Topic 1: Stoichiometric relationships(1)

1. Which information does the molecular formula provide?

A. The simplest ratio of atoms in a molecule

B. The actual numbers of atoms in a molecule
C. The number of molecules in one mole
D. The types of bonds in a molecule

2. A student heated a known mass of zinc powder in an open crucible until there was no
further mass change and recorded the final mass.

What would the student be able to derive from this data?

I. Percentage composition of zinc oxide
II. Empirical formula of zinc oxide
III. Molecular formula of zinc oxide

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III

3. What is the molar mass of a gas according to the following experimental data?

40.0 × 8.31 × 290

A.
98 × 0.220
98 × 0.220
B.
40.0 × 8.31 × 290
40.0 × 8.31 × 17
C.
98 × 0.220
98 × 0.220
D.
40.0 × 8.31 × 17

1
4. 20 cm3 of gas A reacts with 20 cm3 of gas B to produce 10 cm3 of gas AxBy and 10 cm3
of excess gas A. What are the correct values for subscripts x and y in the empirical formula of
the product AxBy (g)?

5. How many oxygen atoms are present in 0.0500 mol Ba(OH )2 ⋅ 8H2O?

A. 3.01 × 1023
B. 6.02 × 1023
C. 3.01 × 1024
D. 6.02 × 1024

6. What is the change of state for a gas to a solid?

A. Condensation
B. Deposition
C. Freezing
D. Sublimation

7. How many moles of carbon dioxide are produced by the complete combustion of 7.0 g
of ethene, C2H4 (g)?

A. 0.25
B. 0.5
C. 0.75
D. 1.0

8. Which is a possible empirical formula for a substance with Mr = 42?

A. CH
B. CH2
C. C3H6
D. C3H8

2
9. What is the coefficient for H+ when the equation below is balanced?

__Pb (s) + __NO3− (aq) + __H+ (aq) → __Pb2+ (aq) + __NO (g) + __H2O (l)

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

10. 0.2 mol of sodium hydrogencarbonate is decomposed by heating until constant mass.
2 NaHCO3 (s) → Na2CO3 (s) + H2O (g) + CO2 (g)

How many moles of gas are produced?

A. 0.1
B. 0.2
C. 0.3
D. 0.4

11. Which sample contains the fewest moles of HCl?

Molar volume of an ideal gas at STP = 22.7 dm3 mol–1.

A. 10.0 cm3 of 0.1 mol dm–3 HCl (aq)

B. 6.02 × 1024 molecules of HCl (g)
C. 0.365 g of HCl (g)
D. 2.27 dm3 of HCl (g) at STP

12. What is the molecular formula of a compound with an empirical formula of CHO2 and a
relative molecular mass of 90?

A. CHO2
B. C2H2O4
C. C3H6O3
D. C4H10O2

13. 8.8 g of an oxide of nitrogen contains 3.2 g of oxygen. What is the empirical formula of the
compound?

A. N2O5
B. N2O
C. NO2
D. NO

3
14. What is the concentration of chloride ions, in mol dm−3, in a solution formed by mixing 200 cm3
of 1 mol dm−3 HCl with 200 cm3 of 5 mol dm−3 NaCl?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6

15. 30 g of an organic compound produces 44 g CO2 and 18 g H2O as the only combustion
products. Which of the following is the empirical formula for this compound?

A. CH2
B. CH3
C. CHO
D. CH2O

16. Which graph represents the relationship between the amount of gas, n, and the absolute
temperature, T, with all other variables in the ideal gas equation, PV = nRT, held constant?

17. Which equation represents the deposition of iodine?

A. I2 (g) → I2 (l)
B. I2 (g) → I2 (s)
C. I2 (l) → I2 (g)
D. I2 (s) → I2 (g)

18. 2.67 g of lead (II) carbonate is decomposed by heating until constant mass.
PbCO3 (s) → PbO (s) + CO2 (g)

What is the final mass of solid?

A. 0.44 g
B. 2.23 g
C. 2.67 g
D. 3.11 g

4
19. 0.02 mol of zinc is added to 10.0 cm3 of 1.0 mol dm–3 hydrochloric acid.
Zn (s) + 2HCl (aq) → ZnCl2 (aq) + H2 (g)

How many moles of hydrogen are produced?

A. 0.005
B. 0.01
C. 0.02
D. 0.04

20. What is the number of hydrogen atoms in 2.00 moles of Ca(HCO3)2?

A. 2.00
B. 4.00
C. 1.20 × 1024
D. 2.41 × 1024

21. Which statement describes all homogeneous mixtures?

A. Any sample has the same ratio of the components.

B. The components are covalently bonded together.
C. The components cannot be easily separated.
D. The mixture needs a specific ratio of components to form.

22. Which combination is correct?

5
23. The two containers shown are connected by a valve. What is the total pressure after the valve is
opened and the two gas samples are allowed to mix at constant temperature?

A. 1.5 × 105 Pa
B. 2.3 × 105 Pa
C. 2.5 × 105 Pa
D. 5.0 × 105 Pa

24. How much ethanol contains 1.20 × 1024 atoms of carbon?

A. 0.333 mol
B. 0.500 mol
C. 1.00 mol
D. 2.00 mol

25. 3.00 mol of C3H8 is mixed with 20.00 mol of O2.

Which quantity is present at the end of the reaction?

C3H8 (g) + 5O2 (g) → 3CO2 (g) + 4H2O (g)

A. 1.00 mol of C3H8

B. 5.00 mol of O2
C. 12.00 mol of CO2
D. 16.00 mol of H2O

26. Which contains the most atoms of oxygen?

A. 64 g of O2
B. 1.2 × 1024 molecules of O2
C. 64 g of C3H5O3
D. 1.2 × 1024 molecules of C3H5O3

6
 27. What is the resulting concentration, in mol dm−3, when 1.0 cm3 of 0.500 mol dm−3 nitric
acid solution is diluted to 50.0 cm3 with water?

A. 0.002
B. 0.01
C. 0.04
D. 0.1

28. What volume of oxygen, in dm3 at STP, is needed when 5.8 g of butane undergoes complete
combustion?

2C4 H10 (g) + 13O2 (g) → 8CO2 (g) + 10H2O (l)

5.8
A. 2 × × 13 × 22.7
12.01 × 4 + 1.01 × 10
5.8 13
B. × × 22.7
12.01 × 4 + 1.01 × 10 2
5.8 2
C. × × 22.7
12.01 × 4 + 1.01 × 10 13
5.8 13 22.7
D. × ×
12.01 × 4 + 1.01 × 10 2 1000

29. What is the coefficient of HCl (aq) when the equation is balanced using the smallest possible
whole numbers?

__CuO (s)+ __HCl (aq) → __CuCl2 (aq) + __H2O (l)

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

30. 0.20 mol of magnesium is mixed with 0.10 mol of hydrochloric acid.
Mg (s) + 2HCl (aq) → MgCl2 (aq) + H2 (g)

Which is correct?

