)

C. Wide Area Network (WAN)

D. None of the above

Ans. C

49. The Internet is

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A. Network of networks B. Intranet C. Extranet D. All of the above Ans.

50. Which of the following is/are true about Layering:

A. technique for organizing the protocols into an ordered series of distinct abstractions

B. It decomposes the problem of building a network into more manageable components

C. It provides a more modular design

D. All of the above

Ans. D

51. An OSI model is

A. Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) Model

B. ISO Standard

C. Layered framework

D. All of the above

Ans. D

52. OSI Model consists of

A. 5 layers B. 7 layers C. 4 layers 5. 8 layers

Ans. B

53. Network support layers include

A. Physical layer

B. Data Link Layer

C. Network layer

D. All of the above

Ans. D

54. User support layers include

A. Session layer

B. Presentation layer

C. Application layer

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 D. All of the above

Ans. D

55. Header is added to the data unit at which layer

A. Physical layer B. Data Link layer C. Network layer D. All 7 layers

Ans. D

56. Trailer is added at which layer

A. Physical layer B. Data Link layer C. Network layer D. Transport layer Ans.

57. Movements of individual bits from one hop (node) to the next is the responsibility of which layer

A. Physical Layer B. Data Link Layer C. Network layer D. Transport Layer

Ans. A

58. Moving frames from one hop (node) to the next is the responsibility of which layer

A. Physical Layer B. Data Link Layer C. Network layer D. Transport Layer

Ans. B

59. Delivery of individual packets from the source host to the destination host is the responsibility of which
layer

A. Physical Layer B. Data Link Layer C. Network layer D. Transport Layer

Ans. C

60. Delivery of a message from one process to another is the responsibility of which layer

A. Physical Layer B. Data Link Layer C. Network layer D. Transport Layer

Ans. D

61. Dialog control and synchronization are the responsibilities of which layer

A. Physical Layer B. Data Link Layer C. Session layer D. Transport Layer

Ans. C

62. Translation, Compression and Encryption are the responsibilities of which layer

A. Physical Layer B. Data Link Layer C. Session layer D. Presentation Layer

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Ans. D

63. Providing services to the user is the responsibility of which layer

A. Physical Layer B. Application Layer C. Session layer D. Presentation Layer

Ans. B

64. Each layer of the OSI model receives services or data from a layer.

A. below layer

B. above layer

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

65. A layer of the OSI model on one system communicates with the layer of its peer system.

A. above

B. below

C. same

D. None

Ans. C

66. In an OSI model, the lowest layer is the layer.

A. Application Layer B. Physical Layer C. Presentation Layer D. Data Link Layer

Ans. B

67. In the OSI model, which is the highest layer?

A. Application Layer B. Physical Layer C. Presentation Layer D. Network Layer

Ans. A

68. What are the advantages of 7 layers of OSI model?

A. Troubleshooting the network is easy.

B. Developing new functions or services for a particular layer is easy.

C. Developing hardware devices targeting certain layers is easy because the services to be offered are fixed.

D. All of the above

Ans. D

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69. The layer that transmits data in the form of bit streams using electrical and mechanical systems is
in the OSI model.

A. Physical layer

B. Data Link Layer

C. Network Layer

D. Transport Layer

Ans. A

70. Which is the layer that converts Packets to Frames and Frames to Packets in the OSI model?

A. Physical Layer

B. Data Link Layer

C. Network Layer

D. Transport Layer

Ans.C

71. Which is the layer that converts Raw Bits to Frames and Frames to Raw Bits in the OSI model?

A) Physical Layer

B) Data Link Layer

C) Network Layer

D) Transport Layer

Ans. B

72. The physical layer is concerned with

A. Physical characteristics of the media

B. Representation of bits and synchronization of bits

C. transmission rate and mode

D. All of the above

Ans. D

73. The data link layer is responsible for

A. framing data bits

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 B. providing the physical addresses of the sender/receiver `

C. data rate control and detection and correction of damaged and lost frames

D. All of the above

Ans. D

74. The network layer is responsible for

A. providing host-to-host addressing

B. routing

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. C

75. is a unit of data that consists of a header, which is defined by the protocol in use, followed
by various application data.

A. Protocol Data Unit (PDU)

B. Packet Data Unit

C. either (a) or (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

76. A frame is Protocol Data Unit (PDU) at the layer.

A. physical B. data link C. network D. transport

Ans. B

77. A packet is Protocol Data Unit (PDU) at the layer.

A. physical B. data link C. network D. transport

Ans. C

78. The transport layer is responsible for

A. dividing the message into manageable segments

B. reassembling it at the destination

C. flow and error control

D. All of the above

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Ans. D

79. The services include file transfer, remote access, shared database management, and mail
services.

A. physical layer B. data link layer C. network layer D. application layer Ans.

80. Encryption and decryption are functions of

A. Transport layer

B. Session layer

C. Presentation layer

D. None of the above

Ans. C

81. Which of the following layers of OSI reference model is concerned with the syntax of data exchanged
between application entities?

A. Transport layer

B. Session layer

C. Presentation layer

D. None of the above

Ans. C

82. Function of transport layer in OSI reference model is

A. Error free transmission

B. To ensure and cost defective delivery of data

C. To check the routing and congestion control

D. None of the above

Ans. B

83. Flow control in OSI models is done by

A. Data link layer B. Network layer C. Transport layer D. Both data link and transport layers

Ans. A

84. Subnet usually comprises

A. Network layer B. Transport layer C. Presentation layer D. Application layer

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Ans. A

85. An internetworking device operating at the transport layer is called a

A. Bridge B. Router C. Repeater D. Gateway

Ans. D

86. In respect of OSI model, LANs implement

A. Lower two layers

B. All seven layers

C. Upper five layers

D. None of the above

Ans. B

87. The Media Access Control Sublayer resides in which OSI layer?

A. Network layer B. Transport layer C. Presentation layer D. Data link

layer Ans. D

88. Flow control is the mechanism to regulate the flow of information, so that a fast host cannot overrun a
slow one. This is the function of the following OSI layer.

A. All layers B. Physical layer C. Transport layer D. Application layer

Ans. A

89. In OSI model, which of the following layer provides error-free delivery of data?

A. Network layer B. Transport layer C. Presentation layer D. Application layer

Ans. B

90. A device operating at network layer is called

A. Router B. Equalizer C. Bridge D. Repeater

Ans. A

91. A device operating at physical layer is called

A. Router B. Equalizer C. Bridge D. Repeater

Ans. D

92. TCP/IP protocol suite is made up of how many layers

A. 5 B. 4 C. 6 D. 7

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Ans. A

93. TCP/IP is related to

A. ARPANET B. OSI C. DECNET D. ALOHA

Ans. A

94. UDP in the Internet protocol suite is related to

A. Transport layer B. Network layer C. Application layer D. Physical layer

Ans. A

95. IP, ARP, RARP, ICMP and IGMP are related to

A. Transport layer B. Network layer C. Application layer D. Physical layer

Ans. B

96. SCTP, TCP and UDP are related to

A. Transport layer B. Network layer C. Application layer D. Physical layer

Ans. A

97. SMTP, FTP, HTTP, DNS, SNMP and TELNET are related to

A. Transport layer B. Network layer C. Application layer D. Physical layer

Ans. C

98. How many levels of addressing is provided in TCP/IP protocol?

A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

Ans. D

99. Physical address is provided by

A. Data Link layer B. Network layer C. Transport layer D. Application layer

Ans. A

100. Logical address is provided by

A. Data Link layer B. Network layer C. Transport layer D. Application layer

Ans. B

101. Port address is provided by

A. Data Link layer B. Network layer C. Transport layer D. Application layer

Ans. C

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102. Specific address (eg. email and URL) is provided by

A. Data Link layer B. Network layer C. Transport layer D. Application layer

Ans. D

103. is the process of combining multiple signals into one signal, over a shared medium.

A. Multiplexing

B. Demultiplexing

C. Synchronization

D. None of the above.

Ans. A

104. a process reconverting a signal containing multiple analog or digital signal streams back
into the original separate and unrelated signals.

A. Multiplexing

B. Demultiplexing

C. Synchronization

D. None of the above.

Ans. B

105. Network performance is measured in the following ways:

A. Bandwidth

B. Latency

C. Both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. C

106. of a network is given by the number of bits that can be transmitted over the network in a
certain period of time.

A. Bandwidth

B. Latency

C. Data rate

D. None of the above

Ans. A

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 107. of a network is given by time, taken by a message to travel from one end of a network to
other.

A. Bandwidth

B. Latency

C. Data rate

D. None of the above

Ans. B

108. is a measure of how fast we can actually send data through a network.

A. Output

B. Throughput

C. Latency

D. None of the above.

Ans. B

109. Sum of Propagation time, Transmission time, Queuing time and Processing delay is

A. Bandwidth

B. Latency

C. Data rate

D. None of the above

Ans. B

110. defines the number of bits that can fill the link.

A. Bandwidth-delay product

B. Data rate

C. Latency

D. None of the above

Ans. A

111. A collection of interconnected networks is

A. internet

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B. intranet

C. extranet

D. internetwork

Ans. A

112. An is a computer network for sharing information, collaboration tools, operational

systems, and other computing services within an organization

A. internet

B. intranet

C. extranet

D. internetwork

Ans. B

113. An is a controlled private network that allows access to partners, vendors and
suppliers or an authorized set of customers – normally to a subset of the information accessible from an
organization's intranet.

A. internet

B. intranet

C. extranet

D. internetwork

Ans. C

114. Key elements of a protocol are

A. Syntax

B. Semantics

C. Timing

D. All of the above

Ans. D

115. Requirements to build a computer network are

A. Server and Client

B. transmission media & software and application

C. Protocol

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 D. All of the above

Ans. D

116. Sender, Receiver, Message, Transmission Medium and Protocol are the five components of a
system.

A. Data Communication

B. visual communication

C. either (a) or (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

117. in the data link layer refers primarily to methods of error detection and retransmission
and is based on automatic repeat request, which is the retransmission of data.

A. Flow control

B. Error control

C. Access control

D. None of the above

Ans. B

118. A is a device used to connect a computer or router to a telephone line

which provides the digital subscriber line service for connection to the Internet, which is often called DSL
broadband.

A. Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) modem

B. Cable modem

C. Dial-up modem

D. None of the above

119. Transmission media are located below the layer.

A. physical B. transport C. network D. application Ans.

120. The medium provides a physical conduit from one device to another.

A. unguided

B. guided

C. (a) or (b)

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 D. None of the above

Ans. B

121. Guided media include

A. twisted-pair cable

B. coaxial cable

C. fiber-optic cable

D. All of the above

Ans. D

122. primarily uses the guided media.

A. local telephone system B. Cellular telephone system C. Radio broadcasting D. Satellite Communication

Ans. A

123. A cable comprises of two separate insulated copper wires, which are twisted together and run in
parallel.

A. Fiber-optic

B. Twisted-pair

C. Coaxial

D. None of the above

Ans. B

124. The most common twisted-pair cable used in communications is referred to as .

A. Unshielded Twisted-Pair (UTP)

B. Shielded Twisted-Pair (STP)

C. either (a) or (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

125. cable is used for voice and data communications.

A. Fiber-optic

B. Twisted-pair

C. Coaxial

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D. None of the above

Ans. B

126. cables are used in telephone lines.

A. Fiber-optic

B. Twisted-pair

C. Coaxial

D. None of the above

Ans. B

127. cable is a type of electrical cable consisting of an inner conductor surrounded by a concentric
conducting shield, with the two separated by a dielectric;

A. Fiber-optic

B. Twisted-pair

C. Coaxial

D. None of the above

Ans. C

128. cable is used to transmit both analog and digital signals.

A. Fiber-optic

B. Twisted-pair

C. Coaxial

D. None of the above

Ans. C

129. cable can carry signals of higher frequency ranges than twisted-pair cable.

A. Coaxial

B. Twisted-pair

C. fiber-optic

D. None of the above

Ans. A

130. The co-axial cable has excellent noise immunity due to

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A. shield provided

B. inner conductor

C. outer conductor

D. None of the above

Ans. A

131. A cable is made of glass or plastic inner core which is surrounded by a cladding, and all are
encased in an outsider jacket.

A. Coaxial

B. Twisted-pair

C. fiber-optic

D. None of the above

Ans. C

132. In fiber-optic cable, a glass or plastic core is surrounded by a cladding of glass or plastic.

A. less dense

B. more dense

C. same dense

D. None of the above

Ans. A

133. A cable transmits signals in the form of light.

A. Coaxial

B. Twisted-pair

C. fiber-optic

D. None of the above

Ans. C

134. When the angle of incidence is the critical angle, the light beam bends along the interface.

A. less than

B. greater than

C. equal to

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D. None of the above

Ans. C

135. When the angle of incidence is the critical angle, the ray refracts and moves closer to the
surface.

A. less than

B. greater than

C. equal to

D. None of the above

Ans. A

136. When the angle of incidence is the critical angle, the ray reflects (makes a turn) and
travels again in the denser substance.

A. less than

B. greater than

C. equal to

D. None of the above

Ans. B

137. In a Fibre-optic cable, the signal is transmitted along the inner core by

A. reflection

B. refraction

C. either (a) or (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

138. Advantages of fiber-optic cable over twisted-pair cable and co-axial cable are:

A. Higher bandwidth & Less signal attenuation

B. Immunity to electromagnetic interference & tapping

C. Resistance to corrosive materials & light weight

D. All of the above

Ans. D

139. media transport electromagnetic waves without using a physical conductor.

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A. guided

B. unguided

C. either (a) or (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

140. Communication using is often referred to as wireless communication.

A. guided

B. unguided

C. either (a) or (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

141. Unguided media is generally suited for in all directions.

A. local telephone system

B. Cellular telephone system

C. Radio broadcasting

D. Satellite Communication

Ans. C

142. Signals with a frequency below 2 MHz use propagation.

A. ground

B. sky

C. line-of-sight

D. None of the above

Ans. A

143. Signals with a frequency between 2 MHz and 30 MHz use propagation.

A. ground

B. sky

C. line-of-sight

D. None of the above

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Ans. B

144. Signals with a frequency above 30 MHz use propagation.

A. ground

B. sky

C. line-of-sight

D. None of the above

Ans. C

145. Which of the following are Wireless transmission waves?

A. Radio wave

B. Microwave

C. Infrared wave

D. All of the above

Ans. D

146. Electromagnetic Waves ranging in frequencies between 3 kHz and 1 GHz are called

A. Radio waves

B. Microwaves

C. Infrared waves

D. None of the above

Ans. A

147. are used for multicast communications, such as radio and television, and paging systems.

A. Radio waves

B. Microwaves

C. Infrared waves

D. ultraviolet waves

Ans. A

148. Radio waves are .

A. unidirectional

B. bidirectional

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C. omnidirectional

D. None of the above

Ans. C

149. Electromagnetic Waves ranging in frequencies between 1 GHz and 300 GHz are called .

A. Radio waves

B. Microwaves

C. Infrared waves

D. ultraviolet waves

Ans. B

150. A parabolic dish antenna is an antenna.

A. unidirectional

B. bidirectional

C. omnidirectional

D. None of the above

Ans. A

151. are used for unicast communication such as cellular telephones, satellite networks,

and wireless LANs.

A. Radio waves

B. Microwaves

C. Infrared waves

D. ultraviolet waves

Ans. B

152. need unidirectional antennas that send out signals in one direction.

A. Radio waves

B. Microwaves

C. Infrared waves

D. ultraviolet waves

Ans. B

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153. Electromagnetic Waves ranging in frequencies between 300 GHz and 400 THz are called

A. Radio waves

B. Microwaves

C. Infrared waves

D. ultraviolet waves

Ans. C

154. can be used for short-range communication in a closed area using line-of-sight propagation.

