DB Structures
DB Structures
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Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024
ACKNOWLEDGEMENT
The author would like to thank his triune God for the wisdom and opportunity throughout the preparation
of this review material. All glory and honor belongs to Him. He also would like to thank: Isa for the love
and motivation; his parents for their prayers and encouragement.
PREFACE
This review material was prepared for the agricultural and biosystems engineering graduates who are
preparing for the board exam. It is designed to tackle the subject in just 8 hours and is intended to be
delivered with a lecture. The contents of this material are arranged in such a way that it builds up as it
progresses. It comprises of series of questions and problems that compels the students to review both
the theory and practice. Some questions are basic while others may be unfamiliar but inherently related
to this field. And yet still others are sheer practical questions to test whether the student has a thorough
understanding on the subject matter.
The material is divided into 8 chapters:
1. Laws, Codes, & Standards. This chapter outlines the legal basis of the ABE practice related to
agricultural buildings and structures. It also includes topic on National Building Code.
2. Structural Systems and Construction. This covers the construction materials, methods, and
estimates.
3. PAES/BAFS Requirements covers the PAES/BAFS requirements for agricultural buildings and
structures.
4. Structural Analysis is a chapter covering principles of mechanics such as modeling of structural
elements, loads and reactions, and structural responses.
5. Structural Loads tackles the different types of structural loads from NSCP and the design
philosophies: LRFD, and ASD methods.
6. RC, Steel, & Timber is a chapter that deals with the details and basic calculations of reinforced
concrete members, steel members, and timber members.
7. Indoor Environmental Control starts with the topic about the indoor environment, followed by
building heat transfer and psychrometry.
8. Ventilation Systems tackles the calculation of ventilation rates using energy and mass balance. It
also includes calculations on various ventilation system components such as: fans, air inlets,
evaporative cooling pads, and natural ventilations.
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Other topics related to structures and construction are not yet included here, but with these contents, the
author believes that the students will get a wider perspective of the field of agricultural buildings and
structures.
May this material be useful to the aspiring Agricultural and Biosystems Engineers whose passion is on
agricultural buildings and structures. God bless!
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Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024
CONTENTS
ABOUT THE AUTHOR ................................................................................................................................................. 1
ACKNOWLEDGEMENT .............................................................................................................................................. 1
PREFACE .................................................................................................................................................................... 1
CONTENTS ................................................................................................................................................................. 3
1 Laws, Codes, & Standards ............................................................................................................................. 5
2 Structural Systems & Construction ............................................................................................................... 9
3 PAES/BAFS Requirements ........................................................................................................................... 12
3.1 PAES 401:2001 – Housing for Swine Production ............................................................................. 12
3.2 PAES 402:2001 – Housing for Broiler Production ............................................................................ 14
3.3 PAES 404:2001 – Housing for Goat & Sheep.................................................................................... 15
3.4 PAES 411:2000 – Slaughterhouse for Swine, Small & Large Animals .......................................... 16
3.5 PAES 413:2001 – Biogas Plant ........................................................................................................... 17
3.6 PAES 414:2002 – Waste Management Structures .......................................................................... 18
3.7 PAES 415:2001 – Greenhouses .......................................................................................................... 20
3.8 PAES 416:2002 – Plant Tissue Culture Laboratory .......................................................................... 20
3.9 PAES 419:2000 – Warehouse for Bagged Storage of Grains ......................................................... 21
3.10 PAES 421:2009 – Farm to Market Roads (Earth, Gravel, Bituminous, Concrete)........................ 22
3.11 PAES 422-1:2012 – Poultry Dressing / Slaughtering Plant – Small Scale .................................... 23
3.12 PAES 422-2:2012 – Poultry Dressing / Slaughtering Plant – Large Scale .................................... 23
3.13 PNS/BAFS PABES 270:2019 – Agricultural Infrastructures – Silo.................................................. 23
4 Structural Analysis......................................................................................................................................... 24
5 Structural Loads ............................................................................................................................................ 28
5.1 Types of Structural Loads ..................................................................................................................... 28
5.2 Load Combinations ................................................................................................................................ 29
6 Reinforced Concrete, Steel, & Timber ........................................................................................................ 32
6.1 Reinforced Concrete Structures .......................................................................................................... 32
6.1.1 Singly-Reinforced Beams.............................................................................................................. 34
6.1.2 Beam Stirrups ................................................................................................................................ 35
6.1.3 Slabs................................................................................................................................................ 36
6.1.4 Development Lengths & Splices ................................................................................................. 37
6.1.5 Columns .......................................................................................................................................... 37
6.1.6 Footing ............................................................................................................................................ 39
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4. This is the office authorized to enforce the provisions of the National Building Code and its IRR in
the field as well as the enforcement of orders and decisions made pursuant thereto.
a. National Building Code Development c. Department of Public Works and
Office (NBCDO) Highways (DPWH)
b. National Building Code Review d. Office of the Building Official (OBO)
Committee (NBCRC)
8. The building permit has _____ validity if construction work is not commenced from the date of
such permit.
a. 1 year c. 2 years
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9. After securing a building permit, initial construction of the structure was done. Then suddenly
the construction activity was put to stop due to some unexpected reasons. How many days will
be the validity of such Building Permit in order to resume construction work without obtaining
new permit?
a. 90 days c. 120 days
b. 100 days d. 30 days
10. The applicable provisions of the various agencies and technical professional codes that are
supplementary to the National Building Code of the Philippines.
a. National Structural Code of the c. Philippine Electrical Code
Philippines
b. National Plumbing Code of the d. Referral Code
Philippines
e. All of the above
12. The required number of sets of building plans, specifications and other documents prepared
during application for building permit
a. 1 c. 5
b. 3 d. 4
13. It is a set of documents required in building permit application tabulating the detail list, quantity
and cost of materials.
a. Specifications c. Bill of materials
b. Application form d. Building plans
16. It is a document for building permit that is about the zoning of the buildings.
a. Fire safety evaluation clearance c. Location clearance
b. Accomplished application form d. Barangay clearance
17. Which of the following documents are not required for one-storey buildings?
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18. It is a drawing view in a building plan that shows the changes in the elevation inside the building.
a. Elevation views c. Colum and column footing details
b. Foundation plan d. None of the above
19. What is the designated letter used for agricultural sheets in building plans?
a. A c. E
b. S d. None of the above
20. Structural analysis are required for structures exceeding __________ storey building?
a. 0 c. 2
b. 1 d. 3
22. In the Philippines, the organization that sets the structural code?
a. Philippine Institute of Civil Engineers c. Philippine Agricultural and
Biosystems Engineers
b. Philippine Institute of Architects d. None of the above
23. The spacing requirements for e.g. swine housing are obtained from ________.
a. PAES Volume 6 c. National Building Code
b. NSCP Volume 1 d. None of the above
24. As an agricultural engineer, upon signing the building plans, which of the following must be
included?