7










31. Which amount, in mol, of sodium chloride is needed to make 250 cm3 of 0.10 mol dm−3
solution?

A. 4.0 × 10−4
B. 0.025
C. 0.40
D. 25

32. Which molecule has the same empirical formula as molecular formula?

A. CH3COOH
B. C2H5OH
C. C2H4
D. C4H10

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

B A A D A B B B D B A B B C D

16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

B B B A D A B B C B D B B B C

31 32

B B

8
 Topic 1: Stoichiometric relationships(2)

1. What is the sum of the coefficients when the equation is balanced with whole numbers?
__Sn(OH)4 (aq) + __NaOH (aq) → __Na2SnO3 (aq) + __H2O (l)

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7

2. A sample of a compound contains approximately 24.0 g C, 3.0 g H, and 1.6 g O. What is the
empirical formula of the compound?

A. C20H30O
B. C84H10O6
C. C2H3O
D. C24H30O2

3. What is the molar mass, in g m ol −1 , of a compound if 0.200 m ol of the compound has a mass
of 13.2 g?

A. 66.0
B. 66
C. 26.4
D. 26

4. What is the number of carbon atoms in 12 g of ethanoic acid CH3COOH, Mr = 60?

A. 0.20
B. 2.0
C. 1.2 × 10 23
D. 2.4 × 10 23

9





 5. Which of these molecular formulae are also empirical formulae?

I. C2 H6O
II. C2 H4O2
III. C5 H12

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III

6. Which volume of ethane gas, in cm3, will produce 40 cm3 of carbon dioxide gas when mixed
with 140 cm3 of oxygen gas, assuming the reaction goes to completion?

2C2 H6 (g) + 7O2 (g) → 4CO2 (g) + 6H2O (g)

A. 10
B. 20
C. 40
D. 80

7. 0.10 mol of hydrochloric acid is mixed with 0.10 mol of calcium carbonate.
2HCl (aq) + CaCO3 (s) → CaCl2 (aq) + H2O (l) + CO2 (g)

Which is correct?

8. What is the sum of the coefficients when the equation is balanced with whole numbers?

__MnO2 (s) + __HCl (aq) → __MnCl2 (aq) + __H2O (l) + __Cl2 (g)

A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9

10






9. Which is correct?

A. Mixtures are either homogeneous or heterogeneous and their chemical properties are an
average of the individual component properties.
B. Mixtures are never heterogeneous and their chemical properties are an average of the
individual component properties.
C. Mixtures are either homogeneous or heterogeneous and the components retain their
individual chemical properties.
D. Mixtures are never homogeneous and the components retain their individual chemical
properties.

10. Which contains the greatest number of moles of oxygen atoms?

A. 0.05 mol Mg(NO3)2

B. 0.05 mol C6H4(NO2)2
C. 0.1 mol H2O
D. 0.1 mol NO2

11. Which diagram represents a heterogeneous mixture?

12. What is the sum of the coefficients when the equation is balanced with the smallest whole
numbers?

__BaCl2 (aq) + __Fe2(SO4)3 (aq) → __FeCl3 (aq) + __BaSO4 (s)

A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 9

13. What is the empirical formula of a hydrocarbon with 75 % carbon and 25 % hydrogen by
mass?

A. C3H
B. CH2
C. C2H6
D. CH4

11
14. Which graph would not show a linear relationship for a fixed mass of an ideal gas with all
other variables constant?

A. P against V
1
B. P against
V
C. P against T
D. V against T

15. How many moles of magnesium hydroxide are produced with 0.50 mol of ammonia?

Mg3N2 (s) + 6H2O (l) → 3Mg(OH)2 (aq) + 2NH3 (aq)

A. 0.25
B. 0.33
C. 0.75
D. 1.5

16. What is the sum of the integer coefficients when propene undergoes complete combustion?

__C3H6 (g) + __O2 (g) → __CO2 (g) + __H2O (l)

A. 11
B. 17
C. 21
D. 23

17. What is the volume of gas when the pressure on 100 cm3 of gas is changed from 400 kPa to
200 kPa at constant temperature?

A. 50.0 cm3
B. 100 cm3
C. 200 cm3
D. 800 cm3

18. What is the concentration, in mol dm−3, of 20.0 g of NaOH (Mr = 40.0) in 500.0 cm3?

A. 0.250
B. 0.500
C. 1.00
D. 4.00

12
19. What volume of carbon dioxide, CO2 (g), can be obtained by reacting 1 dm3 of methane, CH4
(g), with 1 dm3 of oxygen, O2 (g)?

CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + 2H2O (l)

A. 0.5 dm3
B. 1 dm3
C. 2 dm3
D. 6 dm3

20. How many moles of FeS2 are required to produce 32 g of SO2?

4FeS2 (s) + 11O2 (g) → 2Fe2O3 (s) + 8SO2 (g)

A. 0.25
B. 0.50
C. 1.0
D. 2.0

21. The volume of a sample of gas measured at 27 °C is 10.0 dm3. What is the temperature when
the volume is reduced to 9.0 dm3 at the same pressure?

A. −3.0 °C
B. 24.3 °C
C. 29.7 °C
D. 57.0 °C

22. 16 g of bromine react with 5.2 g of metal, M, to form MBr2. What is the relative atomic mass
of the metal M?

A. 13
B. 26
C. 52
D. 104

13
23. An antacid tablet containing 0.50 g of NaHCO3 (Mr = 84) is dissolved in water to give a
volume of 250 cm3. What is the concentration, in mol dm−3, of HCO3− in this solution?

0.250 × 84
A.
0.50
0.50
B.
84 × 0.250
250 × 84
C.
0.50
0.50
D.
84 × 250

24. Which is a homogeneous mixture?

A. Oil and water

B. Sand and water
C. Ethanol and water
D. Chalk and sand

25. What is the molecular formula of a hydrocarbon containing 84.6% carbon by mass with a
molar mass of 142.3 g mol−1?

A. C20H44
B. C11H10
C. C10H22
D. C5H11

26. Which graph shows the relationship between the volume and pressure of a fixed mass of an
ideal gas?

14
27. What is the percentage yield when 7 g of ethene produces 6 g of ethanol?

