27-04-2025

5312CMD303021250001 MD

PHYSICS

1) A charge q of mass m at rest. It starts moving and acquired a very high velocity then its mass and
velocity becomes m1 and q1 then :-

(1) m < m1, q1 > q

(2) m > m1, q1 = q
(3) m < m1, q1 = q
(4) m > m1, q > q1

2) There are two charges +1 microculomb and –5 microcoulomb; the ratio of forces acting on them
will be :-

(1) 1 : 5
(2) 1 : 1
(3) 5 : 1
(4) 1 : 25

3) When the distance between the charged particles is halved, the force between them becomes

(1) One-fourth
(2) Half
(3) Double
(4) Four times

4) Force on square of a centroid charge Q will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) zero
5) Figures below show regular hexagons, with charges at the vertices. In which of the following
cases the net electric force at the centre is not zero:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6)

The electric potential at a certain distance from a point charge is 600 volts, and the electric field is
200 N/C. Which of the following statements will be true :-
(a) The magnitude of charge is 0.2 × 10–6 C
(b) The distance of the given point from the charge is 3m
(c) The potential at a distance of 9 m will be 200 volts
(d) The work done in moving a point charge of 1 µc from the given point to a point at a distance of 9
m will be 4 J

(1) b, c
(2) a, b, c
(3) b, d
(4) None of them

7) 2 Charges –Q and 9Q are placed at a separation of 3m. Where should charge q be placed so that

net force on it is zero :-

(1) 2m from –Q
(2) 1.5 m from –Q
(3) 1m form –Q
(4) 3m form –Q

8) If potential at centre of charged ring is V0 then electric field at its centre will be (assume radius =
R)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

9) A ring has total charge Q. Find work done by external agent to move –Q charge from point A to

centre of ring :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Charges are placed on the vertices of a square as shown. Let be the electric field and V the
potential at the centre. If the charges on A and B are interchanged with those on D and C

respectively, then :

(1) changes, V remains unchanged

(2) remains unchanged, V changes
(3) Both and V change
(4) and V remain unchanged

11) Three charges Q, +q and +q are placed at the vertices of a right angle isosceles triangle as
shown in figure. The net electrostatic energy of the configuration is zero, if Q is equal to :
(1)

(2)

(3) –2q
(4) +q

12) Variation of potential with distance from centre of uniformly charged sphere :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Two positive point charges of 10 μC and 8 μC respectively are placed at 10 cm apart in air. The
work done to bring them 5 cm closer is :-

(1) 7.2 J
(2) 5.8 J
(3) 6.2 J
(4) 6.6 J

14) Mark the correct statement about the electric lines of force :-

The number of lines of force leaving a +ve charge or entering a –ve charge is proportional to the
(1)
magnitude of charge
(2) The path of a charged particle in an electric field is not always along the field lines
(3) The direction of electric lines of force is along the normal to the conducting surfaces
(4) All of the above

15)

The figure shows electric lines of force. If EA and EB are electric fields at A and B and distance AB =
r, then :-

(1) EA > EB
(2) EA = EB/r
(3) EA < EB
2
(4) EA = EB/r

16)

A family of equipotential surfaces are shown. The direction of the electric field at point A is along–

(1) AB
(2) AC
(3) AD
(4) AF

17) Two particles of the same mass carry charges +3Q and -2Q, respectively. They are shot into a
region that contains a uniform electric field as shown. The particles have the same initial velocities
in the positive x direction. The lines, numbered 1 through 5, indicate possible paths for the
particles. If the electric field points in the negative y direction, what will be the resulting paths for

these particles?

(1) path 1 for +3Q and path 4 for -2Q

(2) path 2 for +3Q and path 5 for -2Q
(3) path 3 for +3Q and path 2 for -2Q
(4) path 5 for +3Q and path 2 for -2Q

18) An electron having charge 'e' and mass 'm' is moving in a uniform electric field E. Its
acceleration will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A charge 1 coulomb experiences a force 300 N when placed in a uniform electric field.
The potential difference between two points separated by a distance of 10 cm along the field line is

(1) 10 V
(2) 30 V
(3) 1000 V
(4) 9000 V

20) When a negative charge is released and moves in electric field it moves towards position of :-

(1) lower electric potential and lower potential energy

(2) lower electric potential and higher potential energy
(3) higher electric potential and lower potential energy
(4) higher electric potential and higher potential energy

21) Sure test of electrification is :-

(1) Attraction
(2) Repulsion
(3) Friction
(4) Induction

22) Charge 2Q and –Q are placed as shown in Fig. The point at which electric field intensity is zero

will be :-

(1) somewhere between –Q and 2Q

(2) somewhere on the left of –Q
(3) somewhere on the right of 2Q
(4) somewhere on the right bisector of line joining –Q and 2Q
23) An electron enters a region of uniform electric field with its initial velocity along the direction of
the field. Then the electron :-