a. Professional license number c. Professional tax receipt number
b. Duration of its validity d. All of the above
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26. It refers to all on-site work done in the site preparation, excavation, foundation, assembly of all
the components and installations of utilities, machineries and equipment of buildings or
structures.
a. Renovation c. Construction
b. Demolition d. Repair
28. It refers to any physical change made in buildings or structures to increase the value, quality,
and/or to improve the aesthetics.
a. Renovation c. Construction
b. Demolition d. Repair
29. It is the remedial work done on any damaged or deteriorated portion/s of building/structure to
restore to its original condition.
a. Renovation c. Construction
b. Demolition d. Repair
30. It is a portion of the drawing plan indicating the extent of property lines and location of existing
buildings within the site from which the proposed building is to be constructed.
a. Perspective c. Site development plan
b. Location plan d. Floor plan
32. The polygon shape in the seal has ____ sides. It represents the functional scopes of practice of
ABE.
a. 12 c. 8
b. 10 d. 4
33. The height of the rectangle inside the polygon in the ABE seal.
a. 5mm c. 8mm
b. 12mm d. 14mm
34. The drawings, plans, designs, and specifications are duly signed, stamped or sealed as
instruments of service, they become as property and documents of the AB engineer whether the
projects for which they were made is executed or not.
a. True
b. False
35. It is an act strengthening, modernizing and aligning the practice of agricultural engineering in the
country into the internationally recognized practice of agricultural and Biosystems engineering,
and for other purposes
a. RA 10601 c. RA10951
b. RA 10968 d. None of the above
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38. The recommended overlapping of corrugated GI sheet roof between ends for steep roof slope.
a. 0.20 m c. 0.30 m
b. 0.25 m d. 0.35 m
39. The recommended overlapping of corrugated GI sheet roof between ends for moderate roof
slope.
a. 0.20 m c. 0.30 m
b. 0.25 m d. 0.35 m
43. It is a roofing accessory that is used to carry and divert the water from the roof into a specific
location.
a. Valley roll c. Flashing
b. Ridge roll d. None of the above
44. It is a roofing accessory that is used to cover the roofing joints to prevent intrusion of water into
the building.
a. Valley roll c. Flashing
b. Ridge roll d. All of the above
47. There are __________ concrete hollow blocks per square meter of wall area.
a. 10 CHB c. 15 CHB
b. 13 CHB d. all of the above
48. Estimate the number of hollow blocks required for the portion of a wall of a farm workshop which
is 3.5 meters high from the finished floor line and 20 meters long (excluding columns and
beams). From the finished floor line the wall is extended 0.6 meters lower for the wall footing.
Add a contingency of 10%
a. 820 pcs c. 1173 pcs
b. 1066 pcs d. 910 pcs
49. For the vertical reinforcements for wall, it is usually _________ in construction.
a. Laid in full length c. Spliced the full lengths
b. Cut in shorter lengths d. All of the above
53. It is a component of structural system where it transmits the load of the structure into the
underlying soil.
a. Beams c. Trusses
b. Columns d. Foundations
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PROBLEM 58 TO 59
A concrete sun drying floor is to be constructed. The floor area has a dimension 20 ft. wide by 40 ft.
long. The thickness of the floor is proposed to be 4 inches. A class A mixture will be adopted for the
construction.
60. What is the approximate time for concrete forms before they are safely removed?
a. 14 to 21 days c. 7 to 14 days
b. 3 to 10 days d. None of the above
61. It is a construction equipment used for mixing cement, aggregates, and water in a rotating bin.
a. Bagger mixer c. Plate compactor
b. Vibrator d. All of the above
64. It is a joint between rafter and stanchion in a portal frame at the eave.
a. Apex haunch c. Girt
b. Eaves beam d. Knee haunch
65. It is a horizontal wall secondary member that is secured to columns and supports the wall
covering.
a. Apex haunch c. Girt
b. Eaves beam d. Knee haunch
66. It is a structural component for a roof system to carry roof loads parallel to the slope direction.
a. Purlins c. Sag rod
b. Ridge roll d. Cross Bracing
67. It is a single-span frame of stanchions and rafters, strengthened with knee and apex braces, and
by beams and bracing between the frames. It is used for any house for a wide unrestricted span,
or for maximum flexibility of use.
a. Lattice Structures c. Simple Frame
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69. It refers to the clear distance between two free-standing stanchions comprising a single bay
frame of a steel frame building.
a. Bay width c. Eave
b. Span d. None of the above
70. The part of a roof truss that support directly the purlins
a. Top chord c. ridge
b. Rafters d. None of the above
71. It is a temporary boarding, sheathing or pan used to produce the desired shape of a concrete.
a. Forms c. Fiberglass Panels
b. Scaffolding d. Plywood
72. A temporary structure providing platforms for workers to stand while erecting or repairing a
building.
a. Forms c. Staging
b. Scaffolding d. None of the above
74. An agricultural engineer had a previous building project having 500 sq.m. For a bagged storage
warehouse and amounting 6,000,000.00 pesos. If a new a project having 1,000 sq.m. is
upcoming, what is the rough cost estimate of the project?
a. 3,000,000 pesos c. 12,000,000 pesos
b. 6,000,000 pesos d. 9,000,000 pesos
75. An agricultural engineer is asked to design a 30-sow level swine housing with a budget of
3,000,000 Php. If the building floor area designed is 8.5m x 36m, estimate the cost of the
building.
a. 3060 Php/ sq.m. c. 9803 Php/sq.m.
b. 7800 Php/sq.m. d. None of the above
3 PAES/BAFS REQUIREMENTS
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77. The floor of a swine housing should have a 2 to 4% slope towards a __________
a. Gutter c. Away from the feeding trough
b. Drainage canal d. All of the above
78. In swine housing as specified in PAES, heat lamps shall be placed ____.
a. 762 mm above the floor c. Either a or b
b. 152 mm above the sow d. None of the above
81. An area in which a sow is confined during farrowing and lactation period and are freely to turn
around.
a. Farrowing stall c. Farrowing house
b. Farrowing pen d. All of the above
83. An unbred sow which has just been weaned or a non-pregnant sow.
a. Sow c. Wet sow
b. Dry sow d. None of the above
84. A device in which a sow is confined during farrowing and lactation periods and which prevents
sow from turning around.
a. Farrowing stall c. Farrowing house
b. Farrowing pen d. All of the above
86. Concrete slats shall be used preferably for swine over ______.
a. 30 kg c. 90 kg
b. 60 kg d. 100 kg
87. Heaters shall be installed in ___________ areas to provide the required temperature of 27°C –
35°C
a. farrowing c. Boar pens
b. breeding d. Creep
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88. Ceiling height for swine housing shall be at least _____ high.
