0% found this document useful (0 votes)
3 views

DB Structures

The document is a review material for the Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam 2024, authored by an experienced engineer and educator. It is structured into eight chapters covering essential topics such as laws, structural systems, environmental control, and ventilation systems, designed to aid students in their exam preparation. The content includes a series of questions and problems to reinforce both theoretical knowledge and practical application in the field of agricultural engineering.

Uploaded by

weypiencenaves
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
3 views

DB Structures

The document is a review material for the Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam 2024, authored by an experienced engineer and educator. It is structured into eight chapters covering essential topics such as laws, structural systems, environmental control, and ventilation systems, designed to aid students in their exam preparation. The content includes a series of questions and problems to reinforce both theoretical knowledge and practical application in the field of agricultural engineering.

Uploaded by

weypiencenaves
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 59

Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

Page 1 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

ABOUT THE AUTHOR


The author is an agricultural and biosystems engineer and a civil engineer. He took both degrees from
Central Luzon State University. Currently he works as an instructor at Bulacan Agricultural State College
where he has taught various fundamental engineering and professional engineering courses. He was also
assigned to handle the design of some agricultural structure projects in the College. Prior to his work in
the academe, he has industry experiences in the design, drafting, and fabrication of various process
equipment. He’s been invited as lecturer for the ABE board exam review in various review centers since
2018.

ACKNOWLEDGEMENT
The author would like to thank his triune God for the wisdom and opportunity throughout the preparation
of this review material. All glory and honor belongs to Him. He also would like to thank: Isa for the love
and motivation; his parents for their prayers and encouragement.

PREFACE
This review material was prepared for the agricultural and biosystems engineering graduates who are
preparing for the board exam. It is designed to tackle the subject in just 8 hours and is intended to be
delivered with a lecture. The contents of this material are arranged in such a way that it builds up as it
progresses. It comprises of series of questions and problems that compels the students to review both
the theory and practice. Some questions are basic while others may be unfamiliar but inherently related
to this field. And yet still others are sheer practical questions to test whether the student has a thorough
understanding on the subject matter.
The material is divided into 8 chapters:
1. Laws, Codes, & Standards. This chapter outlines the legal basis of the ABE practice related to
agricultural buildings and structures. It also includes topic on National Building Code.
2. Structural Systems and Construction. This covers the construction materials, methods, and
estimates.
3. PAES/BAFS Requirements covers the PAES/BAFS requirements for agricultural buildings and
structures.
4. Structural Analysis is a chapter covering principles of mechanics such as modeling of structural
elements, loads and reactions, and structural responses.
5. Structural Loads tackles the different types of structural loads from NSCP and the design
philosophies: LRFD, and ASD methods.
6. RC, Steel, & Timber is a chapter that deals with the details and basic calculations of reinforced
concrete members, steel members, and timber members.
7. Indoor Environmental Control starts with the topic about the indoor environment, followed by
building heat transfer and psychrometry.
8. Ventilation Systems tackles the calculation of ventilation rates using energy and mass balance. It
also includes calculations on various ventilation system components such as: fans, air inlets,
evaporative cooling pads, and natural ventilations.
Page 1 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

Other topics related to structures and construction are not yet included here, but with these contents, the
author believes that the students will get a wider perspective of the field of agricultural buildings and
structures.
May this material be useful to the aspiring Agricultural and Biosystems Engineers whose passion is on
agricultural buildings and structures. God bless!

Page 2 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

CONTENTS
ABOUT THE AUTHOR ................................................................................................................................................. 1
ACKNOWLEDGEMENT .............................................................................................................................................. 1
PREFACE .................................................................................................................................................................... 1
CONTENTS ................................................................................................................................................................. 3
1 Laws, Codes, & Standards ............................................................................................................................. 5
2 Structural Systems & Construction ............................................................................................................... 9
3 PAES/BAFS Requirements ........................................................................................................................... 12
3.1 PAES 401:2001 – Housing for Swine Production ............................................................................. 12
3.2 PAES 402:2001 – Housing for Broiler Production ............................................................................ 14
3.3 PAES 404:2001 – Housing for Goat & Sheep.................................................................................... 15
3.4 PAES 411:2000 – Slaughterhouse for Swine, Small & Large Animals .......................................... 16
3.5 PAES 413:2001 – Biogas Plant ........................................................................................................... 17
3.6 PAES 414:2002 – Waste Management Structures .......................................................................... 18
3.7 PAES 415:2001 – Greenhouses .......................................................................................................... 20
3.8 PAES 416:2002 – Plant Tissue Culture Laboratory .......................................................................... 20
3.9 PAES 419:2000 – Warehouse for Bagged Storage of Grains ......................................................... 21
3.10 PAES 421:2009 – Farm to Market Roads (Earth, Gravel, Bituminous, Concrete)........................ 22
3.11 PAES 422-1:2012 – Poultry Dressing / Slaughtering Plant – Small Scale .................................... 23
3.12 PAES 422-2:2012 – Poultry Dressing / Slaughtering Plant – Large Scale .................................... 23
3.13 PNS/BAFS PABES 270:2019 – Agricultural Infrastructures – Silo.................................................. 23
4 Structural Analysis......................................................................................................................................... 24
5 Structural Loads ............................................................................................................................................ 28
5.1 Types of Structural Loads ..................................................................................................................... 28
5.2 Load Combinations ................................................................................................................................ 29
6 Reinforced Concrete, Steel, & Timber ........................................................................................................ 32
6.1 Reinforced Concrete Structures .......................................................................................................... 32
6.1.1 Singly-Reinforced Beams.............................................................................................................. 34
6.1.2 Beam Stirrups ................................................................................................................................ 35
6.1.3 Slabs................................................................................................................................................ 36
6.1.4 Development Lengths & Splices ................................................................................................. 37
6.1.5 Columns .......................................................................................................................................... 37
6.1.6 Footing ............................................................................................................................................ 39
Page 3 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

6.2 Steel Structures ..................................................................................................................................... 39


6.2.1 Introduction to Steel Structures .................................................................................................. 39
6.2.2 Compression Members................................................................................................................. 41
6.2.3 Flexural Members .......................................................................................................................... 42
6.3 Timber Structures .................................................................................................................................. 42
7 Indoor Environmental Control ...................................................................................................................... 43
7.1 The Indoor Environment........................................................................................................................ 43
7.2 Building Heat Transfer .......................................................................................................................... 45
7.3 Psychrometry .......................................................................................................................................... 46
8 Ventilation Systems....................................................................................................................................... 48
8.1 Ventilation Rates.................................................................................................................................... 48
8.2 Ventilation Fans ..................................................................................................................................... 50
8.3 Air Inlets .................................................................................................................................................. 52
8.4 Evaporative Cooling Pads ..................................................................................................................... 53
8.5 Natural Ventilation ................................................................................................................................. 54
REFERENCES .......................................................................................................................................................... 55

Page 4 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

1 LAWS, CODES, & STANDARDS


1. It is otherwise known as the Philippine Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Act of 2016.
a. RA8559 c. RA10601
b. RA10915 d. RA8435

2. It is otherwise known as the National Building Code of the Philippines.


a. Presidential Decree No. 10915 c. Presidential Decree No. 1095
b. Presidential Decree No. 1096 d. Presidential Decree 9106

3. Agricultural buildings is classified in which group in the National Building Code?


a. Group A c. Group J
b. Group C d. None of the above

4. This is the office authorized to enforce the provisions of the National Building Code and its IRR in
the field as well as the enforcement of orders and decisions made pursuant thereto.
a. National Building Code Development c. Department of Public Works and
Office (NBCDO) Highways (DPWH)
b. National Building Code Review d. Office of the Building Official (OBO)
Committee (NBCRC)

5. A document issued by the Building Official to an owner/applicant to proceed with the


construction, installation, addition, alteration, renovation, conversion, repair, moving, demolition
or other work activity of a specific project/buildings/structure or portions thereof after
accompanying principal plans, specifications and other pertinent documents with the duly
notarized application are found satisfactory and substantially conforming with the National
Building Code of the Philippines and its Implementing Rules and Regulations.
a. Structural Permit c. Construction Certificate
b. Building Permit d. Ancillary Permit

6. Which of the following is true?


a. Building permit is required for c. Building permit is required for
buildings that are to be constructed buildings that are to be demolished
b. Building permit is required for d. All of the above
buildings that are to be altered,
repaired

7. Building permits are obtained from __________.


a. Civil Engineer c. Building Officials
b. Agricultural Engineer d. Architects

8. The building permit has _____ validity if construction work is not commenced from the date of
such permit.
a. 1 year c. 2 years
Page 5 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

b. 6 months d. None of the above

9. After securing a building permit, initial construction of the structure was done. Then suddenly
the construction activity was put to stop due to some unexpected reasons. How many days will
be the validity of such Building Permit in order to resume construction work without obtaining
new permit?
a. 90 days c. 120 days
b. 100 days d. 30 days

10. The applicable provisions of the various agencies and technical professional codes that are
supplementary to the National Building Code of the Philippines.
a. National Structural Code of the c. Philippine Electrical Code
Philippines
b. National Plumbing Code of the d. Referral Code
Philippines
e. All of the above

11. Types of ancillary permits in building permit application except _____.


a. Mechanical Permit c. Sanitary Permit
b. Electrical Permit d. Electronics Permit
e. None of the Above

12. The required number of sets of building plans, specifications and other documents prepared
during application for building permit
a. 1 c. 5
b. 3 d. 4

13. It is a set of documents required in building permit application tabulating the detail list, quantity
and cost of materials.
a. Specifications c. Bill of materials
b. Application form d. Building plans

14. It is a written technical description of materials, equipment, construction systems, standards,


and workmanship in conjunction with the drawing that details the requirement for acceptable
completion or work.
a. Design Plan c. Specification
b. Technical Plan d. All of the above

15. It is a test report required to determine the soil bearing capacity.


a. Geological report c. Geodetic report
b. Geomatic report d. Geotechnical report

16. It is a document for building permit that is about the zoning of the buildings.
a. Fire safety evaluation clearance c. Location clearance
b. Accomplished application form d. Barangay clearance

17. Which of the following documents are not required for one-storey buildings?
Page 6 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

a. Drawing plans c. Bill of Materials


b. Structural analysis d. Specifications
e. None of the above

18. It is a drawing view in a building plan that shows the changes in the elevation inside the building.
a. Elevation views c. Colum and column footing details
b. Foundation plan d. None of the above

19. What is the designated letter used for agricultural sheets in building plans?
a. A c. E
b. S d. None of the above

20. Structural analysis are required for structures exceeding __________ storey building?
a. 0 c. 2
b. 1 d. 3

21. NSCP stands for ________.


a. National Structural Calculation c. National Structure Code of the
Procedure Philippines
b. Philippine Structural Code d. National Structural Code of the
Philippines

22. In the Philippines, the organization that sets the structural code?
a. Philippine Institute of Civil Engineers c. Philippine Agricultural and
Biosystems Engineers
b. Philippine Institute of Architects d. None of the above

23. The spacing requirements for e.g. swine housing are obtained from ________.
a. PAES Volume 6 c. National Building Code
b. NSCP Volume 1 d. None of the above

24. As an agricultural engineer, upon signing the building plans, which of the following must be
included?
a. Professional license number c. Professional tax receipt number
b. Duration of its validity d. All of the above

25. Which of the following is true?


a. An agricultural and biosystems c. It is allowed to sign and seal plans
engineer can sign his/her name, and specification even if it is expired
affix his/her seal on the plans made provided there is a plan for renewal.
by another agricultural engineer.
b. An agricultural engineer can no d. The agricultural engineer in-charge
longer stamp or seal plan
plans and shall be partially responsible for all
specifications when the license is no plans, designs, specification and
longer valid other documents sealed under
his/her seal or authorized signature.