C2H4(g) + H2O(g) → C2H5OH(g)

6 × 7 × 100
A.
28 × 46
6 × 46 × 100
B.
7 × 28
6 × 28
C.
7 × 46 × 100
6 × 28 × 100
D.
7 × 46

28. What is the sum of the coefficients when the equation is balanced with the lowest whole
number ratio?

__Na2S2O3(aq) + __HCl(aq) → __S(s) + __SO2(g) + __NaCl(aq) + __H2O(l)

A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9

29. What is the number of atoms of oxygen in 2.0 mol of hydrated sodium carbonate,
Na 2CO3 ⋅ 10H2O?

A. 6
B. 26
C. 3.6 × 1024
D. 1.6 × 1025

30. What is the volume, in cm3, of the final solution if 100 cm3 of a solution containing 1.42 g of
sodium sulfate, Na2SO4, is diluted to the concentration of 0.020 mol dm–3?

A. 50
B. 400
C. 500
D. 600

15
31. What is the percentage yield when 2.0 g of ethene, C2H4, is formed from 5.0 g of ethanol,
C2H5OH?

2.0 5.0
A. × × 100
28 46
2.0
28
B. 5.0
× 100
46
28 5.0
C. × × 100
2.0 46
28
2.0
D. 5.0
× 100
46

32. How many atoms of nitrogen are there in 0.50 mol of (NH4)2CO3?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3.01 × 1023
D. 6.02 × 1023

33. What is the value of x when 32.2 g of Na2SO4•xH2O are heated leaving 14.2 g of
anhydrous Na2SO4?

Na2SO4•xH2O (s) → Na2SO4 (s) + xH2O (g)

A. 0.1
B. 1
C. 5
D. 10

34. How many grams of sodium azide, NaN3, are needed to produce 68.1 dm3 of N2 (g) at STP?

2NaN3 (s) → 3N2 (g) + 2Na (s)

A. 32.5
B. 65.0
C. 130.0
D. 195.0

16
35. What is the sum of the coefficients when the following equation is balanced using the
smallest whole numbers?

__C6H12O6 (aq) → __C2H5OH (aq) + __CO2 (g)

A. 4
B. 5
C. 9
D. 10

36. Which solution neutralizes 50.0 cm3 of 0.120 mol dm–3 NaOH (aq)?

A. 12.5 cm3 of 0.080 mol dm–3 H3PO4

B. 25.0 cm3 of 0.120 mol dm–3 CH3COOH
C. 25.0 cm3 of 0.120 mol dm–3 H2SO4
D. 50.0 cm3 of 0.060 mol dm–3 HNO3

37. What is the pressure, in Pa, inside a 1.0 m3 cylinder containing 10 kg of H2 (g) at 25 ºC?

1 × 10 4 × 8.31 × 25
A.
1.0 × 10 3
5 × 10 2 × 8.31 × 298
B.
1.0
1 × 8.31 × 25
C.
1.0 × 10 3
5 × 103 × 8.31 × 298
D.
1.0

38. A compound with Mr = 102 contains 58.8 % carbon, 9.80 % hydrogen and 31 % oxygen by
mass.

What is its molecular formula?

A. C2H14O4
B. C3H4O4
C. C5H10O2
D. C6H14O

17
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

D A A D B B C D C A A D D A C

16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

D C C A A A C B C C A D C D C

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38

B D D C B C D C

18
 Topic 2: Atomic structure
1. What is the maximum number of electrons in energy level n = 4?

A. 8
B. 18
C. 32
D. 50

2. The following diagram shows a light passing through a cold gas cloud, and light from a hot gas
cloud.

Which types of spectra are associated with light passing through a cold gas cloud, Spectrum
A, and light from a hot gas cloud, Spectrum B?

3. What is the electron configuration for an element in group 4 period 5?

A. [Kr] 5s24d2
B. [Ar] 4s23d3
C. [Ar] 4s23d104p3
D. [Kr] 5s24d105p2

19
4. Which element has variable oxidation states in its compounds?

A. Potassium
B. Calcium
C. Fluorine
D. Bromine
128
5. Which quantities are different between two species represented by the notation 52 Te and
128 −
53 I ?

A. The number of protons only

B. The number of protons and electrons only
C. The number of protons and neutrons only
D. The number of protons, neutrons and electrons

6. What is the relative atomic mass of a sample of chlorine containing 70 % of the 35Cl isotope
and 30 % of the 37Cl isotope?

A. 35.4
B. 35.5
C. 35.6
D. 35.7

7. Naturally occurring gallium consists of the isotopes 71Ga and 69Ga. What is the approximate
percentage abundance of 69Ga? Mr (Ga) = 69.72.

A. 40 %
B. 50 %
C. 60 %
D. 75 %

8. What is the maximum number of electrons that can occupy a p-orbital?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 6
D. 8

20
9. Which of the following is the electron configuration of a metallic element?

A. [Ne] 3s2 3p2

B. [Ne] 3s2 3p4
C. [Ne] 3s2 3p6 3d3 4s2
D. [Ne] 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2 4p5

10. Which experimental results support the theory that electrons exist in discrete energy levels?

A. 1H NMR
B. X-ray diffraction pattern
C. Emission spectra
D. IR spectra

11. What is the relative atomic mass of an element with the following mass spectrum?

A. 23
B. 24
C. 25
D. 28

12. How many p-orbitals are occupied in a phosphorus atom?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 6

21
13. Which species has two more neutrons than electrons?

6 + 9 2+ 23 + 42 2+
3 Li 4 Be 11 Na 20Ca

A. 63 Li +
B. 94 Be 2+
23 +
C. 11 Na
42 2+
D. 20Ca

14. What is the relative molecular mass of bromine, according to the following mass spectrum?

158 × 52 + 160 × 100 + 162 × 48

A.
52 + 100 + 48
158 × 52 + 160 × 100 + 162 × 48
B.
158 + 160 + 162
79 × 11 + 81 × 11 + 158 × 52 + 160 × 100 + 162 × 48
C.
11 + 11 + 52 + 100 + 48
79 × 11 + 81 × 11
D.
11 + 11

15. Which represents a p orbital?

22
16. What is represented by “2−” in AZ X 2−?

A. loss of electron
B. gain of electron
C. loss of proton
D. gain of proton

17. How are emission spectra formed?

A. Photons are absorbed when promoted electrons return to a lower energy level.
B. Photons are absorbed when electrons are promoted to a higher energy level.
C. Photons are emitted when electrons are promoted to a higher energy level.
D. Photons are emitted when promoted electrons return to a lower energy level.