A. Radio waves

B. Microwaves

C. Infrared waves

D. none of the above

Ans. C

155. Which of the following about guided media are true?

A. Radio wave can penetrate walls.

B. Microwave with Higher frequency ranges cannot penetrate walls.

C. Infrared cannot penetrate walls.

D. All of the above

Ans. D

156. Three methods of switching are

A. Circuit switching, Packet switching and Protocol switching

B. Circuit switching, Packet switching and Message switching

C. Loop switching, Packet switching and Message switching

D. Node switching, Packet switching and Message switching

Ans. B

157. is mechanism for moving information between different networks and network
segments.

A. Switching

B. Forwarding

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 C. Routing

D. Directing

Ans. A

158. In , all packets use the same path.

A. Packet Switching

B. Circuit Switching

C. Message Switching

D. None of the above

Ans. B

159. Advantages of circuit switching are

A. Fixed bandwidth B. Low variance end to end delay C. either (a) or (b) D. Both (a) and (b)

Ans. D

160. Circuit switched networks are used in

A. Cellular Network B. Satellite Network C. Cable Network D. Telephone Network Ans.

161. A circuit switched network is made of switches connected by physical links, in which each link is divided
into

A. n channels B. n+1 channels C. 2n Channels D. n-1 channels Ans.

162. A circuit switched network consists of a series of interlinked nodes, called

A. endpoints B. packets C. switches D. links Ans.

163. The actual communication in a circuit switched network requires

A. one phase B. two phases C. three phases D. four phases

Ans. C

164. Setup, data transfer and connection teardown are three phases of

A. Circuit switching B. Packet switching C. Message switching D. None Ans.

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165. Circuit switching takes place at the

A. Network layer B. Physical layer C. Session layer D. Data link layer

Ans. B

166. A network is made of a set of switches connected by physical links, in which each link is
divided into n channels.

A. line-switched

B. frame-switched

C. circuit-switched

D. None of the above

Ans. C

167. In circuit switching, the resources needs to be reserved during the

A. data transfer phase B. teardown phase C. setup phase D. propagation phase

Ans. C

168. Circuit switching is most ideal for communication, while also keeping the delay uniform.

A. Voice

B. Data

C. either (a) or (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

169. Packet switching is used mainly for transmission as the delay is not uniform.

A. Voice

B. Data

C. either (a) or (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

170. The key difference between circuit switching and packet switching is that

A. Packet Switching is connectionless, whereas circuit switching is connection-oriented.

B. Circuit Switching is connectionless, whereas Packet switching is connection-oriented.

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 C. No difference

D. None of the above

Ans. A

171. is transmission method in which packets are transmitted over a networking medium
that maintain several paths between sender and receiver.

A. Packet Switching

B. Circuit Switching

C. Message Switching

D. None of the above

Ans. A

172. In a packet switched network, resources are allocated

A. randomly B. on demand C. reserved already D. both (a) and (c)

Ans. B

173. Virtual circuit networks and Datagram Networks are the sub categories of

A. Message-switched networks

B. Packet-switched networks

C. Circuit-switched networks

D. None of them

Ans. B

174. Which of the following are true about Virtual Circuit Switching?

A. Connection-oriented model

B. Uses the concept of virtual circuit (VC)

C. Packet switching methodology whereby a path is established between the source and the final destination through
which all the packets will be routed.

D. All of the above

Ans. D

175. Which of the following are true about Datagram (packet switched) network?

A. Packet switching technology

B. Connectionless Approach

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 C. A datagram is a basic unit associated with packet-switched network

D. All of the above

176. Datagram switching is done at the

A. Network layer B. Physical layer C. Session layer D. Data link layer

Ans. A

177. The phase where the establishment of channels takes place is

A. data transfer phase B. teardown phase C. setup phase D. propagation phase Ans.

178. The network where there is no resource reservation is called

A. Packet switched network B. Datagram networks C. Virtual circuit network D. message switched network

Ans. A

179. In , the resources need to be reserved during the setup phase; the resources remain
dedicated for the entire duration of data transfer phase until the teardown phase.

A. datagram switching

B. circuit switching

C. frame switching

D. None of the above

Ans. B

180. In , there is no resource allocation for a packet.

A. datagram switching

B. circuit switching

C. frame switching

D. None of the above

Ans. A

181. In , resources are allocated on demand.

A. datagram switching

B. circuit switching

C. frame switching

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 D. None of the above

Ans. A.

182. In , each packet is treated independently of all others.

A. datagram switching

B. circuit switching

C. frame switching

D. None of the above

Ans. A

183. In , there are no setup or teardown phases.

A. datagram switching

B. circuit switching

C. frame switching

D. None of the above

Ans. A

184. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) network is an example of

A. Packet switching network B. Datagram networks C. Virtual circuit network D. message switched network

Ans.CS8591 Computer Networks - UNIT II DATA-LINK

C

LAYER & MEDIA ACCESS - Multiple Choice Questions

(MCQ)

CS8591 Computer Networks

UNIT II DATA-LINK LAYER & MEDIA ACCESS

(Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ))

Introduction – Link-Layer Addressing – DLC Services – Data-Link Layer

Protocols – HDLC – PPP - Media Access Control - Wired LANs: Ethernet -
Wireless LANs – Introduction – IEEE 802.11, Bluetooth – Connecting
Devices.

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1. The layer lies below the network layer

A. Physical layer B. Data link layer C. Network layer D. Transport layer

Ans. B

2. The layer lies above the physical layer.

A. Physical layer B. Data link layer C. Network layer D. Transport layer

Ans. B

3. The is responsible for moving frames from one hop (node) to the next.

A. Physical layer B. Data link layer C. Network layer D. Transport layer

Ans. B

4. The Data link layer divides the stream of bits received from network layer into manageable data units
called .

A. Messages B. Segments C. Frames D. Datagrams

Ans. C

5. is related to the Data link layer.

A. Physical address B. logical address C. Port address D. Specific address

Ans. A

6. The data link layer imposes a mechanism to avoid overwhelming the receiver.

A. Flow control

B. Error control

C. Access Control

D. None of the above.

Ans. A

7. The data link layer adds a mechanism to detect and retransmit damaged or lost frames.

A. Flow control

B. Error control

C. Access Control

D. None of the above.

Ans. B

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8. The data link layer adds an mechanism to regulate the access of a device to the link
(medium).

A. Flow control

B. Error control

C. Access Control

D. None of the above.

Ans. C

9. The data link layer is responsible for

A. Flow control

B. Error control

C. Access Control

D. All of the above

Ans. D

10. Trailer is added only at the .

A. Physical layer B. Data link layer C. Network layer D. Transport layer

Ans. B

11. Trailer contains additional information that deals with

A. Flow control

B. Error detection

C. Access Control

D. All of the above

Ans. B

12. The oversees the delivery of a data unit between two systems on the same network.

A. Physical layer B. Data link layer C. Network layer D. Transport layer

Ans. B

13. The sub-layers of the data link layer are

A. Logical Link Control (LLC) layer

B. Media Access Control (MAC) layer

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 C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of the above

Ans. C.

14. The Logical Link Control layer controls

A. frame synchronization

B. flow control

C. error checking

D. All of the above

Ans. D

15. The is responsible for moving data packets to and from one Network Interface Card (NIC)
to another across a shared channel.

A. Logical Link Control (LLC) layer

B. Media Access Control (MAC) layer

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

16. A is also called MAC address.

A. physical address

B. logical address

C. port address

D. None of the above

Ans. A

17. The is used to find the physical address of the node when its Internet address is known.

A. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

B. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP)

C. SNMP

D. None of the above.

Ans. A

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18. The allows a host to discover its Internet address when it knows only its physical address.

A. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

B. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP)

C. SNMP

D. None of the above.

Ans. B

19. The main functions of the data link layer are

A. data link control

B. media access control

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. C

20. divides the stream of bits received from network layer into manageable data units called
frames.

A. Framing B. Segmentation C. Multiplexing D. Demultiplexing

Ans. A

21. In , there is no need for defining the boundaries of the frames; the size itself can be used as a
delimiter.

A. fixed size framing

B. variable size framing

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

22. In , we need a way to define the end of the frame and the beginning of the next.

A. fixed size framing

B. variable size framing

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

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 23. To transmit over the node, it is necessary to mention start and end of each frame.

A. Frames

B. Segments

C. Datagrams

D. All of the above

Ans. A

24. Techniques to solve the necessity of mentioning start and end of each frame are

A. Byte-oriented protocols (Character-oriented protocols

B. Bit-oriented protocols

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above.

Ans. C

25. framing uses two categories of protocols: byte-oriented protocols and bit-oriented protocols.

A. Fixed-size

B. Variable-size

C. Standard

D. None of the above

Ans. B

26. In , each frame is to be viewed as a collection of bytes (characters) rather than a

collection of bits.

A. Byte-oriented protocols (Character-oriented protocols)

B. Bit-oriented protocols

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above.

Ans. A

27. A byte-oriented approach is illustrated by

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A. Binary Synchronous Communication (BISYNC) Protocol

B. Digital Data Communication Message Protocol (DDCMP)

C. Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)

D. All of the above

Ans. D

28. In , the data portion of the frame is then contained between special sentinel
characters: STX (start of text) and ETX (end of text).

A. Binary Synchronous Communication (BISYNC) Protocol

B. Digital Data Communication Message Protocol (DDCMP)

C. Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)

D. All of the above

Ans. A

29. Binary Synchronous Communication (BISYNC) Protocol is

A. Sentinel approach

B. Digital Data Communication Message Protocol (DDCMP)

C. Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)

D. All of the above

Ans.A

30. In , a special byte called the escape character (ESC) is stuffed before every byte in the
message with the same pattern as the flag byte. If the ESC sequence is found in the message byte, then
another ESC byte is stuffed before it.

A. Byte stuffing (character stuffing)

B. Bit stuffing

C. Both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

31. The more recent and widely used Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) is a

A. Byte-oriented protocols (Character-oriented protocols)

B. Bit-oriented protocols

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 C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above.

Ans. A

32. PPP is a byte-oriented protocol using byte stuffing with the escape byte .

A. 01111101 B. 01111111 C. 01111110 D. 11111111

Ans. A

33. In , frames are viewed as a collection of bits.

A. Byte-oriented protocols (Character-oriented protocols)

B. Bit-oriented protocols

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above.

Ans. B

34. HDLC is an acronym for .

A. High-level data link control

B. Half-duplex digital link combination

C. Host double-level circuit

D. High-duplex line communication

Ans. A

35. Data transfer modes of HDLC are

A. Normal response mode

B. Asynchronous response mode

C. Asynchronous balance mode

D. All of the above

Ans. D

36. is a bit-oriented protocol.

A. High-level Data Link Control (HDLC) protocol

B. PPP

C. BISYNC

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 D. None of the above

Ans. A

37. is the basis for all bit-oriented protocols in use today.

A. HDLC B. PPP C. BISYNC D. DDCMP

Ans. A

38. HDLC denotes both the beginning and end of a frame with the distinguished bit sequence .

A. 01111101 B. 01111111 C. 01111110 D. 11111111

Ans. C

39. If the HDLC flag field pattern is found in the message data field, it needs to be altered through
.

A. synchronizaion

B. bit stuffing

C. byte stuffing

D. None of the above

Ans. B

40. Bit stuffing means adding an extra 0 to the data section of the frame when there is a sequence of bits with
the same pattern as the .

A. flag

B. trailer

C. header

D. None of the above

Ans. A

41. HDLC defines the following three types of frames:

A. Information frames (I-frames)

B. supervisory frames (S-frames)

C. unnumbered frames (U-frames)

D. All of the above

Ans. D

42. are used to transport user data and control information relating to user data (piggybacking).

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A. Information frames (I-frames)

B. supervisory frames (S-frames)

C. unnumbered frames (U-frames)

D. All of the above

Ans. A

43. are used only to transport control information.

A. Information frames (I-frames)

B. supervisory frames (S-frames)

C. unnumbered frames (U-frames)

D. All of the above

Ans. B

44. are reserved for system management. Information carried by these frames is intended for
managing the link itself.

A. Information frames (I-frames)

B. supervisory frames (S-frames) \

C. unnumbered frames (U-frames)

D. All of the above

Ans. C

45. Types of errors are

A. Single-bit error

B. Burst error

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. C

46. In error detection, the receiver corrects errors without requesting retransmission.

A. forward

B. backward

C. both (a) and (b)

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 D. None of the above.

Ans. A

47. In error detection, the receiver asks the sender to send the data again.

A. forward

B. backward

C. retransmission

D. None of the above.

Ans. C

48. In a , only one bit in the data unit has changed.

A. Single-bit error

B. Burst error

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

49. A means that 2 or more bits in the data unit have changed.

A. Single-bit error

B. Burst error

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

50. Instead of repeating the entire data stream, a shorter group of bits may be appended to the end of each
unit. This technique is called .

A. redundancy

B. repetition

C. appending

D. None of the above

Ans. A

51. Types of redundancy checks in data communications are

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 A. Vertical Redundancy Check (VRC) and Longitudinal Redundancy Check (LRC)

B. Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC)

C. Checksum

D. All of the above

Ans. D

52. is also called Parity Check.

A. Vertical Redundancy Check (VRC) B. Longitudinal Redundancy Check (LRC) C. Cyclic Redundancy Check
(CRC) D. Checksum

Ans. A

53. detects single-bit error.

A. Vertical Redundancy Check (VRC) B. Longitudinal Redundancy Check (LRC) C. Cyclic Redundancy Check
(CRC) D. Checksum

Ans. A

54. In , a block of bits is organized in a table (rows and columns). The parity bit for each column is
checked and a new row of eight bits which are parity bits for the whole block is created. Original data with
eight parity bits are transferred to the receiver.

A. Vertical Redundancy Check (VRC) B. Longitudinal Redundancy Check (LRC) C. Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC)
D. Checksum

Ans. B

55. method is working based on binary division.

A. Vertical Redundancy Check (VRC) B. Longitudinal Redundancy Check (LRC) C. Cyclic Redundancy Check
(CRC) D. Checksum

Ans. C

56. In Cyclic Redundancy Checking, what is the CRC?

A. Quotient B. Dividend C. Divisor D. Remainder.

Ans. D

57. In Cyclic Redundancy Checking, the divisor is the CRC.

A. one bit less than

B. one bit more than

C. the same size as

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 D. None of the above

Ans. B

58. Which error detection method uses one's complement arithmetic?

A. Vertical Redundancy Check (VRC) B. Longitudinal Redundancy Check (LRC) C. Cyclic Redundancy Check
(CRC) D. Checksum

Ans. D

59. is used to denote the difference between two binary strings.

A. Hamming distance

B. Hamming code

C. Hamming rule

D. None of the above

Ans. A

60. Functional mechanisms in flow control are

A. acknowledgment

B. timeout

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. C

61. If the sender does not receive ACK up to reasonable amount of time, the it retransmit the original frame;
waiting for reasonable amount of time is called .

A. acknowledgment

B. timeout

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

62. The general strategy of using acknowledgments and timeouts to implement reliable delivery is sometimes
called .

A. Automatic Repeat Request (ARQ)

B. Delivery strategy

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 C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

63. Stop and Wait Flow Control and Sliding Window Flow Control are the two mechanisms.

A. flow control

B. access control

C. error control

D. None of the above

Ans. A

64. In the sliding window method of flow control, the receiver window in size when frames are received.

A. decreases

B. increases

C. does not change

D. None of the above

Ans. A

65. In the sliding window method of flow control, the receiver window in size when an ACK is sent.

A. decreases

B. increases

C. does not change

D. None of the above

Ans. B

66. The receiver's window in a sliding window protocol expands when .

A. an ACK is received. B. an ACK is sent. C. a frame is received D. a frame is sent Ans.

67. The sender's window in a sliding window protocol expands when .

A. an ACK is received. B. an ACK is sent. C. a frame is received D. a frame is sent Ans.

68. An ideal channel in which no frames are lost, duplicated or corrupted is regarded as .

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 A. Noiseless Channel

B. Noisy Channel

C. Normal Channel

D. None of the above

Ans. A

69. The Simplest protocol and Stop and Wait protocol are for

A. Noiseless Channel

B. Noisy Channel

C. Normal Channel

D. None of the above

Ans. A

70. The protocol has neither flow nor error control.

A. Stop-and-Wait B. Simplest C. Go-Back-N ARQ D. Selective-Repeat ARQ Ans.

71. In the Protocol, the sender sends its frames one after another with no regard to the receiver

A. Stop-and-Wait B. Simplest C. Go-Back-N ARQ D. Selective-Repeat ARQ Ans.

72. The protocol has flow control but not error control.

A. Stop-and-Wait B. Simplest C. Go-Back-N ARQ D. Selective-Repeat ARQ Ans.

73. In the Protocol, the sender sends one frame, stops until it receives confirmation from the
receiver, and then sends the next fame.