Page 7 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

26. It refers to all on-site work done in the site preparation, excavation, foundation, assembly of all
the components and installations of utilities, machineries and equipment of buildings or
structures.
a. Renovation c. Construction
b. Demolition d. Repair

27. It is the systematic dismantling or destruction of a building or structure in whole or in part?


a. Renovation c. Construction
b. Demolition d. Repair

28. It refers to any physical change made in buildings or structures to increase the value, quality,
and/or to improve the aesthetics.
a. Renovation c. Construction
b. Demolition d. Repair

29. It is the remedial work done on any damaged or deteriorated portion/s of building/structure to
restore to its original condition.
a. Renovation c. Construction
b. Demolition d. Repair

30. It is a portion of the drawing plan indicating the extent of property lines and location of existing
buildings within the site from which the proposed building is to be constructed.
a. Perspective c. Site development plan
b. Location plan d. Floor plan

31. The diameter of the seal of ABE is ___.


a. 40 mm c. 45 mm
b. 42 mm d. 50 mm

32. The polygon shape in the seal has ____ sides. It represents the functional scopes of practice of
ABE.
a. 12 c. 8
b. 10 d. 4

33. The height of the rectangle inside the polygon in the ABE seal.
a. 5mm c. 8mm
b. 12mm d. 14mm

34. The drawings, plans, designs, and specifications are duly signed, stamped or sealed as
instruments of service, they become as property and documents of the AB engineer whether the
projects for which they were made is executed or not.
a. True
b. False

35. It is an act strengthening, modernizing and aligning the practice of agricultural engineering in the
country into the internationally recognized practice of agricultural and Biosystems engineering,
and for other purposes
a. RA 10601 c. RA10951
b. RA 10968 d. None of the above

Page 8 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

2 STRUCTURAL SYSTEMS & CONSTRUCTION


36. It is a building system which includes the foundations, framings, walls and roofs that must be
able to resists the loads imposed upon it.
a. Structural system c. Plumbing and sanitary system
b. Mechanical system d. Electrical systems.

37. The standard width of a corrugated GI sheets.


a. 0.81 m c. 0.91 m
b. 0.71 m d. 0.61 m

38. The recommended overlapping of corrugated GI sheet roof between ends for steep roof slope.
a. 0.20 m c. 0.30 m
b. 0.25 m d. 0.35 m

39. The recommended overlapping of corrugated GI sheet roof between ends for moderate roof
slope.
a. 0.20 m c. 0.30 m
b. 0.25 m d. 0.35 m

40. The recommended overlapping of corrugated GI sheet roof between ends.


a. 20 to 25 cm c. 30 to 35 cm
b. 25 to 30 cm d. None of the above

41. The recommended overlapping of corrugated GI sheet roof between sides.


a. ½ to 1 corrugation c. 3-1/2 to 4-1/2 corrugations
b. 1-1/2 to 2-1/2 corrugtations d. None of the above

42. A screw commonly used in the construction of roofs.


a. Cap screw c. Self-tapping screw
b. Tek screw d. None of the above

43. It is a roofing accessory that is used to carry and divert the water from the roof into a specific
location.
a. Valley roll c. Flashing
b. Ridge roll d. None of the above

44. It is a roofing accessory that is used to cover the roofing joints to prevent intrusion of water into
the building.
a. Valley roll c. Flashing
b. Ridge roll d. All of the above

45. It is a structural member where the metal roofing sheet is fixed


a. Trusses c. Purlins
b. Rafter d. Both a and b

46. It is a wall classification that only acts as a wall cover.


a. Load-bearing c. Two of the above
Page 9 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

b. Non-load bearing d. None of the above

47. There are __________ concrete hollow blocks per square meter of wall area.
a. 10 CHB c. 15 CHB
b. 13 CHB d. all of the above

48. Estimate the number of hollow blocks required for the portion of a wall of a farm workshop which
is 3.5 meters high from the finished floor line and 20 meters long (excluding columns and
beams). From the finished floor line the wall is extended 0.6 meters lower for the wall footing.
Add a contingency of 10%
a. 820 pcs c. 1173 pcs
b. 1066 pcs d. 910 pcs

49. For the vertical reinforcements for wall, it is usually _________ in construction.
a. Laid in full length c. Spliced the full lengths
b. Cut in shorter lengths d. All of the above

50. Reinforcements for wall are composed of __________.


a. Vertical bars c. Diagonal bars
b. Horizontal bars d. Both a and b

51. Common types of flooring in animal production building


a. Solid floors c. Partially slotted floor
b. Fully slotted floor d. All of the above

52. Slabs on grade may be constructed without steel reinforcements.


a. True
b. False

53. It is a component of structural system where it transmits the load of the structure into the
underlying soil.
a. Beams c. Trusses
b. Columns d. Foundations

54. The mixing proportion of a class AA concrete.


a. 1 : 2.5 : 5 c. 1 : 3 : 6
b. 1 : 2 : 4 d. 1 : 1.5 : 3

55. Cement is commonly bought in terms of?


a. Cubic meter c. Kilo
b. Bags d. None of the above

56. Sand is commonly bought in terms of?


a. Cubic meter c. Kilo
b. Bags d. None of the above

57. One bag of cement is approximately equal to __________.


a. One cubic foot c. Three cubic foot

Page 10 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

b. Two cubic foot d. all of the above

PROBLEM 58 TO 59
A concrete sun drying floor is to be constructed. The floor area has a dimension 20 ft. wide by 40 ft.
long. The thickness of the floor is proposed to be 4 inches. A class A mixture will be adopted for the
construction.

58. Estimate the number of bags of cement using Tagayun’s Method


a. 65 bags c. 67 bags
b. 66 bags d. 68 bags

59. Estimate the number of bags of cement using Fajardo’s Method


a. 65 bags c. 67 bags
b. 66 bags d. 68 bags

60. What is the approximate time for concrete forms before they are safely removed?
a. 14 to 21 days c. 7 to 14 days
b. 3 to 10 days d. None of the above

61. It is a construction equipment used for mixing cement, aggregates, and water in a rotating bin.
a. Bagger mixer c. Plate compactor
b. Vibrator d. All of the above

62. It is a construction equipment used for compacting the soil


a. Bagger mixer c. Plate compactor
b. Vibrator d. All of the above

63. It is a structure consisting of a framework of reinforced concrete column, or steel or timber


stanchions (columns), rafters, and bracings.
a. Hoop structure c. Simple frame
b. Portal frames d. Lattice structure

64. It is a joint between rafter and stanchion in a portal frame at the eave.
a. Apex haunch c. Girt
b. Eaves beam d. Knee haunch

65. It is a horizontal wall secondary member that is secured to columns and supports the wall
covering.
a. Apex haunch c. Girt
b. Eaves beam d. Knee haunch

66. It is a structural component for a roof system to carry roof loads parallel to the slope direction.
a. Purlins c. Sag rod
b. Ridge roll d. Cross Bracing

67. It is a single-span frame of stanchions and rafters, strengthened with knee and apex braces, and
by beams and bracing between the frames. It is used for any house for a wide unrestricted span,
or for maximum flexibility of use.
a. Lattice Structures c. Simple Frame
Page 11 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

b. Portal Frame d. None of the above


68. It is the distance between the underside of the rafter where it meets the outer stanchion and the
internal floor of the building.
a. Apex height c. Eave’s height
b. Total height d. None of the above

69. It refers to the clear distance between two free-standing stanchions comprising a single bay
frame of a steel frame building.
a. Bay width c. Eave
b. Span d. None of the above

70. The part of a roof truss that support directly the purlins
a. Top chord c. ridge
b. Rafters d. None of the above

71. It is a temporary boarding, sheathing or pan used to produce the desired shape of a concrete.
a. Forms c. Fiberglass Panels
b. Scaffolding d. Plywood

72. A temporary structure providing platforms for workers to stand while erecting or repairing a
building.
a. Forms c. Staging
b. Scaffolding d. None of the above

73. It is used as an alternative to using formworks in constructing floor slabs.


a. Steel slabs c. Steel decks
b. Roofing sheets d. None of the above

74. An agricultural engineer had a previous building project having 500 sq.m. For a bagged storage
warehouse and amounting 6,000,000.00 pesos. If a new a project having 1,000 sq.m. is
upcoming, what is the rough cost estimate of the project?
a. 3,000,000 pesos c. 12,000,000 pesos
b. 6,000,000 pesos d. 9,000,000 pesos

75. An agricultural engineer is asked to design a 30-sow level swine housing with a budget of
3,000,000 Php. If the building floor area designed is 8.5m x 36m, estimate the cost of the
building.
a. 3060 Php/ sq.m. c. 9803 Php/sq.m.
b. 7800 Php/sq.m. d. None of the above

3 PAES/BAFS REQUIREMENTS

3.1 PAES 401:2001 – HOUSING FOR SWINE PRODUCTION


76. The recommended orientation of a swine house to obtain proper sunlight, wind flow and
temperature.
a. North-south direction c. North-East direction
b. East-west direction d. South-West direction

Page 12 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

77. The floor of a swine housing should have a 2 to 4% slope towards a __________
a. Gutter c. Away from the feeding trough
b. Drainage canal d. All of the above

78. In swine housing as specified in PAES, heat lamps shall be placed ____.
a. 762 mm above the floor c. Either a or b
b. 152 mm above the sow d. None of the above

79. Pens for boar should be located __________ to dry sow.


a. Away c. On the same location
b. Close d. None of the above

80. A male breeding pig which is at least 8 months old.


a. Gilt c. Sow
b. Boar d. None of the above

81. An area in which a sow is confined during farrowing and lactation period and are freely to turn
around.
a. Farrowing stall c. Farrowing house
b. Farrowing pen d. All of the above

82. It is the act of separating the pigs and the sow


a. Farrowing c. Weaning
b. Gestating d. None of the above

83. An unbred sow which has just been weaned or a non-pregnant sow.
a. Sow c. Wet sow
b. Dry sow d. None of the above

84. A device in which a sow is confined during farrowing and lactation periods and which prevents
sow from turning around.
a. Farrowing stall c. Farrowing house
b. Farrowing pen d. All of the above

85. An unbred female pig at least 8 months old


a. Boar c. Sow
b. Gilt d. None of the above

86. Concrete slats shall be used preferably for swine over ______.
a. 30 kg c. 90 kg
b. 60 kg d. 100 kg

87. Heaters shall be installed in ___________ areas to provide the required temperature of 27°C –
35°C
a. farrowing c. Boar pens
b. breeding d. Creep

Page 13 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

88. Ceiling height for swine housing shall be at least _____ high.
a. 2.0m c. 2.4m
b. 2.1m d. 3.0m
89. In partially slotted floors, the slats shall be placed _______ to the long dimensions of pens.
a. diagonal c. perpendicular
b. parallel d. Any of the above

90. In totally slotted floors, the slats shall be placed _______ to the sow.
a. diagonal c. perpendicular
b. parallel d. Any of the above

91. The space required for feeds for swine housing should be based on _____ supply of feeds
a. 2 days c. 14 days
b. 7 days d. 30 days

3.2 PAES 402:2001 – HOUSING FOR BROILER PRODUCTION


92. What is the minimum height required for the cardboard, or metal sheeting to cover the brooding
the area?
a. 540 mm c. 504 mm
b. 450 mm d. 405 mm

93. It is a material placed around the brooder stoves to prevent the chicks from staying too far away
from the heat supply until they learn the source of heat
a. Brooder wall c. Brooder guard
b. Brooder cover d. None of the above

94. What is the recommended ceiling height for a broiler housing?


a. 0.9 m c. 1.2 m
b. 2.4 m d. 2 m

95. The entrance doors of a housing for broiler production shall be at least ________ wide.
a. 0.9 m c. 1.2 m
b. 2.4 m d. 2 m

96. The entrance doors of a housing for broiler production shall be at least ________ high.
a. 1.5 m c. 2 m
b. 1.8 m d. None of the above

97. The floor of broiler housing shall be elevated at least _____m from the ground.
a. 0.5m c. 0.9m
b. 0.6m d. 1m

98. The minimum post diameter for broiler housing as specified in PAES 402
a. 100mm c. 300mm
b. 200mm d. 350mm

Page 14 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

99. The minimum aisles and walkways between doors walls for a broiler housing shall be at least
______ wide
a. 1m c. 1.2m
b. 0.8m d. 1.5m
100. If a mechanical ventilation is necessary for a poultry building, it should be installed on
the __________ side to the prevailing winds.
a. left c. adjacent
b. front d. opposite

101. In a broiler housing, waterers should be spaced uniformly throughout the house. No bird
shall have to go over ___ to drink water.
a. 1m c. 3m
b. 2m d. 0.5m

102. As the bird grow in a broiler housing, feeders shall be raised to maintain the feed level at
_______.
a. floor level c. the same height as the back of the
chicken
b. bird’s eye level d. The same height of the chicken

103. The minimum depth of litter material over the cemented floor in a litter-type floor broiler
housing.
a. 50 to 100mm c. 100 to 150mm
b. 75 to 125mm d. 150 to 200mm

3.3 PAES 404:2001 – HOUSING FOR GOAT & SHEEP


104. What is the recommended size of the galvanized welded mesh for the slatted flooring of
a goat and sheep housing?
a. 5 mm x 20mm spacing c. 6 mm x 20mm spacing
b. 3 mm x 20mm spacing d. None of the above