18. What is the relative atomic mass, Ar, of an element with this mass spectrum?

A. 24.0
B. 24.3
C. 24.9
D. 25.0

19. What is the maximum number of electrons that can occupy the 4th main energy level in an
atom?

A. 8
B. 14
C. 18
D. 32

23
20. What is represented by A in AZ X 2−?

A. Number of electrons
B. Number of neutrons
C. Number of nucleons
D. Number of protons

21. Which represents the shape of an s atomic orbital?

22. Which technique is used to detect the isotopes of an element?

A. Mass spectrometry
B. Infrared spectroscopy
C. Titration
D. Recrystallization

23. Bromine consists of two stable isotopes that exist in approximately a 1 : 1 ratio. The relative
atomic mass, Ar, of bromine is 79.90. Which are the stable isotopes of bromine?

A. 79Br and 81Br

B. 80Br and 81Br
C. 78Br and 80Br
D. 79Br and 80Br

24. What is the ground state electron configuration of an atom of chromium, Cr?

A. [Ar]3d6
B. [Ar]4s23d4
C. [Ar]4s13d5
D. [Ar]4s24p4

24
 34 2−
25. Which is correct for 16 S ?

26. Which transition in the hydrogen atom emits visible light?

A. n = 1 to n = 2
B. n = 2 to n = 3
C. n = 2 to n = 1
D. n = 3 to n = 2

27. Which statements are correct for the emission spectrum of hydrogen?

I. The lines converge at higher frequencies.

II. Electron transitions to n = 2 are responsible for lines in the visible region.
III. Lines are produced when electrons move from lower to higher energy levels.

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III

28. Which statement about 56Fe3+ and 54Fe2+ is correct?

A. Both have the same numbers of protons and electrons.

B. Both have the same number of protons.
C. Both have the same number of neutrons.
D. Both have the same numbers of protons and neutrons.

25
29. Which shows the number of subatomic particles in 31P3−?

30. Which are correct statements about the emission spectrum of hydrogen in the visible region?

I. The red line has a lower energy than the blue line.
II. The lines converge at longer wavelength.
III. The frequency of the blue line is greater than the frequency of the red line.

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III

31. What is the composition of the nucleus of 26Mg?

32. What is the number of protons and the number of neutrons in 131I?

26
33. Which is the electron configuration of a chromium atom in the ground state?

A. [Ne]3s23p64s13d4
B. [Ar]3d3
C. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d4
D. [Ar]4s13d5

27
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

C A A D D C C A C C B D C A C

16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

B D B D C A A A C D D A B A B

31 32 33

D A D

28
 Topic 3: Periodicity
1. Which properties increase down the group 1 alkali metals?

I. atomic radii
II. melting point
III. reactivity with water

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III

2. What is the correct labelling of the blocks of the periodic table?

3. Which elements are considered to be metalloids?

I. Gallium
II. Germanium
III. Arsenic

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III

29
4. Which property of elements increases down a group but decreases across a period?

A. Atomic radius
B. Electronegativity
C. Ionic radius
D. Ionization energy

5. Which gases are acidic?

I. nitrogen dioxide
II. carbon dioxide
III. sulfur dioxide

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III

6. Which of the following is the electron configuration of a metallic element?

A. [Ne] 3s2 3p2

B. [Ne] 3s2 3p4
C. [Ne] 3s2 3p6 3d3 4s2
D. [Ne] 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2 4p5

7. Three elements, X, Y, and Z are in the same period of the periodic table. The relative sizes of
their atoms are represented by the diagram.

Which general trends are correct?

30
8. Which element is found in the 4th group, 6th period of the periodic table?

A. Selenium
B. Lead
C. Chromium
D. Hafnium

9. What is the correct order for increasing first ionization energy?

A. Na < Mg < Al
B. Na < Al < Mg
C. Al < Mg < Na
D. Al < Na < Mg

10. Which are the most reactive elements of the alkali metals and halogens?

A. Lithium and fluorine

B. Lithium and iodine
C. Caesium and fluorine
D. Caesium and iodine

11. Which element has the highest metallic character in Group 14?

A. C
B. Si
C. Ge
D. Sn

12. Which combination describes the acid–base nature of aluminium and phosphorus oxides?

13. Which ion has the largest radius?

A. Na+
B. Mg2+
C. P3−
D. S2−
31
14. Which species has the same electron configuration as argon?

A. Br−
B. Ca2+
C. Al3+
D. Si4+

15. Which trend is correct, going down group 1?

A. Melting point increases

B. Reactivity decreases
C. First ionisation energy increases
D. Electronegativity decreases

16. Which is a d-block element?

A. Ca
B. Cf
C. Cl
D. Co

17. Which of the following shows a general increase across period 3 from Na to Cl?

A. Ionic radius
B. Atomic radius
C. Ionization energy
D. Melting point

18. Which oxide will dissolve in water to give the solution with the lowest pH?

A. P4O10
B. SiO2
C. Al2O3
D. MgO

19. What is the correct trend going down groups 1 and 17?

A. Melting points increase

B. Boiling points decrease
C. Electronegativities increase
D. Ionization energies decrease

32
20. Which property shows a general increase from left to right across period 2, Li to F?

A. Melting point
B. Electronegativity
C. Ionic radius
D. Electrical conductivity

21. Which is an f-block element?

A. Sc
B. Sm
C. Sn
D. Sr

22. Which describes an atom of bismuth, Bi (Z = 83)?

23. What are typical characteristics of metals?

24. Which of the following would have the same numerical value for all elements in the same
period?

A. Highest energy levels occupied

B. Energy sub-levels occupied
C. Orbitals occupied
D. Valence electrons

33
25. How do the following properties change down Group 17 of the periodic table?

26. Which series represents atoms in order of decreasing atomic radius?

A. N > C > Be > Mg

B. Mg > N > C > Be
C. Be > C > N > Mg
D. Mg > Be > C > N

27. Which oxides produce an acidic solution when added to water?

I. Al2O3 and SiO2

II. P4O6 and P4O10
III. NO2 and SO2

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III

28. Which species will require the least energy for the removal of one electron?

A. Na+
B. Mg+
C. Al2+
D. C3+

34
29. Which describes the oxide of sodium, Na2O?

30. Which statement is correct?

A. Atomic radius decreases down group 17.

B. First ionization energy decreases down group 1.
C. Atomic radius increases across period 3 from Na to Cl.
D. First ionization energy decreases across period 3 from Na to Cl.