a. 2.0m c. 2.4m
b. 2.1m d. 3.0m
89. In partially slotted floors, the slats shall be placed _______ to the long dimensions of pens.
a. diagonal c. perpendicular
b. parallel d. Any of the above
90. In totally slotted floors, the slats shall be placed _______ to the sow.
a. diagonal c. perpendicular
b. parallel d. Any of the above
91. The space required for feeds for swine housing should be based on _____ supply of feeds
a. 2 days c. 14 days
b. 7 days d. 30 days
93. It is a material placed around the brooder stoves to prevent the chicks from staying too far away
from the heat supply until they learn the source of heat
a. Brooder wall c. Brooder guard
b. Brooder cover d. None of the above
95. The entrance doors of a housing for broiler production shall be at least ________ wide.
a. 0.9 m c. 1.2 m
b. 2.4 m d. 2 m
96. The entrance doors of a housing for broiler production shall be at least ________ high.
a. 1.5 m c. 2 m
b. 1.8 m d. None of the above
97. The floor of broiler housing shall be elevated at least _____m from the ground.
a. 0.5m c. 0.9m
b. 0.6m d. 1m
98. The minimum post diameter for broiler housing as specified in PAES 402
a. 100mm c. 300mm
b. 200mm d. 350mm
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99. The minimum aisles and walkways between doors walls for a broiler housing shall be at least
______ wide
a. 1m c. 1.2m
b. 0.8m d. 1.5m
100. If a mechanical ventilation is necessary for a poultry building, it should be installed on
the __________ side to the prevailing winds.
a. left c. adjacent
b. front d. opposite
101. In a broiler housing, waterers should be spaced uniformly throughout the house. No bird
shall have to go over ___ to drink water.
a. 1m c. 3m
b. 2m d. 0.5m
102. As the bird grow in a broiler housing, feeders shall be raised to maintain the feed level at
_______.
a. floor level c. the same height as the back of the
chicken
b. bird’s eye level d. The same height of the chicken
103. The minimum depth of litter material over the cemented floor in a litter-type floor broiler
housing.
a. 50 to 100mm c. 100 to 150mm
b. 75 to 125mm d. 150 to 200mm
105. What is the distance of the slatted floor of a goat and sheep housing from the ground?
a. 0.9 m c. 1.2 m
b. 1.0 m d. None of the above
106. For shed type sheep and goat housing, the height of the front eave shall be at least 2m
and the height of the rear eave shall be _____.
a. At least 1.5m c. 0.5m lower than the front eave
b. Same height as the front eave d. 2.4m higher
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a. buck c. ewe
b. doe d. kid
111. It is a place in the slaughter house to supply hot water with temperature of 80 C and is
equipped with heating facilities.
a. Boiler Room c. Dressing area
b. Personnel area d. Gut room
113. The dipping of animals in a steam to ready their skin for dehairing
a. Flaying c. Gambrelling
b. Scalding d. None of the above
114. A slaughter house has a throughput of 30 swines per day. What is the recommended
dimensions?
a. 8.6 x 5.8 m c. 23.3 x 15 m
b. 12.5 x 6.4 m d. 8 x 5 m
115. The slaughter house shall be elevated to at least ____________ above the adjacent
ground.
a. 700 mm c. 600 mm
b. 1400 mm d. 500 mm
116. What is the recommended thickness of the floor slab of a slaughter house?
a. 100 mm c. 150 mm
b. 125 mm d. 200 mm
117. The rebar in a flooring of a slaughter house shall be spaced __________ both ways.
a. 100 mm c. 150 mm
b. 125 mm d. 200 mm
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118. What is the recommended size of reinforcement bar to be used in the flooring for a
slaughter house?
a. 10 mm c. 16 mm
b. 12 mm d. 8 mm
122. How many layer/s of plasters is applied to the concrete wall of a large biogas digester?
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4
125. As an AB engineer, what pipe material should you recommend for the exposed gas outlet
pipe of a biogas digester located in a site with high intensity of sunlight?
a. GI pipes c. BI pipes
b. PVC pipes d. All of the above
126. It is a device along the gas line of a biogas plant designed to stop the propagation of
flame.
a. Water trap c. Flame arrester
b. Flare assembly d. Gas valves
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129. Residue remaining after water is removed from waste material by evaporation.
a. Moisture content c. Volatile Solids
b. Fixed solids d. Total Solids
130. A part of total solids driven off as volatile gases when heated to 600C.
a. Volatile Solids c. Dissolved solids
b. Suspended solids d. Fixed solids
131. That part of total solids remaining after volatile gases driven off at 600C.
a. Volatile Solids c. Dissolved solids
b. Suspended solids d. Fixed solids
133. Quantity of oxygen needed to satisfy biochemical oxidation of organic matter in waste
sample in 5 days at 20C
a. P2O5 c. BOD5
b. COD d. K2O
134. Type of waste collection system recommended for swine buildings according to PAES
414-1:2002?
a. Scrape systems c. Flush systems
b. Gravity drain systems d. All of the above
135. The recommended width of scrape alley for dairy and beef cattle according to PAES 414-
1:2002?
a. 2.5 to 4m c. 3.5 to 5m
b. 1 to 3m d. 10 to 15m
136. The recommended width of scrape alley for swine and poultry according to PAES 414-
1:2002?
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a. 2.5 to 4m c. 3.5 to 5m
b. 1 to 3m d. 10 to 15m
137. The specified minimum depth of sludge volume in a storage tank according to PAES 414-
1:2002?
a. 0.2m c. 0.1m
b. 0.3m d. Not applicable
138. It is defined as the liquid that flows into a containing space
a. Influent c. Sludge
b. Effluent d. Slurry
144. A type of treatment lagoon designed on the basis of surface treatment area.
a. Aerobic lagoons c. Both a and b
b. Anaerobic lagoons d. None of the above
145. A type of lagoon that can function as aerobic or anaerobic depending on the
environment.
a. Mechanically aerated lagoons c. Facultative
b. Long ditches d. None of the above
146. The design volume of aerobic lagoon also includes sludge volume.
a. True
b. False
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148. What is the minimum depth for the foundations of a permanent greenhouses?
a. 0.35 m c. 0.45 m
b. 0.4 m d. 0.5 m
150. The framing of a greenhouse shall be able to withstand maximum wind gusts of _____.
a. 200 km/hr c. 150 km/hr
b. 250 km/hr d. 300 km/hr
151. The covering of a greenhouse should be durable as well as economical and should
withstand heavy loads like wind gusts of ________.
a. 200 km/hr c. 150 km/hr
b. 250 km/hr d. 300 km/hr
152. The roof pitch for a glass greenhouse should be ______ to prevent inside condensation
from dripping on plants
a. 58 % c. 70 %
b. 51 % d. 2 %
153. What is the maximum spacing required for uniform ventilation for the fans in a
greenhouse structure?
a. 5 m c. 10 m
b. 7.5 m d. 2.5 m
154. Fans should be located on the __________ side of the greenhouse building?
a. Upwind
pwind c. Right
b. Downwind d. Left
156. It is subjecting of cultures to conditions favorable to the growth of the plant tissue?
a. asepsis c. sterilization
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159. The recommended size of reinforcing bar for the wall of bagged storage warehouse.