105. What is the distance of the slatted floor of a goat and sheep housing from the ground?
a. 0.9 m c. 1.2 m
b. 1.0 m d. None of the above

106. For shed type sheep and goat housing, the height of the front eave shall be at least 2m
and the height of the rear eave shall be _____.
a. At least 1.5m c. 0.5m lower than the front eave
b. Same height as the front eave d. 2.4m higher

107. A mature male goat


a. buck c. ewe
b. doe d. kid

108. A mature female sheep that has already lambed

Page 15 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

a. buck c. ewe
b. doe d. kid

3.4 PAES 411:2000 – SLAUGHTERHOUSE FOR SWINE, SMALL & LARGE


ANIMALS
109. A slaughterhouse with required facilities and operational procedures to serve any market
a. A c. AAA
b. AA d. AAAA

110. NMIS stands for __________.


a. National Manpower for International c. Nationwide Meat Institute Service
Standards
b. National Meat for International d. National Meat Inspection Service
Standard

111. It is a place in the slaughter house to supply hot water with temperature of 80 C and is
equipped with heating facilities.
a. Boiler Room c. Dressing area
b. Personnel area d. Gut room

112. The meat requiring further examination as declared by a veterinary inspector


a. Spoiled meat c. Condemned meat
b. Detained meat d. None of the above

113. The dipping of animals in a steam to ready their skin for dehairing
a. Flaying c. Gambrelling
b. Scalding d. None of the above

114. A slaughter house has a throughput of 30 swines per day. What is the recommended
dimensions?
a. 8.6 x 5.8 m c. 23.3 x 15 m
b. 12.5 x 6.4 m d. 8 x 5 m

115. The slaughter house shall be elevated to at least ____________ above the adjacent
ground.
a. 700 mm c. 600 mm
b. 1400 mm d. 500 mm

116. What is the recommended thickness of the floor slab of a slaughter house?
a. 100 mm c. 150 mm
b. 125 mm d. 200 mm

117. The rebar in a flooring of a slaughter house shall be spaced __________ both ways.
a. 100 mm c. 150 mm
b. 125 mm d. 200 mm

Page 16 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

118. What is the recommended size of reinforcement bar to be used in the flooring for a
slaughter house?
a. 10 mm c. 16 mm
b. 12 mm d. 8 mm

3.5 PAES 413:2001 – BIOGAS PLANT


119. Anaerobic bacteria that act upon organic materials and in the process, produce biogas
a. Methanogens c. Fermentative bacteria
b. Acetogens d. All of the above

120. The gas composition of biogas


a. 60% CH4 and 40%CO c. 40% CH 4 and 60%CO
b. 60% CH4 and 40%CO2 d. 40% CH 4 and 60%CO2

121. Organic material used to produce biogas


a. Substrate c. Sludge
b. Scum d. Effluent

122. How many layer/s of plasters is applied to the concrete wall of a large biogas digester?
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4

123. What is the recommended minimum diameter of reinforcement for a reinforced


digester?
a. 8 mm c. 12 mm
b. 10 mm d. 16 mm

124. The recommended bar spacing for reinforced digester.


a. 0.15m along curve and the c. 0.15m along vertical
horizontal bars
b. 0.15m along curve only d. 0.15m along curve and along
vertical

125. As an AB engineer, what pipe material should you recommend for the exposed gas outlet
pipe of a biogas digester located in a site with high intensity of sunlight?
a. GI pipes c. BI pipes
b. PVC pipes d. All of the above

126. It is a device along the gas line of a biogas plant designed to stop the propagation of
flame.
a. Water trap c. Flame arrester
b. Flare assembly d. Gas valves

Page 17 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

3.6 PAES 414:2002 – WASTE MANAGEMENT STRUCTURES


127. The PD1152 is otherwise known as _______.
a. Environmental Code on Solid and c. Philippine Clean Air Act
Liquid Waste Disposal
b. Water Code d. Philippine Clean Water Act

128. A classification of manure with at least 20% solids


a. Liquid c. Semi solid
b. Slurry d. Solid

129. Residue remaining after water is removed from waste material by evaporation.
a. Moisture content c. Volatile Solids
b. Fixed solids d. Total Solids

130. A part of total solids driven off as volatile gases when heated to 600C.
a. Volatile Solids c. Dissolved solids
b. Suspended solids d. Fixed solids

131. That part of total solids remaining after volatile gases driven off at 600C.
a. Volatile Solids c. Dissolved solids
b. Suspended solids d. Fixed solids

132. A part of total solids removed by a filtration procedure.


a. Volatile Solids c. Dissolved solids
b. Suspended solids d. Fixed solids

133. Quantity of oxygen needed to satisfy biochemical oxidation of organic matter in waste
sample in 5 days at 20C
a. P2O5 c. BOD5
b. COD d. K2O

134. Type of waste collection system recommended for swine buildings according to PAES
414-1:2002?
a. Scrape systems c. Flush systems
b. Gravity drain systems d. All of the above

135. The recommended width of scrape alley for dairy and beef cattle according to PAES 414-
1:2002?
a. 2.5 to 4m c. 3.5 to 5m
b. 1 to 3m d. 10 to 15m

136. The recommended width of scrape alley for swine and poultry according to PAES 414-
1:2002?
Page 18 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

a. 2.5 to 4m c. 3.5 to 5m
b. 1 to 3m d. 10 to 15m

137. The specified minimum depth of sludge volume in a storage tank according to PAES 414-
1:2002?
a. 0.2m c. 0.1m
b. 0.3m d. Not applicable
138. It is defined as the liquid that flows into a containing space
a. Influent c. Sludge
b. Effluent d. Slurry

139. A precipitate resulting from coagulation or sedimentation of liquid waste.


a. Influent c. Sludge
b. Effluent d. Slurry

140. The minimum freeboard depth of a storage pond as specified in PAES.


a. 0.2m c. 0.1m
b. 0.3m d. Not applicable

141. A type of treatment lagoon designed to include treatment volume.


a. Aerobic lagoons c. Both a and b
b. Anaerobic lagoons d. None of the above

142. A type of treatment lagoon designed on the basis of volatile solids


a. Aerobic lagoons c. Both a and b
b. Anaerobic lagoons d. None of the above

143. A type of treatment lagoon designed on the basis of BOD5.


a. Aerobic lagoons c. Both a and b
b. Anaerobic lagoons d. None of the above

144. A type of treatment lagoon designed on the basis of surface treatment area.
a. Aerobic lagoons c. Both a and b
b. Anaerobic lagoons d. None of the above

145. A type of lagoon that can function as aerobic or anaerobic depending on the
environment.
a. Mechanically aerated lagoons c. Facultative
b. Long ditches d. None of the above

146. The design volume of aerobic lagoon also includes sludge volume.
a. True
b. False
Page 19 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

3.7 PAES 415:2001 – GREENHOUSES


147. Which of the following should the foundation and footings of a greenhouse shall be able
to resist?
a. Uplift c. Downward acting loads
b. Overturning d. All of the above

148. What is the minimum depth for the foundations of a permanent greenhouses?
a. 0.35 m c. 0.45 m
b. 0.4 m d. 0.5 m

149. The length of the greenhouse should not exceed __________.


a. 60 m c. 40 m
b. 30 m d. 50 m

150. The framing of a greenhouse shall be able to withstand maximum wind gusts of _____.
a. 200 km/hr c. 150 km/hr
b. 250 km/hr d. 300 km/hr

151. The covering of a greenhouse should be durable as well as economical and should
withstand heavy loads like wind gusts of ________.
a. 200 km/hr c. 150 km/hr
b. 250 km/hr d. 300 km/hr

152. The roof pitch for a glass greenhouse should be ______ to prevent inside condensation
from dripping on plants
a. 58 % c. 70 %
b. 51 % d. 2 %

153. What is the maximum spacing required for uniform ventilation for the fans in a
greenhouse structure?
a. 5 m c. 10 m
b. 7.5 m d. 2.5 m

154. Fans should be located on the __________ side of the greenhouse building?
a. Upwind
pwind c. Right
b. Downwind d. Left

3.8 PAES 416:2002 – PLANT TISSUE CULTURE LABORATORY


155. It is a condition that describes the freedom of plant materials, culture medium, confines
of the culture vessel from contaminating microorganisms?
a. asepsis c. sterilization
b. incubation d. None of the above

156. It is subjecting of cultures to conditions favorable to the growth of the plant tissue?
a. asepsis c. sterilization
Page 20 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

b. incubation d. None of the above

3.9 PAES 419:2000 – WAREHOUSE FOR BAGGED STORAGE OF GRAINS


157. Wooden frames used on concrete floors for stacking bags to prevent direct contact
between the grains and the floor.
a. Pallet c. Dunnage
b. Tarima d. All of the above
158. The recommended size of concrete hollow blocks for the wall of bagged storage
warehouse.
a. 4” c. 8”
b. 6” d. 10”

159. The recommended size of reinforcing bar for the wall of bagged storage warehouse.
a. 10mm c. 16mm
b. 12mm d. 8mm

160. What is the recommended spacing of the reinforcing bar for the wall of a bagged storage
warehouse?
a. 600 mm on center, both ways c. 600 mm on center, horizontal
b. 600 mm on center, vertical d. 600 mm on center, diagonal

161. The height of the stacks in a bagged storage warehouse shall not exceed the height of
the walls and a space of at least _________ shall be allowed between the tops of the stacks and
roof frames.
a. 6 m c. 2 m
b. 1 m d. 3 m

162. What is the specified standard pallet size


a. 125 cm x 61 c. 152 cm x 61 cm
b. 215 cm x 61 d. 125 cm x 16

163. It is a recommend stacking method for bagged grains with 14% moisture content and
lower.
a. Chinese method c. Filipino method
b. Japanese method d. Criss-cross stacking

164. It is a recommend stacking method for bagged grains with more than 14% moisture
content and higher.
a. Chinese method c. Filipino method
b. Japanese method d. Criss-cross stacking

165. Sacks made of woven polypropelene shall not be stacked more than _________ high.
a. 6 m c. 2 m
b. 1 m d. 3 m

Page 21 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

3.10 PAES 421:2009 – FARM TO MARKET ROADS (EARTH, GRAVEL,


BITUMINOUS, CONCRETE)
166. A granular material of mineral composition such as sand, gravel, shell, crushed and
uncrushed stone or lightweight materials.
a. Aggregates c. Base course
b. Backfill d. Borrow

167. The suitable material used to replace other materials removed during construction
a. Aggregates
ggregates c. Base course
b. Backfill d. Borrow

168. The layer of aggregate, soil-treated aggregate, treated soil, or soil aggregate that rests
upon the subbase or if no subbase, upon the sub-grade
a. aggregates c. Base course
b. backfill d. borrow

169. A space intended to employ traffic consideration for the transport of agricultural products
a. Highway c. Roadway
b. Road d. None of the above

170. The part of the roadway next to the travel way providing lateral support of base and
surface courses used as emergency stopping area for the vehicles.
a. Roadbed c. Road shoulder
b. Roadway embankment d. None of the above

171. A road side ditch is located at __________.


a. The end of the roadway c. The roadway
b. The edge of the roadway d. none of the above

172. Which of the following is a mandatory requirement in locating a farm-to-market road?


a. The FMR shall conform to the land c. The FMR shall service to mobilize
use plan of the area. agricultural products/produce from
the production area to the nearest
existing roadway system.
b. The FMR shall link or be located in d. All of the above
the key production areas of valuable
crops and fisheries.