31. Which increase across a period from left to right?

32. Which element is in the p-block?

A. Pb
B. Pm
C. Pt
D. Pu

33. Which trends are correct across period 3 (from Na to Cl)?

I. Atomic radius decreases

II. Melting point increases
III. First ionization energy increases

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
35
34. Which oxide dissolves in water to give a solution with a pH below 7?

A. MgO
B. Li2O
C. CaO
D. P4O10

35. Which electron configuration is that of a transition metal atom in the ground state?

A. [Ne]3s23p64s1
B. [Ar]3d9
C. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p2
D. [Ar]4s13d5

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

B D C A D C C D B C D A C B D

16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

D C A D B B C A A C D C B D B

31 32 33 34 35

D A B D D

36
 Topic 4: Chemical bonding and structure
1. What are the formal charges on the atoms in this molecular ion?

[ ]
−
¨ ¨
: S = C = N:

2. What is the formula of copper (I) sulfide?

A. CuS
B. Cu2S
C. CuSO3
D. Cu2SO3

3. Which molecule can be represented by resonance structures?

A. H2S
B. HNO3
C. H2O2
D. HClO

4. Which molecule is polar?

A. BeH2
B. AlH3
C. PH3
D. SiH4

5. Which structure of CF2Cl2 is shown with correct bond and molecular dipoles?

37


6. Alloying a metal with a metal of smaller atomic radius can disrupt the lattice and make it more
difficult for atoms to slide over each other. Which property will increase as a result?

A. Electrical conductivity
B. Ductility
C. Malleability
D. Strength

7. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) contain bonds of the following lengths:

C—C = 1.54 × 10−10 m

C—F = 1.38 × 10−10 m
C—Cl = 1.77 × 10−10 m

What is the order of increasing bond strength in the CFC molecule?

A. C—C < C—F < C—Cl

B. C—C < C—Cl < C—F
C. C—Cl < C—C < C—F
D. C—F < C—C < C—Cl

8. A compound consists of the ions Ca2+ and PO43–. What are the name and formula of the
compound?

9. What is the explanation for the high melting point of sodium chloride?

A. The covalent bond between sodium and chlorine atoms is strong.

B. Electrostatic attraction between sodium and chloride ions is strong.
C. Intermolecular forces in sodium chloride are strong.
D. Delocalized electrons cause strong bonding in sodium chloride.

10. Which molecule is most polar?

A. CF4
B. CCl4
C. CHF3
D. CClF3
38
11. For which species can resonance structures be drawn?

A. HCOOH
B. HCOO–
C. CH3OH
D. H2CO3

12. Which statement best describes the intramolecular bonding in HCN(l)?

A. Electrostatic attractions between H+ and CN− ions

B. Hydrogen bonding
C. Van der Waals forces and hydrogen bonding
D. Electrostatic attractions between pairs of electrons and positively charged nuclei

13. What is the type of bonding in a compound that has high boiling and melting points, poor
electrical conductivity, and low solubility in water?

A. Ionic
B. Molecular covalent
C. Metallic
D. Giant covalent

14. What is the name of the compound with formula Ti3(PO4)2?

A. Titanium phosphate
B. Titanium(II) phosphate
C. Titanium(III) phosphate
D. Titanium(IV) phosphate

15. What is the main interaction between liquid CH4 molecules?

A. London (dispersion) forces

B. Dipole–dipole forces
C. Hydrogen bonding
D. Covalent bonding

16. In which of the following compounds does ionic bonding predominate?

A. HCl
B. NaF
C. NH4Br
D. NaOH

39
17. Which molecule has the weakest nitrogen to nitrogen bond?
A. N2
B. N2H2
C. N2H4

D.

18. Which combination would create the strongest ionic bond?

19. Which compound contains both ionic and covalent bonds?

A. CH3COONa
B. CH3COOH
C. K2O
D. CaCl2

20. The following compounds have similar relative molecular masses. What is the order of
increasing boiling point?

A. CH3CH2CH2OH < CH3CH2CHO < CH3COOH

B. CH3CH2CHO < CH3CH2CH2OH < CH3COOH
C. CH3CH2CHO < CH3COOH < CH3CH2CH2OH
D. CH3COOH < CH3CH2CHO < CH3CH2CH2OH

21. Which alcohol is least soluble in water?

A. CH3OH
B. CH3CH2OH
C. CH3CH2CH2OH
D. CH3CH2CH2CH2OH

40
22. The Lewis structure of methylamine is shown.

What is the molecular geometry around N?

A. Square planar
B. Tetrahedral
C. Trigonal planar
D. Trigonal pyramidal

23. Which compound contains both ionic and covalent bonds?

A. MgO
B. CH2Cl2
C. CH3COOH
D. NaOH

24. Which substance is most likely to be ionic?

25. Along which series is the bond angle increasing?

A. NH3 H2O CH4

B. CH4 NH3 H2O
C. H2O NH3 CH4
D. H2O CH4 NH3

26. Which series is in order of increasing boiling point?

A. CH2CH2CH3OH CH3COCH3 CH3CH2CH3

B. CH3CH2CH3 CH3COCH3 CH2CH2CH3OH
C. CH3COCH3 CH2CH2CH3OH CH3CH2CH3
D. CH3CH2CH3 CH2CH2CH3OH CH3COCH3
41
27. Which compound has the greatest volatility under the same conditions?

A. SO2
B. SiO2
C. SnO2
D. SrO

28. Which compound has the shortest C to N bond?

A. HCN
B. CH3CH2NH2
C. CH3CHNH
D. (CH3)2NH

29. What is the formula of the compound formed from Ca2+ and PO43−?

A. CaPO4
B. Ca3(PO4)2
C. Ca2(PO4)3
D. Ca(PO4)2

30. Which is the correct order based on increasing strength?

A. covalent bonds < hydrogen bonds < dipole–dipole forces < dispersion forces
B. dipole–dipole forces < dispersion forces < hydrogen bonds < covalent bonds
C. dispersion forces < dipole–dipole forces < hydrogen bonds < covalent bonds
D. dispersion forces < dipole–dipole forces < covalent bonds < hydrogen bonds

31. Which formula is correct?

A. NH4 PO4
B. (NH4) PO4
2
C. (NH4) PO4
3
D. (NH4) (PO4)
3 2

32. Which combination correctly describes the geometry of the carbonate ion, CO32−?

42
33. Which series shows the correct order of metallic bond strength from strongest to weakest?