a. 10mm c. 16mm
b. 12mm d. 8mm
160. What is the recommended spacing of the reinforcing bar for the wall of a bagged storage
warehouse?
a. 600 mm on center, both ways c. 600 mm on center, horizontal
b. 600 mm on center, vertical d. 600 mm on center, diagonal
161. The height of the stacks in a bagged storage warehouse shall not exceed the height of
the walls and a space of at least _________ shall be allowed between the tops of the stacks and
roof frames.
a. 6 m c. 2 m
b. 1 m d. 3 m
163. It is a recommend stacking method for bagged grains with 14% moisture content and
lower.
a. Chinese method c. Filipino method
b. Japanese method d. Criss-cross stacking
164. It is a recommend stacking method for bagged grains with more than 14% moisture
content and higher.
a. Chinese method c. Filipino method
b. Japanese method d. Criss-cross stacking
165. Sacks made of woven polypropelene shall not be stacked more than _________ high.
a. 6 m c. 2 m
b. 1 m d. 3 m
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167. The suitable material used to replace other materials removed during construction
a. Aggregates
ggregates c. Base course
b. Backfill d. Borrow
168. The layer of aggregate, soil-treated aggregate, treated soil, or soil aggregate that rests
upon the subbase or if no subbase, upon the sub-grade
a. aggregates c. Base course
b. backfill d. borrow
169. A space intended to employ traffic consideration for the transport of agricultural products
a. Highway c. Roadway
b. Road d. None of the above
170. The part of the roadway next to the travel way providing lateral support of base and
surface courses used as emergency stopping area for the vehicles.
a. Roadbed c. Road shoulder
b. Roadway embankment d. None of the above
175. Which of the following cross section of the road side ditch not specified in the PAES
a. trapezoidal c. rectangular
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176. In designing farm-to-market roads, what is the recommended minimum radius design
for curvature for flat terrain?
a. 50 m c. 500 m
b. 150 m d. None of the above
177. In designing farm-to-market roads, what is the recommended minimum radius design
for curvature for rolling terrain?
a. 50 m c. 500 m
b. 150 m d. None of the above
179. For wall and ceiling surfaces of a poultry dressing/slaughtering plant, it should be ____.
a. Preferably not painted c. Painted with any light color for
sanitary purposes.
b. Should be painted white if painting d. All of the above
is required
180. In PAES 422-1, pipelines carrying potable water is color coded _____.
a. Blue c. White
b. Green d. Orange
181. The ceiling height for a small scale poultry dressing / slaughtering plant should be at
least ______.
a. 2.4 m c. 3.7 m
b. 3 m d. 6 m
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183. It is a unit consisting of upright containers used for storage and handling of grains in bulk
and provided with necessary equipment and accessories
a. Bulk system c. Silo
b. Vertical storage d. None of the above
185. In bin and silo design, it is referred to as the ratio of the equivalent height to the
diameter.
a. Slenderness c. h/D ratio
b. Aspect ratio d. All of the above
186. A rectangular bin/silo having a dimension of 6m x 3m x 10m (L x W x H) is classified as
______ based on PAES.
a. Intermediate c. Retaining
b. Slender d. Squat
188. It is the angle of the material when the grains held starts to move.
a. Angle of friction c. Angle of surcharge
b. Angle of repose d. None of the above
189. It is a board where the flow of grains at different points of the system at any time will be
reflected
a. Board wall c. Viewing panel
b. Mimic board d. None of the above
190. The equation used in solving the static vertical pressure in bins and silos.
a. Modified Coloumbs Equation c. Janssen Equation
b. Hydrostatic equation d. None of the above
4 STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS
191. When external loads are applied on a member, it results to ____.
a. Generation of support reactions c. Deformation of the member
b. Development of internal stresses in d. All of the above
the member
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192. It’s a structural element characterized by having lengths way greater than their cross
sections
a. Line elements c. Point elements
b. Spatial elements d. None of the above
193. It’s a structural element characterized by having their area is way larger than their
thickness.
a. Line elements c. Point elements
b. Spatial elements d. None of the above
198. It is a structural element that transmits forces from one member to another
a. Supports and joints c. Frames
b. Beams d. Trusses
199. It is a type of structural support that does not allow rotation as well as translation.
a. Pin support c. Fixed support
b. Roller support d. Rocker support
200. It is a type of structural support that does not allow translation in both axis but allows
rotation.
a. Pin support c. Fixed support
b. Roller support d. Rocker support
201. It is a type of structural support that does not allow translation in one axis only but allows
rotation.
a. Pin support c. Fixed support
b. Roller support d. Rocker support
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203. When a truss is loaded at the member and at the joints, the member will experience
__________
a. Axial loading only c. Both a and b
b. Flexural loadings only d. None of the above
204. In analyzing or designing a truss, the joints of a truss are assumed to be __________.
a. Fixed supports c. Roller supports
b. Internal hinge d. Link supports
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213. It relates the displacement of the structure so that its various parts fit together
a. Equillibrium equations c. Force-deformation relationships
b. Compatibility conditions d. All of the above
215. A beam fixed on one end, and roller support on the other end, and another roller support
along the midspan is ______?
a. Statically determinate c. Statically determinate to the second
degree
b. Statically indeterminate to the first d. None of the above
degree
217. Determine the force in member B of the gusset plate of a steel truss in an agricultural
structure. The forces are concurrent at O.
a. 11.96 kN c. 14.3 kN
b. 16.3 kN d. 15.5 kN
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An agricultural frame building is subjected to the following wind loads as shown. Determine the
following:
219. Find the reaction Ax.
a. 120 kN c. 240 kN
b. 285 kN d. 195 kN
5 STRUCTURAL LOADS
227. The live loads for swine housing are obtained from __________.
a. PAES Volume 4 c. Two of the above
b. NSCP Volume 1 d. None of the above
230. Which of the following does not affect the wind load effect for a building?
a. Building height c. Wind direction
b. Topography d. Wind speed
e. None of the above
231. Flood loads includes __________.
a. Hydrostatic loads c. Wave loads
b. Hydrodynamic loads d. Impact loads
e. All of the above
232. It accounts for the ponding of water that accumulates in the roof.
a. Roof Load c. Rain Load
b. Roof Live Load d. Other Minimum Loads
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237. The meaning ofIn structural design, what does ASD mean?
a. Analysis of Stress Design c. Allowable Stress Design
b. Allowable Strength Design d. Analysis of Strength Design
238. It is a method of proportioning structural components such that the design strength
equals or exceeds the required strength of the component based on statistical approach.
a. Allowable Stress Design c. Two of the above
b. Load and Resistance Factor Design d. None of the above
239. It is a factor that accounts for deviations of the nominal load from the actual load, for
uncertainties in the analysis that transforms the load into a load effect and for the probability
that more than one extreme load will occur simultaneously
a. Factor of safety c. Nominal factor
b. Load factor d. all of the above
240. It is a method of proportioning structural components such that the allowable strength
equals or exceeds the required strength of the component based on traditional approach.
