JEE Advanced 2025 Sample Paper – Set 4

Max. Marks: 180 Time Allowed: 3 hours

General Instructions:

• The paper will consist of 51 questions, with each subject (Physics, Chemistry, and
Mathematics) containing 17 questions.

• Each subject can earn a maximum of 60 marks. Subjects are divided into four sections,
as follows:

• Section I: Maximum marks - 12

• Section II: Maximum marks - 12

• Section III: Maximum marks - 24

• Section IV: Maximum marks - 12

• Answer all questions. Negative marking applies for incorrect answers in some sections.

• Each section contains multiple types of questions, including MCQs, NATs, and
matching-type questions.

• The questions are divided into four sections for each subject.

www.vedantu.com 1
Q. No. Questions Marks

Physics

Section A

1. A train moves with uniform velocity on a straight track. Which of the

following statements is correct regarding the net force on the train?

a) It increases linearly with time.

b) It is zero.

c) It is equal to the frictional force.

d) It remains constant but nonzero.

2. A laser beam of wavelength  in air enters a medium of refractive

index n . The new wavelength of the laser beam in the medium is:

a) n

b)  / n

c) 

d) n

3. A circuit has a capacitor and resistor in series across a DC source.

Immediately after switching on, the voltage across the resistor is:

a) zero

www.vedantu.com 2
 b) equal to the source voltage

c) equal to half the source voltage

d) infinite

4. A body executes simple harmonic motion (SHM) with amplitude A .

At what displacement from the mean position is the kinetic energy
equal to the potential energy?

a) x = 0

A
b) x = 
2

A
c) x = 
2

A
d) x = 
3

Section B

5. For a projectile launched from ground level, which of the following

statements can be correct?

a) At the topmost point, the velocity is entirely vertical.

b) The horizontal range is maximum when the launch angle is 45 .

c) Total time of flight is proportional to the sine of the launch angle.

d) The maximum height achieved depends on the square of the initial

vertical velocity.

www.vedantu.com 3
6. Which of the following statements are true about the photoelectric
effect?

a) There is a threshold frequency below which no photoelectrons are

emitted.

b) The kinetic energy of emitted electrons depends on the intensity of

incident light.

c) The number of emitted photoelectrons depends on the intensity of

light.

d) The stopping potential increases with the frequency of the incident

light.

7. In a series LCR circuit driven by an AC source:

a) The current is in phase with the voltage at resonance.

b) The circuit impedance is minimum at resonance.

c) Increasing the resistance R does not change the resonant frequency.

d) The voltage across the inductor always equals the voltage across the
capacitor.

Section C

8. A block of mass 2kg rests on a horizontal frictionless surface and is

attached to a spring of spring constant k = 200N/m . The block is
displaced by 5cm from equilibrium and released from rest. Find the
angular frequency  of this motion (in rad/s ), as an integer.

www.vedantu.com 4
9. A magnet is moved towards a coil at a constant speed, inducing an emf
of 4V . If the speed is doubled, assuming all other conditions remain
the same, the induced emf (in volts) is

10. A uniform rope 2m long has a mass of 0.30kg . It is under a tension

of 36N . Calculate the speed of a transverse wave in m/s (enter
integer).

11. A car accelerates from rest to 20m/s in 10s . Assuming constant

acceleration, find the distance covered (in m). (Enter integer.)

12. Two resistors 6 and 3 are connected in parallel. The effective

resistance _____ .