(1) moves along the direction of the field with increasing speed
(2) moves along the direction of the field with decreasing speed
(3) describes a circular path in a perpendicular plane
(4) moves along the direction of the field without any change in its speed

24) A charge Q is divided in two parts, q and Q–q. What is the value of q for maximum force between
them :-

(1) 3Q/4
(2) Q/3
(3) Q
(4) Q/2

25) A charged block is projected on a rough horizontal surface with speed v0 The value of coefficient

of friction if the kinetic energy of the block remains constant is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) qE
(4) None of these

26) Two small balls having equal positive charge are suspended by two insulating string of equal size
from a hook fixed to a stand. The whole set-up is taken in a satellite into space where there is no
gravity. The angle between the two strings is :-

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4) π

27) Three charges of equal magnitude q and mass m are in equilibrium as shown in figure then ratio
of q/m is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, are separated by a distance d. If F is the force of
repulsion between the ions, the number of electrons missing from each ion will be: (e being the
charge on an electron) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) A regular polygon has 20 sides, Equal charges, each of Q, are placed at 19 vertices of the
polygon and a charge q is placed at the centre of polygon. If the distance of each vertex from the
centre is 'a' then net force experienced by q is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) zero

30) Assertion (A):- If a proton and an electron are placed in the same uniform electric field they
experience accelerations of different magnitudes. Reason (R):- Electric force on a charge is
independent of its mass.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

31) Assertion :- Electrostatic force between two charges is a conservative force.

Reason :- Electric force between two charges is inversely proportional to the square of distance
between the two.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

32) Following figure shows four Gaussian surfaces

Match the Column I & II and select the correct option.

Column - I Column - II

(A)
(P)

(B) (Q) 0

(C)
(R)

(D)
(S)

(1) A - Q, B - S, C - R, D - P
(2) A - R, B - P, C - S, D - S
(3) A - R, B - S, C - P, D - Q
(4) A - Q, B - R, C - S, D - P

33) Match the Column :

Column I Column II
 The force acting in
A. between two point P.
charges

Electric field intensity

B. Q.
due to a point charge

Electric flux linked with

C. closed surface with a R.
charge enclosed
(1) A-P, B-Q, C-R
(2) A-R, B-P, C-Q
(3) A-R, B-Q, C-P
(4) A-Q, B-P, C-R

34) The work done in carrying a charge q once around a circle of radius r with a charge Q placed at
the centre will be :

(1)

(2)

(3) zero

(4)

35) A circle of radius R is drawn in a uniform electric field E as shown in the figure. VA, VB, VC and VD

are respectively the potentials of points A,B,C and D on the circle then

(1) VA > VC, VB = VD

(2) VA < VC, VB = VD
(3) VA = VC, VB < VD
(4) VA = VC, VB > VD

36) Some equipotential surfaces are shown in the figure below. What is the magnitude of the electric
field ?

(1) 200 V/m

(2) 100 V/m
(3)
V/m
(4) 400 V/m

37) Which of the following charge is possible?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

38) The flux linked with the curved surface of the hemispherical Gaussian surface placed in a
uniform electric field as shown will be

(1) Zero
(2)
(3)
(4)

39) What is the flux through a cube of side’a’ if a point charge q is at one of its corner

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) In a region of space, the electric field is given by . The electric flux through a
surface of area of 100 units in x - y plane is :-

(1) 800 units

(2) 300 units
(3) 400 units
(4) 1500 units

41) If a glass rod is rubbed with silk it acquires a positive charge because :-
(1) protons are added to it
(2) protons are removed from it
(3) electrons are added to it
(4) electrons are removed from it

42) Two metallic spheres of same mass are given equal and opposite charges; then :-

(1) the mass of positively charged sphere increases

(2) the mass of both remains the same
(3) the mass of negatively charged sphere increases
(4) the mass of both spheres increases

43) In a medium, the force of attraction between two point charges, distance d apart, is F. What
distance apart should these point charges be kept in the same medium, so that the force between
them becomes 16 F ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) Two metal spheres of same mass are suspended from a common point by a light insulating
string. The length of each string is same. The spheres are given electric charges +q on one end and
+4q on the other. Which of the following diagrams best show the resulting positions of spheres ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

45) The dimension of ε0 is :

(1) [M–1 L–3 T4 A ]

2

0
(2) [M L–3 T2 A3]
(3) [M–1 L–3 T3 A]
(4) [M–1 L–3 TA2]

CHEMISTRY

1) Correct IUPAC name of is :-

(1) 3,3–Dimethyl–1–hydroxy cyclohexane

(2) 1,1–Dimethyl–3–hydroxy cyclohexane
(3) 3,3–Dimethyl–1–cyclohexanol
(4) 1,1–Dimethyl–3–cyclohexanol

2) What is the correct IUPAC name of the following compound ?