A. Stop-and-Wait B. Simplest C. Go-Back-N ARQ D. Selective-Repeat ARQ Ans.

74. means that there will be lot of disturbance in the path when data is carried forward from
sender to receiver.

A. Noiseless Channel

B. Noisy Channel

C. Normal Channel

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 D. None of the above

Ans. B

75. Stop-and-Wait Automatic Repeat Request, Go-Back-N Automatic Repeat Request and Selective Repeat
Automatic Repeat Request are for

A. Noiseless Channel

B. Noisy Channel

C. Normal Channel

D. None of the above

Ans. B

76. A technique called is used to improve the efficiency of the bidirectional protocols. When
a frame is carrying data from A to B, it can also carry control information about arrived (or lost) frames
from B; when a frame is carrying data from B to A, it can also carry control information about the arrived
(or lost) frames from A.

A. piggybacking

B. synchronization

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above.

Ans. A

77. The Protocol, adds a simple error control mechanism to the Protocol.

A. Stop-and-Wait ARQ; Stop-and-Wait

B. Go-Back-N ARQ; Stop-and-Wait

C. Selective Repeat ARQ; Go-Back-N ARQ

D. None of the above

Ans. A

78. In the Protocol, if no acknowledgment for a frame has arrived, we resend all outstanding
frames.

A. Stop-and-Wait ARQ; Stop-and-Wait

B. Go-Back-N ARQ; Stop-and-Wait

C. Selective Repeat ARQ; Go-Back-N ARQ

D. None of the above

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Ans. B

79. In the Protocol, we avoid unnecessary transmission by sending only frames that are
corrupted.

A. Stop-and-Wait ARQ; Stop-and-Wait

B. Go-Back-N ARQ; Stop-and-Wait

C. Selective Repeat ARQ; Go-Back-N ARQ

D. None of the above

Ans. C

80. Both Go-Back-N and Selective-Repeat Protocols use a .

A. Sliding frame

B. Sliding window

C. Sliding packet

D. None of the above

Ans. B

81. Multiple-access protocols are categorized into the following groups.

A. Random access protocols

B. Controlled-access protocols

C. Channelization protocols

D. All of the above

Ans. D

82. In method, no station is superior to another station. No station is assigned the control over
another.

A. Random access

B. Controlled-access

C. Channelization

D. None of the above

Ans. A

83. No rules specify which station should send next. Stations compete with one another to access the medium.
That is why these methods are also called .

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A. Random access

B. Contention methods

C. Both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

84. In , each station sends a frame whenever it has a frame to send.

A. pure ALOHA

B. slotted ALOHA

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

85. Pure ALOHA dictates that when the time-out period passes, each station waits a random amount of time
before resending its frame. The randomness will help avoid more collisions. This time is called the .

A. Back-off time

B. time-out time

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

86. The length of time in which there is a possibility of collision is the .

A. vulnerable time

B. Back-off time

C. time-out time

D. None of the above

Ans. A

87. In pure ALOHA, the vulnerable time is the frame transmission time.

A. two times

B. three times

C. the same as

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 D. None of the above

Ans. A

88. was invented to improve the efficiency of pure ALOHA.

A. Slotted ALOHA

B. ALOHA

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

89. The is defined as average successful traffic transmitted between stations per unit time.

A. throughput

B. output

C. input

D. None of the above

Ans. A

90. When two or more stations transmits message on channel, the signals will superimpose on each other and
is garbled beyond the decoding ability of receiving station, this is called .

A. Collisions

B. Congestions

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

91. In , the chance of collision can be reduced if a station senses the medium before
trying to use it.

A. Multiple Access B. Carrier Sense Multiple Access (CSMA) C. FDMA D. CDMA

Ans. B

92. is based on the principle ‘Sense before transmit'.

A. Multiple Access B. Carrier Sense Multiple Access (CSMA) C. FDMA D. CDMA

Ans. B

93. augments the algorithm to detect the collision.

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A. Multiple Access

B. Carrier Sense Multiple Access (CSMA)

C. CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access (CSMA)/Collision Detection (CD))

D. None of the above

Ans. C

94. In the , a station monitors the medium after it sends a frame to see if the transmission was
successful. If so, the station is finished. If, however, there is collision, the frame is sent again.

A. Multiple Access

B. Carrier Sense Multiple Access (CSMA)

C. CSMA/CD

D. None of the above

Ans. C

95. was invented to avoid collisions on wireless networks.

A. Carrier Sense Multiple Access (CSMA)

B. CSMA/CD

C. CSMA/CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access (CSMA)/Collision Avoidance (CA))

D. None of the above

Ans. C

96. In , Collisions are avoided through the use of three strategies, namely, Interframe Space
(IFS), Contention Window and Acknowledgment.

A. Carrier Sense Multiple Access (CSMA)

B. CSMA/CD

C. CSMA/CA

D. None of the above

Ans. C

97. In , the stations consult one another to find which station has the right to send.

A. controlled access

B. random access

C. channelization

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 D. None of the above

Ans. A

98. Number of popular controlled-access methods is

A. one B. two C. three D. four Ans.

99. In the method, a station needs to make a reservation before sending data.

A. reservation

B. Polling

C. Token passing

D. None of the above

Ans. A

100. In the method, time divided into intervals. In each interval, a reservation frame precedes the
data frames sent in that interval.

A. reservation

B. Polling

C. Token passing

D. None of the above

Ans. A

101. In the , one device is designated as a primary station and the other devices are secondary
stations. All data exchanges must be made through the primary device.

A. reservation

B. Polling

C. Token passing

D. None of the above

Ans. B

102. In the , the primary device controls link; the secondary devices follow its instructions.

A. reservation

B. Polling

C. Token passing

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D. None of the above

Ans. B

103. In the method, the stations in a network are organized in a logical ring.

A. reservation

B. Polling

C. Token passing

D. None of the above

Ans. C

104. In the method, for each station, there is a predecessor and a successor.

A. reservation

B. Polling

C. Token passing

D. None of the above

Ans. C

105. In the method, a special packet called a circulates through the ring.

A. reservation; control frame

B. polling; poll request

C. token passing; token

D. None of the above

Ans. C

106. is a multi-access method in which the available bandwidth of a link is shared in time,
frequency, or through code between different stations.

A. Channelization

B. Random access

C. Controlled access

D. None of the above

Ans. A

107. Three channelization protocols are

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A. Frequency-Division Multiple Access (FDMA)

B. Time-Division Multiple Access (TDMA)

C. Code-Division Multiple Access (CDMA)

D. all of the above

Ans. D

108. In , the available bandwidth is divided into frequency bands.

A. Frequency-Division Multiple Access (FDMA)

B. Time-Division Multiple Access (TDMA)

C. Code-Division Multiple Access (CDMA)

D. all of the above

Ans. A

109. In , the stations share the bandwidth of the channel in time.

A. Frequency-Division Multiple Access (FDMA)

B. Time-Division Multiple Access (TDMA)

C. Code-Division Multiple Access (CDMA)

D. all of the above

Ans. B

110. In , the stations use different codes to achieve multiple access.

A. Frequency-Division Multiple Access (FDMA)

B. Time-Division Multiple Access (TDMA)

C. Code-Division Multiple Access (CDMA)

D. all of the above

Ans. C

111____________s a baseband LAN specification invented in 1970s by Xerox Corporation that operates at 10
Mbps using CSMA/CD to run over coaxial cable.

A. Ethernet

B. Internet

C. intranet

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D. None of the above

Ans. A

112. The term is now often used to refer to all CSMA/CD LANs.

A. Ethernet

B. Internet

C. intranet

D. None of the above

Ans. A

113. In ethernet, the field is actually added at the physical layer and is not formally part of the
frame.

A. CRC

B. preamble

C. Type

D. None of the above

Ans. B

114. In the Ethernet frame, the field contains error detection information

A. CRC

B. preamble

C. Type

D. None of the above

Ans. A

115. Ethernet, is one of the most widely used standards for computer networking and general
data communications.

A. IEEE 802.3

B. IEEE 802.1

C. IEEE 802.5

D. None of the above

Ans. A

116. 10Bae5, 10Base2, 10BaseT and 10Base F are Categories of Base Band in .

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A. IEEE 802.3

B. IEEE 802.1

C. IEEE 802.5

D. None of the above

Ans. A

117. In 10Base5, 10 specifies .

A. data rate in Mbps

B. baseband

C. cable type or length limit

D. None of the above

Ans. A

118. In 10Base5, Base specifies .

A. data rate in Mbps

B. baseband

C. cable type or length limit

D. None of the above

Ans. B

119. In 10Base5, 5 specifies .

A. data rate in Mbps

B. baseband

C. Maximum segment length

D. None of the above

Ans. C

120. wireless LANs are sometimes called wireless Ethernet.

A. IEEE 802.11

B. IEEE 802.

C. IEEE 802.1

D. IEEE 802.5

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Ans. A

121. operates on the physical and data link layers.

A. IEEE 802.11

B IEEE 802.3

C. IEEE 802.1

D. IEEE 802.5

Ans. A

122. In wireless LAN, an Access Point (AP) is installed to act as Bridge between Wireless and
Wired Network

A. IEEE 802.11

B. IEEE 802.3

C. IEEE 802.1

D. IEEE 802.5

Ans. A

123. Basic Service Set (BSS) and Extended Service Set (ESS) are two kind services defined by .

A. IEEE 802.11

B. IEEE 802.3

C. IEEE 802.1

D. IEEE 802.5

Ans. A

124. In IEEE 802.11, a is made of stationary or mobile wireless stations and an optional central
base station, known as the Access Point (AP).

A. BSS

B. ESS

C. DSS

D. None of the above

Ans. A

125. The BSS without an AP is a stand-alone network and cannot send data to other BSSs. It is called an
.

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A. ad hoc network

B. infrastructure network

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

126. A BSS with an AP is sometimes referred to as an .

A. ad hoc network

B. infrastructure network

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

127. In IEEE 802.11, communication between two stations in two different BSSs usually occurs via two
.

A. BSSs

B. ESSs

C. APs

D. None of the above

Ans. C

128. In IEEE 802.11, an is made up of two or more BSSs with Access Points (AP).

A. BSS

B. ESS

C. DSS

D. None of the above

Ans. B

129. A station with mobility is either stationary (not moving) or moving only inside a BSS.

A. no-transition

B. BSS-transition

C.ESS-transition

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D. None of the above

Ans. A

130. A station with mobility can move from one BSS to another, but the movement is confined
inside one ESS.

A. no-transition

B. BSS-transition

C.ESS-transition

D. None of the above

Ans. B

131. A station with mobility can move from one ESS to another.

A. no-transition

B. BSS-transition

C.ESS-transition

D. None of the above

Ans. C

132. defines two types of MAC sublayers, namely, the Distributed Coordination Function (DCF)
and the Point Coordination Function (PCF)

A. IEEE 802.11

B IEEE 802.3

C. IEEE 802.1

D. IEEE 802.5

Ans. A

133. In wireless networking, the or hidden terminal problem occurs when a node is visible from a
wireless access point (AP), but not from other nodes communicating with said AP. This leads to difficulties in
media access control.

A. hidden node problem

B. congestion problem

C. visibility problem

D. None of the above

Ans. A

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134. In IEEE 802.11, is an optional access method that can be implemented in an infrastructre
network (not in an ad hoc network).

A. DCF

B. PCF

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

135. Which one of the following is not defined by IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN

A. Management frames

B. Control frames

C. Data frames

D. Administrative frames

Ans. D

136. Bluetooth is a technology designed to connect devices of different functions such as

telephones, notebooks, computers, cameras, printers, coffee makers, and so on.

A. Wireless LAN

B. Wired LAN

C. LAN

D. None of the above

Ans. A

137. Bluetooth is a low cost, low power, short range technology.

A. wireless communication

B. wired LAN

C. LAN

D. None of the above

Ans. A

138. Bluetooth network is called a .

A. piconet

B. Scatternet

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 C. extranet

D. None of the above

Ans. A

139. Piconet (bluetooth) can have up to stations, one of which is called the master (primary device);
the rest are called slaves (secondary devices).

A. 8 B. 7 C. 6 D. 5

Ans.8

140. Piconets can be combined to form what is called a .

A. piconet

B. Scatternet

C. extranet

D. None of the above

Ans. B

141. In Bluetooth, the layer is roughly equivalent to the physical layer of the Internet model.

A. radio

B. baseband

C. L2CAP

D. None of the above

Ans. A

142. In Bluetooth, the layer is roughly equivalent to the MAC sublayer in LANs.

A. radio

B. baseband

C. L2CAP

D. None of the above

Ans. B

143. In Bluetooth, the layer is roughly equivalent to the LLC sublayer in LANs.

A. radio

B. baseband

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 C. L2CAP

D. None of the above

Ans. C

144. The access method in Bluetooth is

A. FDMA

B. CDMA

C. TDD-TDMA

D. None of the above

Ans. C

145. In Bluetooth, the link is used when avoiding latency is more important than integrity.

A.SCO B. ACL C. ACO D. SCL

Ans. A

146. In Bluetooth, is used when data integrity is more important than avoiding latency.

A.SCO B. ACL C. ACO D. SCL

Ans.B

147. Usage of Bluetooth can be categorized as

A. Adhoc networking

B. Cable replacement

C. Access points for data and voice

D. All of the above

Ans. D

148. Both Bluetooth and Wi-Fi are used for providing wireless communication through radio signals. The
most distinction between Bluetooth and Wifi is that,

A. Bluetooth is actually accustomed connect short-range devices for sharing information whereas Wifi is used for
providing high-speed web access or internet.

B. both are same

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

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 149. Which one of the following is not a connecting device in internetworking.

A. Hub B. Repeater C. Bridge D. Conduit

Ans. D

150. All networks except those using co-axial cable require a central location to bring media segment
together. These central locations are called .

A. Hubs B. Repeaters C. Bridges D. Routers Ans.

151. A simply combines the signals of network segments. There is no signal regeneration.

A. Passive hubs

B. Active hubs

C. Intelligent hub

D. None of the above

Ans. A

152. is that regenerates or amplifies the signals.

A. Passive hubs

B. Active hubs

C. Intelligent hub

D. None of the above

Ans. B

153. regenerates the signal and performs some network management and intelligent path
selection.

A. Passive hubs

B. Active hubs

C. Intelligent hub

D. None of the above

Ans. C

154. Repeater operates in the .

A. Physical layer

B. Data link layer

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 C. Network layer

D. None of the above

Ans. A

155. Repeater recognizes address.

A. Data link layer

B. Network layer

C. Transport layer

D. Application layer

Ans. A

156. A receives a signal and before it becomes too weak or corrupted, regenerates the original
bit pattern. The repeater then sends the refreshed signal.