173. A road used as farm-to-market road


a. Earth road c. Bituminous Road
b. Gravel road d. Concrete road
e. All of the above

174. The typical width of farm-to-market road for a one-lane roadway


a. 2 m c. 6 m
b. 4 m d. None of the above

175. Which of the following cross section of the road side ditch not specified in the PAES
a. trapezoidal c. rectangular
Page 22 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

b. triangular d. None of the above

176. In designing farm-to-market roads, what is the recommended minimum radius design
for curvature for flat terrain?
a. 50 m c. 500 m
b. 150 m d. None of the above

177. In designing farm-to-market roads, what is the recommended minimum radius design
for curvature for rolling terrain?
a. 50 m c. 500 m
b. 150 m d. None of the above

3.11 PAES 422-1:2012 – POULTRY DRESSING / SLAUGHTERING PLANT –


SMALL SCALE
178. The poultry dressing plant shall be located in area with at least _____ distance to
dwellings, schools, churches and other public or commercial buildings.
a. 200 m c. 300 m
b. 250 m d. 350 m

179. For wall and ceiling surfaces of a poultry dressing/slaughtering plant, it should be ____.
a. Preferably not painted c. Painted with any light color for
sanitary purposes.
b. Should be painted white if painting d. All of the above
is required

180. In PAES 422-1, pipelines carrying potable water is color coded _____.
a. Blue c. White
b. Green d. Orange

181. The ceiling height for a small scale poultry dressing / slaughtering plant should be at
least ______.
a. 2.4 m c. 3.7 m
b. 3 m d. 6 m

3.12 PAES 422-2:2012 – POULTRY DRESSING / SLAUGHTERING PLANT –


LARGE SCALE
182. The ceiling height for a large scale poultry dressing / slaughtering plant should be at
least ______.
a. 2.4 m c. 3.7 m
b. 3 m d. 6 m

3.13 PNS/BAFS PABES 270:2019 – AGRICULTURAL INFRASTRUCTURES


– SILO

Page 23 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

183. It is a unit consisting of upright containers used for storage and handling of grains in bulk
and provided with necessary equipment and accessories
a. Bulk system c. Silo
b. Vertical storage d. None of the above

184. The height of the vertical-walled


vertical segment of silo.
a. Eave height c. Overall height
b. Equivalent height d. Peak height

185. In bin and silo design, it is referred to as the ratio of the equivalent height to the
diameter.
a. Slenderness c. h/D ratio
b. Aspect ratio d. All of the above
186. A rectangular bin/silo having a dimension of 6m x 3m x 10m (L x W x H) is classified as
______ based on PAES.
a. Intermediate c. Retaining
b. Slender d. Squat

187. The wall of a silo shall be _____


a. Corrosion resistant c. Corrosion resistant and painted
b. Painted d. Corrosion resistant and not painted

188. It is the angle of the material when the grains held starts to move.
a. Angle of friction c. Angle of surcharge
b. Angle of repose d. None of the above

189. It is a board where the flow of grains at different points of the system at any time will be
reflected
a. Board wall c. Viewing panel
b. Mimic board d. None of the above

190. The equation used in solving the static vertical pressure in bins and silos.
a. Modified Coloumbs Equation c. Janssen Equation
b. Hydrostatic equation d. None of the above

4 STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS
191. When external loads are applied on a member, it results to ____.
a. Generation of support reactions c. Deformation of the member
b. Development of internal stresses in d. All of the above
the member

Page 24 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

192. It’s a structural element characterized by having lengths way greater than their cross
sections
a. Line elements c. Point elements
b. Spatial elements d. None of the above

193. It’s a structural element characterized by having their area is way larger than their
thickness.
a. Line elements c. Point elements
b. Spatial elements d. None of the above

194. Typical examples of axial members in compressions.


a. Columns c. Some truss members
b. Some braces d. All of the above

195. It is a beam that carries smaller beams.


a. Joists c. Deep beams
b. Girder d. All of the above

196. It is a planar structural element composed of individual straight members connected


together so as to form a rigid configuration. The joints are assumed to be pin-connected.
a. Truss c. Walls
b. Frame d. Slabs

197. It is a planar structural element composed of individual straight members connected


together so as to form a rigid configuration. The joints are assumed to be fixed-connected.
a. Truss c. Walls
b. Frame d. Slabs

198. It is a structural element that transmits forces from one member to another
a. Supports and joints c. Frames
b. Beams d. Trusses

199. It is a type of structural support that does not allow rotation as well as translation.
a. Pin support c. Fixed support
b. Roller support d. Rocker support

200. It is a type of structural support that does not allow translation in both axis but allows
rotation.
a. Pin support c. Fixed support
b. Roller support d. Rocker support

201. It is a type of structural support that does not allow translation in one axis only but allows
rotation.
a. Pin support c. Fixed support
b. Roller support d. Rocker support

Page 25 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

202. The use of internal hinge ________


a. Makes the problem statically c. Reduces the degree of static
determinate indeterminacy
b. Makes the problem kinematically d. Reduces the degree of kinematic
determinate indeterminacy

203. When a truss is loaded at the member and at the joints, the member will experience
__________
a. Axial loading only c. Both a and b
b. Flexural loadings only d. None of the above

204. In analyzing or designing a truss, the joints of a truss are assumed to be __________.
a. Fixed supports c. Roller supports
b. Internal hinge d. Link supports

205. The degree of freedom for fixed support is __________.


a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. None of the above

206. Which of the following is an example of line load?


a. Wind forces acting on wall c. Beam reaction to column
b. Beam self
self-weight
self-weight d. Footing forces to underlying soil

207. In analyzing a truss, all loadings must be applied ____.


a. Anywhere along the member length c. Both a and b
b. At the joints only d. None of the above

208. When external loads are applied on a member, it results to ____.


a. Generation of support reactions c. Deformation of the member
b. Development of internal stresses in d. All of the above
the member

209. It is the intensity of the internal force distribution in the material.


a. Pressure c. Strain
b. Stress d. Elastic Modulus

210. The slope of a pin support is ____.


a. Zero c. A negative number
b. Non zero d. None of the above

211. The slope of a fixed support is ____.


a. Zero c. A negative number
b. Non zero d. None of the above

212. The deflection of a fixed support is ____.


a. Zero c. A negative number
b. Non zero d. None of the above

Page 26 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

213. It relates the displacement of the structure so that its various parts fit together
a. Equillibrium equations c. Force-deformation relationships
b. Compatibility conditions d. All of the above

214. The deflection of a beam is ______.


a. Directly proportional to the load and c. Directly proportional to the load but
inversely proportional the moment of inversely proportional to the
inertia modulus of elasticity
b. Inversely proportion to the moment d. All of the above
of inertia but directly prortional to
the length

215. A beam fixed on one end, and roller support on the other end, and another roller support
along the midspan is ______?
a. Statically determinate c. Statically determinate to the second
degree
b. Statically indeterminate to the first d. None of the above
degree

216. A beam fixed on both ends is ____.


a. Statically determinate c. Statically determinate to the second
degree
b. Statically indeterminate to the first d. None of the above
degree

PROBLEM 217 TO 218


Refer to the figure below.

217. Determine the force in member B of the gusset plate of a steel truss in an agricultural
structure. The forces are concurrent at O.
a. 11.96 kN c. 14.3 kN
b. 16.3 kN d. 15.5 kN

218. Determine the angle for equilibrium


a. 45 degrees c. 36 degrees
b. 32 degrees d. 40 degrees

PROBLEM 219 TO 222

Page 27 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

An agricultural frame building is subjected to the following wind loads as shown. Determine the
following:
219. Find the reaction Ax.
a. 120 kN c. 240 kN
b. 285 kN d. 195 kN

220. Find the reaction Ay.


a. 120 kN c. 240 kN
b. 285 kN d. 195 kN

221. Find the reaction Cx.


a. 120 kN c. 240 kN
b. 285 kN d. 195 kN

222. Find the reaction Cy.


a. 120 kN c. 240 kN
b. 285 kN d. 195 kN

223. Which of the following statement is true?


a. Statically determinate structures are c. Determinate structures have no
more stable (or rigid) than problems when there’s support
indeterminate structures settlements
b. The deflection (or deformation) of d. None of the above
determinate structures is greater
than indeterminate structures
because of smaller stresses.

5 STRUCTURAL LOADS

5.1 TYPES OF STRUCTURAL LOADS


224. These are loads that are distributed or concentrated and are fixed in position throughout
the lifetime of the structure.
a. Live load c. Environmental load
Page 28 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

b. Dead load d. None of the above

225. The unit weight of concrete.


a. 23.6 kN/m3 c. 21.2 kN/m 3
b. 77 kN/m3 d. None of the above

226. The magnitude of live loads is based on the _____.


a. Weight of the material c. Transient loadings
b. Use or occupancy d. None of the above

227. The live loads for swine housing are obtained from __________.
a. PAES Volume 4 c. Two of the above
b. NSCP Volume 1 d. None of the above

228. The specified live load of a 90 kg swine based on ASABE Standards.


a. 2.4 kN/m2 c. 1.0 kN/m2
b. 1.9 kN/m 2 d. None of the above

229. The roof live load refers to _____.


a. Rain loads that ponds on the roof. c. Loads that the roof experiences
during construction or maintenance.
b. Wind loads that acts on the roof d. None of the above

230. Which of the following does not affect the wind load effect for a building?
a. Building height c. Wind direction
b. Topography d. Wind speed
e. None of the above
231. Flood loads includes __________.
a. Hydrostatic loads c. Wave loads
b. Hydrodynamic loads d. Impact loads
e. All of the above

232. It accounts for the ponding of water that accumulates in the roof.
a. Roof Load c. Rain Load
b. Roof Live Load d. Other Minimum Loads

233. Which of the following is/are considered a lateral load?


a. Dead load c. Rain load
b. Live load d. None of the above

5.2 LOAD COMBINATIONS


234. In any design philosophy, the strength of the material must be ____ the loads it will carry.
a. Equal to c. Greater than
b. Less than d. All of the above

Page 29 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

235. In structural design, ASD means _____.


a. Analysis of Stress Design c. Allowable Stress Design
b. Allowable Strength Design d. Analysis of Strength Design

236. The meaning of LRFD in structural design?


a. Loads and Resistance for Demands c. Live and Roof Factors in Design
b. Load and Resistance Factor Design d. Leading Resistance for Design

237. The meaning ofIn structural design, what does ASD mean?
a. Analysis of Stress Design c. Allowable Stress Design
b. Allowable Strength Design d. Analysis of Strength Design

238. It is a method of proportioning structural components such that the design strength
equals or exceeds the required strength of the component based on statistical approach.
a. Allowable Stress Design c. Two of the above
b. Load and Resistance Factor Design d. None of the above

239. It is a factor that accounts for deviations of the nominal load from the actual load, for
uncertainties in the analysis that transforms the load into a load effect and for the probability
that more than one extreme load will occur simultaneously
a. Factor of safety c. Nominal factor
b. Load factor d. all of the above

240. It is a method of proportioning structural components such that the allowable strength
equals or exceeds the required strength of the component based on traditional approach.
a. Allowable Strength Design c. Two of the above
b. Load and Resistance Factor Design d. None of the above

241. In LRFD design philosophy, the factored resistance is ___________ the factored loads
a. equal than c. Less than
b. greater than d. Equal or greater than

PROBLEM 242 TO 246


A carry concrete slat in the flooring of a swine housing is designed to carry swine up to 225 kg. The
slat cross section is 100mm x 100mm (width x depth) and the span is 2.4m. Dead load is 0.243
kN/m, and live load is 2.5 kN/m. Assume simply supported beam conditions.

242. Calculate the governing load combination using LRFD


a. 0.342 kN/m c. 3.5 kN/m
b. 4.3 kN/m d. 3.4 kN/m

243. Calculate the required shear strength (factored shear).


a. 4.08 c. 5.16 kN
b. 0.41 kN d. 4.2 kN

244. Calculate the required moment capacity (factored moment).

Page 30 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

a. 2.52 kNm c. 2.45 kNm


b. 12.34 kNm d. 3.1 kNm

245. If the strength reduction factor for shear is 0.75, calculate the nominal shear strength.
a. 5.6 kN c. 6.88 kN
b. 3.15 kN d. 3.87 kN

246. If the strength reduction factor for moment is 0.9, calculate the nominal moment
capacity.
a. 2.21 kNm c. 3.44 kNm
b. 2.27 kNm d. 2.79 kNm

247. Which of the following does the strength reduction factors accounts for:
a. Uncertainties in material strength c. Variations in placement of
reinforcements
b. Variations in dimensions d. All of the above

248. What is the factored dead loads to be carried by a 300 x 300 mm column if the tributary
area is 3m x 3m. The dead load is 2 kPa, while the live load is 1.9 kPa.
a. 3.9 kN c. 25.2 kN
b. 0.25 kN d. 39 kN

PROBLEM 249 TO 251


A catwalk of an onion cold storage building is designed for a uniform dead load of 1.6 kPa and a
uniform live load of 3.2 kPa.