A. Na > K > Rb > Mg

B. Mg > Rb > K > Na
C. Rb > K > Na > Mg
D. Mg > Na > K > Rb

34. Which of these species contains the shortest carbon to oxygen bond length?

A. CH3CH2O −
B. CH3CH2OH
C. CH3COO−
D. CH3COOH

35. Which is correct for all solid ionic compounds?

A. High volatility
B. Poor electrical conductivity
C. Low melting point
D. Good solubility in water

36. Which compound has the shortest C to O bond?

A. CH3CHO
B. CO
C. CO2
D. C2H5OC2H5

37. Which describes a resonance structure?

A. Double bond can be drawn in alternative positions.

B. Bonds vibrate by absorbing IR radiation.
C. A double and a single bond in the molecule
D. A Lewis structure

38. What is the structure and bonding in SiO2 (s)?

43
39. What is the order of increasing boiling point?

A. CH3CH2CH2CH3 < CH3CH(OH)CH3 < CH3COCH3 < CH3CO2H

B. CH3CH2CH2CH3 < CH3COCH3 < CH3CH(OH)CH3 < CH3CO2H
C. CH3CO2H < CH3COCH3 < CH3CH(OH)CH3 < CH3CH2CH2CH3
D. CH3CH2CH2CH3 < CH3COCH3 < CH3CO2H < CH3CH(OH)CH3

40. Which species does not have resonance structures?

A. C6H6
B. NH4+
C. CO32−
D. O3

41. Which describes an ionic compound?

42. Which combination corresponds to a strong metallic bond?

43. How does a lithium atom form the most stable ion?

A. The atom gains a proton to form a positive ion.

B. The atom loses a proton to form a negative ion.
C. The atom loses an electron to form a positive ion.
D. The atom gains an electron to form a negative ion.

44
44. Which combination causes the strength of metallic bonding to increase?

45. Which molecule contains an incomplete octet of electrons?

A. NF3
B. BF3
C. BrF
D. SF2

46. Which compound has hydrogen bonds between its molecules?

A. CH4
B. CH4O
C. CH3Cl
D. CH2O

47. What is the IUPAC name of NiCO3?

A. nickel(II) carbonate
B. nickel carbonate
C. nickel(I) carbonate
D. nitrogen(I) carbonate

48. Which species has the same molecular geometry as SO32−?

A. BF3
B. SO3
C. PF3
D. CO32−

45
49. How many lone pairs and bonding pairs of electrons surround the central chlorine atom in
ClF2+?

50. Which compound has the highest boiling point?

A. CH3CHO
B. CH3CH2F
C. CH3OCH3
D. CH3CH2NH2

51. Which molecule is polar?

A. BeCl2
B. BCl3
C. NCl3
D. CCl4

52. What is the formula of ammonium phosphate?

A. (NH3)3PO4
B. (NH4)3PO4
C. (NH4)2PO4
D. (NH3)2PO3

53. What is the molecular geometry and bond angle in the molecular ion NO3−?

46
54. Which form of carbon is the poorest electrical conductor?

A. Graphite
B. Graphene
C. Diamond
D. Carbon nanotube
55. What are the strongest intermolecular forces between molecules of propanone, CH3COCH3, in
the liquid phase?

A. London (dispersion) forces

B. Covalent bonding
C. Hydrogen bonding
D. Dipole–dipole forces
56. What is the formula of magnesium nitride?

A. MgN
B. Mg2N3
C. Mg3N
D. Mg3N2
57. Which species has the longest carbon to oxygen bond length?

A. CO
B. CH3OH
C. CH3CO2−
D. H2CO
58. What are the predicted electron domain geometries around the carbon and both nitrogen atoms
in urea, (NH2)2CO, applying VSEPR theory?

59. The compounds shown below have similar relative molecular masses. What is the correct order
of increasing boiling point?

A. CH3COOH < (CH3)2CO < (CH3)2CHOH

B. CH3COOH < (CH3)2CHOH < (CH3)2CO
C. (CH3)2CO < CH3COOH < (CH3)2CHOH
D. (CH3)2CO < (CH3)2CHOH < CH3COOH

47
60. Which metal has the strongest metallic bonding?

A. Na
B. Mg
C. Al
D. Ca
61. The electronegativity values of four elements are given.

What is the order of increasing polarity of the bonds in the following compounds?

A. CO < OF2 < NO < CF4

B. CF4 < CO < OF2 < NO
C. NO < OF2 < CO < CF4
D. CF4 < NO < OF2 < CO
62. Which compound has the shortest C–N bond?

A. CH3NH2
B. (CH3)3CNH2
C. CH3CN
D. CH3CHNH
63. Which of the following series shows increasing hydrogen bonding with water?

A. Propane < propanal < propanol < propanoic acid

B. Propane < propanol < propanal < propanoic acid
C. Propanal < propane < propanoic acid < propanol
D. Propanoic acid < propanol < propanal < propane

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

B B B C D D C D B C B D D B A

16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

B C C A B D D D D C B A A B C

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45

C C D D B B A A B B B B C D B

46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

B A C D D C B B C D D B B D C

61 62 63

C C A

48
 Topic 5: Energetics/thermochemistry
1. What happens to the average kinetic energy, KE, of the particles in a gas when the
absolute temperature is doubled?

1
KE = mv2
2

A. Increases by a factor of 2
B. Decreases by a factor of 2
C. Increases by a factor of 4
D. Decreases by a factor of 4

2. A potential energy profile is shown for a reaction.

Which energy changes would a catalyst affect?

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III

3. What is the value for enthalpy of formation of methane from the given enthalpies of
combustion?

C (s) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) ΔH = −394 kJ mol−1

1
H2 (g) + O2 (g) → H2O (l) ΔH = −286 kJ mol−1
2
CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + 2H2O (l) ΔH = −891 kJ mol−1

A. (−394 − 286 − 891) kJ mol−1

B. (−394 − (2 × 286) − 891) kJ mol−1
C. (−394 − 286 + 891) kJ mol−1
D. (−394 − (2 × 286) + 891) kJ mol−1
49

4. Which statement best describes heat?

A. A quantity of potential energy of particles

B. A quantity of average kinetic energy of particles
C. A quantity of energy transferred between particles
D. A quantity of the total energy held by particles

5. The energy from burning 0.250 g of ethanol causes the temperature of 150 cm3 of water to rise
by 10.5 °C. What is the enthalpy of combustion of ethanol, in kJ mol–1?

Specific heat capacity of water: 4.18 J g–1 K–1.

150 × 4.18 × 10.5

A. 0.250
46.08
150 × 4.18 × 10.5
B. 0.250
46.08
× 1000
150 × 4.18 × (273 + 10.5)
C. 0.250
46.08

150 × 4.18 × (273 + 10.5)

D. 0.250
46.08
× 1000

6. What is the enthalpy change of the following reaction?

CH2CHCH2CH3 + HBr → CH3CHBrCH2CH3

A. –119.6 kJ
B. +119.6 kJ
C. –119.8 kJ
D. +119.8 kJ

50
7. What is the correct interpretation of the following potential energy profile?