(1) 6-(2-propenyl)-1, 7-decadiene

(2) 5-(2-propenyl)-3, 9-decadiene
(3) 4-(1-propenyl)-1, 8-nonadiene
(4) 4-(1-butenyl)-1, 8-nonadiene

3) Which of the following is correct structure of (3, 3-dibromo-2-chlorobutyl)-2-methyl propanoate?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

4) What is the correct IUPAC name of the compound?

(1) 3-cyano-2, 5-dimethyl heptanedinitrile

(2) 2-methyl hexane-1, 4, 5-tricarbonitrile
(3) 2, 5-dimethyl-1, 3, 7-heptanedinitrile
(4) 5-cyano-3, 6-dimethyl heptanedinitrile

5) Write the IUPAC name of the following compound

(1) 2, 4-Dioxocycloheptanoic acid

(2) 4-Formyl-2-oxocyclohexane-1-carboxylic acid
(3) 2, 4-Dioxocyclohexanecarboxylic acid
(4) 2, 4-Dioxocyclohexane-1-carboxylic acid

6) Which of the following compounds has only one type of hybridized carbon :-

(1) Propadiene
(2) Propenenitrile
(3) Propenal
(4) 1, 4-pentadiene

7) The number of 3°, 2°, and 1° hydrogen atoms in cumene is respectively :-

(1) 1,6,6
(2) 1,5,6
(3) 1,0,6
(4) 0,6,6

8) Which of the following is 4th member of carboxylic acid homologous series ?

(1) Formic acid

(2) Acetic acid
(3) Valeric acid
(4) Butyric acid

9) How many σ and π bonds present in Tetra cyano ethylene :-

(1) 5, 5
(2) 8, 2
(3) 5, 1
(4) 9, 9

10) Hybridisation of carbon in CH3CN molecule is.

(1) sp3, sp3

(2) sp, sp
(3) sp3, sp
(4) sp2, sp2

11) Which of the following name is not correct.

(1)
Isopropyl

(2)
Sec-butyl

(3)
Isobutyl

(4)

tert-butyl

12) Which of the following IUPAC name is incorrect.

(1)

1-methyl-3-propylcyclohexane

(2)

1,1-dimethyl-3-ethylcyclohexane
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these
13) Which of the following is isooctane

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

14) The IUPAC name of the compound

CH3CH = CHC ≡ CH is.

(1) Pent-3-en-1-yne
(2) Pent-2-en-4-yne
(3) Pent-1-yn-3-ene
(4) Pent-4-yn-2-ene

15) The successive member in a homologues series differ from each other by –

–
(1) –CH2 – CH2 unit
(2) –CH2 unit
(3) –OCH3 unit
(4) –CH3 unit

16) The correct decreasing order of priority of functional group is.

–SO3H, –OH, –COCl,

(1)

(2) –COOH, –SO3H, –COOR, –OH

–C≡C–, –NH2, –OH,
(3)

–CN, –CONH2, , –OH

(4)

17) Which of the following compound contains 1°, 2°, 3° as well as 4° carbon atoms?

(1) Neo pentane

(2) 2–Methyl pentane
(3) 2,3–Dimethyl butane
(4) 2,2,3-Trimethyl pentane
18) Match the columns

Column-II (type of
Column-I (organic compound)
isomerism)

Functional
(A) (p)
group isomerism
&

(B) (q) Chain isomerism

&

(C) (r) Metamerism

&

(D) CH3–O–C3H7 & C2H5–O–C2H5 (s) Position isomerism

(1) A–p; B–r; C–q; D–s
(2) A–q; B–s; C–p; D–r
(3) A–r; B–q; C–p; D–s
(4) A–p; B–q; C–s; D–r

19) What is the IUPAC name of

CH3OCH2–CH2–CHO

(1) 2-Formyl methoxy ethane

(2) 1-Methoxy propanal
(3) 2-Methoxy propanal
(4) 3-Methoxy propanal

20) Number of hetero atoms present in the given compound is :–

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) In which of the following species the underlined carbon atom is having sp3 hybridisation ?

(1) CH3COOH
(2) CH3CH2OH
(3) CH3COCH3
(4) CH2=CH–CH3
22) Which of the following have 1°H only.

(1) CH3—CH3

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

23) n-Butyl alcohol and isobutyl alcohol are :

(1) Positional isomer

(2) Chain isomer
(3) Identical
(4) Not isomer

24)

Which is correctly matched ?