a. Allowable Strength Design c. Two of the above
b. Load and Resistance Factor Design d. None of the above
241. In LRFD design philosophy, the factored resistance is ___________ the factored loads
a. equal than c. Less than
b. greater than d. Equal or greater than
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245. If the strength reduction factor for shear is 0.75, calculate the nominal shear strength.
a. 5.6 kN c. 6.88 kN
b. 3.15 kN d. 3.87 kN
246. If the strength reduction factor for moment is 0.9, calculate the nominal moment
capacity.
a. 2.21 kNm c. 3.44 kNm
b. 2.27 kNm d. 2.79 kNm
247. Which of the following does the strength reduction factors accounts for:
a. Uncertainties in material strength c. Variations in placement of
reinforcements
b. Variations in dimensions d. All of the above
248. What is the factored dead loads to be carried by a 300 x 300 mm column if the tributary
area is 3m x 3m. The dead load is 2 kPa, while the live load is 1.9 kPa.
a. 3.9 kN c. 25.2 kN
b. 0.25 kN d. 39 kN
249. Determine the dead loads carried by one of the hanger bars
a. 5.2 kN c. 2.6 kN
b. 1.6 kN d. 6.2 kN
250. Determine the live loads carried by one of the hanger bars
a. 10.4 kN c. 5.2 kN
b. 3.2 kN d. 4.6 kN
a. 22.8 kN c. 11.4 kN
b. 4.8 kN d. 7.8 kN
252. Determine the factored uniform dead load for a reinforced concrete beam if the length is
5m, and the beam cross section is 0.2 x 0.3 m. Use unit weight of reinforced concrete is 24
kN/m3.
a. 24 kN/m c. 7.2 kN
b. 36 kN/m d. 1.44 kN/m
254. If the dead load is significant such that the live load and roof live load is negligible, what
would be the required axial strength?
a. 480 kN c. 1373 kN
b. 1328 kN d. 560 kN
255. If only dead and live load is significant, what would be the required axial strength of the
column?
a. 480 kN c. 1373 kN
b. 1328 kN d. 560 kN
257. It is a structural material where the steel is imbedded in the concrete under high
tension that is held in equilibrium by compressive stresses in the concrete after hardening.
a. Concrete c. Prestressed concrete
b. Reinforced concrete d. Cement
258. It is a structural material where the steel is used to enhance the structure’s ability to
resist tensile forces.
a. Concrete c. Prestressed concrete
b. Reinforced concrete d. Cement
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261. How many days will a general purpose cement reach its required strength?
a. 14 days c. 28 days
b. 21 days d. 7 days
262. All concrete regardless of their stress capacity reaches their ultimate strength at a
strain of about __________.
a. 0.001 c. 0.003
b. 0.002 d. 0.004
263. It is a type of concrete test where the fresh concrete is placed inside a conical mold to
determine its consistency.
a. Slump test c. Bearing test
b. Compression test d. Vibration test
265. What is the standard size of the test specimen for compression test?
a. 170 mm dia x 340 mm c. 140 mm dia x 280 mm
b. 160 mm dia x 320 mm d. 150 mm dia X 300 mm
266. What test should be used to determine the tensile strength of concrete
concrete?
a. Slump test c. Split cylinder test
b. Compression test d. None of the above
269. They are substances added to concrete just before or during mixing to improve the
performance of concrete in certain situations.
a. Fine aggregates c. Coarse aggregates
b. Cement d. Admixtures
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271. Which of the following reinforcing steel can be used for reinforced concrete?
a. Reinforcing bars c. Both a and b
b. Welded wire fabric d. None of the above
273. What is the recommended minimum concrete cover for a roof beam of a swine
housing?
a. 75 mm c. 20 mm
b. 50 mm d. 40 mm
275. It is a part of a singly reinforced RC beam designed to carry the tensile stresses
a. Concrete c. Concrete and Main reinforcing steel
b. Main reinforcing steel d. Stirrups
276. It is a part of a singly reinforced RC beam designed to resist the compressive stresses
a. Concrete c. Concrete and Main reinforcing steel
b. Main reinforcing steel d. Stirrups
277. It is a part of a singly reinforced RC beam where the stirrups are anchored.
a. Anchor bars c. Compression steel
b. Longitudinal bars d. Hanger bars
278. In a cantilever reinforced concrete beam under uniform loading, the steel reinforcement
is placed at the ___________.
a. Free end c. Bottom
b. Support d. Top
280. It is a beam wherein both the tension and the compression zone has reinforcement.
a. T-beam c. Singly reinforced beam
b. L-beam d. Doubly reinforced beam
282. It is a term used for beam where under flexural loads, concrete will fail first before steel
reinforcement will yield.
a. Under reinforced beam c. Balanced section
b. Over reinforced beam d. No reinforcement Section
283. It is a term used for beam sections where under flexural loads, steel reinforcement will
yield first before concrete will fail.
a. Under reinforced beam c. Balanced section
b. Over reinforced beam d. No reinforcement
284. It is a term used for beam sections where under flexural loads, steel reinforcement will
yield the same time concrete will fail.
a. Under reinforced c. Balanced section
b. Over reinforced d. No reinforcement
285. It is the bar that accounts for the positive or negative moment in the fixed-fixed beam.
a. Extra bars c. Cut bars
b. Short bars d. All of the above
288. The depth of the beam is the distance from the top of the beam to the __________.
a. Bottom end of the beam c. Center of the reinforcing steel
b. Neutral axis d. Centroid of the reinforcing steel
b. False
292. Which of the following rebar configurations can be used for the stirrups?
a. L-shape c. rectangular
b. U-shape d. All of the above
293. In a simply supported reinforced concrete beam under uniform loading throughout its
length, the location where the stirrups are narrowly spaced is at __________.
a. L/4 c. Midspan
b. Support d. L/3
294. In a simply supported reinforced concrete beam under uniform loading throughout its
length, the position where the stirrups are widely spaced is at __________.
a. L/4 c. Midspan
b. Support d. L/3
295. Commonly used for fixing the stirrups onto the longitudinal bars and hanger bars?
a. Welding c. Tie wires
b. No. 3 rebars d. All of the above
6.1.3 Slabs
296. The base slab of a slaughter house building exposed on ground is made of 150mm
thick reinforced concrete slab and having 10mm reinforcing bars. What is the minimum
concrete cover?
a. 20mm c. 50mm
b. 40mm d. 75mm
297. It is the steel added in a one-way slab perpendicular to the main reinforcement.
a. Temperature bars c. Distribution steel
b. Shrinkage reinforcement d. All of the above
299. Heavy equipment such as generators with engines are constructed with foundations so
that it will not transmit its stresses to the slab-on-ground. Which of the following joints should be
used?