13. A satellite orbiting the Earth has an orbital speed of 6km/s . Convert
this to m/s (integer).

Section D

14. A copper wire is stretched so that its length becomes double and
radius is halved. The new resistance compared to the old one is:

a) the same

b) 4 times

c) 8 times

d) 16 times

www.vedantu.com 5
15. If two waves of the same amplitude and frequency interfere
destructively, the resultant amplitude is:

a) Zero

b) Twice the original amplitude

c) Half the original amplitude

d) 1.414 times the original amplitude

16. A Carnot engine operates between two temperatures TH and TL . Its

efficiency is:

TL
a) 1 −
TH

TH
b)
TL

TL
c)
TH

TH
d) 1 −
TL

17. A bullet of mass m moving with velocity v strikes a stationary

wooden block and gets embedded in it. If the mass of the block is M ,
the combined system's velocity immediately after impact is:

mv
a)
m+M

www.vedantu.com 6
 (m + M )v
b)
m

m+M
c)
mv

m
d) v2 .
m+M

Chemistry

Section A

1. The oxidation state of chlorine in Cl2O7 is:

a) +1

b) +3

c) +5

d) +7

2. The rate constant of a zero-order reaction has the unit:

a) mol L−1 s−1

b) s −1

c) mol−1 Ls−1

d) no units

www.vedantu.com 7
3. Which of the following is a synthetic polymer?

a) Cellulose

b) PVC

c) Starch

d) Proteins

4. Which of the following statements is correct about an exothermic

reaction?

a) H is positive and heat is absorbed.

b) H is negative and heat is evolved.

c) H is zero.

d) S must be negative.

Section B

5 Which of these are characteristic properties of a reversible reaction?

a) The system is in equilibrium at all stages.

b) It occurs infinitely slowly.

c) The pressure volume work is minimum.

d) The process can be reversed by infinitesimal changes.

6. Which of the following statements about the halogens are true?

www.vedantu.com 8
 a) F 2 is the strongest oxidising agent.

b) I 2 is the most electronegative.

c) Bond dissociation energy of F 2 is the highest among halogens.

d) Cl 2 is used in water treatment due to its disinfectant properties.

7. In the electrochemical series:

a) A higher reduction potential means a stronger oxidising agent.

b) Li has one of the lowest standard reduction potentials.

c) Hydrogen is arbitrarily assigned 1.0 V.

d) The electrode with the higher potential is always the cathode in a

galvanic cell.

Section C

8. If 1.0 g of H2O is decomposed into hydrogen and oxygen gas

(ignoring any losses), how many grams of H2 are formed? (O=16,
H=1)

9. A 0.1 M solution of a weak acid HA has a pH of 3.0. Calculate [A − ]

in mol L−1 (enter power-of-ten form if needed).

10. pH = 8.0 . The [OH− ] in mol L−1 is ______ (give approximate power-
of-ten).

www.vedantu.com 9
11. For the reaction C2 H4 + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 2H2O , how many moles of
CO2 form if 4 moles of C2 H 4 fully react?

12. A certain sample of CuSO4  5H2O (molar mass = 250g/mol approx)

has 1.25 moles. Find the mass of this sample in grams (integer).

13. When 22 g of CO2 are dissolved in water, how many moles of CO2 is
that? (Molar mass of CO2 = 44g/mol ).

Section D

14. A solution with pH = 7 at 25 C is:

a) acidic

b) basic

c) neutral

d) supersaturated

15. For a galvanic cell, which statement is correct?

a) Oxidation occurs at the cathode.

b) Reduction occurs at the cathode.

c) The electron flow is from cathode to anode through the external

circuit.

d) The cell potential is zero at all times.

www.vedantu.com 10
16 Which of the following is not an alloy?

a) Brass

b) Steel

c) Bronze

d) Diamond

17. Consider the reaction N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 . If 1 mole of N2 reacts

completely with 3 moles of H2 , the total number of moles of gas after
reaction is:

a) 4

b) 2

c) 3

d) 1

Maths

Section A

1. The function f ( x) = x2 − 5x + 6 can be factored as:

a) ( x − 2)( x − 3)

b) ( x + 2)( x + 3)

c) ( x + 2)( x − 3)

www.vedantu.com 11
 d) ( x − 1)( x − 6)

2 If f ( x) = sin( x) , then f ( x ) is:

a) sin( x)

b) cos( x)

c) tan( x)

d) − sin( x)