(1)
and Position isomers

(2) and
Functional group isomers

(3)
and Functional isomers

(4)
and Chain isomers

25) Compounds with C4H11N as molecular formula can exhibit :-

(1) Position isomerism

(2) Metamerism
(3) Functional isomerism
(4) All of these

26) are :-

(1) Position isomers

(2) Functional isomers
(3) Chain isomers
(4) Metamers

27) How many primary amines are possible by the formula C4H11N :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

28) are :-

(1) Chain isomer

(2) Position isomer
(3) Functional group isomer
(4) Metamer

29) Minimum C atoms required for 2° amine to show chain isomerism :-

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 3
(4) 6

30) How many positional isomer possible for ?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

31) The number of primary, secondary and tertiary alcohol possible with the formula C4H10O is given
by the set of :-

(1) 2,1,0
(2) 1,2,1
(3) 2,1,1
(4) 2,1,2
32)

(1) Position isomer

(2) Chain Isomer
(3) Functional group isomer
(4) Ring chain isomer

33) The number of isomers possible with moleculer formula C2H4Cl2 is:-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 6

34) Which of the following do not show geometrical isomerism :-

(1) 1, 2-Dichloro- 1-pentene

(2) 1, 3-Dichloro- 2-pentene
(3) 1,1-Dichloro- 1-pentene
(4) 1, 4-Dichloro- 2-pentene

35) Which of following do not show geometrical isomerism :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Which is incorrect order ?

(1)
(Boiling point)

(2)
(Melting point)
(3)
(Solubility)

(4)
(Dipole)

37) Assertion :
Reason : C1—C2 bond can be rotated.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true and but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

38) Oxime of which compound can show geometrical isomerism ?

(1) HCHO
(2) CH3COCH3
(3) Acetophenone
(4) Benzophenone

39) Which of the following compounds show geometrical isomerism?

(a)

(b)
(c) 1-Chloropropene
(d) 3, 4-Dimethyl hex-3-ene

(1) a, b, c and d
(2) a, c and d
(3) a, b and d
(4) b, c and d

40) Select correct configuration-

(1) E, Trans
(2) E, Cis
(3) Z, Cis
(4) Z, Trans
41) Which structure having incorrect configuration.

(1)
→E

(2)
→E

(3)

→E

(4)

→ trans

42) The Z-isomer among the following is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Which is a pair of geometrical isomers ?

(1) I and II
(2) I and III
(3) II and IV
(4) III and IV

44) Which of the following compounds will exhibit cis-trans (geometrical) isomerism?
(1) 2-butene
(2) Butanol
(3) 2-butyne
(4) 2-butenol

45) Which of the following compounds will show geometrical isomerism ?

(1) CH3—CH2—CH=N—OH

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the following is true for the transverse section of a typical microsporangium of
angiosperms ?

It is generally surrounded by four wall layers - epidermis, endothecium, middle layers and
(1)
tapetum
(2) The outer three wall layers perform the function of protection and help in dehiscence of anther
(3) Both (a) and (b)
(4) Tapetum is the outermost layer

2) The cells of taperum possess _____________ cytoplasm and generally have ___________
nucleus/nuclei.

(1) Light, single

(2) Light, two
(3) Dense, single
(4) Dense, multiple

3) Read the following statements :

(i) Microspore tetrads possess polyploid nucleus
(ii) Sporogenous tissue occupies the centre of each microsporangium
(iii) Cells of sporogenous tissue undergo meiosis
(iv) Each cell of the sporogenous tissue is a potential microspore mother cell or pollen mother cell
(v) The process of formation of male gamete in angiosperms is called microsporogenesis
Which of the above statements are correct ?

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(2) (iv) and (v)
(3) (i) and (v)
(4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

4) The diagram given below depicts an anther with :

(1) Monothecous + bisporangiate condition

(2) Dithecous + tetrasporangiate condition
(3) Dithecous + bisporangiate condition
(4) Monothecous + tetrasporangiate condition

5) Identify A, B, C, D and E in the transverse section of a microsporangium.

(1) a
(2) b
(3) c
(4) d
6) Which of the following is correct ?

(1) In about 60% of angiosperms, pollination occur at 3-celled stage

(2) In about 40% of angiosperms, pollination occur at 2-celled stage
(3) Generative cell divides meiotically to form two male gametes
In about 60% of the angiosperms, pollination occur when a pollen grain atleast forms a
(4)
vegetative cell and a generative cell

7) In some cereals like rice and wheat, pollen grains lose viability within ____________ but in members
of Rosaceae, Leguminosae and Solanaceae, pollen viability is maintained for ______________ .

(1) Months. years

(2) Years, months
(3) Months, 30 minutes
(4) 30 minutes, months

8) Read the following statements : (i) Stigma serves as a landing flatform for pollen grains (ii)
Placenta is located inside the ovarian cavity (iii) Megasporangium is represented by the ovary
in angiosperms (iv) Cells of nucellus possess scanty food matter (v) Embryo sac is located in the
nucellus Which of the above statements are correct ?

