Example1_The_following_information_is_given_in_respect_of_process…
Example1_The_following_information_is_given_in_respect_of_process…
Example: 4 In a process, 200 units of materials have been introduced at a cost of Rs 9,600 and other expenditures incurred in the
process are: Wages Rs 3,000 and overheads Rs 1,300. Estimated normal loss is 15% and scrap value is Rs 10 per unit. The actual
output is 180 units. All scrap were sold for cash.
Prepare the process account, normal loss account and abnormal gain account.
Equivalent production
Equivalent production represents the production of a process in terms of completed units. Work in progress at the end of an
accounting period is converted into equivalent completed units. This is done by the following formula:
Equivalent units = Completed units + No. of units of Work in progress × Degree of Completion %
For example, in a month a chemical company had in process 1,00,000 litres of a chemical, of which 70,000 litres were completed
during the month and were transferred to packing and labelling department but the remaining 30,000 litres were only 40%
complete. The equivalent unit would be:
In the same example, let us assume, at the beginning of the month 30,000 litres of chemical were there, which were only 40%
complete. During the month 70,000 litres of chemical were fully processed and transferred to packing and labelling department.
There was no closing work in progress.
Note: Equivalent units should be calculated separately for Direct materials, Direct labour and Factory overhead; because the
proportion in respect of incomplete units is not always same for each cost element.
Example:1 A firm introduced 2,000 units of material in the manufacturing process. During the period 1,500 units were completed
and transferred to next process. However, the degree of completion on remaining 500 units was 100%, 60% and 30% for materials,
labour and overheads respectively. Which one of the following is the equivalent complete units with regard to labour? (UPSC
Assistant Director Cost- 2022)
Example: The mixing department is the first stage of Zodiac company’s production cycle. Conversion costs for this department
were 80% complete as to the beginning work-in-progress inventory and 50% complete as to ending work-in- progress (WIP)
inventory. Information as to conversion cost in the mixing department for January 2017 is as follows:
1. 50 units are processed at a total cost of Rs. 80. There is a normal loss of 10 percent. The scrap units are sold at the rate of Rs.
0.25 each. If the output is 40 units, then the value of the abnormal loss is
2. A chemical process has normal wastage of 10 percent of input. In a period, 2,500 kg of material were input and there was
abnormal loss of 75 kg. What quantity of good production was achieved?
3. If a normal loss is 10%, abnormal loss is 100 units, output is 8,000 units, then number of units introduced in said process will be:
6. A process costing system for a company used an input of 5,000Kg of materials at Rs20 per Kg and labour hours of 1,000 at Rs 65
per hour. Normal loss is 20% and losses can be sold at a scrap value of Rs5per Kg. Output was 4,200 Kg. What is the value of the
output?
11. In Process I, 10,000 units were introduced during March 2017. 2000 units, 40% complete in all respects, remained as closing
work-in-progress at the end of the month. Compute the cost of closing work-in-progress if the total cost during the period was Rs
1,76,000.
12. In inter-process profits, the output of one process is transferred from one process to another not at....but at.. A. Transfer Price,
actual cost B. Actual cost, Transfer Price C. Market Price, Actual cost D. Any of the above
MARGINAL COSTING
Total Contribution = Fixed Costs + Profit
Fixed Costs = Total Contribution – Profit Profit = Total Contribution – Fixed Costs
Breakeven analysis:
Example: XYZ Ltd is manufacturing a single product, incurring variable costs of Rs 300 per unit and fixed costs of Rs 2,00,000 per
month. If the product sells for 500 Per unit, the break-even point will be:
Q. MNP Ltd sold 2,75,000 units of its product at Rs 37.50 per unit. Variable costs are 17.50 per unit (manufacturing costs of Rs 14
and selling cost Rs 3.50 per unit). Fixed costs are incurred uniformly throughout the year and amounting to Rs 35,00,000 (including
depreciation of ` 15,00,000). There are no beginning or ending inventories.
COMPUTE breakeven sales level quantity and cash breakeven sales level quantity.
Q. From the following information you are required to calculate: (a)Sales to break-even in unit
(b)Sales to break-even in sales revenue
(c)Sales to earn a profit of Rs 60,000
Additional information:
(i) Sales (10,000 units) Rs 1,60,000
(ii) Variable Cost Rs 96,000
(iii) Fixed Cost Rs 48,000
MARGIN OF SAFETY::
Q. From the following information calculate break-even point ( in units) and the turnover required to earn a profit of Rs 36,000:
Fixed Overheads. Rs.180000
Variable Cost per unit Rs.10
Selling price per unit. Rs. 20
If the company is earning a profit Rs 36,000, express the margin of safety.