249. Determine the dead loads carried by one of the hanger bars
a. 5.2 kN c. 2.6 kN
b. 1.6 kN d. 6.2 kN

250. Determine the live loads carried by one of the hanger bars
a. 10.4 kN c. 5.2 kN
b. 3.2 kN d. 4.6 kN

251. Determine the load combination of one of the hanger bars


Page 31 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

a. 22.8 kN c. 11.4 kN
b. 4.8 kN d. 7.8 kN

252. Determine the factored uniform dead load for a reinforced concrete beam if the length is
5m, and the beam cross section is 0.2 x 0.3 m. Use unit weight of reinforced concrete is 24
kN/m3.
a. 24 kN/m c. 7.2 kN
b. 36 kN/m d. 1.44 kN/m

PROBLEM 255 TO 257


253. A column in an agricultural structure is subjected to gravitational loads only. Using the
tributary area concept what is the required axial strength of the column of
, and
a. 480 kN c. 1373 kN
b. 1328 kN d. 560 kN

254. If the dead load is significant such that the live load and roof live load is negligible, what
would be the required axial strength?
a. 480 kN c. 1373 kN
b. 1328 kN d. 560 kN
255. If only dead and live load is significant, what would be the required axial strength of the
column?
a. 480 kN c. 1373 kN
b. 1328 kN d. 560 kN

6 REINFORCED CONCRETE, STEEL, & TIMBER

6.1 REINFORCED CONCRETE STRUCTURES


256. It is a stone-like material obtained by proportioning mixture of cement, sand, and gravel
or other aggregate, and water to harden in forms of the shape and dimensions of the desired
structure.
a. Concrete c. Prestressed concrete
b. Reinforced concrete d. Cement

257. It is a structural material where the steel is imbedded in the concrete under high
tension that is held in equilibrium by compressive stresses in the concrete after hardening.
a. Concrete c. Prestressed concrete
b. Reinforced concrete d. Cement

258. It is a structural material where the steel is used to enhance the structure’s ability to
resist tensile forces.
a. Concrete c. Prestressed concrete
b. Reinforced concrete d. Cement

259. The role of the steel reinforcement in the concrete is ________?


a. to carry the tensile load c. To increase the capacity

Page 32 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

b. To provide additional strength when d. All of the above


used in compression

260. Which of the following is not true?


a. The tensile strength of concrete c. The tensile strength of concrete is
affects the shear strength and approximately 8 to 12% of its
torsional strength compression strength.
b. The tensile strength has significant d. None of the above
impact on deflections

261. How many days will a general purpose cement reach its required strength?
a. 14 days c. 28 days
b. 21 days d. 7 days

262. All concrete regardless of their stress capacity reaches their ultimate strength at a
strain of about __________.
a. 0.001 c. 0.003
b. 0.002 d. 0.004

263. It is a type of concrete test where the fresh concrete is placed inside a conical mold to
determine its consistency.
a. Slump test c. Bearing test
b. Compression test d. Vibration test

264. Among the slump test results, which result is desirable?


a. True slump c. Collapsed slump
b. Zero slump d. Shear slump

265. What is the standard size of the test specimen for compression test?
a. 170 mm dia x 340 mm c. 140 mm dia x 280 mm
b. 160 mm dia x 320 mm d. 150 mm dia X 300 mm

266. What test should be used to determine the tensile strength of concrete
concrete?
a. Slump test c. Split cylinder test
b. Compression test d. None of the above

267. Water to be used for making concrete should be __________.


a. Potable water c. Seawater
b. Muddy water d. Distilled water

268. As water is added in a concrete mix, the strength of concrete __________.


a. Increases c. Remains the same
b. Decreases d. None of the above

269. They are substances added to concrete just before or during mixing to improve the
performance of concrete in certain situations.
a. Fine aggregates c. Coarse aggregates
b. Cement d. Admixtures

Page 33 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

270. What does ACI mean?


a. American Civil Institue c. American Concrete Institute
b. American Concrete and Iron d. None of the above

271. Which of the following reinforcing steel can be used for reinforced concrete?
a. Reinforcing bars c. Both a and b
b. Welded wire fabric d. None of the above

6.1.1 Singly-Reinforced Beams


272. It is the distance from the nearest surface of concrete to the surface of the reinforcing
steel
a. Depth c. Beam width
b. Total height d. Concrete cover

273. What is the recommended minimum concrete cover for a roof beam of a swine
housing?
a. 75 mm c. 20 mm
b. 50 mm d. 40 mm

274. It is a part of an RC beam designed for resisting


ing flexural loads.
a. Concrete c. Concrete and Main reinforcing steel
b. Main reinforcing steel d. Stirrups

275. It is a part of a singly reinforced RC beam designed to carry the tensile stresses
a. Concrete c. Concrete and Main reinforcing steel
b. Main reinforcing steel d. Stirrups

276. It is a part of a singly reinforced RC beam designed to resist the compressive stresses
a. Concrete c. Concrete and Main reinforcing steel
b. Main reinforcing steel d. Stirrups

277. It is a part of a singly reinforced RC beam where the stirrups are anchored.
a. Anchor bars c. Compression steel
b. Longitudinal bars d. Hanger bars

278. In a cantilever reinforced concrete beam under uniform loading, the steel reinforcement
is placed at the ___________.
a. Free end c. Bottom
b. Support d. Top

279. It is a beam where only the tension zone has reinforcement.


a. T-beam c. Singly reinforced beam
b. L-beam d. Doubly reinforced beam

280. It is a beam wherein both the tension and the compression zone has reinforcement.
a. T-beam c. Singly reinforced beam
b. L-beam d. Doubly reinforced beam

281. It is a ratio of the area of steel over the area of concrete


Page 34 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

a. Compression ratio c. Rebar ratio


b. Stirrup ratio d. Reinforcement ratio

282. It is a term used for beam where under flexural loads, concrete will fail first before steel
reinforcement will yield.
a. Under reinforced beam c. Balanced section
b. Over reinforced beam d. No reinforcement Section

283. It is a term used for beam sections where under flexural loads, steel reinforcement will
yield first before concrete will fail.
a. Under reinforced beam c. Balanced section
b. Over reinforced beam d. No reinforcement

284. It is a term used for beam sections where under flexural loads, steel reinforcement will
yield the same time concrete will fail.
a. Under reinforced c. Balanced section
b. Over reinforced d. No reinforcement

285. It is the bar that accounts for the positive or negative moment in the fixed-fixed beam.
a. Extra bars c. Cut bars
b. Short bars d. All of the above

286. For continuous interior beams, the cut bars __________


a. Extends through the column c. Spliced at the column center
b. Terminates at the column d. All of the above

287. For a non-continuous beam, the short bar __________.


a. Terminates at the column c. Extends through the column
b. Is bent 90 degrees at the column d. None of the above

288. The depth of the beam is the distance from the top of the beam to the __________.
a. Bottom end of the beam c. Center of the reinforcing steel
b. Neutral axis d. Centroid of the reinforcing steel

289. The concrete cover of the beam refers to __________


a. From the outer edge of concrete to c. From the outer edge of concrete to
the surface of the reinforcing steel the neutral axis
b. From the outer edge of concrete to d. Width of the beam
the center of the reinforcing steel

6.1.2 Beam Stirrups


290. It is a part of an RC beam designed for resisting shear loads.
a. Concrete and stirrups c. Concrete only
b. Stirrups only d. Longitudinal bar

291. Shear failure is a ductile failure having no sufficient warning.


a. True
Page 35 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

b. False

292. Which of the following rebar configurations can be used for the stirrups?
a. L-shape c. rectangular
b. U-shape d. All of the above

293. In a simply supported reinforced concrete beam under uniform loading throughout its
length, the location where the stirrups are narrowly spaced is at __________.
a. L/4 c. Midspan
b. Support d. L/3

294. In a simply supported reinforced concrete beam under uniform loading throughout its
length, the position where the stirrups are widely spaced is at __________.
a. L/4 c. Midspan
b. Support d. L/3

295. Commonly used for fixing the stirrups onto the longitudinal bars and hanger bars?
a. Welding c. Tie wires
b. No. 3 rebars d. All of the above

6.1.3 Slabs
296. The base slab of a slaughter house building exposed on ground is made of 150mm
thick reinforced concrete slab and having 10mm reinforcing bars. What is the minimum
concrete cover?
a. 20mm c. 50mm
b. 40mm d. 75mm

297. It is the steel added in a one-way slab perpendicular to the main reinforcement.
a. Temperature bars c. Distribution steel
b. Shrinkage reinforcement d. All of the above

298. A slab having a dimension of 5m x 3m x 0.125mm thick is a ______.


a. One-way slab c. Three-way slab
b. Two-way slab d. None of the above

299. Heavy equipment such as generators with engines are constructed with foundations so
that it will not transmit its stresses to the slab-on-ground. Which of the following joints should be
used?
a. Isolation joints c. Construction joints
b. Contraction joints d. None of the above

300. Concrete slabs may be designed without reinforcing steel bars?


a. True
b. False

Page 36 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

6.1.4 Development Lengths & Splices


301. It is defined as that length of embedment necessary to develop the full tensile strength
of the bar.
a. Bond strength c. Full length
b. anchorage d. Development length

302. What can be done if the required development length is restricted by the details of
constructions?
a. Bend the bars c. Splice the bar
b. Cut the bars d. None of the above

303. Which of the following hooks is not common in practice?


a. 90 degrees hook c. 135 degrees hook
b. 180 degrees hook d. none of the above

304. What should be done if the bar length is not enough for a given beam span?
a. Extrude the bar so that required bar c. Splice the bar and continue until
length is met required length.
b. Bend the bar to have proper d. None of the above
development length

305. Which of the following splicing method can be done?


a. Lap splices c. Use of mechanical connectors
b. Welded splices d. All of the above

6.1.5 Columns
306. It is a part of a reinforced concrete column for resisting the axial loads
a. Steel reinforcements c. Concrete and steel reinforcements
b. concrete d. Lateral ties

307. Which of the following is not correct regarding reinforced concrete columns?
a. Ties provides lateral restraints c. Ties are stronger than spiral
b. Ties are less ductile as compared to d. Ties are effective in increasing the
spirals column strength

PROBLEM 308 TO 310


308. A column 300mm x 300mm is reinforced with 6-16mm reinforcement bars. The
compressive strength of concrete is 27 MPa. Yield strength of rebars is 275 MPa. What is the
nominal capacity of the column?
a. 1895.64 kN c. 1958.64 kN
b. 1589.46 kN d. 1859.46 kN

309. What would be the design capacity of the column?


a. 1273.12 kN c. 1033.146 kN
b. 1208.65 kN d. 1232.17 kN

310. What is the steel ratio of the section?


a. 0.0314 c. 0.0413

Page 37 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

b. 0.0134 d. 0.0341

311. What is the purpose of a lateral ties in a reinforced concrete column?


a. To increase column strength c. To prevent buckling of longitudinal
bars
b. To hold the longitudinal bars during d. All of the above
construction

312. The area of steel reinforcement (As) in a reinforced concrete column shall be
___________ of the gross area of concrete.
a. 0.02 < As < 0.09 c. As > 0.1
b. 0.01 < As < 0.08 d. 0.1 < As < 0.8

313. Why should the maximum percentage of steel reinforcement may not be greater than 8%
of the gross cross-sectional area of the column?
a. To prevent overcrowding of the bar c. To reduce difficulty of placing the
steel into the forms and still get the
concrete into the forms and around
the bars.
b. To prevent having honeycomb in the d. All of the above
concrete

314. A column in an agricultural structure has the following dimensions: 0.3m x 0.3m, and 6-
16mm longitudinal bars using 10mm ties. Determine the maximum vertical spacing of the tie.
a. 300 mm c. 256 mm
b. 480 mm d. None of the above
315. If the column used in a poultry dressing plant is a 400 x 400 mm and having 8-16mm
reinforcing bars, what is the recommended concrete cover for the portion of the column not
exposed to earth?
a. 20mm c. 50mm
b. 40mm d. 75mm

316. What is the purpose of a lateral ties in a reinforced concrete column?


a. To increase column strength c. To prevent buckling of longitudinal
bars
b. To hold the longitudinal bars during d. All of the above
construction

317. It is a category of a reinforced concrete column where the height of an upright


compression member is less than three times its least lateral dimensions.
a. Long columns c. Short columns
b. Pedestals d. None of the above

318. The maximum clear spacing (cross sectional) between longitudinal bars for a reinforced
concrete column is ______.
a. 100 mm c. 150 mm
b. 25 mm d. None of the above

Page 38 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

6.1.6 Footing
319. Which of the following is a function of a footing
a. To transfer the load to the c. To provide sufficient resistance to
underlying soil sliding and overturning
b. To prevent excessive or uneven d. All of the above
settlements and rotations

320. It is a report that determines the allowable soil pressures and other data regarding the
soil where the structure is to be built.
a. Geological report c. Geotechnical report
b. Geographical report d. Geometrical report