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(2) (iii), (iv) and (v)
(3) (i), (ii) and (v)
(4) (i) and (iii)

9) Ovules generally differentiate :

(1) A single megaspore mother cell (MeMC) in the micropylar region of nucellus
(2) A single megaspore mother cell (MeMC) in the chalazal region of nucellus
(3) Four MeMC in the micropylar region of nucellus
(4) Two MeMC in the chalazal region of nucellus

10) Identify A,B,C and D of an embryo sac :

(1) a
(2) b
(3) c
(4) d

11) Read the following statements w.r.t, embryo sac.

(i) In an embryo sac, six of the eight nuclei are surrounded by cell walls and organised into cells
(ii) The polar nuclei are situated just below the egg apparatus in the large central cell
(iii) The egg apparatus consists of one synergid and two egg cells
(iv) A mature embryo sac possess 7-celled and 8-nucleate condition
(v) Central cell is the smallest cell of an embryo sac.
Which of the following statements are correct ?

(1) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(2) (iii), (iv) and (v)
(3) (iii), (v)
(4) (iv) and (v)

12) A typical angiospermic anther is where each lobe contains microsporangia.

(1) Dithecous, two

(2) Bilobed, four
(3) Monothecous, two
(4) Single lobed, four

13) Which of the following layers of an anther provides nourishment to the pollens ?

(1) Epidermis
(2) Endothecium
(3) Both (a) and (b)
(4) Tapetum

14) How many male gametes can be produced by 4 pollen mother cells ?

(1) 8
(2) 16
(3) 32
(4) 64

15) Pollen grains are generally __________ measuring about ___________ μm in diameter :

(1) Elongated, 25-50

(2) Spherical, 250-1000
(3) Elongated, 250-1000
(4) Spherical, 25-50

16) Sporopollenin :-

(1) Is the major component of intine

(2) Can be degraded by few fungal origin enzymes
(3) Is highly sensitive to increased temperature in the environment
(4) Can withstand strong acids and alkali

17) Which of the following is wrong ?

(1) Germ pore of pollen lack sporopollenin

Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils because of the presence of sporopollenin
(2)

The exine of pollen grains of different speceis exhibit a fascinating array of same type of
(3)
patterns and designs
(4) Both (a) and (b)

18) The inner wall of the pollen grain :-

(1) Is a thin and continuous layer made up of sporopollenin

(2) Possess germ pore
Directly covers the cytoplasm of pollen as the cytoplasm of pollen grain is not surrounded by
(3)
a plasma membrane
(4) Is made up of pectin and cellulose

19) How many pollen mother cells should undergo, reduction division to produce 80 pollen grains ?

(1) 20
(2) 32
(3) 16
(4) 8

20) Which option correctly defines the Property of vegetative and generative cell of a pollen grain ?

Vegetative Cell Generative Cell

(a) Small Big

 Abundant food
(b) Santy food matter
matter

Large with
(c) irregular shaped Spindle shaped cell
nucleus

Floats in the Floats in the

(d) cytoplasm of cytoplasm
generative cell vegetative cell
(1) a
(2) b
(3) c
(4) d

21) Parthenium or carrot grass came into India as a contaminant with imported and causes -

(1) Rice, nausea

(2) Maize, pollen allergy
(3) Wheat, pollen allergy
(4) Pulses, nausea

22) Observe the examples given in the box and find out how many of them possess single ovule in
each ovary ?
Papaya, water melon, wheat, paddy, orchids and mango.

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six

23) The embryo are in an ovule :-

(1) Is diploid from the beginning

(2) Degenerates just after double fertilization
(3) Is a meiocyte
(4) Is formed from a megaspore

24) The filiform apparatus of synergids :

(1) Play an important role in guiding the pollen to into the synergid
(2) Help in the opening of pollen tube
(3) Prevents pollen tube from bursting
(4) Is diploid

25) Multicarpellary, syncarpous pistil is found in :

(1) Papaver
(2) Michelia
(3) Hibiscus
(4) Both (a) and (c)

26) The number of sequential mitosis required to produce a mature embryo sac in most of the
angiospemms is :-

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 4

27) Filiform apparatus is :-

(1) Present towards chalazal end of an ovule

(2) Present towards the micropylar end of an ovule
(3) Absent in most angiosperms
(4) Present in gymnosperms

28) Which of the following is an end product of sexual reproduction in plants -

(1) flower
(2) megaspore
(3) fruits and seeds
(4) none of these

29) Flowers are objects of -

(1) aesthetic value

(2) omamental and social value
(3) relegious and cultural value
(4) all of these

30) Site of sexual reproduction in plants is -

(1) internode
(2) fruit
(3) flower
(4) seed

31) Stalk of stamen is known as -

(1) funicle
(2) hilum
(3) filament
(4) pollen tube
32) Which part of stamen is attached to thalamus or petal -

(1) Pollen grains

(2) proximal end of anther
(3) distal end of stamen filament
(4) proximal end of stamen filament

33) Microsporangia are located in -

(1) Ovule
(2) ovary
(3) anther
(4) thalamus

34) Pollen sacs are present at the -

(1) apex of anther

(2) proximal end of anther
(3) only in middle zone of anther
(4) extend longitudinally in whole length of anther