3 A line passing through (0, 0) with slope 2 has equation:

a) y = 2 x

b) x = 2 y

c) y = x + 2

x y
d) + =1
2 1

4 Which of the following angles is reflex?

a) 135

b) 95

c) 180

d) 270

www.vedantu.com 12
 Section B

5 Which of the following are valid solutions for cos x = 0 ?


a) x = + 2 k
2


b) x =
3

3
c) x = + 2 k
2

d) x = 2

6 Which of the following statements about an arithmetic progression

(AP) are correct?

a) The difference between consecutive terms is constant.

n
b) The sum of n terms can be written as [2a + (n − 1)d ] .
2

c) Each term is formed by multiplying the previous term by a

common ratio.

d) If the first term is 3 and the common difference is 2, the 4th term is
9.

7 Consider a triangle with sides a,b,c Which of the following must be

true?

a) a  b + c

www.vedantu.com 13
 b) b  a + c

c) c  a + b

d) a + b + c = 2s , where s is the semiperimeter.

Section C

8 3
Evaluate k
k =1
2
. (Integer)

9 The slope of the line 3x + 2 y = 6 is (integer or fraction).

10 If a rectangle has perimeter 14 and one side is 5, find the other side
(integer or fraction).

11

2
Evaluate 2xdx . (Integer)
0

12 A right triangle has legs 9 and 12. Compute its hypotenuse (integer).

13 Expand ( x + 2)2 . The coefficient of x is .

Section D

14 The domain of x − 1 is:

a) x  1

b) x  1

www.vedantu.com 14
 c) −  x  

d) −  x  1

15 If f ( x) = ln x for x  0 , its derivative is:

1
a)
x

b) ln( x)

1
c)
2x

d) ln(ln x)

16 The solutions of x 2 − 4 = 0 are:

a) x = 4

b) x = 0

c) x = 2

d) x = 2

17 If tan  = 1 , then  = ___ :


a)
2


b)
4

www.vedantu.com 15
c) 0

d) 

www.vedantu.com 16
 Answer Key

PHYSICs

Section 1: Single Correct Choice (Q1--Q4)

Q1. Answer: b)

Solution: A train moving with uniform velocity on a straight track has no net acceleration, so
the net force on it is zero.

Q2. Answer: b)

Solution: When light of wavelength  enters a medium of refractive index n , its wavelength
becomes  / n . (Frequency remains the same, speed and wavelength change.)

Q3. Answer: b)

Solution: Immediately after connecting a DC source to an RC series circuit, the uncharged

capacitor has zero voltage, so the resistor sees the full source voltage initially.

Q4. Answer: c)

Solution: In simple harmonic motion, kinetic energy K equals potential energy U when
x 2 = A2 / 2 , i.e. | x |= A / 2 .

Section 2: Multiple Correct Choice (Q5--Q7)

www.vedantu.com 17
Q5. Answers: b), c), d)

Solution Outline:

The velocity at the topmost point of a ground-launched projectile is purely horizontal, so (a)
is false.

The horizontal range is maximum at a 45 launch angle (b) is true.

The total time of flight T  sin( ) (c) is true.

The maximum height  (v0 sin  )2 , so (d) is true.

Q6. Answers: a), c), d)

Solution Outline:

There is a threshold frequency below which photoelectrons are not emitted (a) true.

Kinetic energy of electrons depends on frequency, not intensity, so (b) is false.

The number of emitted electrons depends on intensity (c) is true.

Stopping potential increases with the light frequency (d) is true.

Q7. Answers: a), b), c)

Solution Outline: In a series LCR circuit:

At resonance, current is in phase with voltage (a) true.

Impedance is minimum at resonance (b) true.

www.vedantu.com 18
 Resonant frequency depends on L and C , not on R , so increasing R does not change the
resonant frequency (c) true.

The inductor voltage equals the capacitor voltage at resonance, but the statement ``always
equals'' can be misleading. Typically, we consider them equal and out of phase at resonance.
Overall, the first three are correct.

Section 3: Integer-Answer/Numerical Type (Q8--Q13)

Q8. Answer: 10

Solution: For a mass-spring system,  = k / m = 200 / 2 = 100 = 10rad/s.