a. Isolation joints c. Construction joints
b. Contraction joints d. None of the above
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302. What can be done if the required development length is restricted by the details of
constructions?
a. Bend the bars c. Splice the bar
b. Cut the bars d. None of the above
304. What should be done if the bar length is not enough for a given beam span?
a. Extrude the bar so that required bar c. Splice the bar and continue until
length is met required length.
b. Bend the bar to have proper d. None of the above
development length
6.1.5 Columns
306. It is a part of a reinforced concrete column for resisting the axial loads
a. Steel reinforcements c. Concrete and steel reinforcements
b. concrete d. Lateral ties
307. Which of the following is not correct regarding reinforced concrete columns?
a. Ties provides lateral restraints c. Ties are stronger than spiral
b. Ties are less ductile as compared to d. Ties are effective in increasing the
spirals column strength
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b. 0.0134 d. 0.0341
312. The area of steel reinforcement (As) in a reinforced concrete column shall be
___________ of the gross area of concrete.
a. 0.02 < As < 0.09 c. As > 0.1
b. 0.01 < As < 0.08 d. 0.1 < As < 0.8
313. Why should the maximum percentage of steel reinforcement may not be greater than 8%
of the gross cross-sectional area of the column?
a. To prevent overcrowding of the bar c. To reduce difficulty of placing the
steel into the forms and still get the
concrete into the forms and around
the bars.
b. To prevent having honeycomb in the d. All of the above
concrete
314. A column in an agricultural structure has the following dimensions: 0.3m x 0.3m, and 6-
16mm longitudinal bars using 10mm ties. Determine the maximum vertical spacing of the tie.
a. 300 mm c. 256 mm
b. 480 mm d. None of the above
315. If the column used in a poultry dressing plant is a 400 x 400 mm and having 8-16mm
reinforcing bars, what is the recommended concrete cover for the portion of the column not
exposed to earth?
a. 20mm c. 50mm
b. 40mm d. 75mm
318. The maximum clear spacing (cross sectional) between longitudinal bars for a reinforced
concrete column is ______.
a. 100 mm c. 150 mm
b. 25 mm d. None of the above
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6.1.6 Footing
319. Which of the following is a function of a footing
a. To transfer the load to the c. To provide sufficient resistance to
underlying soil sliding and overturning
b. To prevent excessive or uneven d. All of the above
settlements and rotations
320. It is a report that determines the allowable soil pressures and other data regarding the
soil where the structure is to be built.
a. Geological report c. Geotechnical report
b. Geographical report d. Geometrical report
322. What type of footing is to be used when the columns are so close together that a single
column footings would run to each other?
a. Two footings c. Pile caps
b. Combined footings d. Isolated footings
323. What type of footings is to be used when supporting the load of a single column only?
a. Two footings c. Pile caps
b. Combined footings d. Isolated footings
325. It is an iron-carbon alloy where the carbon content is less than 0.15% by weight?
a. Wrought iron c. Cast iron
b. steel d. Stainless steel
326. It is an iron-carbon alloy where the carbon content is between 0.15% to 1.7% by weight?
a. Wrought iron c. Cast iron
b. Steel d. Stainless steel
327. Increasing the carbon content by weight of a steel influences its __________.
a. Strength only c. Strength and ductility
b. Ductility only d. None of the above
330. It is the term for the steel as received from the steel producer or warehouse before being
cold worked as a result of fabricating operations
a. Ordinary Steel c. Virgin Steel
b. Original steel d. Cold steel
334. A hot rolled steel shape has the following designation W14x22. What does the first letter
indicate?
a. The shape is a wide web c. The shape is a wide angle
b. The shape is a wide flange d. The shape is a wide channel
335. What does the first two digit number correspond to?
a. The approximate value of the width c. The weight of the shape
of the flange
b. The approximate value of the depth d. The cross sectional area of the
of the shape shape
336. What does the second two digit number correspond to?
a. The approximate value of the width c. The weight of the shape
of the flange
b. The approximate value of the depth d. The cross sectional area of the
of the shape shape
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337. A steel truss in a swine housing uses an L2x2x3/16 steel shape. What is the shape of
the section?
a. Unequal leg angles c. Tee
b. Miscellaneous shape d. None of the above
341. It is the ratio of the effective length to the radius of gyration of the section.
a. Euler critical buckling length c. Slenderness ratio
b. Poisson’s ratio d. None of the above
342. It is defined as the ratio of the unsupported length to its maximum radius of gyration.
a. Slenderness c. Buckling factor
b. Slenderness ratio d. Elasticity
343. A short steel column with length L, modulus of elasticity E, cross sectional area A, and
moment of inertia I will _____ when subjected to a compression load P.
a. Buckle at c. Deflect at
b. Shorten by d. All of the above
344. In a long steel column with length L, modulus of elasticity E, cross sectional area A, and
moment of inertia I, the greatest factor influencing the buckling tendency under a compressive
force P is _____.
a. Modulus of elasticity c. Radius of gyration
b. Moment of inertia d. Length of the column
345. It is a factor that accounts for the influence of the boundary conditions in the buckling
stress equation.
a. Slenderness factor c. Effective length factor
b. Radius of gyration d. Elasticity
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347. For doubly symmetric steel shapes, the radius of gyration along the x and along the y is
_____.
a. the same c. Maybe the same or not the same
b. not the same d. None of the above
350. Insufficient lateral bracing of beams can cause to a failure that is called __________.
a. Local buckling c. Lateral torsional buckling
b. Shear yielding in the web d. Excessive deflection
352. It is a type of lumber that is freshly cut wood and the MC can vary from as low as 30% to
as high as 200%.
a. Dry lumber c. Hardwood
b. Green lumber d. Grading
354. A lumber of square or approximately square cross section, 125mm x 125mm (nominal)
and larger, with width not more than 50mm greater than thickness
a. Dimension lumber c. Post and timbers
b. Beams and stringers d. Decking
355. It refers to lumber from 50mm to 100mm (nominal) thick, tongued and grooved, or
grooved for spline on the narrow face
a. Dimension lumber c. Post and timbers
b. Beams and stringers d. Decking
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356. It refers to lumber of rectangular cross section, 125mm (nominal) or more thick, with
width more than 50mm greater than thickness, graded with respect to its strength in bending
when loaded on the narrow face.
a. Dimension lumber c. Post and timbers
b. Beams and stringers d. Decking
357. It refers to lumber from 50mm to 100mm (nominal) thick, and 50mm (nominal) or more
in width
a. Dimension lumber c. Post and timbers
b. Beams and stringers d. Decking
358. The National Design Standards (NDS) for wood construction is published by ____.
a. American Wood Council c. The Engineered Wood Associatiion
b. American Society of Civil Engineers d. American Institute of Timber
Construction
359. It is a product made of two or more thin layers of wood glued together at right angles to
one another
a. Hardboard c. Particle board
b. Plywood d. veneers
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364. It is defined as the range of environmental temperatures within which the metabolic rate
is minimum and in dependent of temperature.