A. Hubs B. Repeaters C. Bridges D. Routers Ans.

157. The basic purpose of a is to extend the distance of LAN.

A. Hub B. Repeater C. Bridge D. Router

Ans. B

158. A does not amplify the signal; it regenerates the signal.

A. Repeater B. Hub C. Bridge D. Router

Ans. A

159. A station on a Token Ring LAN can act as a .

A. Hub B. Repeater C. Bridge D. (b) or (c)

Ans. D

160. Which one of the following is not a type of repeater?

A. Single port repeater & Multiport repeater B. Smart repeater C. Optical repeater D. Audio repeater Ans.

161. A Bridge operates in both .

A. Physical and Data link layer

B. Data link and Network layer

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 C. Network and Transport layer

D. Transport and Session

layer Ans. A

162. A extends the maximum distance of network by connecting separate network segment, and
simply passes on all the signals it receives. It reads the address of all the signal it receives.

A. Hub B. Repeater C. Bridge D. Router

Ans. C

163. A Bridge recognizes address.

A. Data link layer

B. Network layer

C. Transport layer

D. None of the above

Ans. A

164. A bridge performs the following functions.

A. Frame filtering and forwarding

B. Learning the address

C. Routing

D. All of the above

Ans. D

165. Which of the following functions that a bridge cannot perform are

A. Bridge cannot determine the most efficient path

B. Traffic management function

C. Both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. C

166. Switches operate at the layer of the OSI model.

A. Physical B. Data link C. Network D. Transport Ans.

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167. divide a network into several isolated channels or collision domains.

A. Repeaters B. Hubs C. Bridges D. Switches

Ans. D

168. A Router recognizes address.

A. Data link layer

B. Network layer

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. C

169. A is a three layer device that routes packets based on their logical addresses. It connects
two or more networks.

A. Repeater B. Hub C. Bridge D. Router

Ans. D

170. The key features of a is to determine the shortest path to destination.

A. Repeater B. Hub C. Bridge D. Router

Ans. D

171. A connects two independent networks. It is a protocol converter.

A. Repeater B. Hub C. Bridge D. Gateway

Ans. D

172. A Gateway recognizes address.

A. Data link layer

B. Network layer

C. Transport layer

D. Application layer

Ans. C

173. A gateway operates in of the OSI model.

A. physical layer B. data link layer C. network layer D. all seven layers

Ans. D

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174. Network Interface Cards (NIC) are also called .

A. Network adapter

B. Memory Cards

C. Expansion cards

D. None of the above

Ans. A

175. A is a hardware component without which a computer cannot be connected over a

network.

A. Network Interface Card (NIC)

B. Memory Cards

C. Expansion cards

D. None of the above

Ans. A

176. is a circuit board installed in a computer that provides a dedicated network connection to the
computer. It is also called network interface controller, network adapter or LAN adapter.

A. NIC

B. Memory Cards

C. Expansion cards

D. None of the above

Ans. A

177. Purpose of NIC are

A. NIC allows both wired and wireless communications.

B. NIC allows communications between computers connected via local area network (LAN) as
well as communications over large-scale network through Internet Protocol (IP).

C. NIC is both a physical layer and a data link layer device, i.e. it provides the necessary hardware circuitry so that
the physical layer processes and some data link layer processes can run on it.

D. All of the above

Ans. D

178. is a device which has a block of memory, reserved for storing incoming data until they are
processed.

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A. Memory card

B. Chip

C. Buffer

D. None of the above

Ans. C

179. In selective reject ARQ only, specific damaged or lost frame is transmitted.

A. Selective reject ARQ

B. ARQ

C. go-back N ARQ

D. Selective-Repeat ARQ

Ans. A

180. is a Local Area Network configured by software, not by physical wiring.

A. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)

B. Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)

C. Personal Area Network (PAN)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

Various LAN architectures are:

A. Ethernet

B. Token Bus & Token Ring

C. FDDI

D. All of the above

The types of Ethernet Networks are

A. Switched Ethernet

B. Fast Ethernet

C. Gigabit Ethernet

D. All of the above

Ans. D

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 Types of S-frames are

A. Receive Ready (RR), Receive Not Ready (RNR), Reject (REJ), Selective Reject (SREJ)

B. Receive Ready (RR), Receive Not Ready (RNR), Reject (REJ)

C. Receive Ready (RR), Receive Not Ready (RNR)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

Categories of U-frames are

A. Mode Setting, Unnumbered Exchange, Disconnection, Initialization Mode, Miscellaneous Mode

B. Mode Setting, Unnumbered Exchange, Disconnection, Initialization Mode

C. Mode Setting, Unnumbered Exchange, Disconnection

D. Mode Setting, Unnumbered Exchange

Ans. A

CS8591 Computer Networks - UNIT III Network Layer -

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)

CS8591 Computer Networks

UNIT III Network Layer

(Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ))

Network Layer Services – Packet switching – Performance – IPV4 Addresses

– Forwarding of IP Packets - Network Layer Protocols: IP, ICMP v4 –
Unicast Routing Algorithms – Protocols – Multicasting Basics – IPV6
Addressing – IPV6 Protocol.

1. The layer is responsible for the delivery of individual packets from source host to the
destination host.

A. Network B. Transport C. Physical D. Network Ans.

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2. Network layer services are

A. packetizing

B. routing

C. forwarding

D. All of the above

Ans. D

3. The process of encapsulating the data received from upper layers of the network (also called as payload) in
a network layer packet at the source and decapsulating the payload from the network layer packet at the
destination is known as .

A. packetizing

B. routing

C. forwarding

D. All of the above

Ans. A

4. Main responsibilities of network layer are

A. logical addressing

B. routing

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. C

5. Network layer functions are logical addressing and routing. In addition, other functions are

A. Datagram encapsulation

B. Fragmentation and reassembly

C. Error handling and diagnostics

D. All of the above

Ans. D

6. When a packet passes the network boundary, the network layer adds the addresses of the sender
and receiver.

A. logical

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 B. physical

C. port

D. None of the above

Ans. A

7. The IPv4 Addressing system is divided into classes of IP Addresses.

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

Ans. D

8. An IPv4 address is a address.

A. 16-bit B. 32-bit C. 64-bit D. 128-bit Ans.

9. Each Internet address consists of four bytes (32 bits), defining three fields:

A. class type

B. netid

C. hostid

D. All of the above

Ans. D

10. An is made of four bytes (32 bits) that define a host's connection to a network.

A. internet protocol address

B. physical address

C. port address

D. None of the above

Ans. A

11. In binary notation, IPv4 address has octets.

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

Ans. C

12. IPv4 uses 32-bit addresses, which means that the address space is

A. 2

B. 2

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C. 2

D. None of the above

Ans. A

13. In classful addressing, a large part of the available addresses were

A. Consumed

B. Reserved

C. Wasted

D. None of the above

Ans. C

14. In classful addressing, the whole address is divided into two parts that are

A. Netid and Hostid

B. Netid and packetid

C. Netid and frameid

D. None of the above

Ans. A

15. addresses were designed for large organizations with a large number of attached hosts or
routers.

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. None of the above

Ans. A

16. addresses were designed for midsize organizations with tens of thousands of attached hosts
or routers.

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. None of the above

Ans. B

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17. addresses are designed for small organizations to manage a small number of attached hosts or
routers.

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. None of the above

Ans. C

18. addresses are used for multicast services that allow a host to send information to a group of
hosts simultaneously.

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. Class D

Ans. D

19. addresses are reserved for future use.

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class D

D. class E

Ans. D

20. In network, the first byte is assigned to the network address and the remaining three bytes
used for the node address.

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. Class D

Ans. A

21. In network, the first two bytes are assigned to the network address and the remaining two
bytes used for the node address.

A. Class A

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 B. Class B

C. Class C

D. Class D

Ans. B

22. In network, the first three bytes are assigned to the network address and the remaining one
byte used for the node address.

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. Class D

Ans. C

23. Class A address range is

A. 0.0.0.0 to 127.255.255.255

B. 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255

C. 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255

D. 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255

Ans. A

24. Class B address range is

A. 0.0.0.0 to 127.255.255.255

B. 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255

C. 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255

D. 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255

Ans. B

25. Class C address range is

A. 0.0.0.0 to 127.255.255.255

B. 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255

C. 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255

D. 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255

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Ans. C

26. Class D address range is

A. 0.0.0.0 to 127.255.255.255

B. 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255

C. 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255

D. 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255

Ans. D

27. Class E address range is

A. 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255

B. 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255

C. 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255

D. 240.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.255

Ans. D

28. Class A addresses 127.0.0.0 to 127.255.255.255 cannot be used and is reserved

for loopback and diagnostic functions. These addresses are called addresses.

A. loopback

B. link-local

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

29. The loopback address is mainly used

A. to test the TCP/IP configuration of a host

B. by developers to test network applications.

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. C

30. The class of address 00000001 00001011 00001011 11101111 is

A. Class A

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B. Class C

C. Class B

D. Class E

Ans. A

31. The class of address 11000001 10000011 00011011 11111111 is

A. Class A

B. Class C

C. Class B

D. Class E

Ans. B

32. The class of address 10100111 11011011 10001011 01101111 is

A. Class A

B. Class C

C. Class B

D. Class E

Ans. C

33. The class of address 11110011 10011011 11111011 00001111 is

A. Class A

B. Class C

C. Class B

D. Class E

Ans. D

34. The class of address 227.12.14.87 is

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. Class D

Ans. D

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35. The class of address 193.14.56.22 is

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. Class D

Ans. C

36. The class of address 14.23.120.8 is

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. Class D

Ans. A

37. The class of address 252.5.15.111 is

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. Class E

Ans. D

38. Identify the class of 110.34.56.45

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. Class E

Ans. A

39. Identify the class of 127.1.1.1

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

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D. Loop back address

Ans. D

40. Identify the class of 212.208.63.23

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. Class E

Ans. C

41. Identify the class of 255.255.255.255

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. Broadcast address

Ans. D

42. In addressing, variable length blocks are assigned that belong to no class. The entire
address space is divided into blocks of different sizes. An organization is granted a block suitable for its
purposes.

A. Classful

B. Classless

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

43. Advantages of classless addressing over classful addressing are

A. Classful addressing does not send subnet information.

B. Efficient address-space allocation is available in classless addressing.

C. Memory is allocated in terms of bits and bytes rather than huge chunks of contiguous memory.

D. All of the above

Ans. D

44. Packets in the IPv4 layer are called .

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 A. datagrams

B. segments

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

45. is a networking term that defines the largest packet size that can be sent over a network
connection.

A. Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU)

B. Segment

C. Packet

D. Frame.

Ans. A

46. identifies a network with a range of Internet Protocol addresses in the Internet. It also allows
large networks to be divided into smaller networks, each with its own set of IP addresses.

A. subnetting a network

B. intranet

C. extranet

D. None of the above

Ans. A

47. The advantages of using subnetting are

A. reduced network traffic

B. Optimized network performance

C. Simplified network management

D. All of the above

Ans. D

48. Classless Inter Domain Routing (CIDR) is needed to resolve the following problems the Internet faced

A. Running out of IP addresses

B. Running out of capacity in the global routing tables

C. both (a) and (b)

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D. None of the above

Ans. C

49. CIDR provides the following solutions developed and adopted by the global Internet community

A. Restructuring IP address assignments to increase efficiency

B. Hierarchical routing aggregation to minimize route table entries

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. C

50. is a new addressing scheme for the Internet which allows for more efficient allocation of IP
addresses than the old Class A, B, and C address scheme.

A. CIDR

B. IPv6

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

51. For IPv4, is an alternative to the older system of representing networks by their
starting address and the subnet mask, both written in dot-decimal notation. 192.168.100.0/24 is equivalent to
192.168.100.0/255.255.255.0.

A. CIDR notation

B. IPv6

C. either (a) or (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

52. refers to the way a packet is delivered to the next node and it requires a host or router to have a
routing table.

A. Forwarding

B. routing

C. transferring

D. None of the above

Ans. A

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 53. Which of the following are forwarding techniques?

A. Next hop versus route method

B. Network specific versus host specific method

C. Default method

D. All of the above

Ans. D

54. In the , routing table stores only the address of the next hop and this method
reduces the content of routing table.

A. Next hop versus route method

B. Network specific versus host specific method

C. Default method

D. All of the above

Ans. A

55. In the , routing table contains only the address of the destination network and
this method reduces the routing table size.

A. Next hop versus route method

B. Network specific versus host specific method

C. Default method

D. All of the above

Ans. B

56. In the , host is connected with more than one routers and a router is assigned to receive
all packets with no match in the routing table. Default router is used for communication with outside world.

A. Next hop versus route method

B. Network specific versus host specific method

C. Default method

D. All of the above

Ans. C

57. The protocol is the transmission mechanism used by the TCP/IP suite.

A. IP B. ARP C. RARP D. ICMP

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Ans. A

58. is an Internet Protocol (IP) process that breaks packets into smaller pieces (fragments), so
that the resulting pieces can pass through a link with a smaller maximum transmission unit (MTU) than the
original packet size. The fragments are reassembled by the receiving host.

A. IP fragmentation

B. segmentation

C. framing

D. None of the above

Ans. A

59. The IP layer provides an , delivery system.

A. unreliable

B. connectionless

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. C

60. The reason why IP is unreliable is that

A. IP provides no error checking or tracking

B. not best delivery

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

61. Functions of the IP protocol are

A. Route IP data frames around an Internet.

B. Fragment the data into smaller units if it is greater than a given amount (64 Kb)

C. Report errors

D. All of the above

Ans. D

62. At the network layer (the internetwork layer), TCP/IP supports the Internetworking Protocol (IP) which,
in turn, uses the following Supporting protocols

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 A. ARP and RARP

B.ICMP

C. IGMP

D. All of the above

Ans. D

63. A protocol in the TCP/IP protocol suite that handles error and control messages is

A. IP B. ARP C. RARP D. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)

Ans. D

64. Which of the following are ICMP messages?

A. Error reporting

B. Query

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. C

65. ICMP has the header size of

A. 8 Bytes B. 10 Bytes C. 12 Bytes D. 16 Bytes

Ans. A

66. ICMP is the companion of

A. IP packet

B. IP protocol

C. IP frame

D. None of the above

Ans. B

67. A host may know its IP address, but it may not know the

A. Corresponding Mask

B. Corresponding Clock

C. Corresponding Data

D. Corresponding Protocol

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Ans. A

68 is used to find the physical address of the node when its Internet address is known.

A. IP B. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) C. RARP D. ICMP

Ans. B

69. allows a host to discover its Internet address when it knows only its physical
address.

A. IP B. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) C. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP) D. ICMP Ans.

70. is used to facilitate the simultaneous transmission of a message to a group of

recipients.

A. Internet Group Message Protocol (IGMP) B. ICMP C. ARP D. RARP Ans.

71. is a client/server protocol that configures a diskless computer or a computer that is booted
for the first time.

A. Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP) B. DHCP C. ICMP D. IGMP Ans.

72. BOOTP provides the

A. IP address

B. net mask

C. address of a default router and address of a name server

D. All of the above

Ans. D

73. does not provide temporary IP addressing.

A. Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP) B. DHCP C. ICMP D. IGMP Ans.

74. is a network management protocol used on Internet Protocol (IP) networks, whereby a
DHCP server dynamically assigns an IP address and other network configuration parameters to each device
on the network, so they can communicate with other IP networks.

A. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

B. BOOTP

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 C. ICMP

D. IGMP

Ans. A

75. provides a temporary IP address fro a limited period of time.

A. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) B. BOOTP C. ICMP D. IGMP

Ans. A

76. Bootp is , but DHCP is but it can also be static.

A. static, dynamic

B. dynamic, static

C. dynamic, dynamic

D. None of the above

Ans. A

77. is the act of moving information across an inter-network from a source to a

destination.

A. Routing

B. transferring

C. delivering

D. None of the above

Ans. A

78. Router maintains table which contains address of each destination where packets are to be sent.

A. routing

B. forwarding

C. transferring

D. None of the above

Ans. A

79. routing manually sets up the optimal paths between the source and the destination computers.