Q9. Answer: 8

Solution: Induced emf in a coil is proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux.
Doubling the magnet's speed doubles the induced emf, so from 4 V to 8 V.

Q10. Answer: 15

Solution:

0.30kg
Linear mass density  = = 0.15kg/m .
2m

T 36
Wave speed v = = = 240  15m/s.
 0.15

www.vedantu.com 19
Q11. Answer: 100

Solution: Accelerating from rest ( u = 0 ) to v = 20m/s in t = 10s . Average speed is 10m/s .

Distance = avg speed  t = 10 10 = 100m.

Q12. Answer: 2

1 1 1 1 2 3 1
Solution: Two resistors 6 and 3 in parallel give = + = + = = . Hence
Reff 6 3 6 6 6 2
Reff = 2.

Q13. Answer: 6000

Solution: Converting 6km/s to m/s : 6km/s = 6000m/s.

Section 4: Single Correct Choice (Q14--Q17)

Q14. Answer: c) 8 times

L
Solution: Resistance R  . Doubling length L → 2L multiplies by 2; halving the radius
A
means the area is quartered, so the net factor is 2  4 = 8.

www.vedantu.com 20
Q15. Answer: a) zero

Solution: Destructive interference for waves of same amplitude and frequency leads to net
amplitude 0.

Q16. Answer: a) 1 − TT L
H

TL
Solution: Carnot efficiency  = 1 − .
TH

Q17. Answer: a) mv
m+ M

Solution: By conservation of linear momentum, final speed after a completely inelastic

mv
collision is .
m+M

CHEMISTRY

Section 1: Single Correct Choice (Q1--Q4)

Q1. Answer: d) +7

Solution: In Cl2O7 , each O is typically -2, total -14. The molecule is neutral, so for 2
chlorines, overall +14. Hence each chlorine is +7.

www.vedantu.com 21
Q2. Answer: a) mol L−1 s−1

Solution: A zero-order reaction rate is Rate = k (constant), so units are concentration/time,

i.e. mol L−1 s−1 .

Q3. Answer: b) PVC

Solution: Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) is a synthetic polymer; cellulose, starch, proteins are
natural.

Q4. Answer: b) H  0 and heat is evolved.

Solution: An exothermic reaction releases heat, implying negative enthalpy change.

Section 2: Multiple Correct Choice (Q5--Q7)

Q5. Answers: a), b), d)

Solution Outline: A reversible reaction/process:

is in equilibrium at every stage (a) true,

occurs infinitely slowly (b) true,

maximum (not minimum) pV-work is done in a reversible expansion, so (c) is false,

can be reversed by infinitesimal changes (d) true.

www.vedantu.com 22
Q6. Answers: a), d)

Solution:

F2 is the strongest oxidising agent among halogens (a) true.

I 2 is not the most electronegative (b) false.

F2 actually has an unusually low bond dissociation energy due to electron repulsion in a very
small molecule (c) false.

Cl2 is indeed used for water disinfection (d) true.

Q7. Answers: a), b), d)

Solution: In the electrochemical series,

A higher reduction potential means a stronger oxidising agent (a) true.

Lithium has among the lowest standard reduction potentials (b) true.

Hydrogen electrode is assigned 0.00,V, not 1.0,V (c) is false.

In a galvanic cell, the electrode with higher potential is the cathode (d) true.

Section 3: Integer-Answer/Numerical Type (Q8--Q13)

Q8. (Decomposition of 1.0 g H 2 O)

Answer: 0.11g approx

www.vedantu.com 23
Solution: Water has a ratio of 2g H to 16g O in 18g total. Hence 1g H 2 O contains 2
18 = 0.111g
of H 2 .

Q9. Answer: 110−3 M

Solution: pH=3  [ H + ] = 10−3 . For a weak acid HA with pH=3, often [ A − ]=[ H + ]= 10−3 M if
the acid partially dissociates and the main assumption is [H+ ]  [A− ] .

Q10. Answer: 110−6

Solution: pH=8  pOH=6  [ OH − ] = 10−6 M .