A. Endothermic reaction; products more stable than reactants.

B. Exothermic reaction; products more stable than reactants.
C. Endothermic reaction; products less stable than reactants.
D. Exothermic reaction; products less stable than reactants.

8. What is correct about energy changes during bond breaking and bond formation?

9. Which combination of ΔH1, ΔH2, and ΔH3 would give the enthalpy of the reaction?

CS2 (l) + 3O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + 2SO2 (g)

ΔH1 C (s) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g)

ΔH2 S (s) + O2 (g) → SO2 (g)
ΔH3 C (s) + 2S (s) → CS2 (l)

A. ΔH = ΔH1 + ΔH2 + ΔH3

B. ΔH = ΔH1 + ΔH2 − ΔH3
C. ΔH = ΔH1 + 2(ΔH2) + ΔH3
D. ΔH = ΔH1 + 2(ΔH2) − ΔH3

51
10. Which statement is correct about identical pieces of magnesium added to two solutions, X and
Y, containing hydrochloric acid at the same temperature?

A. Solution X will reach a higher maximum temperature.

B. Solution Y will reach a higher maximum temperature.
C. Solutions X and Y will have the same temperature rise.
D. It is not possible to predict whether X or Y will have the higher maximum temperature
because we cannot identify the limiting reactant.

11. Which equation represents the bond enthalpy for H–Br in hydrogen bromide?

A. HBr (g) → H+ (g) + Br− (g)

B. HBr (g) → H (g) + Br (g)
1 1
C. HBr (g) → H2 (g) + Br2 (l)
2 2
1 1
D. HBr (g) → H2 (g) + Br2 (g)
2 2
12. Which combustion reaction releases the least energy per mole of C3H8?

Approximate bond enthalpy / kJ mol−1

O=O 500
C=O 800
C≡O 1000

A. C3H8 (g) + 5O2 (g) → 3CO2 (g) + 4H2O (g)

9
B. C3H8 (g) + O2 (g) → 2CO2 (g) + CO (g) + 4H2O (g)
2
C. C3H8 (g) + 4O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + 2CO (g) + 4H2O (g)
7
D. C3H8 (g) + O2 (g) → 3CO (g) + 4H2O (g)
2

52
13. Which equation represents the standard enthalpy of formation of lithium oxide?

A. 4Li (s) + O2 (g) → 2Li2O (s)

1
B. 2Li (s) + O2 (g) → Li2O (s)
2
1 1
C. Li (s) + O2 (g) → Li2O (s)
4 2
1 1
D. Li (g) + O2 (g) → Li2O (g)
4 2
14. Which statement describes an endothermic reaction?

A. The bonds broken are stronger than the bonds formed.

B. The enthalpy of the reactants is higher than the enthalpy of the products.
C. The temperature of the surroundings increases.
D. The products are more stable than the reactants.

15. When sodium carbonate powder is added to ethanoic acid, the beaker becomes cooler.
Possible enthalpy diagrams are shown.

Which correctly describes the reaction?

53
16. What is the enthalpy change, in J, when 5 g of water is heated from 10°C to 18°C?
Specific heat capacity of water: 4.18 kJ kg−1 K−1

A. 5 × 4.18 × 8
B. 5 × 10−3 × 4.18 × 8
C. 5 × 4.18 × (273 + 8)
D. 5 × 10−3 × 4.18 × (273 + 8)

17. What is the enthalpy change of the reaction, in kJ?

2C (graphite) + O2 (g) → 2CO (g)

A. −394 − 283
B. 2(−394) + 2(−283)
C. −394 + 283
D. 2(−394) + 2(283)

18. The enthalpy of combustion of a fuel was determined using the calorimeter shown. The final
result was lower than the literature value.

Which factors could have contributed to this error?

I. Not all heat from the combustion was transferred to the calorimeter.
II. Incomplete combustion occurred.
III. The temperature probe touched the bottom of the calorimeter.

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
54
19. Which describes an exothermic reaction?

20. What is the heat change, in kJ, when 100.0 g of aluminium is heated from 19.0 °C to 32.0 °C?
Specific heat capacity of aluminium: 0.90 J g−1 K−1

A. 0.90 × 100.0 × 13.0

B. 0.90 × 100.0 × 286
0.90 × 100.0 × 13.0
C.
1000
0.90 × 100.0 × 286
D.
1000
21. Which is the enthalpy change of reaction, ΔH?

55
 22. The potential energy profile of a reaction is shown.

What can be determined about stability and energy change from the potential energy profile
shown?

23. Which equation shows the enthalpy of formation, ΔHf, of ethanol?

1
A. 2C (s) + 3H2 (g) + O2 (g) → C2 H5OH (g)
2
B. 4C (s) + 6H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2C2 H5OH (g)
1
C. 2C (s) + 3H2 (g) + O2 (g) → C2 H5OH (l)
2
D. 4C (s) + 6H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2C2 H5OH (l)

24. Which combination will give you the enthalpy change for the hydrogenation of ethene to
ethane, ΔH3?

A. −ΔH2 + ΔH1 − ΔH4

B. ΔH2 − ΔH1 + ΔH4
C. ΔH2 + ΔH1 − ΔH4
D. −ΔH2 − ΔH1 + ΔH4
56
















 25. What is the H − H bond enthalpy, in k J m ol −1, in the H2 molecule?

2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(g)

ΔHf (H2O) = x k J m ol −1

A. x − y + 4z
1
B. (x − y + 4z)
2
C. x − y + 2z
1
D. (x − y + 2z)
2
26. A student obtained the following data to calculate q, using q = m cΔT.

m = 20.2 g ± 0.2 g
ΔT = 10 ∘C ± 1 ∘C
c = 4.18 J g −1 K −1

What is the percentage uncertainty in the calculated value of q?

A. 0.2
B. 1.2
C. 11
D. 14

27. Which statement is correct?

A. O3 bond dissociation occurs at a longer wavelength of light than O2 bond dissociation.

B. O3 bond dissociation occurs at a higher energy than O2 bond dissociation.
C. O3 bond lengths are shorter than O2 bond lengths.
D. O3 bond dissociation occurs at a higher frequency of light than O2 bond dissociation.

57








 28. Which statements about bond strength and activation energy are correct for this reaction?

CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + 2H2O (l) ΔH ⦵ = − 891 k J

Questions 29 and 30 are about an experiment to measure the enthalpy of combustion, ΔHc, of
ethanol, using the apparatus and setup shown.