A. Static

B. Dynamic

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C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

80. routing uses dynamic protocols to update the routing table and to find the optimal path
between the source and the destination computers.

A. Static

B. Dynamic

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

81. means finding a suitable path for a packet from sender to destination and is the process
of sending the packet toward the destination based on routing information.

A. Routing, Forwarding

B. Routing, Transferring

C. Delivering, Transferring

D. None of the above

Ans. A

82. is group of networks and routers under the authority of a single administration.

A. Autonomous system (AS)

B. Individual system

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

83. Routers inside an autonomous system is referred to as .

A. interior routing (Intradomain)

B. exterior routing (interdomain)

C. AS

D. None of the above

Ans. A

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 84. Routers between autonomous systems is referred to as .

A. interior routing (Intradomain)

B. exterior routing (interdomain)

C. AS

D. None of the above

Ans. B

85. Intradomain routing protocols to handle routing inside the AS are

A. Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

C. both (a) and (b)

D. Border Gateway Protocol

Ans. C

86. Interdomain routing protocols to handle routing between ASs are

A. Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

C. both (a) and (b)

D. Border Gateway Protocol

Ans. D

87. Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is an implementation of the .

A. distance vector protocol

B. link state protocol

C. path vector protocol

d. None of the above

Ans. A

88. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is an implementation of the .

A. distance vector protocol

B. link state protocol

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 C. path vector protocol

d. None of the above

Ans. B

89. Border Gateway Protocol is an implementation of the .

A. distance vector protocol

B. link state protocol

C. path vector protocol

d. None of the above

Ans. C

90. The routing algorithm is sometimes called as Bellman-Ford algorithm

A. distance vector protocol

B. link state protocol

C. path vector protocol

d. None of the above

Ans. A

91. protocols rely on two mechanisms: reliable dissemination of link-state information, and
the calculation of routes from the sum of all the accumulated link-state knowledge.

A. distance vector protocol

B. link state protocol

C. path vector protocol

d. None of the above

Ans. A

92. is the process of making sure that all the nodes participating in the routing protocol get a
copy of the link-state information from all the other nodes.

A. Reliable flooding

B. OSPF

C. BGP

D. None of the above

Ans. A

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 93. Dijkstra's algorithm, SPF algorithm is an algorithm for finding the shortest paths
between nodes in a graph,

A. Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

C. both (a) and (b)

D. Border Gateway Protocol

Ans. B

94. Benefits of the OSPF are

A. Low traffic overhead

B. Support for complex address structures

C. Fast convergence and Good Security

D. All of the above

Ans. D

95. Both provider networks and end user sites are administratively

A. independent entities (Autonomous Systems - AS)

B. intradomains

C. interdomains

D. None of the above

Ans. A

96. An is a set of routers that are administratively configured to exchange link-state information with
each other.

A. Area B. AS C. Intradomain D. Interdomain

A6s. A

97. Special area-the backbone area is known as

A. area 0

B. area 1

C. area 2

D. None of the above

Ans. A

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98. A that is a member of both the backbone area and a nonbackbone area is an Area Border
Router (ABR).

A. router

B. switch

C. bridge

D. None of the above

Ans. A

99. When dividing a domain into areas, the network administrator makes a tradeoff between scalability and
optimality of routing.

A. scalability, optimality

B. scalability, inefficiency

C. unscalability

D. None of the above

Ans. A

100. are used to exchange routing information between ISPs, or in some cases between a customer's
AS and the provider's network.

A. Exterior Gateway Protocols (EGPs)

B. BGP

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

101. , version 4 is the most common EPG and is considered the Internet standard.

A. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)

B. AS

C. ABR

D. None of the above

Ans. A

102. Categories of Autonomous systems (AS) are

A. Stub AS

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B. Multihomed AS

C. Transit AS

D. All of the above

Ans. D

103. Goal of intra-domain routing are

A. Find optimal path between nodes

B. find any path to the intended destination that is loop free

C. Concerned with reachability that optimality

D. None of the above

Ans. A

104. Goal of inter-domain routing are

A. Find optimal path between nodes

B. find any path to the intended destination that is loop free

C. Concerned with reachability that optimality

D. both (b) and (c)

Ans. D

105. IPv6 is needed primarily due to the following

A. Deal with IP address space exhaustion

B. Even CIDR will be inadequate in future

C. Nowadays IP addresses are assigned not just to full blown computers but also mobile phones, televisions and
other household appliances.

D. All of the above

Ans. D

106. provides 128-bit address space, as opposed to the 32 bits of version 4.

A. IPv4

B. IPv6

C. physical address

D. None of the above

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Ans. B

107. IPv6 addresses are .

A. Classful

B. Classless

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

108. IPv6 has three types of addresses:

A. unicast, multicast and anycast

B. unicast, multicast and broadcast

C. multicast, anycast and broadcast

D. None of the above

Ans. A

109. Which of the following about Unicast address are correct?

A. Address of a single interface

B. Delivery to single interface

C. for one-to-one communication

D. All of the above

Ans. D

110. Which of the following about Multicast address are correct?

A. Address of a set of interfaces

B. Delivery to all interfaces in the set

C. for one-to-many communication

D. All of the above

Ans. D

111. Which of the following about Anycast address are correct?

A. Address of a set of interfaces

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 B. Delivery to a single interface in the set

C. for one-to-nearest communication

D. All of the above

Ans. D

112. IPv6 has no support for the address.

A. unicast B. multicast C. anycast D. broadcast

Ans. D

113. Which of the following are applications of multicasting?

A. Broadcasts of radio or video

B. Videoconferencing

C. Shared applications

D. All of the above

Ans. D

114. A node may be assigned an IPv4-compatible IPv6 address by zero-extending a 32-bit IPv4 address to 128
bits.

A. zero

B. one

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

115. IPv6 address 47CD:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:A456:0124 is written as:

A. 47CD::A456:0124

B. 47CD:A456:0124

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

116. When continuous 0s (zeros) are available in IPv6 address notaion then all zeros are replaced by .

A. ::

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B. :

C. ;

D. None of the above

Ans. A

117. When in hexadecimal notation of IPv6 all fields are 0, It is denoted by ::. (:: = 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:0). This
address is called

A. Unspecified address

B. Loopback address

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

118. When in hexadecimal notation of IPv6 all fields are 0 except the last field and last field value is 1, it is
denoted by ::1. (::1 = 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1). This address is called

A. Unspecified address

B. Loopback address

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

119. One goal of is to provide support for autoconfiguration, sometimes, referred to as

plug-and-play operation.

A. IPv6

B. IPv4

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

120. The longer address format in IPv6 helps to provide a useful, new form of autoconfiguration called
, which does not require a server.

A. stateless autoconfiguration

B. stateful autoconfiguration

C. both (a) and (b)

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D. None of the above

Ans. A

121. Compared with IPv4, IPv6 has the following advantages.

A. IPv6 supports autoconfiguration, and real time application.

B. It provides security at network layer.

C. Throughput and delay are less.

D. All of the above

Ans. D

122. Which of the following are correct about One-to-many multicast?

A. Source specific multicast (SSM)

B. Single sender, multiple receivers; a receiver host specify multicast group and a sender.

C. Examples: Radio stations, TV stations

D. All of the above

Ans. D

123. Which of the following are correct about Many-to-many model?

A. Any source multicast (ASM)

B. Some or all nodes can become sender

C. Examples: teleconferencing, online video games

D. All of the above

Ans. D

124. In IPv6, the protocol is .

A. Multicast Listener Discovery (MLD)

B. Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)

C. ICMP

D. None of the above

Ans. A

125. is used by IPv6 routers for discovering multicast listeners on a directly attached link,
much like Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) is used in IPv4. The protocol is embedded in
ICMPv6 instead of using a separate protocol.

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A. Multicast Listener Discovery (MLD)

B. Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)

C. ICMP

D. None of the above

Ans. A

126. Distance vector algorithm for unicast can be extended to support multicast. This protocol is called
which is a flood-and-prune protocol.

A. Distance-Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP)

B. RIP

C. BGP

D. None of the above

Ans. A

127. is used in dense multicast environment, such as a LAN.

A. Protocol Independent Multicast - Dense Mode (PIM-DM)

B. Protocol Independent Multicast - Sparse Mode (PIM-SM)

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

128. is a group-based tree routing protocol that has a rendezvous point (RP) as the source of tree.

A. Protocol Independent Multicast - Dense Mode (PIM-DM)

B. Protocol Independent Multicast - Sparse Mode (PIM-SM)

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

129. is used in a sparse multicast environment, such as a WAN.

A. Protocol Independent Multicast - Dense Mode (PIM-DM)

B. Protocol Independent Multicast - Sparse Mode (PIM-SM)

C. both (a) and (b)

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D. None of the above

Ans. B

130. Which of the following are the characteristics of datagram networks?

A. Host can send a packet anywhere at any time.

B. Each packet is forwarded independently

C. Link failure would not have any serious effect on communication if it is possible to find an alternate route around
the failure and update the forwarding table accordingly.

D. All of the above

Ans. D

131. enables a user to have a large set of addresses internally and one
address, or a small set of addresses, externally (public network). The traffic inside can use the larget set, the
traffic outside can use the small set.

A. Network Address Translation (NAT)

B. ARP

C. RARP

D. None of the above

Ans. A

Routing can be classified into the following types.

A. Adaptive Routing

B. Non Adaptive Routing

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. C

determines the life time of a packet.

A. Round Trip Time (RTT)

B. Time to Live (TTL)

C. Time out time

D. None of the above

Ans. B

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 is the process that extracts the address of the physical network from an IP address.

A. Masking

B. Network Address Translation (NAT)

C. Routing

D. None of the above

Ans. A

is a small packet containing routing information sent by a router to all other router in a link
state routing.

A. Link State Packet (LSP)

B. Segment

C. Datagram

D. None of the above

Ans. A

CS8591 Computer Networks - UNIT IV TRANSPORT LAYER

- - Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)

CS8591 Computer Networks

UNIT IV TRANSPORT
LAYER

(Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ))

Introduction – Transport Layer Protocols – Services – Port Numbers – User

Datagram Protocol – Transmission Control Protocol – SCTP.

1. Transport layer is the layer in OSI layered architecture.

A. First B. Second C. third D. fourth

Ans. D

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2. The layer is responsible for the delivery of a message from one process to
another.

A. physical B. network C. transport D. data link

Ans. C

3. The layer is lying between the network layer and session layer

A. physical B. network C. transport D. data link

Ans. C

4. The layer gets the entire message to the correct process on the destination systems by adding a
type of address called a service-point address (or port address).

A. physical B. network C. transport D. data link

Ans. C

5. Segmentation and reassembly are the functions (responsibilities) of layer.

A. physical B. network C. transport D. data link

Ans. C

6. Functions of Transport Layer are

A. End-to-end Delivery, Addressing

B. Reliable Delivery, Flow Control

C. Multiplexing

D. All of the above

Ans. D

7. Two basic types of transport services are

A. Connection services

B. Connectionless services

C. Both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. C

8. Aspects related to the reliable delivery of the data are

A. Error control, Sequence control, Loss control, Duplication control

B. Error control, Sequence control, Loss control

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 C. Sequence control, Loss control, Duplication control

D. Error control, Sequence control, Duplication control

Ans. A

9. The layer oversees the end-to-end (source-to-destination) delivery of an entire message.

A. physical B. network C. transport D. data link

Ans. C

10. The layer breaks messages into packets.

A. physical B. network C. transport D. data link

Ans. C

11. layer performs error control if the lower layers are not adequately error free.

A. physical B. network C. transport D. data link

Ans. C

12. layer performs flow control if flow control is not done adequately at the network layer.

A. physical B. network C. transport D. data link

Ans. C

13. Transport layer requires transport layer address called a for selecting multiple processes
running on the destination host.

A. physical address

B. logical address

C. port number (port address)

D. none of the above

Ans. C

14. In the Internet model, the port numbers are bits integers between 0 and 65,535.

A. 16 B. 32 C. 64 D. 128

Ans. A

15. The client program defines itself with a port number, chosen randomly by the transport layer software
running on the client host. This is the port number.

A. ephemeral

B. well-known

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C. either (a) or (b)

D. none of the above

Ans. A

16. Server define a port number but not randomly. Internet has decided to use universal port numbers for
servers, these are called port numbers.

A. ephemeral

B. well-known

C. either (a) or (b)

D. none of the above

Ans. B

17. Well-known port numbers ranging from are assigned and controlled by Internet Assigned
Number Authority (IANA).

A. 0 to 1023

B. 1024 to 49151

C. 49152 to 65535

D. none of the above

Ans. A

18. Registered port numbers ranging from are not assigned and controlled by IANA.(only
registered to prevent duplication)

A. 0 to 1023

B. 1024 to 49151

C. 49152 to 65535

D. none of the above

Ans. B

19. Ephemeral port numbers (Dynamic port numbers) ranging from are neither controlled nor
registered. (used by any process)

A. 0 to 1023

B. 1024 to 49151

C. 49152 to 65535

D. none of the above

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Ans. C

20. has Error Control, Sequence Control, Loss Control and Duplication Control.

A. Reliable delivery

B. unreliable delivery

C. either (a) or (b)

D. none of the above

Ans. A

21. In the transport layer, when transferring data, the primary goal of reliability is . Data must be
delivered to their destination exactly as they originated from the source.

A. Error Control

B. Sequence Control

C. Loss Control and Duplication Control

D. all of the above

Ans. A

22. When the size of the data unit received from the upper layer is too long for the network layer datagram
or data link frame to handle, the transport protocol divides it into smaller usable blocks called segments. This
process is called .

A. Segmentation

B. Concatenation

C. both (a) and (b)

D. none of the above

Ans. A

23. When the size of the data units belonging to a single session are so small, the transport protocol can fit
several data units together into a single datagram or frame. The combining process is called .

A. Segmentation

B. Concatenation

C. both (a) and (b)

D. none of the above

Ans. B

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 24. In transport layer, some segments may be lost in transit, sequence numbers allow the receiver’s transport
layer protocol to identify any missing segments and request redelivery. This is called .

A. Error Control

B. Sequence Control

C. Loss Control

D. Duplication Control

Ans. C

25. The transport layer functions must guarantee that no piece of data arrive at the receiving system
duplicated. This is called .

A. Error Control

B. Sequence Control

C. Loss Control

D. Duplication Control

Ans. D

26. In transport layer, is a mechanism which controls overwhelming of data.

A. Error Control

B. Flow Control

C. Loss Control

D. Duplication Control

Ans. B

27. is the process of combining multiple signals into one signal, over a shared medium.

A. Multiplexing

B. Demultiplexing

C. Synchronization

D. None of the above.

Ans. A

28. a process reconverting a signal containing multiple analog or digital signal streams back
into the original separate and unrelated signals.

A. Multiplexing

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 B. Demultiplexing

C. Synchronization

D. None of the above.

Ans. B

29. Basic techniques of multiplexing are:

A. Frequency Division Multiplexing

B. Time Division Multiplexing

C. Wave Division Multiplexing

D. All of the above

Ans. D

30. Which of the following is true about User Datagram Protocol (UDP)?

A. connectionless, unreliable TCP/IP transport layer protocol.

B. It provides process-to-to-process communication.

C. UDP has no error recovery procedures.

D. all of the above

Ans. D

31. Fields on which the UDP checksum is calculated are:

A. pseudoheader

B. UDP header

C. Data coming the application layer

D. All of the above

32. Applications of UDP are:

A. UDP is used for some route upding protocols such as RIP.

B. UDP is a convenient protocol for multimedia and multicasting applications.

C. It is suitable for a process with internal flow and error control mechanisms.

D. all of the above

33. UDP is preferred over TCP in the following applications

A. In multicasting

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 B. Route update protocol in RIP

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. C

34. Which of the following are true about Socket?

A. Socket is Communication end point.

B. It uses IP address and port number

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

35. In , packets are called user datagrams.

A. UDP

B. TCP

C. IP

D. none of the above

Ans.A

36. Datagrams have fixed-size header of bytes.

A.4 B.8 C.16 D.32

Ans. B

37. runs over UDP and it is a network protocol for delivering audio and video
over IP networks.