35) Which wall layers of micrsporangium helps in protection and dehiscence of anther to release
polien -

(1) outer most

(2) outer and inner
(3) outer two layers
(4) outer three layers

36) State the correct statement

(a) Tapetum is the third layer of microsporangium
(b) It helps in dehiscence and release of pollen
(c) cells of tapetum posses dense cytoplasm
(d) cells of tapetum generally have more than one nucleus

(1) all are true

(2) a,c,d are true
(3) b,c,d are true
(4) c and d are true

37) Sporogenous tissue are -

(1) loosely arranged

(2) compactly arranged
(3) homogenous tissue
(4) both 2 and 3
38) On maturity anthers _____________ and the pollen grains develop from the microspores :-

(1) hydrate
(2) dessicate
(3) dehydrate
(4) become hard

39) Ploidy in generative and vegetative cell is -

(1) both 2n
(2) both n
(3) n,2n
(4) 2n,2n

40) Pollen grains adversely effects which system of the body -

(1) excretory
(2) central nervous system
(3) circulatory
(4) respiratory

41) Style is -

(1) the filament of stamen

(2) elongated slender part beneath the micropyle
(3) elongated slender part beneath the stigma
(4) the junction of funicle and hilum

42) Chalaza is the -

(1) tip of ovule

(2) opening of ovule
(3) middle part of ovule
(4) basal part of ovule

43) If a plant have 30 chromosomes its megaspore will contain -

(1) 30
(2) 15
(3) 45
(4) can’t be predicted

44) In majority of flowering plants how many megaspore remains functional -

(1) two
(2) three
(3) one
(4) four

45) Free nuclear division takes place during -

(1) megasporogenesis
(2) microsporogenesis
(3) both 1 and 2
(4) formation of embryo sac

46) Liberation of sperms from sertoli cells is called :-

(1) Semination
(2) Spermiation
(3) Ejaculation
(4) Insemination

47) Which is not present in scrotal wall structure ?

(1) Cremasteric fascia

(2) Spermatic fascia
(3) Dartos muscle
(4) Tunica albuginea

48) Of the following male organs, which one is considered a primary sex organ?

(1) ejaculatory ducts

(2) gonads (testes)
(3) penis
(4) seminal vesicles

49) All of the following structures are the part of intra testicular genital duct system except :-

(1) Seminiferous tubules

(2) Rete testis
(3) Vasa efferentia
(4) Vas deferens

50) Choose incorrect statement :-

(1) Mammary glands are paired structures.

(2) Mammary gland contain fix amount of fat.
(3) Several mammary ducts join to form a wider mammary ampulla.
(4) Mammary lobes contain clusters of cells called alveoli.

51) How many of the following structures are present only in male reproductive system.
Vas deference, Ejaculatory duct, Urethra, Seminiferous tubule, Epididymis, Bartholin's gland,
Corpus luteum.

(1) Six
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Seven

52) Measurements of testis are :-

(1) 4–5 cm length & 2–3 cm width

(2) 2–4 cm length & 10–12 cm width
(3) 2–4 cm length & 4–5 cm width
(4) 10–12 cm length & 2–4 cm width

53) Choose the incorrect regarding testis :-

(1) 250 testicular lobules in each testis

(2) 4–5 highly coiled seminiferous tubules in each lobule
(3) Low temperature than normal internal body temperature
(4) Covered by a dense covering

54) Which of the following structures are not included in external genitalia of female ?
(a) Mons pubis (b) Labia majora
(c) Hymen (d) Vestibule
(e) Cervix (f) Fallopian tube

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) Only e, f
(3) Only d, f
(4) a, d, e, f

55) The edges of the infundibulum posses finger like projections called fimbriae which helps in :

(1) Collection of sperms

(2) Collection of ovum after ovulation
(3) To facilitate implantation
(4) To pass nutrition towards ovum

56) How many in the list given below constitute the female accessory ducts.
Oviducts, vagina, uterus, prostate, bulbourethral glands.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One
57) The clitoris is a tiny finger like structure which lies at :-

(1) Upper juntion of two labia majora

(2) Upper junction of two labia minora
(3) Lower junction of labia minora
(4) Lower junction of labia majora

58) Read the following statements and select the incorrect statementm-

(1) Testes are situated outside the abodominal cavity in scrotum.

(2) Temp inside scrotum are 2 -2.5°C lower than normal body temp.
(3) Scrotum is situated inside abdomen.
(4) Scrotum is a pouch like structure.

59) Which of the following is a cushion of fatty tissue covered by skin and pubic hair?

(1) Mons pubis

(2) Labia majora
(3) Labia minora
(4) Hymen

60) Which gland releases a small amount of fluid just prior to ejaculation to decrease acidity in the
urethra caused by urine?