Q11. 8

Solution: For C2 H4 + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 2H2O , 1 mole of C2 H 4 yields 2 moles CO2 . Hence 4
moles C2 H 4 yield 8 moles CO2 .

Q12. Answer: 313

Solution: 1.25 moles of CuSO4  5H2O (approx 250g/mol) has a mass of

1.25  250 = 312.5g  313g .

www.vedantu.com 24
Q13. Answer: 0.5

22
Solution: 22g CO2 at 44g/mol is = 0.5 moles.
44

Section 4: Single Correct Choice (Q14--Q17)

Q14. Answer: c) neutral

Solution: pH=7 at 25  C is neutral.

Q15. Answer: b) Reduction occurs at the cathode

Solution: In a galvanic cell, oxidation is at the anode, reduction at the cathode, and electrons
flow from anode to cathode externally.

Q16. Answer: d) diamond

Solution: Diamond is a pure form of carbon, not an alloy. Brass, steel, and bronze are alloys.

Q17. Answer: b) 2

Solution: If 1 mole N2 completely reacts with 3 moles H2 , we get 2 moles NH3 . The total
final moles of gas is 2.

www.vedantu.com 25
MATHEMATICS

Section 1: Single Correct Choice (Q1--Q4)

Q1. Answer: a) ( x − 2)( x − 3)

Solution: x 2 − 5 x + 6 factors to ( x − 2)( x − 3) .

Q2. Answer: b) cos( x)

d
Solution: [sin x] = cos x.
dx

Q3. Answer: a) y = 2 x

Solution: A line through the origin with slope 2 is y = 2 x.

Q4. Answer: d) 270

Solution: A reflex angle is one greater than 180 but less than 360 . Among the options, 270
is reflex.

www.vedantu.com 26
Section 2: Multiple Correct Choice (Q5--Q7)

Q5. Answers: a), c)

  3
Solution: cos x = 0 at x = + k . Specifically, for the forms given, + 2k and + 2 k
2 2 2
match that pattern. So a), c). cos( / 3) = 1/ 2  0, cos(2 ) = 1  0.

Q6. Answers: a), b), d)

Solution:

(a) The difference between consecutive terms is constant in an AP.

n
(b) The sum of first n terms is [2a + (n − 1)d ] .
2

(c) is actually the defining property of a GP, not AP.

(d) If a1 = 3 and d = 2 , the 4th term is 3 + 3  2 = 9 .

Q7. Answers: a), b), c), d)

Solution: In any valid triangle, each side is less than the sum of the other two (a,b,c). Also,
a + b + c = 2s , where s is the semiperimeter (d).

www.vedantu.com 27
Section 3: Integer-Answer/Numerical Type (Q8--Q13)

Q8. Answer: 14

3
Solution: k
k =1
2
= 1 + 4 + 9 = 14.

Q9. Answer: - 32

3
Solution: For the line 3x + 2 y = 6 , rearranging to y = 3 − x . The slope is − 32 .
2

Q10. Answer: 2

Solution: Perimeter=14 means 2(length + width) = 14  length + width = 7. If one side=5, the
other=2.

Q11. Answer: 4


2 2
Solution: 2xdx =  x 2  = 4.
0 0

Q12. Answer: 15

Solution: A right triangle with legs 9 and 12 has hypotenuse 92 + 122 = 81 + 144 = 15.

www.vedantu.com 28
Q13. Answer: 4

Solution: ( x + 2)2 = x2 + 4 x + 4, so the coefficient of x is 4.

Section 4: Single Correct Choice (Q14--Q17)

Q14. Answer: b) x  1

Solution: x − 1 is real only for x  1.

1
Q15. Answer: a)
x

d 1
Solution: [ln x] = , x  0.
dx x

Q16. Answer: c) x = 2

Solution: x 2 − 4 = 0  x 2 = 4  x = 2.


Q17. Answer: b)
4


Solution: tan  = 1   = (principal value).
4

www.vedantu.com 29