A. Real-time Transport Protocol (RTP)

B. TCP

C. IP

D. none of the above

Ans. A

38. Both UDP and are used in the transport layer.

A. Real-time Transport Protocol (RTP)

B. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

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C. IP

D. none of the above

Ans. B

39. TCP provides a .

A. connectionless, reliable, byte stream service

B. connection-oriented, unreliable, byte stream service

C. connection-oriented, reliable, byte stream service

D. none of the above

Ans. C

40. The Internet’s is probably the most widely used protocol of this type.

A. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

B. User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

C. either (a) or (b)

D. none of the above

Ans. A

41. provides a reliable end-to-end byte stream delivery over an unreliable internetwork.

A. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

B. User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

C. either (a) or (b)

D. none of the above

Ans. A

42. TCP uses mechanisms at the transport layer.

A. flow control and error control

B. flow control and access control

C. error control and access control

D. none of the above

Ans. A

43. TCP provides process-to-process communication using .

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A. logical addresses

B. physical addresses

C. port numbers

D. none of the above

Ans. C

44. is a stream-oriented protocol.

A. User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

B. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

C. either (a) or (b)

D. none of the above

Ans. B

45. TCP groups a number of bytes together into a packet called .

A. Segment

B. data unit

C. either (a) or (b)

D. none of the above

Ans. A

46. A packet in TCP is called a .

A. Segment

B. data unit

C. either (a) or (b)

D. none of the above

Ans. A

47. TCP Services include

A. Stream Delivery Service

B. Full-Duplex Communication

C. Connection-oriented Service & Reliable Service

D. all of the above

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Ans. D

48. TCP allows the sending process to deliver data as a stream of bytes and the receiving process to receive
data as a stream of bytes. This is .

A. Stream Delivery Service

B. Full-Duplex Communication

C. Connection-oriented Service & Reliable Service

D. all of the above

Ans. A

49. TCP offers , in which data can flow in both directions at the same time.

A. Stream Delivery Service

B. Full-Duplex Communication

C. Connection-oriented Service & Reliable Service

D. all of the above

Ans. B

50. TCP offers a , in which the two TCPs establish a connection between them,
data are exchange in both directions, and the connection is terminated.

A. Stream Delivery Service

B. Full-Duplex Communication

C. Connection-oriented Service

D. Reliable Service

Ans. C

51. Transport layer creates the connection between source and destination. Events involved in the connection
are:

A. Connection establishment

B. Data transfer

C. Connection release

D. All of the above

Ans. D

52. TCP provides a in which it uses an acknowledgment mechanism to check the safe and
sound arrival of data.

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A. Stream Delivery Service

B. Full-Duplex Communication

C. Connection-oriented Service

D. Reliable Service

Ans. D

53. The bytes of data being transferred in each connection are numbered by . The numbering
starts with a randomly generated number.

A. User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

B. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

C. either (a) or (b)

D. none of the above

Ans. B

54. Fields (expressed in bytes) in the numbering of bytes are

A. Sequence Number

B. Acknowledgment Number

C. both (a) and (b)

D. none of the above

Ans. C

55. After the bytes have been numbered, TCP assigns a sequence number to each segment that is being sent.
The for each segment is the number of the first byte carried in that segment.

A. Sequence Number

B. Acknowledgment Number

C. both (a) and (b)

D. none of the above

Ans. A

56. TCP packets can contain an which is the sequence number of the next byte the
sender expects to receive. The acknowledgement number is cumulative.

A. Sequence Number

B. Acknowledgment Number

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C. both (a) and (b)

D. none of the above

Ans. B

57. Suppose a TCP connection is transferring a file of 5000 bytes. The first byte is numbered 10001. What is
the sequence number for Segment 1 if data is sent in five segments, each carrying 1000 bytes?

A. 10,001

B. 11,001

C. 12,001

D. none of the above

58. In TCP, connection-oriented transmission require the following procedure(s).

A. Connection establishment

B. Connection termination

C. both (a) and (b)

D. either (a) or (b)

Ans. C

59. The algorithm used by TCP to establish and terminate a connection is called a .

A. three-way handshake

B. two-way handshake

C. four-way handshake

D. none of the above

Ans. A

60. To keep track of all the different events happening during connection establishment, connection
termination, and data transfer, TCP is specified as a .

A. Finite State Machine

B. Infinite State Machine

C. either (a) or (b)

D. none of the above

Ans. A

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61. A connection progresses through a series of states during its lifetime. The diagram showing the transition
of the these states is called .

A. State Transition Diagram

B. Finite State Machine

C. either (a) or (b)

D. none of the above

Ans. A

62. URG, ACK, PSH, RST, SYN and FIN are six flags in header

A. TCP

B. UDP

C. SCTP

D. None of the above

Ans. A

63. balances the rate a producer creates data with the rate a consumer can use the data.

A. flow control

B. error control

C. access control

D. none of the above

Ans. A

64. To accomplish flow control, TCP uses a protocol.

A. sliding window

B. silly window

C. either (a) or (b)

D. none of the above

65. A is used to make transmission more efficient as well as to control the flow of data so
that the destination does not become overwhelmed with data.

A. silly window

B. sliding window

C. either (a) or (b)

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 D. none of the above

Ans. B

66. TCP’s variant of the sliding window algorithm serves the following.

A. It guarantees the reliable delivery of data,

B. It ensures that data is delivered in order, and

C. It enforces flow control between the sender and the receiver.

D. all of the above

Ans. D

67. A serious problem can arise in the sliding window operation when the receiver is only able to accept a few
bytes at a time or when the sender transmits data in small segments repeatedly. This is called
syndrome.

A. sliding window

B. silly window

C. either (a) or (b)

D. B

Ans. B

68. TCP guarantees the delivery of data. So, it retransmits each segment if an ACK is not received
in a certain period of time.

A. reliable

B. prompt

C. unreliable

D. none of the above

Ans. A

69. In retransmission, TCP sets the timeout as a function of the , it expects between the two
ends of the connection.

A. Round Trip Time (RTT)

B. Time to Live (TTL)

C. either (a) or (b)

D. none of the above

Ans. A

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70. is a measure of the time it takes for a packet to travel from a computer, across a
network to another computer, and back.

A. Round Trip Time (RTT)

B. Time to Live (TTL)

C. either (a) or (b)

D. none of the above

Ans. A

71. To overcome the problem in calculating the RTT in today's world, TCP uses an
retransmission mechanism.

A. adaptive

B. incremental

C. additive

D. multiplicative

Ans. A

72. Whenever TCP retransmits a segment, it stops taking sample of the RTT it only measures sample RTT for
segments that have been sent only once. This solution is called .

A. Karn / Partridge Algorithm

B. Jacobson / Karels Algorithm

C. either (a) or (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

73. In algorithm, the sender measures a new sample RTT as before. It then folds
this new sample into the timeout calculation. This algorithm is used by any end-to-end protocol.

A. Karn / Partridge

B. Jacobson / Karels

C. either (a) or (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

74. refers to techniques and mechanisms that can either prevent congestion, before it happens,
or remove congestion, after it has happened.

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A. Access Control

B. Congestion Control

C. Flow Control

D. Error control

Ans. B

75. Congestion control are of the following types:

A. Open-loop congestion control (prevention)

B. Closed-loop congestion control (removal)

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. C

76. In congestion control, policies are applied to prevent congestion before it happens.

A. open-loop

B. closed-loop

C. either (a) or (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

77. In control, mechanisms are used to alleviate congestion after it happens.

A. open-loop

B. closed-loop

C. either (a) or (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

78. algorithm is a feedback control algorithm best known for its use in TCP
congestion control.

A. Additive-Increase/Multiplicative-Decrease (AIMD)

B. Slow Start

C. either (a) or (b)

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D. both (a) and (b)

Ans. A

79. In , TCP maintains a new state variable for each connection, called
Congestion Window, which is used by the source to limit how much data it is allowed to have in transit at a given
time.

A. Additive-Increase/Multiplicative-Decrease

B. Slow Start

C. either (a) or (b)

D. both (a) and (b)

Ans. A

80. TCP provides a mechanism, called , which is used to increase the congestion window rapidly
from a cold start. Slow start effectively increases the congestion window exponentially, rather than linearly.

A. Additive-Increase/Multiplicative-Decrease (AIMD)

B. Slow Start

C. either (a) or (b)

D. both (a) and (b)

Ans. B

81. When too many packets are rushing to a node or part of network, the network performance degrades,
and this situation is called as .

A. Collision

B. Congestion

C. trap

D. error

Ans. B

82. occurs because the switches in a network have a limited buffer size to store arrived packets
before and after processing.

A. Congestion

B. Collision

C. Jamming

D. None of the above

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Ans. A

83. The ways to handle congestion are:

A. Packet elimination

B. Flow control

C. Buffer allocation & Choke packets

D. All of the above

Ans. D

84. A scheme allows a network to operate in the region of low delay and high
throughput. It is a prevention mechanism.

A. Congestion control

B. Congestion avoidance

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

85. Congestion control is a whereas congestion avoidance is a .

A. recovery mechanism, prevention mechanism.

B. prevention mechanism, recovery mechanism

C. either (a) or (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

86. The first mechanism was developed for use on the Digital Network Architecture (DNA), a
connectionless network with a connection-oriented transport protocol. This technique is implemented in
routers to avoid congestion.

A. DECBit

B. Random Early Detection (RED)

C. TCP Vegas

D. None of the above

Ans. A

87. When too many packets are rushing to a node or part of network, the network performance degrades,
and this situation is called as .

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A. Collision

B. Congestion

C. trap

D. error

Ans. B

88. A scheme allows a network to operate in the region of low delay and high
throughput. It is a prevention mechanism.

A. Congestion control

B. Congestion avoidance

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

89. Congestion control is a whereas congestion avoidance is a .

A. recovery mechanism, prevention mechanism.

B. prevention mechanism, recovery mechanism

C. either (a) or (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

90. The first mechanism was developed for use on the Digital Network Architecture (DNA), a
connectionless network with a connection-oriented transport protocol. This technique is implemented in
routers to avoid congestion.

A. DECBit

B. Random Early Detection (RED)

C. TCP Vegas

D. None of the above

Ans. A

91. is a traffic shaping mechanism. In it, the input rate can vary but the output rate remains
constant. A technique called leaky bucket can smooth out bursty traffic.

A. Leaky bucket

B. DECBit

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C. RED

D. None of the above

Ans. A

92. The technique of back pressure refers to a congestion control mechanism in which a congested node stops
receiving data from the immediate upstream node or nodes.

A. backpressure

B. choke packet

C. implicit signaling

D. explicit signaling

Ans. A

93. A is a packet sent by a node to the source to inform it of congestion.

A. backpressure

B. choke packet

C. implicit signaling

D. explicit signaling

Ans. B

94. In , there is no communication between the congested node or nodes and the source. The
source guesses that there is a congestion somewhere in the network from other symptoms.

A. backpressure

B. choke packet

C. implicit signaling

D. explicit signaling

Ans. C

95. In the method, the signal is included in the packets that carry data.

A. backpressure

B. choke packet

C. implicit signaling

D. explicit signaling

Ans. D

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96. Which of the following are true about Stream Control Transmission Protocol (SCTP)?

A. SCTP is a message-oriented,

B. reliable protocol that combines the best features of UDP and TCP

C. transport layer protocol

D. All of the above

Ans. D

97. SCTP allows service in each association.

A. single stream

B. multistream

C. double stream

D. None of the above

Ans. B

98. SCTP association allows for each end.

A. only one IP address

B. multiple IP address

C. only two IP address

D. None of the above

Ans. B

99. In SCTP, a data chunk is numbered using .

A. a Transmisson Sequencce Number (TSN)

B. an SI

C. an SSN

D. None of the above

Ans. A

100. To distinguish between different data chunks belonging to the same stream, SCTP uses
.

A. TSNs

B. SIs

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C. Stream Sequence Numbers (SSNs)

D. None of the above

Ans. C

101. TCP has ; SCTP has

A. segment; packets

B. packets; segments

C. frames; segments

D. None of the above

Ans. A

102. The control information in SCTP is included in the .

A. header control field

B. data chunks

C. control chunks

D. none of the above

Ans. C

103. An SCTP packet can carry .

A. no data chunks

B. only one data chunk

C. several data chunks

D. None of the above

Ans. C

104. In SCTP, the acknowledgment number and window size are part of each .

A. Control chunk

B. data chunk

C. (a) or (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

105. There is no need for a header length field in SCTP because

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 A. the size of the header is fixed.

B. there are no options in the general header.

C. both (a) and (b)

D. none of the above

Ans. C

106. The checksum in SCTP is bits.

A. 8

B. 16

C. 32

D. 64

Ans. C

107. The association identifier in SCTP is .

A. a combination of logical address and port address

B. a unique verification tag

C. either (a) or (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

108. In STP, control information and data information are carried in chunks.

A. the same chunk

B. different chunks

C. either (a) or (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

109. In SCTP, acknowledgment numbers are used to acknowledge .

A. only data chunks

B. only control chunks

C. both data chunks and control chunks

D. None of the above

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Ans. A

110. In SCTP packet, control chunks come data chunks.

A. before

B. after

C. either (a) or (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

111. In SCTP, can be carried in a packet that carries an INIT chunk.

A. no other chunk

B. only control chunks

C. only data chunks)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

112. A connection in SCTP is called an .

A. transmission

B. negotiation

C. association

D. None of the above

Ans. C

113. Which of the following is/are true about Quality of Service (QoS)?

A. Quality of Service (QoS) is a set of technologies that work on a network to guarantee its ability to dependably
run high-.priority applications and traffic under limited network capacity.

B Measurements of concern to QoS are bandwidth (throughput), latency (delay), jitter (variance in latency), and error
rate.

C. Both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. C

114. The defines a set of attributes related to the performance of the connection.
For each connection, the user can request a particular attribute; each service class is associated with a set of
attributes.

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A. Quality of Service (QoS)

B. Stream service

C. None of the above

D. All of the above

Ans. A

115. The parameters/attributes of QoS are

A. Reliability

B. Bandwidth

C. Delay and Jitter

D. All of the above

Ans. D

116. The main goal of QoS is

A. to provide preferential treatment to an identified flow(s).

B. to increase delay

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

117. Main categories of QoS are

A. User-oriented

B. Network-oriented

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. C

118. Techniques used to improve QoS are

A. Scheduling, Traffic shaping, Admission control, Resource reservation

B. Scheduling, Traffic shaping, Admission control

C. Traffic shaping, Admission control, Resource reservation

D. Scheduling, Traffic shaping, Resource reservation

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Ans. A

119. Which of the following are true about delay and jitter?

A. Delay is the time it takes a packet to travel across the network from source to destination.

B. Jitter is the fluctuation of end-to-end delay from packet to the next packet.

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. C

120. Packets from different flows arrive at a switch or router for processing. The routers and switches have
queues (buffers) that hold the packets before and after processing. The scheduling method of processing the
packets waiting in a queue is called .

A. Waiting

B. Queuing

C. Flowing

D. None of the above

Ans. B

121. Types of queuing are

A. First In First Out queuing

B. Priority queuing

C. Weighted fair queuing

D. All of the above

Ans. D

122. on networks is an error-correction technique which can be used to correct data loss in
packets sent over networks. The way in which interleaving works can create latency issues (the time delay
between data being sent and data being received).

A. intruding

B. interleaving

C. mixing

D. None of the above

Ans. B

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 123. One of more synchronization bits are usually added to the beginning of each frame. These bits are called
.