Q: A company earned a profit of Rs 30,000 during the year 2009-10. If the marginal cost and selling price of product are Rs 8 and
Rs 10 per unit respectively, find out the amount of “Margin of safety.”
Q. If Margin of Safety is Rs 2,40,000 ( 40% of sales) and P/V ratio is 30% of AB Ltd., calculate its: (a) Break even sales (b) Amount
of profit on sales of Rs 9,00,000.
Material A = (96-100) × 2 = 8 (adverse) Material B = (48-50) × 6 = 12 (adverse) Material Yield Variance = 20 (adverse)
Calculation of Labour Variances:
A. Labour cost variance
= Standard labour cost – Actual labour cost Or
= ( Standard hours × Standard rate) – (Actual Hours × Actual rate)
Skilled = (30×60) – (20× 55) = 700 (F) Un-skilled = ( 90×20) – (130×24) = 1320 (A)
Labour Cost variance = 620 (A)
B. Labour rate variance
= (Standard Rate – Actual Rate ) × Actual Hours Skilled = ( 60-55) × 20 = 100 (F) Un-skilled = (20-24) × 130 = 520 (A) = Labour
rate variance = 420 (A)
C. Labour efficiency variance
= (Standard hours for actual output – Actual hours) × Standard rate Skilled = (30-20)×60 = 600 (F)
Un-skilled = (90-130) × 20 = 800 (A)
Labour efficiency variance = 200(A)
Verification:Labour cost variance = labour rate variance + labour efficiency variance 620(A) = 420(A) + 200(A)
Note: for calculating labour mix variance and labour yield variance, idle hours are to be excluded:
Skilled : 20 Hours – 9 Hours = 11 Hours Un-skilled : 130 Hours – 9 Hours = 121 Hours
Total hours actually worked = 132 Hours
Revised standard hours:
Skilled : 30/120×132 = 33 Hours Un-skilled : 90/120×132 = 99 Hours
Total = 132 Hours
D. Labour mix variance
= (Revised standard hours – Actual hours worked) × Standard rate
Skilled : (33-11) ×60 Un-skilled : (99-121) ×20 Labour mix variance
= 1,320 (F) = 440 (A) = 880 (F)
E. Labour yield variance
= (standard hours – Revised standard hours) × Standard rate Skilled : (30- 33) × 60 = 180 (A)
Un-skilled : (90-99) × 20 = 180 (A)
Labour yield variance = 360 (A)
F. Idle time variance
= standard rate × idle time
Skilled : 60× 9 = 540 (A) Un-skilled : 20× 9 = 180 (A) = Idle time variance = 720(A)
Verification:Labour efficiency variance = labour mix variance + labour yield variance+ idle time variance 200 (A) = 880(F) + 360(A)
+ 720 (A)
Example: XYZ Ltd using standard costing system presents the following information for the budget period:
A. Budgeted variable overheads = Rs 8,00,000
B. Overhead are recovered on the basis of standard machine hours. The company had budgeted for 1,00,000 machine hours for the
year.
C. During the budget period the company used 1,10,000 machine hours while it should have used 95,000 machine hours for actual
output.
D. Actual variable overheads = Rs 8,00,000. CAL VARIABLE OVERHEAD VARIANCE
Example: A company using standard costing system presents the following information for the budget period: Budgeted fixed
overheads = Rs 5,00,000
Overheads are recovered on the basis of standard machine hours. The company had budgeted for 1,00,000 machine hours for the
year.
During the budget period the company used 1,10,000 machine hours while it should have used 95,000 machine hours for actual
output.
Actual fixed overheads were Rs 4,70,000. Calculate following variances:
(a) Fixed overhead cost variance
(b) Fixed overheads expenditure variance
(c) Fixed overheads volume variance
Sol: Standard fixed overhead rate per machine hours = Budgeted fixed overhead/ budgeted machine hours. = 500000/ 100000
hours. = Rs 5 Per machine hours
Fixed overhead cost variance = (Standard rate × Standard Hours) – Actual fixed overheads = (5 × 95,000) – 4,70,000 = 4,75,000 –
4,70,000 = 5000 (F)
Fixed overhead expenditure variance = Budgeted fixed overhead cost – Actual fixed overheads cost = 5,00,000 – 4,70,000 = Rs
30,000 (F)
Fixed overhead volume variance = (Budgeted fixed overhead cost) – Fixed overhead absorbed = 5,00,000 – ( 95,000 × 5) =
5,00,000 -4,75,000 = 25,000 (A)