(1) Prostate
(2) Glans penis
(3) Seminal vesicle
(4) Bulbourethral gland

61) Select the odd one w.r.t paired glands.

(1) Seminal vesicle

(2) Prostate gland
(3) Cowper’s gland
(4) Bartholin’s gland

62) Identify the labelled structure in the following diagram whose secretions constitute the part of

seminal plasma. Select the correct option.

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

63) Arrange the uterine layer from inside to outside in an adult human female.
(a) Myometrium
(b) Endometrium
(c) Perimetrium
Select the correct option.

(1) (c) → (a) → (b)

(2) (b) → (a) → (c)
(3) (a) → (b) → (c)
(4) (a) → (c) → (b)

64) Which of the following route of sperms is correct from seminiferous tubules to outside?

(1) Rete testis → Vas deferens → Epididymis → Ejaculatory duct

(2) Vasa efferentia → Vas deferens → Rete testis → Epididymes
(3) Epididymes → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Vas deferens
(4) Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epidiymis → Vas deferens

65) Bundles of erectile tissues in penis are

(1) Corpus cavernosa

(2) Corpus spongiosum
(3) Both
(4) Corpus luteum

66) Complete the analogy

Leydig cells : Androgens :: Sertoli cells : _______

(1) Testosterone
(2) Inhibin
(3) Prolactin
(4) Progesterone

67) It is a diagrammatic view of male reproductive system, choose the correct option about A, B, C

and D :-
 A B C D

(1) Vasa efferentia Vasdererens Prostate Foreskin

(2) Epididymis Vasdeferens Bulbourethral gland Foreskin

(3) Rete tests Ureter Bulbourethral gland Glans penis

(4) Epididymis Vasdeferens Seminal vseical Foreskin

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

68) The region outside the seminiferous tubule which contain small blood vessels, interstitial cells
and immunologically competent cells is present called :-

(1) Perivitelline space

(2) Peritesticular space
(3) Interstitial space
(4) Inguinal space

69) Glans penis is made-up of :-

(1) 1 corpus spongisum

(2) 2 corpus spongisum
(3) 2 corpora cavernosa
(4) 1 corpora cavernosa

70) Assertion : Fructose is found in seminal fluid, it act as a fuel to sperm.

Reason : Seminal vesicle fluid makes 60-70% part of semen.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

71) Select the correct match :-

(1) Leydig cells – Secretion of testosterone

(2) Sertoli cells – Secretion of GnRH
(3) Corpus luteum – Secretion of FSH and LH
(4) Breast – Secretion of prolactin

72) Which is the permanent layer of uterus ?

(1) Stratum basalis

(2) Myometrium
(3) Perimetrium
(4) All of the above

73) Match the column-A with column-B : -

Column-A Column-B

(A) Mons pubis (i) Fleshy folds of tissue

(B) Labia majora (ii) Paired folds of tissue

(C) Labia minora (iii) Finger-like structure

(D) Clitoris (iv) Cushion of fatty tissue

(1) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(2) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
(3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

74) Which structure of male reproductive system plays important role in preventing development of
mullerian duct:

(1) Leyding cells

(2) Interstitial cells
(3) Sertoli cells
(4) Primordial germ cells

75) Failure of testis to descend into scrotum is

(1) Vasectomy
(2) Hernia
(3) Cryptorchidism
(4) Castration

76) Which of the following is not considered as a secondary sex organ ?

(1) Breast
(2) Vagina
(3) Penis
(4) Seminal vesicle

77) Read the given statements.

A. Leydig cells are located in interstitial spaces in testes.
B. Sertoli cells of seminiferous tubules provide nourishment to developing Germ cells.
Select the correct option.

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect

78) The part of fallopian tube closest to the ovary

(1) Ampulla
(2) Isthmus
(3) Infundibulum
(4) Cervix

79) For normal fertility, how many percentage of total sperms must have vigorous mobility with
normal shape and size ?

(1) 50 %
(2) 24 %
(3) 40 %
(4) 60 %

80) Assertion : Humans are sexually reproducing and viviparous.

Reason : The reproductive events in humans include formation of gametes and delivery of the baby
only.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.

81) Assertion : The male sex accessory ducts include rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas
deferens
Reason : The male accessory glands include paired seminal vesicles, a prostate and paired
bulbourethral glands.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong

82) Assertion (A) : The presence of hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity.
Reason (R) : In some women hymen persists even after coitus.
Choose the correct answer from the given options :-

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

83) Assertion: Seminal vesicles are male acessory glands.