A. framing bits

B. DECbit

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

CS8591 Computer Networks - UNIT V APPLICATION

LAYER - Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
CS8591 Computer Networks
UNIT V APPLICATION
LAYER

(Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ))

WWW and HTTP – FTP – Email –TELNET –SSH – DNS – SNMP.

1. Application layer is at the level of the OSI model.

A. bottom

B. top

C. middle

D. None of the above

Ans. B

2. The TCP/IP corresponds to the Session, Presentation, and Application layers of the OSI
model.

A. application layer

B. presentation layer

C. session layer

D. None of the above

Ans. A

3. The packet of information at the application layer is called

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A. Packet

B. Message

C. Segment

D. Frame

Ans. B

4. Which of the following is/are the important applications of the application layer?

A. Electronic mail

B. World Wide Web

C. USENET

D. All of the above

Ans. D

5. Which of the following is an application layer service?

A. Network virtual terminal

B. File transfer, access, and management

C. Mail service

D. All of the above

Ans. D

6. Application layer offers service.

A. End to end

B. Process to process

C. Both End to end and Process to process

D. None of the above

Ans. A

7. Which is not a application layer protocol?

A. HTTP

B. SMTP

C. FTP

D. TCP

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Ans. D

8. address is related to application layer.

BA. physical

B. logical

C. port

D. specific

Ans. D

9. Examples of specific addresses are

A. E-mail address

B. Uniform Resource Locator (URL)

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. C

10. Two of the most popular traditional applications are:

A .World Wide Web (WWW) and Electronic Mail (E-mail)

B. Domain Name System (DNS) and World Wide Web (WWW)

C. Electronic Mail (E-mail) and Domain Name System (DNS)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

11. SMTP and HTTP are ; Internet Explorer and Chrome are .

A. Application protocols; Application programs

B. Application programs; Application protocols

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

12. Which of the following is/are not application protocol(s)?

A. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)

B. Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

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C. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

D. User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

Ans. D

13. Which of the following is/are true?

A. The companion protocol specifies the format of data that can be exchanged.

B. SMTP, HTTP and SNMP have a companion protocol.

C. DNS does not have a companion protocl.

D. All of the above

Ans. D

14. The is the network of pages of images, texts and sounds on the Internet which can
be viewed using browser software .

A. World Wide Web (WWW)

B. HTTP

C. FTP

D. None of the above

Ans. A

15. The is a repository of information linked together from point all over the world.

A. Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

B. Hyper Text Markup Language (HTML)

C. World Wide Web (WWW)

D. None of the above

Ans. C

16. WWW has a unique combination of

A. flexibility

B. portability

C. user-friendly features

D. All of the above

Ans. D

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17. The WWW project was initiated by .

A. European Laboratory for Particle Physics (CERN)

B. IETF

C. IANA

D. None of the above

Ans. A

18. The today is a distributed client/server service, in which a client using a browser can
access a service using a server. However, the service provided is distributed over many locations called sites.

A. World Wide Web (WWW)

B. HTTP

C. FTP

D. None of the above

Ans. A

19. is a program, which is used to communicate with web server on the Internet.

A. HTTP

B. FTP

C. Web browser

D. None of the above

Ans. C

20. Each browser consists of parts.

A. two

B. three

C. four

D. None of the above

Ans. B

21. Each browser consists of the following.

A. controller

B. client protocol

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C` interpreter

D. All of the above Ans.

22. Match the following between column X and column Y

Column X Column Y

I. Controller 1. FTP, HTTP, TELNET, SMTP

II. Client 2. HTML, Java, JavaScript

Protocol

III. Interpreter 3. Receives input from input device and use the programs to access
the documents.

A. I,3; II, 1; III, 2

B. I,2; II,1, III,3

C. I,1; II,3, III,2

D. None of the above

Ans. A

23. The is a standard for specifying any kind of information on the Internet.

A. World Wide Web (WWW)

B. Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

C. Uniform Resource Locator (URL)

D. Hyper Text Markup Language

(HTML) Ans. C

24. The URL consists of the following parts:

A. protocol, host computer, port and path

B. protocol, host computer, port

C. host computer, port and path

D. None of the above

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Ans. A

25. The URL consists of parts.

A. two

B. three

C. four

D. five

Ans. C

26. In the URL, the is the client-server program which is used to retrieve the
document or file.

A. protocol

B. host

C. port

D. path

Ans. A

27. In the URL, the is the name of computer on which the information is located.

A. protocol

B. host

C. port

D. path

Ans. B

28. The URL can optionally contain the and it is separated from the host name by a colon.

A. protocol

B. host

C. port number

D. path

Ans. C

29. The documents in the WWW can be grouped into broad categories.

A. two

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B. three

C. four

D. five

Ans. B

30. The documents in the WWW can be grouped into the following categories

A. static and dynamic

B. dynamic and active

C. static, dynamic and active

D. None of the above

Ans. C

31. documents are fixed-content documents that are created and stored in a server. The
client can get only a copy of the document.

A. Static

B. Dynamic

C. Active

D. None of the above

Ans. A

32. is the language for documents designed to be displayed in a web browser.

A. Hyper Text Markup Language (HTML)

B. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

C. Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

33. A document is created by a Web server whenever a browser requests the document.

A. Static

B. Dynamic

C. Active

D. None of the above

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Ans. B

34. The is a technology that creates and handles dynamic documents.

A. Graphical User Interface (GUI)

B. Common Gateway Interface (CGI)

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

35. Dynamic documents are sometimes referred to as documents.

A. Server-site dynamic

B. Client-site dynamic

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

36. For many applications, we need a program or a script to be run at the client site. These are called
documents.

A. Static

B. Dynamic

C. Active

D. None of the above

Ans. C

37. is one of the ways to create active documents

A. Java applet

B. CGI

C. GUI

D. None of the above

Ans. A

38. Active documents are sometimes referred to as documents.

A. Server-site dynamic

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 B. Client-site dynamic

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

39. The is a protocol used mainly to access data on the World Wide Web. It functions as a
combination of FTP and SMTP.

A. Domain Name System (DNS) protocol

B. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP

C. Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

D. None of the above

Ans. C

40. HTTP uses the services of TCP on well-known port .

A. 70

B. 80

C. 60

D. 90

Ans. B

41. HTTP functions as a combination of and .

A. FTP; SMTP

B. FTP; SNMP

C. DNS; TFTP

D. None of the above

Ans. A

42. HTTP uses the services of .

A. TCP

B. UDP

C. SCTP

D. None of the above

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Ans. A

43. A protocol does not require the server to retain session information or status about each
communicating partner for the duration of multiple requests.

A. stateful

B. stateless

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

44. HTTP itself is a protocol.

A. stateful

B. stateless

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

45. A protocol that requires keeping of the internal state on the server is known as a protocol.

A. stateful

B. stateless

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

46. FTP and TELNET are protocols

A. stateful

B. stateless

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

47. In HTTP transaction, a request message consists of

A. a request line, a header, and sometimes a body.

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B. a status line, a header, and sometimes a body.

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

48. In HTTP transaction, a request message always contains

A. a request line and a header

B. a status line and a header

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

49. In HTTP transaction, a response message consists of

A. a request line, a header, and sometimes a body.

B. a status line, a header, and sometimes a body.

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

50. In HTTP transaction, a response message always contains

A. a request line and a header

B. a status line and a header

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

51. The first line in the request message is ; the first line in the response message is
.

A. status line; request line

B. request line; status line

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

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Ans. B

52. The most current version of HTTP is .

A. 0.9

B. 1.0

C. 1.1

D. None of the above

Ans. C

53. Match the following between the column ‘Method’ and the column ‘Action’.

Method Action

I. GET 1. Sends a document from the server to the client

II. POST 2. Requests a document from the server

III. PUT 3. Sends some information from the client to the server

IV HEAD 4. Requests information about a document but not the document

itself.

A. I,1; II,3; III,2, IV, 4

B. I,2; II,3; III,1; IV,4

C. I,3; II,1; III;2; IV,4

D. I,2; II,1; III,3; IV,4

Ans. B

54. In HTTP, the exchanges additional information between the client and the server.

A. Header

B. Request line

C. Status line

D. None of the above

Ans. A

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55. Which of the following is present in both an HTTP request line and a status line?

A. HTTP version number

B. status code

C. URL

D. None of the above

Ans. A

56. A request message can contain only

A. General, Request headers

B. General, Request and Entity headers

C. Request, and Entity headers

D. None of the above

Ans. B

57. A response message can contain only

A. General, Response, and Entity headers.

B. Response and Entity headers.

C. General and Request headers.

D. None of the above

Ans. A

58. In a connection, one TCP connection is made for each request/response.

A. persistent

B. nonpersistent

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

59. In a connection, the server leaves the connection open for more requests after
sending a response.

A. persistent

B. nonpersistent

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C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

60. HTTP version 1.1 specifies a connection by default.

A. persistent

B. nonpersistent

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

61. HTTP supports servers which are computers that keep copies of responses to recent requests.

A. parallel

B. Proxy

C. additional

D. None of the above

Ans. B

62. FTP stands for .

A. Fast Transfer Protocol

B. File Transfer Protocol

C. File Transit Protocol

D. None of the above

Ans. B

63. FTP uses the services of .

A. UDP

B. TCP

C. SCTP

D. None of the above

Ans. B

64. In FTP, a transaction may be of the following basic types:

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 A. request, response, transfer

B. request, response, transfer, terminate

C. response, transfer, terminate

D. None of the above

Ans. B

65. FTP establishes two connections between the hosts. One connection is used for , the other for
.

A. data transfer; control information

B. data transfer; management data

C. both (a) and(b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

66. FTP uses well-known TCP ports.

A. four

B. three

C. two

D. None of the above

Ans. C

67. The well-known port is used for the control connection and the well-known port for the data
connection.

A. 18; 17

B. 19; 18

C. 21; 20

D. 20; 19

Ans. C

68. FTP is built on architecture.

A. Client-server

B. P2P

C. Data centric

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D. Service oriented

Ans. A

69. In FTP, is the service type used by the IP protocol because this is an interactive connection
between a user (human) and a server.

A. minimize delay

B. Maximize throughput

C. minimize error

D. None of the above

Ans. A

70. For the control connection, FTP uses the character set.

A. EBCDIC

B. regular ASCII

C. NVT ASCII

D. None of the above

Ans. C

71. During an FTP session, the control connection is opened .

A. exactly twice

B. exactly once

C. as many times as necessary

D. None of the above

Ans. B

72. During an FTP session, the data connection is opend .

A. exactly twice

B. exactly once

C. as many times as necessary

D. None of the above

Ans. C

73. In FTP, a file can be organized into records, pages, or a stream of bytes. These are types of an attribute
called .

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A. data structures

B. file types

C. transmission modes

D. None of the above

Ans. A

74. In FTP, there are three types of : stream, block, and compressed

A. data structures

B. file types

C. transmission modes

D. None of the above

Ans. C

75. In FTP, ASCII, EBCDIC, and image define an attribute called .

A. data structures

B. file type

C. transmission modes

D. None of the above

Ans. B

76. In FTP, when we , it is copied from the server to the client.

A. retrieve a file

B. retrieve a list

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. C

77. In FTP, when we , it is copied from the client to the server.

A. retrieve a list

B. retrieve a file

C. Store a file

D. None of the above

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Ans. C

78. Identify the incorrect statement regarding FTP.

A. FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol

B. FTP uses two parallel TCP connections

C. FTP sends exactly one file over the data connection

D. FTP sends its control information in-band

Ans. D

79. If 5 files are transferred from server A to client B in the same session. The number of TCP connections
between A and B is

A. 5

B. 6

C. 2

D. 10

Ans. B

80. FTP server

A. maintains state information

B. is stateless

C. has single TCP connection for a file transfer

D. has UDP connection for file transfer

Ans. A

81. The commands, from client to server, and replies, from server to client, are sent across the control
connection in bit ASCII format.

a) 3

b) 5

c) 7

d) 8

Ans. C

82. Find the FTP reply whose message is wrongly matched.

A. 331 – Username OK, password required

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 B. 425 – Can’t open data connection

C. 452 – Error writing file

D. 452 – Cannot open data connection

Ans. D

83. The data transfer mode of FTP, in which all the fragmenting has to be done by TCP is

A. Stream mode

B. Block mode

C. Compressed mode

D. Message mode

Ans. A

84. The password is sent to the server using command

A. PASSWD

B. PASS

C. PASSWORD

D. PWORD

Ans. B

85. The major difference between FTP and HTTP is that FTP is a system (FTP can be used to
copy/move files from a server to a client as well as upload/transfer files from a client to a server). HTTP, on
the other hand, is strictly : "transferring files from the server to a client".

A. three-way; two-way

B. two-way; one-way

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

86. Which of the following is/are true about Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)?

A. TFTP is frequently used to allow diskless hosts to boot over the network.

B. TFTP is implemented by the TFTP client program and by the TFTP server program.

C. TFTP works on 69 Port number.

D. All of the above

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Ans. D

87. is a complete, session-oriented, general purpose file transfer protocol, and it can be used
interactively. is used as a bare-bones special purpose file transfer protocol, and it allows only
unidirectional transfer of files.

A. FTP; SCTP

B. FTP; TFTP

C. SNMP; TFTP

D. None of the above

Ans. B

88. are self-contained, modular, distributed, dynamic applications that can be described,
published, located or invoked over the network to create products, processes, and supply chains.

A. Web services

B. internet services

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

89. Which of the following is/are true about web services?

A. Web services are web application components.

B. Web services can be published, found and used on the web.

C. Web services are built on top of open standards such as TCP/IP, HTTP, Java, HTML, and XML.

D. All of the above

90. Web services are of two types. They are:

A. User centric and Application centric

B. Active and Static

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

91. Web services make full use of the following open standards

A. HTTP and Extensible Markup Language (XML),

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B. Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP), and Web Services Description Language (WSDL), and

C. Universal Description Discovery and Integration (UDDI).

D. All of the above

92. Benefits of using Web Services are:

A. Exposing the existing function onto network

B. Connecting different applications (interoperability)

C. Standardized Protocol and Low cost of communication

D. All of the above

Ans. D

93. The first component of an electronic mail system is

A. User Agent (UA)

B. Manager

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

94. provides service to the user to make the process of sending and receiving a message
easier.

A. An MTA

B. An MAA

C. A UA

D. None of the above

Ans. C

95. A is a software package (program) that composes, reads, replies to and forward messages. It
also handle mailboxes.

A. User Agent (UA)

B. Manager

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

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96. Services of a user agent are:

A. Composing messages

B. Reading messages & Replying to messages

C. Forwarding messages & Handling mailboxes

D. All of the above

Ans. D

97. Two types of user agents:

A. Command-driven and Graphical User Interface-based (GUI-based)

B. Command-driven and CGI

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

98. A user agent accepts a one-character command from the keyboard to perform its task.

A. Command-driven

B. GUI-based

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

99. Examples of command-driven user agents are

A. mail

B. pine

C. elm

D. All of the above

Ans. D

100. contain Graphical User Interface (GUI) components to interact with the software by using
the keyboard and the mouse. They have graphical components such as icons, menu bars, and windows that
make the services easy to access.

A. Command-driven

B. GUI-based

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C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

101. Examples of GUI-based user agents are

A. Eudora

B. Microsoft Outlook

C. Netscape.

D. All of the above

Ans. D

102. Email address consists of two parts: a and a , separated by an sign.

A. local part; domain name; @

B. local part; domain name; #

C. remote part; domain name; @

D. None of the above

Ans. A

103. is an Internet protocol used to send audio, video, programs, graphics and other
binary files.

A. RFC 822

B. Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (MIME)

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

104. specifies how to convert the non-ASCII data into ASCII allowing it to remain compatible
with existing email protocols.

A. RFC 822

B. Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (MIME)

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

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 105. MIME defines additional email header fields.