a. Thermoneutral zone c. Isothermal range
b. Thermal index d. Deep body temperature
365. It is a material placed around the brooder stoves to prevent the chicks from staying too far
away from the heat supply until they learn the source of heat
a. Brooder wall c. Brooder guard
b. Brooder cover d. None of the above
366. If the temperature of a poultry house is high, which equipment or methods can be
provided?
a. Additional water troughs c. Fans
b. Roof sprinklers d. All of the above
367. When the temperature inside the poultry housing increases, it will _________ the feed
consumption and growth of the chicken.
a. Increase c. Not affect
b. Decrease d. Slightly
368. It is the physiological loss of water in the plants in the form of water vapor.
a. Evaporation c. Evapotranspiration
b. Transpiration d. Perspiration
e. All of the above
369. Plants are ________ to maintain their cells and tissues at a constant temperature, as
ambient conditions change.
a. able c. Either a or b
b. not able d. None of the above
371. Heaters shall be installed in ___________ areas to provide the required temperature of
27°C – 35°C
a. Farrowing c. Boar pens
b. Breeding d. Creep
372. The recommended orientation of a swine house to obtain proper sunlight, wind flow and
temperature.
a. North-south direction c. North-East direction
b. East-west direction d. South-West direction
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375. In animal thermal environment, it is the heat required to evaporate the water through the
respiratory system and skin.
a. Sensible heat c. Total heat
b. Latent heat d. All of the above
378. These are materials or combination of materials that, when properly applied, retard the
rate of heat by conductive, convective, and/or radiative transfer modes.
a. Thermal insulations c. Thermal mass
b. Vapor retarders d. All of the above
379. It is a type of insulations consisting of fibers, powders, granule, or nodules allowing them
to be well-suited option for spaces where it would be difficult to install other types of installation
a. Loose-fill
- insulations c. Rigid insulations
b. Flexible and semi-rigid d. Formed-in place insulations
380. It is a type of insulating material that comes in two types, expanded (EPS) and extruded
(XEPS) also known as Styrofoam
a. Fiberglass c. Polyurethane
b. Mineral wool d. Polystyrene
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384. It is the temperature difference which results in the total heat flow through a structure as
caused by the combined effects of solar radiation and outdoor temperature.
a. Solar radiation c. Mean temperature
b. Equivalent temperature difference d. Solar factor
385. If in the design, the maximum permissible OTTV for wall/roof is greater than the
permissible, as an agricultural design engineer what would you recommend?
a. Install insulation materials with c. Do not construct the design.
higher conductance.
b. Reduce the outside temperature so d. Recommend another wall design
that the temperature difference is with lower overall heat transfer
lowered down. coefficient value.
7.3 PSYCHROMETRY
387. The study of moist air is referred to as ____.
a. Psychrometrics c. Refrigeration and air conditioning
b. Thermodynamics d. Ventilation
388. It is defined as the state of air when all moisture and contaminants (pollutants, dust,
etc.) have been removed
a. Moist air c. Saturated air
b. Dry air d. Condensed air
391. To raise the relative humidity of the air, which of the following is not true?
a. The specific humidity has to be c. The dry bulb temperature has to
increased, decrease
b. Heat must be removed. d. None of the above
392. These are lines in the psychrometric chart drawn vertically and originating from the
horizontal axis.
a. Wet bulb temperature c. Humidity ratio
b. Dry bulb temperature d. Relative humidity
393. These are lines in the psychrometric chart that originate along the saturation line, and
slope downward to the right. They are oblique lines that differ slightly in direction from that of
enthalpy lines
lines.
a. Wet bulb temperature c. Humidity ratio
b. Dry bulb temperature d. Relative humidity
394. These are lines in the psychrometric chart that curved upwards from the lower left to the
right side of the chart.
a. Wet bulb temperature c. Humidity ratio
b. Dry bulb temperature d. Relative humidity
395. It is the temperature of air at saturation or the temperature to which the air must be
cooled before condensation will begin.
a. Wet bulb temperature c. Dewpoint temperature
b. Dry bulb temperature d. None of the above
396. Which of the following is not involved in a sensible heat psychrometric process?
a. A change in dry bulb temperature c. Enthalpy changes
b. The humidity ratio changes d. The relative humidity changes
398. A psychrometric process that cools and humidifies is also called as _____.
a. Evaporative cooling c. Isentropic conditioning
b. Adiabatic mixing d. Sensible cooling
399. It is the temperature at which the moisture in the air starts to condense.
a. Saturation temperature c. Condensation temperature
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400. Determine the heat required to raise 81 m3 of air at condition 10C db and 80% RH to 32C
db. The RH at state 2 is 20%. The enthalpy at state 1 and state 2 is 25 kJ/kgda and 48 kJ/kgda.
The volume at condition 1 is about 0.81 m3/kgda. The heat added is ____.
a. 2300 kJ c. 4099 kJ
b. 1,509 kJ d. 1,863 kJ
401. Determine the amount of heat removed from 30 m3 of air initially at 40C db and 30% RH,
which is cooled to 25C db without changing the moisture content. At state 1, the air volume is
0.905 m3/kgda and an enthalpy of 75 kJ/kgda. The enthalpy at state 2 is 60 kJ/kgda. The sensible
heat removed is ____.
a. 450 kJ c. 365 kJ
b. 530 kJ d. None of the above
403. Adiabatic means ____ between the system and the surroundings.
a. There is a heat transfer. c. Heat dissipates
b. There is no transfer of heat d. None of the above
404. It is the ratio of the partial pressure exerted by the water vapor to the saturation pressure
of pure water at same temperature.
a. Humidity ratio c. Relative humidity
b. Specific pressure d. Air density
405. The higher the temperature of air, the ___ water it can hold.
a. More c. is not affected
b. Less d. None of the above
406. It is the ratio of the actual vapor density to the vapor density at saturation.
a. Humidity ratio c. Relative humidity
b. Specific pressure d. Air density
8 VENTILATION SYSTEMS
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a. Introducing the outside air into the c. Remove the inside air out of the
building building
b. Thoroughly mixes outside air and d. All of the above
inside air
410. It is a type of mechanical ventilation system where the pressure forces outside air into
the building through the inlets.
a. Positive pressure systems c. Neutral systems
b. Negative pressure systems d. All of the above
411. It is a type of mechanical ventilation system where the pressure forces inside air out the
building through the outlets.
a. Positive pressure systems c. Neutral systems
b. Negative pressure systems d. All of the above
412. When using the energy balance equation, the ventilation rate obtained is for ____.
a. Temperature control c. Humidity control
b. Odor control d. All of the above
413. When using the mass balance equation, the ventilation rate obtained is for ____.
a. Temperature control c. Humidity control
b. Odor control d. All of the above
414. The heat gain from the sensible heat production is ____.
a. 140.4 kW c. 196.6 kW
b. 5.6 kW d. 91.6 kW
418. If a mechanical ventilation is necessary for a poultry building, it should be installed on the
__________ side to the prevailing winds.
a. left c. adjacent
b. front d. opposite
420. A type of fan typically known for high pressure, low volume.
a. Axial fan c. compressor
b. Centrifugal fans d. None of the above
421. It is a propeller fan mounted in a cylindrical housing with close clearance between the
blade and housing to improve airflow efficiency.