321. What is the recommended concrete cover for the footing?


a. 75 mm c. 40 mm
b. 50 mm d. 20 mm

322. What type of footing is to be used when the columns are so close together that a single
column footings would run to each other?
a. Two footings c. Pile caps
b. Combined footings d. Isolated footings

323. What type of footings is to be used when supporting the load of a single column only?
a. Two footings c. Pile caps
b. Combined footings d. Isolated footings

6.2 STEEL STRUCTURES

6.2.1 Introduction to Steel Structures


324. It is an iron-carbon alloy where the carbon content is greater than 1.7% by weight?
a. Wrought iron c. Cast iron
b. steel d. Stainless steel

325. It is an iron-carbon alloy where the carbon content is less than 0.15% by weight?
a. Wrought iron c. Cast iron
b. steel d. Stainless steel

326. It is an iron-carbon alloy where the carbon content is between 0.15% to 1.7% by weight?
a. Wrought iron c. Cast iron
b. Steel d. Stainless steel

327. Increasing the carbon content by weight of a steel influences its __________.
a. Strength only c. Strength and ductility
b. Ductility only d. None of the above

328. More carbon content in a steel composition means __________?


Page 39 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

a. More ductile but stronger c. More brittle but stronger


b. More ductile but weaker d. More brittle but weaker

329. The organization providing codes/standards for steel building construction


a. American Institute of Steel c. American Specifications for Testing
Construction and Materials
b. American Iron and Steel Institute d. All of the above

330. It is the term for the steel as received from the steel producer or warehouse before being
cold worked as a result of fabricating operations
a. Ordinary Steel c. Virgin Steel
b. Original steel d. Cold steel

331. More carbon content in a steel composition means __________?


a. More ductile but stronger c. More brittle but stronger
b. More ductile but weaker d. More brittle but weaker

332. What is the meaning of ASTM?


a. American Society for Test and c. American Society of Testing
Measurement Materials
b. American Society of Tools and d. American Specifications of Tested
Machines Materials

333. What is the meaning of AISC?


a. American Institute of Steel c. American Institue of Standard
Construction Construction
b. American Iron and Steel d. None of the above
Construction

334. A hot rolled steel shape has the following designation W14x22. What does the first letter
indicate?
a. The shape is a wide web c. The shape is a wide angle
b. The shape is a wide flange d. The shape is a wide channel

335. What does the first two digit number correspond to?
a. The approximate value of the width c. The weight of the shape
of the flange
b. The approximate value of the depth d. The cross sectional area of the
of the shape shape

336. What does the second two digit number correspond to?
a. The approximate value of the width c. The weight of the shape
of the flange
b. The approximate value of the depth d. The cross sectional area of the
of the shape shape

Page 40 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

337. A steel truss in a swine housing uses an L2x2x3/16 steel shape. What is the shape of
the section?
a. Unequal leg angles c. Tee
b. Miscellaneous shape d. None of the above

338. Which of the following is not a built-up shape?


a. Double angles c. Unequal leg angles
b. Plate girders d. Box shapes from channels or plates

6.2.2 Compression Members


339. Short column fails by __________?
a. Compressive yielding c. Tension yielding
b. buckling d. Bending

340. Long column fails by __________?


a. Compressive yielding c. Tension yielding
b. Buckling d. Bending

341. It is the ratio of the effective length to the radius of gyration of the section.
a. Euler critical buckling length c. Slenderness ratio
b. Poisson’s ratio d. None of the above

342. It is defined as the ratio of the unsupported length to its maximum radius of gyration.
a. Slenderness c. Buckling factor
b. Slenderness ratio d. Elasticity

343. A short steel column with length L, modulus of elasticity E, cross sectional area A, and
moment of inertia I will _____ when subjected to a compression load P.
a. Buckle at c. Deflect at
b. Shorten by d. All of the above

344. In a long steel column with length L, modulus of elasticity E, cross sectional area A, and
moment of inertia I, the greatest factor influencing the buckling tendency under a compressive
force P is _____.
a. Modulus of elasticity c. Radius of gyration
b. Moment of inertia d. Length of the column

345. It is a factor that accounts for the influence of the boundary conditions in the buckling
stress equation.
a. Slenderness factor c. Effective length factor
b. Radius of gyration d. Elasticity

346. It is a perpendicular deflection of a longitudinal member under compressive load.


a. Bending c. Buckling
b. Moment d. All of the above

Page 41 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

347. For doubly symmetric steel shapes, the radius of gyration along the x and along the y is
_____.
a. the same c. Maybe the same or not the same
b. not the same d. None of the above

348. With regards to capacity, the strength of a column depends on __________.


a. The geometric properties of the c. The strength of the steel
cross-section
b. The length and end connections d. All of the above

6.2.3 Flexural Members


349. It is the moment capacity of the beam where all the fibers in the section has reached the
yielding stress.
a. Yield moment capacity c. Inelastic moment capacity
b. Plastic moment capacity d. Elastic moment capacity

350. Insufficient lateral bracing of beams can cause to a failure that is called __________.
a. Local buckling c. Lateral torsional buckling
b. Shear yielding in the web d. Excessive deflection

6.3 TIMBER STRUCTURES


351. It refers to various sizes and lengths of wood cut from a tree log.
a. Lumber c. Hardwood
b. Trunk d. Grading

352. It is a type of lumber that is freshly cut wood and the MC can vary from as low as 30% to
as high as 200%.
a. Dry lumber c. Hardwood
b. Green lumber d. Grading

353. A dressed lumber has at least _____ smooth side.


a. 2 c. 1
b. 3 d. None of the above

354. A lumber of square or approximately square cross section, 125mm x 125mm (nominal)
and larger, with width not more than 50mm greater than thickness
a. Dimension lumber c. Post and timbers
b. Beams and stringers d. Decking

355. It refers to lumber from 50mm to 100mm (nominal) thick, tongued and grooved, or
grooved for spline on the narrow face
a. Dimension lumber c. Post and timbers
b. Beams and stringers d. Decking

Page 42 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

356. It refers to lumber of rectangular cross section, 125mm (nominal) or more thick, with
width more than 50mm greater than thickness, graded with respect to its strength in bending
when loaded on the narrow face.
a. Dimension lumber c. Post and timbers
b. Beams and stringers d. Decking

357. It refers to lumber from 50mm to 100mm (nominal) thick, and 50mm (nominal) or more
in width
a. Dimension lumber c. Post and timbers
b. Beams and stringers d. Decking

358. The National Design Standards (NDS) for wood construction is published by ____.
a. American Wood Council c. The Engineered Wood Associatiion
b. American Society of Civil Engineers d. American Institute of Timber
Construction

359. It is a product made of two or more thin layers of wood glued together at right angles to
one another
a. Hardboard c. Particle board
b. Plywood d. veneers

360. The thickness of a plywood is in terms of __________.


a. Plys c. Layers
b. Inches d. None of the above

361. Plywoods have __________ number of plys.


a. Even c. Both a and b
b. Odd d. None of the above

7 INDOOR ENVIRONMENTAL CONTROL

7.1 THE INDOOR ENVIRONMENT


362. The total heat production of an animal refers to _____.
a. The sum of latent heat and the c. The amount of heat where the
sensible heat curves of sensible heat and latent
heat intersects.
b. the area bounded by the sensible d. All of the above
heat and latent heat curve

363. It is the ability of an animal to maintain constant internal temperature.


a. Isothermal c. Homeothermy
b. Thermal index d. Thermal equilibrium

Page 43 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

364. It is defined as the range of environmental temperatures within which the metabolic rate
is minimum and in dependent of temperature.
a. Thermoneutral zone c. Isothermal range
b. Thermal index d. Deep body temperature

365. It is a material placed around the brooder stoves to prevent the chicks from staying too far
away from the heat supply until they learn the source of heat
a. Brooder wall c. Brooder guard
b. Brooder cover d. None of the above

366. If the temperature of a poultry house is high, which equipment or methods can be
provided?
a. Additional water troughs c. Fans
b. Roof sprinklers d. All of the above

367. When the temperature inside the poultry housing increases, it will _________ the feed
consumption and growth of the chicken.
a. Increase c. Not affect
b. Decrease d. Slightly

368. It is the physiological loss of water in the plants in the form of water vapor.
a. Evaporation c. Evapotranspiration
b. Transpiration d. Perspiration
e. All of the above

369. Plants are ________ to maintain their cells and tissues at a constant temperature, as
ambient conditions change.
a. able c. Either a or b
b. not able d. None of the above

370. The rate of transpiration is _____


a. Directly proportional to temperature c. Directly proportional to light for most
types of plants
b. Inversely proportional to RH d. All of the above
e. None of the above

371. Heaters shall be installed in ___________ areas to provide the required temperature of
27°C – 35°C
a. Farrowing c. Boar pens
b. Breeding d. Creep

372. The recommended orientation of a swine house to obtain proper sunlight, wind flow and
temperature.
a. North-south direction c. North-East direction
b. East-west direction d. South-West direction

373. The recommended orientation of a greenhouse based on PAES.


a. North-south
- direction c. North-East direction
b. East-west direction d. South-West direction

Page 44 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

374. In animal thermal environment, it is the amount of heat transferred by conduction,


convection, and radiation
a. Sensible heat c. Total heat
b. Latent heat d. All of the above

375. In animal thermal environment, it is the heat required to evaporate the water through the
respiratory system and skin.
a. Sensible heat c. Total heat
b. Latent heat d. All of the above

7.2 BUILDING HEAT TRANSFER


376. Which of the following is correct regarding the Fourier’s law of heat conduction?
a. The heat flux is directly proportional c. The heat rate is directly proportional
to the temperature difference to the cross sectional area
b. The heat rate is inversely d. All of the above
proportional to the thickness

377. The reciprocal of total thermal resistance is _____.


a. Overall heat transfer coefficient c. Two of the above
b. Total thermal conductance d. None of the above

378. These are materials or combination of materials that, when properly applied, retard the
rate of heat by conductive, convective, and/or radiative transfer modes.
a. Thermal insulations c. Thermal mass
b. Vapor retarders d. All of the above

379. It is a type of insulations consisting of fibers, powders, granule, or nodules allowing them
to be well-suited option for spaces where it would be difficult to install other types of installation
a. Loose-fill
- insulations c. Rigid insulations
b. Flexible and semi-rigid d. Formed-in place insulations

380. It is a type of insulating material that comes in two types, expanded (EPS) and extruded
(XEPS) also known as Styrofoam
a. Fiberglass c. Polyurethane
b. Mineral wool d. Polystyrene

PROBLEM 381 TO 382


381. A wall of an agricultural building is made up of concrete (k=1.442 W/mK) is 100mm
thick. The inside air has a thermal resistance of 0.12 m2C/W. The outside air is 0.04 m2C/W.
Calculate the total resistance.
a. 0.23 m2C/W c. 1.56 m2K/W
b. 1.60 m C/W
2 d. 0.33 m2K/W

Page 45 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

e. None of the above

382. The overall heat transfer coefficient is


a. 4.35 W/m2C c. 0.64 W/m2C
b. 0.625 W/m2C d. 3.03 W/m2C

383. Which insulation material has the highest thermal conductivity?


a. Polyurethane foam c. Concrete
b. Hard board d. Timber plywood

384. It is the temperature difference which results in the total heat flow through a structure as
caused by the combined effects of solar radiation and outdoor temperature.
a. Solar radiation c. Mean temperature
b. Equivalent temperature difference d. Solar factor

385. If in the design, the maximum permissible OTTV for wall/roof is greater than the
permissible, as an agricultural design engineer what would you recommend?
a. Install insulation materials with c. Do not construct the design.
higher conductance.
b. Reduce the outside temperature so d. Recommend another wall design
that the temperature difference is with lower overall heat transfer
lowered down. coefficient value.