A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

Ans. C

106. Email header fields are:

A. MIME-Version

B. Content-Type, and Content-Transfer-Encoding

C. Content-ID, and Content-Description

D. All of the above

Ans. D

107. When the sender and the receiver of an email are on the same system, we need only .

A. one UA

B. two UAs

C. 3 UAs

D. None of the above

Ans. B

108. When the sender and the receiver of an email are on different systems, we need only .

A. one UA

B. two UAs

C. two UAs and one pair of MTAs (client and server)

D. None of the above

Ans. C

109. When the sender is connected to the mail server via a LAN or a WAN, we need .

A. two MTA

B. two UAs and two pairs of MTAs (client and server)

C. two UAs and one pair of MTAs

D. None of the above

Ans. B

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110. When both sender and receiver are connected to a mail server via a LAN or a WAN, we need
.

A. two UAs, two pairs of MTAs, and a pair of MAAs

B. two UAs, and two pairs of MTAs

C. two UAs, two pairs of MTAs, and two pairs of MAAs

D. None of the above

Ans. A

111. The actual mail transfer requires

A. UAs

B. Message Transfer Agents (MTAs)

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

112. The protocol that defines the MTA client and server in the Internet is called .

A. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

B. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)

C. Post Office Protocol (POP)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

113. SMTP is a protocol.

A. push

B. pull

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

114. SMTP commands are used.

A. 11

B. 12

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 C. 13

D. 14

Ans. D

115. The process of transferring a mail message occurs in phases.

A. two

B. three

C. four

D. five

Ans. B

116. The process of transferring a mail message occurs in the following phases.

A. Connection establishment, Mail transfer, and Connection termination

B. Connection establishment and Connection termination

C. Mail transfer

D. None of the above

Ans. A

117. Currently two message access protocols are available: and .

A. Post Office Protocol (POP) version 3; Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP4).

B. Post Office Protocol (POP) version 3; Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

118. Which of the following is/are true of POP3?

A. POP3 is simple and limited functionality & POP3 client is needed on user machine and POP3 server on the mail
server machine.

B. The client opens a connection to the server on TCP port 110.

C. It then sends its user name and password to access the mailbox. User can then access the email.

D. All of the above

Ans. D

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119. is more powerful and more complex than POP3.

A. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)

B. Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)

C. SMTP

D. None of the above

Ans. A

120. Which of the following can be doing by a user with use of IMAP?

A. A user can check the email header prior to downloading.

B. A user can search the contents of the email for a specific string of characters prior to downloading & a user can
partially download email

C. A user can create, delete, or rename mailboxes on the mail server; a user can create a hierarchy of mailboxes in a
folder for email storage.

D. All of the above

Ans. D

121. In the Web-based mail, mail transfer and retrieval requires

A. MTA

B. MAA

C. the use of HTTP

D. None of the above

Ans. C

122. TELNET is an abbreviation for .

A. telecommunication network

B. telephone network

C. terminal network

D. None of the above

Ans. C

123. allows you to connect and login to a remote computer

A. FTP

B. TELNET

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 C. HTTP

D. SMTP

Ans. B

124. TELNET is used for .

A. remote login

B. television on net

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

125. TELNET is a Client/server application program.

A. general-purpose

B. specific-purpose

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

126. TELNET uses only one TCP connection. The server uses port and the client uses
port.

A. a well-known; a registered

B. a well-known; an ephemeral

C. an ephemeral; a well-known

D. a registered; an ephemeral

Ans. B

127. The is software residing on the remote system that allows the remote system to
receive characters from a TELNET server.

A. pseudoterminal driver

B. terminal driver

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

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128. The translates local characters into NVT form.

A. TELNET server

B. TELNET client

C. terminal driver

D. None of the above

Ans. B

129. The translates NVT characters into a form acceptable by the remote operating system.

A. TELNET server

B. TELNET client

C. terminal driver

D. None of the above

Ans. A

130. Which of the following statements is correct for “character at a time” mode?

A. Most text typed is immediately sent to the remote host for processing

B. Character processing is done on the local system under the control of the remote system

C. All text is echoed locally, only completed lines are sent to the remote host

D. All text is processed locally, and only confirmed lines are sent to the remote

host Ans. A

131. What is the correct syntax to be written in the web browser to initiate a TELNET connection to
www.xyz.com?

A. TELNET//www.xyz.com

B. TELNET:www.xyz.com

C. TELNET www.xyz.com

D. TELNET://www.xyz.com

Ans. D

132. Which one of the following is not correct?

A. TELNET is a general purpose client-server program.

B. TELNET lets user access an application on a remote computer.

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 C. TELNET can be used for remote login.

D. TELNET can also be used for file transfer.

Ans. D

133. TELNET operates in three modes: , and .

A. default mode; character mode; line mode

B. default mode; character mode; transmission mode

C. character mode; line mode; transmission mode

D. None of the above

Ans. A

134. Which operating mode of TELNET is full duplex?

A. default mode

B. server mode

C. character mode

D. line mode

Ans. D

135. If we want that a character be interpreted by the client instead of server

A. control functions has to be disabled

B. it is not possible

C. cli character has to be used

D. interpret as command (IAC) escape character has to be

used Ans. D

136. If the sender wants to disable an option, it sends a command.

A. WILL

B. WONT

C. DO

D. DONT

Ans. B

137. If the sender wants to enable an option, it sends a command.

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 A. WILL

B. WONT

C. DO

D. DONT

Ans. A

138. If the sender wants an option disabled by the receiver, it sends a command.

A. WILL

B. WONT

C. DO

D. DONT

Ans. D

139. Secure Shell (SSH) network protocolis used for .

A. secure data communication

B. remote command-line login

C. remote command execution

D. All of the above

Ans. D

140. SSH can be used in only .

A. Unix-like operating systems

B. Windows

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. C

141. SSH uses to authenticate the remote computer.

A. private-key cryptography

B. public-key cryptography

C. either (a) or (b)

D. None of the above

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Ans. B

142. Which standard TCP port is assigned for contacting SSH servers?

A. port 20

B. port 21

C. port 22

D. port 23

Ans. C

143. Which one of the following protocol can be used for login to a shell on a remote host except SSH?

A. TELNET

B. rlogin

C. both TELNET and rlogin

D. None of the mentioned

Answer: C

144. Which one of the following is a file transfer protocol using SSH?

A. SFTP

B. SCP

C. Rsync

d) All of the above Ans:

145. SSH-2 does not contain

A. transport layer

B. user authentication layer

C. connection layer

D. physical layer

Answer: D

146. Which one of the following feature was present in SSH protocol, version 1?

A. password changing

B. periodic replacement of session keys

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C. support for public-key certificates

D. None of the above

Ans: D

147. Which one of the following feature was present in SSH-2 protocol, version 2?

A. password changing

B. periodic replacement of session keys

C. support for public-key certificates

D. All of the above

Ans: D

148. SCP protocol is evolved from over SSH.

A. DHCP protocol

B. MGCP protocol

C. GCP protocol

D. Rate Control Protocol (RCP)

Answer: D

149. Which one of the following authentication method is used by SSH?

A. host-based

B. public-key

C. password

D. All of the above

Ans. D

150. Which of the following is/are true about DNS?

A. DNS protocol runs over UDP and uses port 53.

B. DNS is specified in RFC 1034 and RFC 1035.

C. DNS is the application layer protocol.

D. All of the above

Ans. D

151. Domain Name System (DNS) is responsible for .

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A. DNS converts domain names (of the form www.xyz.com) into IP numbers

B. DNS is routing the packets.

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

152. If a label is terminated by a null string, it is called a which is a

domain name that contains the full name of a host.

A. Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN)

B. Partially Qualified Domain Name (PQDN)

C. Both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

153. Which of the following service(s) is/are provided by DNS?

A. Host aliasing

B. Mail server aliasing

C. Load distribution

D. All of the above

Ans. D

154. If a label is not terminated by a null string, it is called a .

A. Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN)

B. Partially Qualified Domain Name (PQDN)

C. Both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

155. A is a subtree of the domain name space.

A. zone

B. label

C. domain

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D. None of the above

Ans. C

156. Which of the following is/are true about zone?

A. In a zone, server has both responsibility and authority.

B. Domain and zone refers to the same thing, if a server accepts responsibility for a domain and does not divide the
domain into smaller domains.

C. If a server divides its domain into subdomains and delegates part of its authority to other servers, domain and
zone refer to different things.

D. All of the above

Ans. D

157. In the Internet, the DNS (tree) is divided into different sections.

A. two

B. three

C. four

D. five

Ans. B

158. Three sections of DNs in the internet are

A. Generic domains, Country domains and Inverse domains

B. Generic domains, Country domains and subdomains

C. Generic domains, Country domains and zone

D. None of the above

Ans. A

159. The define registered hosts according to their generic behavior. Each node in the tree
defines a domain, which is an index to the domain name space database.

A. Generic domains

B. country domains

C. inverse domains

D. None of the above

Ans. A

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160. The section uses two-character country abbreviations. Second labels can be
organizational, or they can be more specific, national designations.

A. Generic domains

B. country domains

C. inverse domains

D. None of the above

Ans. B

161. The is used to map an address to a name.

A. Generic domains

B. country domains

C. inverse domains

D. None of the above

Ans. C

162. A name space that maps each address to a unique name can be organized in the following ways:

A. Flat Name Space

B. Hierarchical Name Space

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. C

163. Which of the following is/are true about Flat name space?

A. In a flat name space, a name is assigned to an address.

B. A name in this space is a sequence of characters without structure.

C. The main disadvantage of a flat name space is that it cannot be used in a large system such as the Internet
because it must be centrally controlled to avoid ambiguity and duplication.

D. All of the above

164. Which of the following is/are true about Hierarchical name space?

A. In a hierarchical name space, each name is made of several parts.

B. The first part can define the nature of the organization, the second part can define the name of an organization,
and the third part can define departments in the organization, and so on.

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 C. The organization can add suffixes (or prefixes) to the name to define its host or resources.

D. All of the above

Ans. D

165. In DNS, the names are defined in an inverted-tree structure with the root at the top.

The tree can have only levels; level 0 (root) to level .

A. 128, 127

B. 127, 126

C. 126, 125

D. 125, 124

Ans. A

166. Each node in the tree has a label, which is a string with a maximum of characters.

The root label is a string.

A. 62, null

B. 63, null

C. 62, null

D. 64, null

Ans. B

167. If a zone consists of the full tree, then that zone server is called which do not maintain any
information about domains.

A. root server

B. primary server

C. secondary server

D. None of the above

Ans. A

168. A is a server that stores a file about the zone for which it is an authority. It is
responsible for creating, maintaining, and updating the zone file. It stores the zone file on a local disk.

A. root server

B. primary server

C. secondary server

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 D. None of the above

Ans. B

169. A is a server that transfers the complete information about a zone from another server
(primary or secondary) and stores the file on its local disk.It neither creates nor updates the zone files. If
updating is required, it must be done by the primary server, which sends the updated version to the
secondary.

A. root server

B. primary server

C. secondary server

D. None of the above

Ans. C

170. is a framework for managing devices in an internet using the TCP/IP

protocol suite.

It provides a set of fundamental operations for monitoring and maintaining an internet.

A. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)

B. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

C. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

171. Which of the following is/are true about SNMP?

A. SNMP uses the concept of manager and agent.

B. A manager (host) is used to control and monitor a set of agents (routers).

C. SNMP is an application-level protocol in which a few manager stations control a set of agents.

D. All of the above

Ans. D

172. SNMP defines the to be sent from a manager to an agent and vice versa.

A. number of packets received

B. number of packets forwarded

C. format of the packets

D. encoding of the packets

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Ans. C

173. A management station, called a manager, is a host that runs the SNMP program.

A. server

B. client

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

174. A managed station, called an agent, is a router (or a host) that runs the SNMP program.

A. server

B. client

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

175. Which of the following is/are basis for Management with SNMP?

A. A manager checks an agent by requesting information that reflect the behavior of the agent.

B. A manager forces an agent to perform a task by resetting values in the agent database.

C. An agent contributes to the management process by warning the manager of an unusual situation.

D. All of the above

Ans. D

176. To do management tasks, SNMP uses two other protocols: and

.

A. Structure of Management Information (SMI); Management Information Base (MIB)

B. Structure of Management Information (SMI); Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)

c. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP); Remote Procedure Call (RPC)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

177. defines the general rules for naming objects, defining object types (including range and
length), and showing how to encode objects and values.

A. SMI

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B. MIB

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

178. creates a collection of named objects, their types, and their relationships to each other in an
entity to be managed.

A. SMI

B. MIB

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

179. Functions of SMIv2 are:

A. To name objects

B. To define the type of data that can be stored in an object.

C. To show how to encode data for transmission over the network.

D. All of the above

Ans. D

180. SMI emphasizes three attributes to handle an object: , , and .

A. name; data type; encoding method

B. name; data type; size

C. name; size; encoding method

D. None of the above

Ans. A

181. SMI has two broad categories of data type: and .

A. Simple; complex

B. Simple; Structured

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

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Ans. B

182. The data types are atomic data types.

A. structure

B. simple

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

183. SMI defines two structured data types: and .

A. sequence; order

B. sequence and sequence of

C. complex; sequence

D. None of the above

Ans. B

184. SMI uses to encode data to be transmitted over the network.

A. Basic Encoding Rules (BER)

B. MIB

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. A

185. The objects in MIB2 are categorized under different groups.

A. 9

B. 10

C. 11

D. 12

Ans. B

186. SNMP is an application program that allows the following.

A. A manager to retrieve the value of an object defined in an agent.

B. A manager to store a value in an object defined in an agent.

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 C. An agent to send an alarm message about an abnormal situation to the manager.

D. All of the above

Ans. D

187. SNMPv3 defines types of packets (or PDUs).

A. 7

B. 8

C. 9

D. 10

Ans. B

188. SNMP PDU has fields: PDU type, Request ID, , and .

A. Error status

B. Error index

C. VarBind list

D. All of the above

Ans. D

189. SNMP does not send only a PDU; it embeds the PDU in a .

A. packet

B. message

C. segment

D. None of the above

Ans. B

190. A message in is made of four elements: Version, Header, Security parameters and Data.

A. SNMPv3

B. SMTP

C. TFTP

D. None of the above

Ans. A

191. SNMP uses the services of .

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 A. TCP

B. UDP

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans. B

192. The well-known port is used by the server (agent) whereas the well-known port is used by
the client (manager).

A. 162;163

B. 161;162

C. 163;164

D. 160;161

Ans. B

193. The GetRequest PDU is sent from the to the retrieve the value of a variable or a
set of variables.

A. client; server

B. server; client

C. client; network

D. None of the abve

Ans. A

194. The response PDU is sent from the to the to report an event.

A. client; server

B. server; client

C. client; network

D. None of the abve

Ans. B

195. INTEGER, OCTET STRING, and ObjectIdentifier are definitions used by SMI.

A. ASN.1

B. MIB

C. SNMP

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 D. None of the above

Ans. A

196. Which of the following could be a legitimate MIB object identifier?

A. 1.3.6.1.2.1.1

B. 1.3.6.1.2.2.1

C. 2.3.6.1.2.1.2

D. 3.3.6.1.2.1.2

Ans. A

197. Which is a manager duty?

A. Retrieve the value of an object defined in an agent

B. Store the value of an object defiend in an agent

C. both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Ans.D

198. For a 1-byte length field, what is the maximum value for the data length?

A. 127

B. 128

C. 255

D. None of the above

Ans.127

199. An object id defines a . Add a zero suffix to define the .

A. variable; table

B. table; variable

C. variable; variable contents

D. None of the above

Ans. C

200. An SNMP agent can send messages.

A. GetRequest

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B. SetRequest

C. Trap

D. None of the above

Ans. C

201. An SNMP agent can send messages.

A. Response

B. GetRequest

C. SetRequest

D. None of the above

Ans. A

202. The field in the SNMP PDU is an offset that points to the variable in error.

A. community

B. enterprise

C. error index

D. None of the above

Ans. C

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