a. Radial fan c. Backward curved fan
b. Tubeaxial fan d. Vaneaxial fan
422. It is a propeller fan mounted in a cylindrical housing with close clearance between the
blade and housing to improve airflow efficiency but with addition of a part/assembly that directs
and straightens the flow.
a. Propeller fan c. Vaneaxial fan
b. Tubeaxial fan d. None of the above
425. It is a measure of the resistance to airflow or how much pressure it takes to move air at a
certain rate through a system
a. Static pressure c. Total pressure
b. Velocity pressure d. All of the above
427. At a constant fan diameter and air density, if the fan speed is doubled, the airflow rate
_____.
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a. 2x greater c. 8x greater
b. 4x greater d. None of the above
428. At a constant fan diameter and air density, if the fan speed is doubled, the static
pressure capacity is _____.
a. 2x greater c. 8x greater
b. 4x greater d. None of the above
429. At a constant fan diameter and air density, if the fan speed is doubled, the power
required to operate the fan is _____.
a. 2x greater c. 8x greater
b. 4x greater d. None of the above
430. Which of the following is correct. At a constant fan diameter and air density, the fan
speed is directly proportional to ____
a. Air flowrate c. Cube of power requirement
b. Square of static pressure d. All of the above
432. The changed speed of the fan to obtain the increased in horsepower is ____.
a. 1260 rpm c. 1376 rpm
b. 1065 rpm d. None of the above
434. If the original design requirement for motor is 0.5 hp only, can the same motor be used?
a. Yes c. Maybe
b. No d. None of the above
436. It is defined as the fan pressure rise per volumetric flow rate condition where the fan and
the system are in stable equilibrium.
a. Efficiency c. Brake horsepower curve
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437. When two fans operating the same are employed in series, the total flowrate _____.
a. Increases c. Remains the same
b. Decreases d. None of the above
438. When two fans operating the same are employed in series, the total pressure _____.
a. Increases c. Remains the same
b. Decreases d. None of the above
439. When two fans operating the same are employed in parallel, the total flowrate _____.
a. Increases c. Remains the same
b. Decreases d. None of the above
440. When two fans operating the same are employed in parallel, the total pressure _____.
a. Increases c. Remains the same
b. Decreases d. None of the above
441. If a 36” fan is to be used for a tunnel ventilated poultry housing, determine the total
number of fans to be installed if the fan flowrate is 4.17 m3/s each at a static pressure of 0.2 in.
of water, and the required ventilation rate is 50m3/s.
a. 11 pcs c. 10 pcs
b. 12 pcs d. 11.5 pcs
442. Fans should be located on the __________ side of the greenhouse building?
a. upwind c. right
b. downwind d. left
443. Which of the following adds to the static pressure of an agricultural building?
a. Evaporative cooling pads c. Shutters & Dampers
b. Air inlets d. All of the above
446. It is the inflow of air to the building through leakage or unintentional gaps and openings.
a. Infiltration air flow c. Air leakages
b. Air inlets d. None of the above
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Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024
448. Estimate the infiltration of a mechanically-ventilated dairy barn with house volume of
approximately 100m3 and a pressure difference of 10 Pa. Use flow coefficient of 1.66 and a
dimensionless pressure coefficient of 0.56.
a. 2.51 m3/s c. 6.03 m3/s
b. 4.54 m3/s d. None of the above
449. Calculate the effective air leakage area if the infiltration is 5 m 3/s at a pressure
difference of 30 Pa. Assume a coefficient of discharge of 1.0.
a. 1.01 m2 c. 0.14 m2
b. 0.71 m 2 d. None of the above
451. The maximum vertical height of an evaporative cooling pad when installed.
a. 2.4 m c. 1.2 m
b. 1.8 m d. 0.6 m
452. The minimum vertical height of an evaporative cooling pad when installed.
a. 2.4 m c. 1.2 m
b. 1.8 m d. 0.6 m
453. The recommended face velocity of air through pad for a 4” thick corrugated cellulose.
a. 0.76 m/s c. 1.27 m/s
b. 1.0 m/s d. 1.78 m/s
454. The recommended face velocity of air through pad for a 6” thick corrugated cellulose.
a. 0.76 m/s c. 1.27 m/s
b. 1.0 m/s d. 1.78 m/s
455. Calculate the total area of 4” thick corrugated cellulose evaporative cooling pad if the
installed tunnel fan capacity is 50 m3/s.
a. 39.4 m2 c. 23.0 m2
b. 28.1 m2 d. 7.5 m2
456. Calculate the total evaporative cooling pad (6” thick corrugated cellulose) area if the
installed tunnel fan capacity is 50 m3/s.
a. 39.4 m2 c. 23.0 m2
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Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024
b. 28.1 m2 d. 7.5 m2
457. A pump used in an evaporative cooling pad. The static suction lift is 1m, the static
discharge head is 2.4m
2.4m. Determine the total static head
a. 3.4 m c. 2.4 m
b. 1.4 m d. None of the above
460. When air is pulled out of the structure, the pressure is ____.
a. positive c. neutral
b. negative d. All of the above
461. When wind acts to various parts of buildings, the direction and pressure _____.
a. is the same c. cancels
b. varies d. increases
463. Calculate the minimum separation distance of a swine housing if the obstruction height is
5m and the length of obstruction is 20m.
a. 7 m c. 9 m
b. 8 m d. 10 m
464. Calculate the total ventilation rate if the wind-induced ventilation is 5.2 m3/s and
buoyancy-induced is 2.3 m3/s
a. 7.5 m3/s c. 5.7 m3/s
b. 11.96 m /s
3 d. 9.31 m3/s
465. Calculate the flowrate caused by wind if the inlet opening is 30 m2 and the average wind
speed in the location is 4 m/s.
a. 120 m3/s c. 60 m3/s
b. 42 m3/s d. 72 m3/s
466. Determine the air flow rate from a 30m long naturally-ventilated livestock building that has
a side opening of 1.1m. Assume the wind speed is 5 m/s.
a. 165 m3/s c. 50 m3/s
b. 58 m3/s d. 100 m3/s
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Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024
467. Calculate the required height of the opening along one side for a naturally-ventilated swine
housing. The required flow rate is 50 m3/s. The building length and width is 36m and 8m
respectively. The wind speed in the area is 3.5 m/s
a. 41 m c. 1.2 m
b. 5 m d. 0.8 m
468. Air leakage due to Temperature difference or thermal effect is usually referred to as stack
or chimney effect:
a. True c.
b. False d.
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