386. The unit of a heat flux is ___.


a. kW c. kJ
b. kJ/s d. None of the above

7.3 PSYCHROMETRY
387. The study of moist air is referred to as ____.
a. Psychrometrics c. Refrigeration and air conditioning
b. Thermodynamics d. Ventilation

388. It is defined as the state of air when all moisture and contaminants (pollutants, dust,
etc.) have been removed
a. Moist air c. Saturated air
b. Dry air d. Condensed air

389. Psychrometric chart number 1 should be used for ______ ranges


a. 0 – 50 dry bulb temperature c. 0 – 50 saturation temperature
b. 0 – 50 wet bulb temperature d. None of the above

390. It is the temperature registered by an ordinary thermometer


a. Wet bulb temperature c. Moisture temperature
Page 46 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

b. Due point temperature d. None of the above

391. To raise the relative humidity of the air, which of the following is not true?
a. The specific humidity has to be c. The dry bulb temperature has to
increased, decrease
b. Heat must be removed. d. None of the above

392. These are lines in the psychrometric chart drawn vertically and originating from the
horizontal axis.
a. Wet bulb temperature c. Humidity ratio
b. Dry bulb temperature d. Relative humidity

393. These are lines in the psychrometric chart that originate along the saturation line, and
slope downward to the right. They are oblique lines that differ slightly in direction from that of
enthalpy lines
lines.
a. Wet bulb temperature c. Humidity ratio
b. Dry bulb temperature d. Relative humidity

394. These are lines in the psychrometric chart that curved upwards from the lower left to the
right side of the chart.
a. Wet bulb temperature c. Humidity ratio
b. Dry bulb temperature d. Relative humidity

395. It is the temperature of air at saturation or the temperature to which the air must be
cooled before condensation will begin.
a. Wet bulb temperature c. Dewpoint temperature
b. Dry bulb temperature d. None of the above

396. Which of the following is not involved in a sensible heat psychrometric process?
a. A change in dry bulb temperature c. Enthalpy changes
b. The humidity ratio changes d. The relative humidity changes

397. Which of the following is not involved in a humidification or dehumidifaction


psychrometric process?
a. A change in dry bulb temperature c. Enthalpy changes
b. The humidity ratio changes d. The relative humidity changes

398. A psychrometric process that cools and humidifies is also called as _____.
a. Evaporative cooling c. Isentropic conditioning
b. Adiabatic mixing d. Sensible cooling

399. It is the temperature at which the moisture in the air starts to condense.
a. Saturation temperature c. Condensation temperature
Page 47 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

b. Dew point temperature d. All of the above

400. Determine the heat required to raise 81 m3 of air at condition 10C db and 80% RH to 32C
db. The RH at state 2 is 20%. The enthalpy at state 1 and state 2 is 25 kJ/kgda and 48 kJ/kgda.
The volume at condition 1 is about 0.81 m3/kgda. The heat added is ____.
a. 2300 kJ c. 4099 kJ
b. 1,509 kJ d. 1,863 kJ

401. Determine the amount of heat removed from 30 m3 of air initially at 40C db and 30% RH,
which is cooled to 25C db without changing the moisture content. At state 1, the air volume is
0.905 m3/kgda and an enthalpy of 75 kJ/kgda. The enthalpy at state 2 is 60 kJ/kgda. The sensible
heat removed is ____.
a. 450 kJ c. 365 kJ
b. 530 kJ d. None of the above

402. Air is approximately what composition by volume?


a. 79% CO2 and 21% O2 c. 79% O2 and 21% N2
b. 79% N2 and 21% O2 d. 79% N2 and 21%CO2

403. Adiabatic means ____ between the system and the surroundings.
a. There is a heat transfer. c. Heat dissipates
b. There is no transfer of heat d. None of the above

404. It is the ratio of the partial pressure exerted by the water vapor to the saturation pressure
of pure water at same temperature.
a. Humidity ratio c. Relative humidity
b. Specific pressure d. Air density

405. The higher the temperature of air, the ___ water it can hold.
a. More c. is not affected
b. Less d. None of the above

406. It is the ratio of the actual vapor density to the vapor density at saturation.
a. Humidity ratio c. Relative humidity
b. Specific pressure d. Air density

407. Which of the following is true?


a. the drier the surrounding air, the c. All of the above
greater the rate of evaporation
b. The drier the surrounding air, the d. None of the above
lower the wet-bulb temperature

8 VENTILATION SYSTEMS

8.1 VENTILATION RATES


408. Ventilation is a process of ________.

Page 48 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

a. Introducing the outside air into the c. Remove the inside air out of the
building building
b. Thoroughly mixes outside air and d. All of the above
inside air

409. Ventilation is used to ________.


a. Control temperature c. Maintain adequate levels of oxygen
and to remove unwanted gases
b. Control humidity d. All of the above

410. It is a type of mechanical ventilation system where the pressure forces outside air into
the building through the inlets.
a. Positive pressure systems c. Neutral systems
b. Negative pressure systems d. All of the above

411. It is a type of mechanical ventilation system where the pressure forces inside air out the
building through the outlets.
a. Positive pressure systems c. Neutral systems
b. Negative pressure systems d. All of the above

412. When using the energy balance equation, the ventilation rate obtained is for ____.
a. Temperature control c. Humidity control
b. Odor control d. All of the above

413. When using the mass balance equation, the ventilation rate obtained is for ____.
a. Temperature control c. Humidity control
b. Odor control d. All of the above

PROBLEM 414 TO 417


A broiler housing having a dimension of 15m x 90m is designed for a 36,000 head capacity. The
inside temperature is to be maintained at 25C at humidity ratio of 15 g w/kgah. Assume the outside
temperature is to be maintained at 36C at humidity ratio of 27 gw/kgah. Design the ventilation
system at 1.4kg per bird, sensible heat loss produced by bird is 3.9W/kg, and a moisture production
per bird is 2.9 gw/kg ah. Assume heat produced by lights and equipment as 2.7 kW. Assume
structural heat gain of 8.4 kW.

414. The heat gain from the sensible heat production is ____.
a. 140.4 kW c. 196.6 kW
b. 5.6 kW d. 91.6 kW

415. The heat gain from the moisture production is ____.


a. 140.4 kW c. 196.6 kW
b. 5.6 kW d. 91.6 kW

416. Calculate the required maximum ventilating air.


a. 27 m3/s c. 33 m3/s
b. 30 m3/s d. 22.5 m3/s
Page 49 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

417. Calculate the required minimum ventilating air.


a. 3.38 m3/s c. 2.82 m3/s
b. 4.56 m3/s d. 3.8 m3/s

418. If a mechanical ventilation is necessary for a poultry building, it should be installed on the
__________ side to the prevailing winds.
a. left c. adjacent
b. front d. opposite

8.2 VENTILATION FANS


419. A type of fan typically known for high volume, low pressure.
a. Axial fan c. compressor
b. Centrifugal fans d. None of the above

420. A type of fan typically known for high pressure, low volume.
a. Axial fan c. compressor
b. Centrifugal fans d. None of the above

421. It is a propeller fan mounted in a cylindrical housing with close clearance between the
blade and housing to improve airflow efficiency.
a. Radial fan c. Backward curved fan
b. Tubeaxial fan d. Vaneaxial fan

422. It is a propeller fan mounted in a cylindrical housing with close clearance between the
blade and housing to improve airflow efficiency but with addition of a part/assembly that directs
and straightens the flow.
a. Propeller fan c. Vaneaxial fan
b. Tubeaxial fan d. None of the above

423. Which of the following is needed to describe a fan performance?


a. Air flowrate c. Both a and b
b. Static pressure d. None of the above

424. The airflowrate is usually expressed in terms of _____.


a. CFM c. L/s
b. m3/min d. All of the above

425. It is a measure of the resistance to airflow or how much pressure it takes to move air at a
certain rate through a system
a. Static pressure c. Total pressure
b. Velocity pressure d. All of the above

426. As the static pressure increases, airflow rate ____


a. Also increases c. Remains the same
b. Decreases d. None of the above

427. At a constant fan diameter and air density, if the fan speed is doubled, the airflow rate
_____.
Page 50 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

a. 2x greater c. 8x greater
b. 4x greater d. None of the above

428. At a constant fan diameter and air density, if the fan speed is doubled, the static
pressure capacity is _____.
a. 2x greater c. 8x greater
b. 4x greater d. None of the above

429. At a constant fan diameter and air density, if the fan speed is doubled, the power
required to operate the fan is _____.
a. 2x greater c. 8x greater
b. 4x greater d. None of the above

430. Which of the following is correct. At a constant fan diameter and air density, the fan
speed is directly proportional to ____
a. Air flowrate c. Cube of power requirement
b. Square of static pressure d. All of the above

PROBLEM 431 TO 432


431. A 36” diameter fan having a 1 hp electric motor can provide a 4 m3/s flowrate at 900
rpm producing a static pressure of 50 Pa. Equipment are added in the building which increases
the static pressure to 70 Pa. Determine the size of electric motor to accommodate the change in
static pressure.
a. 1.35 hp c. 1.65 hp
b. 0.8 hp d. None of the above

432. The changed speed of the fan to obtain the increased in horsepower is ____.
a. 1260 rpm c. 1376 rpm
b. 1065 rpm d. None of the above

PROBLEM 433 TO 435


A new equipment is to be installed in livestock building that will require an additional 500 cfm of
airflow rate. The fan is currently operating at 0.75 hp which produces a 0.3 in. static pressure. The
fan produces 5000 cfm of air at 700 rpm.
433. Determine the increase in static pressure.
a. 0.363 s.p. c. 0.256
b. 0.063 s.p. d. None of the above

434. If the original design requirement for motor is 0.5 hp only, can the same motor be used?
a. Yes c. Maybe
b. No d. None of the above

435. The required horsepower is _____.


a. 0.66 hp c. 0.95 hp
b. 1.23 hp d. None of the above

436. It is defined as the fan pressure rise per volumetric flow rate condition where the fan and
the system are in stable equilibrium.
a. Efficiency c. Brake horsepower curve

Page 51 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

b. Operating point d. Coefficient of performance

437. When two fans operating the same are employed in series, the total flowrate _____.
a. Increases c. Remains the same
b. Decreases d. None of the above

438. When two fans operating the same are employed in series, the total pressure _____.
a. Increases c. Remains the same
b. Decreases d. None of the above

439. When two fans operating the same are employed in parallel, the total flowrate _____.
a. Increases c. Remains the same
b. Decreases d. None of the above

440. When two fans operating the same are employed in parallel, the total pressure _____.
a. Increases c. Remains the same
b. Decreases d. None of the above

441. If a 36” fan is to be used for a tunnel ventilated poultry housing, determine the total
number of fans to be installed if the fan flowrate is 4.17 m3/s each at a static pressure of 0.2 in.
of water, and the required ventilation rate is 50m3/s.
a. 11 pcs c. 10 pcs
b. 12 pcs d. 11.5 pcs

442. Fans should be located on the __________ side of the greenhouse building?
a. upwind c. right
b. downwind d. left

443. Which of the following adds to the static pressure of an agricultural building?
a. Evaporative cooling pads c. Shutters & Dampers
b. Air inlets d. All of the above

8.3 AIR INLETS


444. It is a region created by the difference in the velocities of the incoming air and the room
air.
a. Throw distance c. Air jets
b. Draft d. None of the above

445. Which of the following is a function of air inlet?


a. Provide fresh air thoughout the c. Maintain sufficient inlet air velocity
building
b. Control direction of airflow. d. All of the above

446. It is the inflow of air to the building through leakage or unintentional gaps and openings.
a. Infiltration air flow c. Air leakages
b. Air inlets d. None of the above

Page 52 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

447. Estimate the infiltration of a mechanically-ventilated (10 fans), curtain-type broiler


housing having a floor area of 165 x 13m. The pressure difference across the inlet is 20
Pascals. Use flow coefficient of 1.36 and a dimensionless pressure coefficient of 0.51.
a. 2.99 m3/s c. 6.27 m3/s
b. 4.35 m3/s d. None of the above

448. Estimate the infiltration of a mechanically-ventilated dairy barn with house volume of
approximately 100m3 and a pressure difference of 10 Pa. Use flow coefficient of 1.66 and a
dimensionless pressure coefficient of 0.56.
a. 2.51 m3/s c. 6.03 m3/s
b. 4.54 m3/s d. None of the above

449. Calculate the effective air leakage area if the infiltration is 5 m 3/s at a pressure
difference of 30 Pa. Assume a coefficient of discharge of 1.0.
a. 1.01 m2 c. 0.14 m2
b. 0.71 m 2 d. None of the above

8.4 EVAPORATIVE COOLING PADS


450. Pads are normally installed in a continuous line along the _____ of the house opposite
the exhaust fans.
a. Side c. Both a and b
b. End d. None of the above

451. The maximum vertical height of an evaporative cooling pad when installed.
a. 2.4 m c. 1.2 m
b. 1.8 m d. 0.6 m

452. The minimum vertical height of an evaporative cooling pad when installed.
a. 2.4 m c. 1.2 m
b. 1.8 m d. 0.6 m

453. The recommended face velocity of air through pad for a 4” thick corrugated cellulose.
a. 0.76 m/s c. 1.27 m/s
b. 1.0 m/s d. 1.78 m/s