Reason: They do not produce male gamete and do not secrete any male sex hormones

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

84) Assertion: The enlarged part of penis is called glans penis

Reason: The glans penis is covered by a loose fold of skin called foreskin

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false

85) Read the following statements and choose the correct option
Statement-1 : Reproductive events in human occur after puberty and there are remarkable
differences between the reproductive events in the male and in the female.
Statement-2 : Formation of ovum ceases in women around the age of fifty years.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement 1 is correct
(4) Only statement 2 is correct

86) Assertion :- The Edges of infundibulum possess finger like projections called Fimbriae.
Reason :- Fimbriae help in maintaining the ovaries in position in the Pelvic Region.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is the NOT correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

87) Assertion :- Presence of testis in the abdominal cavity through out the life causes sterility in
man.
Reason :- Higher temperature of abdominal cavity causes destruction of spermatogonial cell.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is the NOT correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

88) If the epididymis is being removed, then what will happen?

(1) Sperm early cross the male reproductive path

(2) Functional maturation is early
(3) Long life span of sperm
(4) Sperm will be incapable for fertilization

89) Birth canal is formed by :

(1) Cervical canal + Uterus

(2) Cervical canal + Vagina
(3) Cervical canal + Isthmus
(4) Cervical canal + Fallopian tube

90) Statement-I :- Hymen is always torn during coitus.

Statement-II :- Clitoris is a tiny finger like structure present at the junction of two labia majora.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 4 3 2 2 2 4 2 1 2 1 1 4 1 4 4 3 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 2 2 4 1 4 1 4 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 1 1 3 4 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 3 2 1 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 1 2 2 2 3 2 4 4 3 4 2 1 1 2 2 4 2 4 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 4 2 1 4 3 4 1 2 2 3 3 1 3 3 3 3 3 2 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 3 1 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 4 4 2 3 4 4 3 1 3 1 1 4 3 4 4 3 4 1 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 1 1 1 4 1 2 3 4 3 3 4 3 4 4 4 4 3 2 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 4 2 3 4 2 4 2 4 2 2 1 2 2 2 2 2 3 1 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 2 2 4 3 2 2 3 1 2 1 4 3 3 3 1 3 3 2 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 4 1 2 1 3 1 4 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

6) Explanation: To find of the following statements is/are true.

Concept :
(i) Potential due to a point charge
(ii) Electrical field at a point due to point charge.
Formula :

(i) (Electrical field)

(ii) (V is potential)
Visual aid :

Calculation :

....(i)

...(ii)
equation (i) & (ii)

r = 3m (b is correct)

Now, = 0.2 × 10–6 [a is correct]

Potential at distance of 5m is

(c is correct)
'
Work done in moving charge from point to P

(D is incorrect)

7)

Concept
For the net force on charge q to be zero, the forces from both charges must balance each
other out in magnitude and direction.
Formula
Using Coulomb's Law:
For equilibrium:

Calculation
Set the forces equal:

Solving for r
(3 – r) = ⇒ r = 1.5 m:
Ανσωερ: Option 2 (1.5 m from —Q)

16) (i) Electric field line ⊥ to surface

(ii) In direction of electric field line potential decreases therefore AF is correct.

19) F = QE ⇒ 300 = 1 × E ⇒ E = 300 N/C

E= ⇒ = 30 V

25) qE = µmg

∴µ=

30) As magnitude of charge on both e- and protons is same, so they experience same electric
force but since their masses are different, their acceleration are different.

32)

33)

Conceptual

35) VA = VC, VB < VD

Electric potential decreases in the direction of electric field
VD > VA = VC > VB

37)

(A)

(B)
 (C)

(D)

39) Charge at corner is shared equally by 8 similar cubes

43)

so,

CHEMISTRY

51)

CH2 = C = CH2 propadiene

CH2 = CH—C≡N propenenitrile
CH2 = CH—CHO propenal

CH2 = CH—CH2—CH = CH2 1,4-pentadiene

66)

67)
68)
Both compounds having same molecular formula and functional group but having different
parent carbon chain so these are chain isomers.

69)

Position of double bond is different So position isomers

70)

(1) CH3CH2–CH2–CH2–NH2

& Position isomerism

(2) CH3–CH2–CH2–NH–CH3
& CH3–CH2–NH–CH2–CH3 Metamerism
(3) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–NH3
1º amine
& CH3–CH2–NH–CH2–CH3
2º amine

& Metamerism
3º amine
F.G. isomerism

71)

PCC is different

82)

Two carbon of cycle have two different group.

89)
 CH3CH2CH2CH2OH ⇒ no geometrical isomers
Butanol
CH3C ≡ CCH3 ⇒ no geometrical isomers
CH3CH2C(OH) = CH2 ⇒ no geometrical isomers.

90)

(1)

(2)

(3)

BIOLOGY

136) NCERT Pg. # 47

148) NCERT P.No. 27

149) NCERT, Pg. # 30

150)

NCERT Pg. # 28

168) Infundibulum, also called oviducal funnel, is closest to ovary.

172)
Hymen can also be broken by sudden fall or jolt, insertion of vaginal tempon etc.

173) NCERT-XII Page No. 44

175) NCERT XII Pg. No. 26

177)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 27