454. The recommended face velocity of air through pad for a 6” thick corrugated cellulose.
a. 0.76 m/s c. 1.27 m/s
b. 1.0 m/s d. 1.78 m/s

455. Calculate the total area of 4” thick corrugated cellulose evaporative cooling pad if the
installed tunnel fan capacity is 50 m3/s.
a. 39.4 m2 c. 23.0 m2
b. 28.1 m2 d. 7.5 m2

456. Calculate the total evaporative cooling pad (6” thick corrugated cellulose) area if the
installed tunnel fan capacity is 50 m3/s.
a. 39.4 m2 c. 23.0 m2
Page 53 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

b. 28.1 m2 d. 7.5 m2

457. A pump used in an evaporative cooling pad. The static suction lift is 1m, the static
discharge head is 2.4m
2.4m. Determine the total static head
a. 3.4 m c. 2.4 m
b. 1.4 m d. None of the above

458. In order to size the pump for evaporative cooling system


a. The pumping head must be c. Both a and b
determined
b. The flowrate must be determined d. None of the above

8.5 NATURAL VENTILATION


459. When air is pushed against or into the building through openings, the pressure is ____.
a. positive c. neutral
b. negative d. All of the above

460. When air is pulled out of the structure, the pressure is ____.
a. positive c. neutral
b. negative d. All of the above

461. When wind acts to various parts of buildings, the direction and pressure _____.
a. is the same c. cancels
b. varies d. increases

462. The recommended minimum roof slope for naturally


naturally-ventilated
ventilated building.
building
a. 10 deg c. 14 deg
b. 12 deg d. 30 deg

463. Calculate the minimum separation distance of a swine housing if the obstruction height is
5m and the length of obstruction is 20m.
a. 7 m c. 9 m
b. 8 m d. 10 m
464. Calculate the total ventilation rate if the wind-induced ventilation is 5.2 m3/s and
buoyancy-induced is 2.3 m3/s
a. 7.5 m3/s c. 5.7 m3/s
b. 11.96 m /s
3 d. 9.31 m3/s

465. Calculate the flowrate caused by wind if the inlet opening is 30 m2 and the average wind
speed in the location is 4 m/s.
a. 120 m3/s c. 60 m3/s
b. 42 m3/s d. 72 m3/s

466. Determine the air flow rate from a 30m long naturally-ventilated livestock building that has
a side opening of 1.1m. Assume the wind speed is 5 m/s.
a. 165 m3/s c. 50 m3/s
b. 58 m3/s d. 100 m3/s
Page 54 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

467. Calculate the required height of the opening along one side for a naturally-ventilated swine
housing. The required flow rate is 50 m3/s. The building length and width is 36m and 8m
respectively. The wind speed in the area is 3.5 m/s
a. 41 m c. 1.2 m
b. 5 m d. 0.8 m

468. Air leakage due to Temperature difference or thermal effect is usually referred to as stack
or chimney effect:
a. True c.
b. False d.

REFERENCES
Luebkeman, C. H., & Peting, D. (1995,1996,1997,1998). Retrieved January 25, 2019, from
http://web.mit.edu/course/4/4.441/1_lectures/1_lecture5/1_lecture5.html
Aghayere, A., & Vigil, J. (2009). Structural Steel Design: A Practice-Oriented Approach. Pearson Education,
Inc.
Albright, L. D. (1990). Environment Control for Animals and Plants. American Society of Agricultural
Engineers.
Ambrose, J., & Parker, H. (1997). Simplified Design of Concrete Structures (Philippine Reprints ed.). John
Wiley & Sons, Inc.
American Society of Agricultural and Biological Engineers. (2011). ASABE STANDARDS 2011. American
Society of Agricultural and Biological Engineers.
American Society of Agricultural Engineers. (1997). ASAE Standards 1997. Standards Engineering
Practices Data. American Society of Agricultural Engineers.
American Society of Agricultural Engineers. (n.d.). ANSI/ASAE EP406.4 JAN03 - Heating, Ventilating and
Cooling Greenhouses.
Barre, H. J., & Sammet, L. L. (1950). Farm Structures. John Wiley & Sns, Inc.
BartlettQuimby, T. (n.d.). A Beginner's Guide to Structural Engineering. Retrieved 02 21, 2019, from
www.bgstructuralengineering.com/BGDesign/BGDesign05.htm
Bhatia, A. (2012). M253 - HVAC - Natural Ventilation and Infiltration. Retrieved from www.PDHonline.org
Blandford, D. G. (n.d.). Retrieved 02 13, 2019, from
http://web.engr.uky.edu/~gebland/CE%20382/CE%20382%20Four%20Slides%20per%20Page
/L2%20-%20%20Loads.pdf
Bodman, G. R., & Shelton, D. P. (n.d.). G95-1242 Ventilation Fans: Performance. Retrieved from Historical
Materials from University of Nebraska-Lincoln Extension. Paper 600.

Page 55 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

Department of Agriculture, Food and the Marine. (n.d.). S101: Minimum Specifications for the Structure
of Agricultural Buildings - July 2016. Retrieved from TAMS - Farm Building and Structures
Specifications: https://www.gov.ie/en/collection/65f5b-tams-farm-building-and-structures-
specifications/
Department of Public Works and Highways. (2002, August 20). Department Order No.222 s2002 - Building
Permits for Public Building Projects. Retrieved from
https://www.dpwh.gov.ph/dpwh/sites/default/files/issuances/DO_222_S2002.pdf
Design Loads for Residential Buildings. (n.d.). Retrieved 02 18, 2019, from
https://www.huduser.gov/Publications/pdf/res2000_2.pdf
Dugal, S. (2009). Design of Steel Structures (fourth reprint ed.). Tata McGraw-Hill.
Fajardo Jr., M. B. (2000). Simplified Construction Estimate. 5138 Merchandising.
Fajardo Jr., M. B. (2001). simplified Methods on Building Construction. 513 Merchandising.
Gere, J., & Goodno, B. (2012). Mechanics of Materials. Cengage Learning.
Gillesania, D. I. (2006). Fundamentals of Structural Steel Design with Theory of Structures. Diego
Inocencio Tapang Gillesania.
Gregory K. Michaelson, P. (n.d.). CE 312: Structural Analysis (Fall 2016). Retrieved from
www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLCV9OyAY5K-WKngS0ZQSAFx_NCL5Mcgol
Gregory K. Michaelson, P. (n.d.). CE 413: Reinforced Concrete Design (Spring 2017). Retrieved from
www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLCV9OyAY5K-WkVEk7HSntTe22QljPbcSh
Gregory K. Michaelson, P. (n.d.). CE 414: Structural Steel Design (Spring 2017). Retrieved from
www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLCV90OyAY5K-XeBX0vjNu3bOTDQYYYePDD
Hao, S. (n.d.). I-35W Bridge Collapse. Retrieved 01 31, 2019, from http://suhao-
acii.com/files/I35W_note.pdf
Hellickson, M. A., & Walker, J. N. (Eds.). (1983). Ventilation of Agricultural Structures. American Society of
Agricultural Engineers.
Hibbeler. (2011). Engineering Mechanics Statics (Philippine Edition ed.). Pearson Education South Asia
PTE. LTD. (Philippine Representative Office).
Hibbeler, R. (2012). Structural Analysis. Pearson Prentice Hall.
(2005). Implementing Rules and Regulations of the National Building Code: 2005 Revised Edition.
Retrieved from https://www.dpwh.gov.ph/dpwh/references/laws_codes_orders/PD1096
Jadhav, H., & Hoff, S. (2017). Chapter 2: Air Infiltration Review with Emphasis on Livestock Production
Buildings. In H. Jadhav, Swine finishing room air infiltration quantification-modelling and use in
system ventilation design. Iowa State University.
Kassimali, A. (2011). Understanding Structural Analysis (2nd Philippine reprint 2010 ed.). Cengage
Learning Asia Pte Ltd.

Page 56 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

Lindley, J. A., & Whitaker, J. H. (1996). Agricultural Buildings and Structures. American Society of
Agricultural Engineers.
McCormac, J. C., & Brown, R. H. (2013). Design of Reinforced Concrete. 8th Edition. ACI 318-08 Code
Edition (1st Philippine edition. ed.). Asia: John Wiley & Sons, Inc.
McCormac, J. C., & Csernak, S. F. (2012). Structural Steel Design (5th ed.). Pearson Education, Inc.
McQuiston, F. C., Parker, J. D., & Spitler, J. D. (2000). Heating, Ventilating, and Air Conditioning: Analysis
and Design. John Wiley & Sons, Inc.
Michaelson, G. (n.d.). CE 413: Reinforced Concrete Design (Spring 2017). Retrieved 02 19, 2019, from
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=BQKiY-YKeW0&t=0s&list=PLCV9OyAY5K-
WkVEk7HSntTe22QIjPbcSh&index=3
Nilson, A. H., Darwin, D., & Dolan, C. W. (2006). Design of Concrete Structures (International Edition ed.).
McGraw-Hill Education (Asia).
Norachan, D. P. (n.d.). CE72.32 (January 2016 Semester). Lecture 1b: Analysis and Design of Tall Buildings
using Commercial FE Programs. Retrieved February 13, 2019, from
https://www.slideshare.net/fawadnajam/ce-7232-january-2016-semester-lecture-1-analysis-
and-design-of-tall-buildings-using-commercial-fe-programs
Norris, C., Wilber, J. B., & Utki, S. (1980). Elementary Structural Analysis (3rd Edition. Philippine Edition
ed.). McGraw-Hill, Inc.
PAES 401:2001 - Housing for Swine Production. (2001).
PAES 402:2001 - Housing for Broiler Production. (2001).
PAES 404:2001 - Housing for Goat and Sheep. (2001).
PAES 413:2001 Biogas Plant. (n.d.).
PAES 414-1:2002 - Waste Management Structures Part 1: Agricultural Liquid Waste. (2002).
PAES 414-2:2002 - Waste Management Structures Part 2: Agricultural Solid Waste - Composting. (2002).
PAES 415:2001 - Greenhouses. (2001).
PAES 416:2002 - Plant Tissue Culture Laboratory. (2002).
PAES 419:2002 - Warehouse for Bagged Storage of Grains. (n.d.).
PAES 421:2009 - Farm to Market Roads (Earth, Gravel, Bituminous, Concrete). (2009).
PAES 422-1:2012 - Poultry Dressing / Slaughtering Plant - Small Scale. (n.d.).
PAES 422-2:2012 - Poultry Dressing / Slaughtering Plant - Large Scale. (2012).
Philpot, T. A. (2008). Mechanics of Materials. John Wiley & Sons.
PNS/BAFS PABES 270:2019 - Agricultural Infrastructures - Silo. (n.d.).

Page 57 of 59
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Board Exam Review 2024

Post Test (Training on Agricultural Infrastructures Construction Requirements and Inspection). (2021, June
21-25).
Power Engineering Training Systems. (2003). Power Engineering 4th Class Part B Volume 2. Southern
Alberta Institute of Technology.
Professional Regulatory Board of Agricultural & Biosystems Engineering. (2022). Implementing Rules and
Regulations (IRR) of Republict Act No. 10915.
Quadrato, C., & Green, P. S. (2017). Lateral-Torsional Buckling and its influence on the Strength of Beams.
NASCC The Steel Conference. AISC Education. Retrieved December 29, 2018, from
www.aisc.org/education/continuingeducation/education-archives.
Richards, P. W. (2011). Build With Steel. A Companion to the AISC Manual. LRFD.
Salmon, C. G., Johnson, J. E., & Malhas, F. A. (2010). Steel Structures: Design and Behavior (5th Edition
ed.). Philippines: Pearson Education South Asia PTE LTD. (Philippine Representative Office).
Segui, W. T. (2012). Structural Steel Design (1st Philippine Reprint ed.). Cengage Learning Asia Pte Ltd.
Sta.Maria, H. B. (1989). Refrigeration and Airconditioning. SI Edition. National Bookstore.
Tagayun, V. A. (2002). Estimating Bill of Materials. Tagayun Associates.
Tagayun, V. A. (2010). Building Design & Construction.
Technical Centre for Agricultural and Rural Cooperation. (2011). Rural structures in the tropics: design
and development. Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO).
The 2004 Revised IRR of PD No. 1096. (n.d.).
The Association of Structural Engineers of the Philippines, Inc. (ASEP. (2010). National Structural Code of
the Philippines 2010 (Vol. Volume 1).
Wright, J., & McGregor, J. (2009). Reinforced Concrete Mechanics and Design. Pearson Education, Inc.

Page 58 of 59

You might also like