29. What is the enthalpy of combustion, ΔHc, of ethanol in kJ mol−1?

Maximum temperature of water: 30.0°C

Initial temperature of water: 20.0°C
Mass of water in beaker: 100.0 g
Loss in mass of ethanol: 0.230 g
Mr (ethanol): 46.08
Specific heat capacity of water: 4.18 J g−1 K−1
q = mcΔT

100.0 × 4.18 × (10.0 × 273) 0.0230 × 4.18 × 10.0

A. − 0.230
B. − 100.0
46.08
× 1000 46.08
× 1000
100.0 × 4.18 × 10.0 100.0 × 4.18 × 10.0
C. − 0.230
D. − 0.230
46.08
× 1000 46.08

58





30. Which quantity is likely to be the most inaccurate due to the sources of error in this
experiment?

A. Mass of ethanol burnt

B. Molecular mass of ethanol
C. Mass of water
D. Temperature change

31. What is the enthalpy change of the reaction?

C6H14 (l) → C2H4 (g) + C4H10 (g)

A. + 1411 + 2878 + 4163

B. + 1411 − 2878 − 4163
C. + 1411 + 2878 − 4163
D. − 1411 − 2878 + 4163

32. Which equation represents the N–H bond enthalpy in NH3?

A. NH3 (g) → N (g) + 3H (g)

1 1
B. NH3 (g) → N (g) + H (g)
3 3
1 3
C. NH3 (g) → N2 (g) + H2 (g)
2 2
D. NH3 (g) → •NH2 (g) + •H (g)

33. When equal masses of X and Y absorb the same amount of energy, their temperatures rise by 5
°C and 10 °C respectively. Which is correct?

A. The specific heat capacity of X is twice that of Y.

B. The specific heat capacity of X is half that of Y.
C. The specific heat capacity of X is one fifth that of Y.
D. The specific heat capacity of X is the same as Y.

59
34. What is the enthalpy change of reaction for the following equation?

A. x + y + z
B. −x − y + z
C. x − y − z
D. x − y + z

35. Which is correct for the reaction?

2Al (s) + 6HCl (aq) → 2AlCl3 (aq) + 3H2 (g) ΔH = −1049 kJ

A. Reactants are less stable than products and the reaction is endothermic.
B. Reactants are more stable than products and the reaction is endothermic.
C. Reactants are more stable than products and the reaction is exothermic.
D. Reactants are less stable than products and the reaction is exothermic.

36. Consider the following equations.

3
2Al (s) + O2 (g) → Al2O3 (s) ΔHƟ = −1670 kJ
2
Mn (s) + O2 (g) → MnO2 (s) ΔHƟ = −520 kJ

What is the standard enthalpy change, in kJ, of the reaction below?

4Al (s) + 3MnO2 (s) → 2Al2O3 (s) + 3Mn (s)

A. −1670 + 520
3
B. (−1670) + 3(520)
2
C. 2(−1670) + 3(−520)
D. 2(−1670) + 3(520)

60
37. Methane undergoes incomplete combustion.

2CH4 (g) + 3O2 (g) → 2CO (g) + 4H2O (g)

What is the enthalpy change, in kJ, using the bond enthalpy data given below?

A. [2(1077) + 4(463)] − [2(414) + 3(498)]

B. [2(414) + 3(498)] − [2(1077) + 4(463)]
C. [8(414) + 3(498)] − [2(1077) + 8(463)]
D. [2(1077) + 8(463)] − [8(414) + 3(498)]

38. Consider the following reactions:

Fe2O3 (s) + CO (g) → 2FeO (s) + CO2 (g) ΔHΘ = −3 kJ

Fe (s) + CO2 (g) → FeO (s) + CO (g) ΔHΘ = +11 kJ

What is the ΔHΘ value, in kJ, for the following reaction?

Fe2O3 (s) + 3CO (g) → 2Fe (s) + 3CO2 (g)

A. −25
B. −14
C. +8
D. +19

61
39. Which is correct when Ba(OH)2 reacts with NH4Cl?
Ba(OH)2 (s) + 2NH4Cl (s) → BaCl2 (aq) + 2NH3 (g) + 2H2O (l) ΔHΘ = +164 kJ mol−1

40. Consider the following reaction:

N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2NH3 (g)

Which calculation gives ΔHΘ, in kJ, for the forward reaction?

A. 2z − y − 3x
B. y + 3x − 2z
C. y + 3x − 6z
D. 6z − y − 3x

41. What is the enthalpy of combustion of butane in kJ mol−1?

2C4H10(g) + 13O2(g) → 8CO2(g) + 10H2O(l)

C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) ΔH = x kJ

1
H2(g) + 2 O2(g) → H2O(l) ΔH = y kJ
4C(s) + 5H2(g) → C4 H10(g) ΔH = z kJ

A. 4x + 5y − z
B. 4x + 5y + z
C. 8x + 10y − 2z
D. 8x + 5y + 2z
62
42. Which statement is correct?

A. In an exothermic reaction, the products have more energy than the reactants.
B. In an exothermic reversible reaction, the activation energy of the forward reaction is
greater than that of the reverse reaction.
C. In an endothermic reaction, the products are more stable than the reactants.
D. In an endothermic reversible reaction, the activation energy of the forward reaction is
greater than that of the reverse reaction.

43. Which describes the reaction shown in the potential energy profile?

A. The reaction is endothermic and the products have greater enthalpy than the reactants.
B. The reaction is endothermic and the reactants have greater enthalpy than the products.
C. The reaction is exothermic and the products have greater enthalpy than the reactants.
D. The reaction is exothermic and the reactants have greater enthalpy than the products.

44. What is the enthalpy change of combustion of urea, (NH2)2CO, in kJ mol−1?

2(NH2)2CO(s) + 3O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 2N2(g) + 4H2O(l)

A. 2 × (−333) −2 × (−394) −4 × (−286)

1
B. [2 × (−394) + 4 × (−286) −2 × (−333)]
2
C. 2 × (−394) + 4 × (−286) −2 × (−333)
1
D. [2 × (−333) −2 × (−394) −4 × (−286)]
2

63
45. Two 100 cm3 aqueous solutions, one containing 0.010 mol NaOH and the other 0.010 mol HCl,
are at the same temperature.

When the two solutions are mixed the temperature rises by y °C.
Assume the density of the final solution is 1.00 g cm−3.
Specific heat capacity of water = 4.18 J g−1 K−1
What is the enthalpy change of neutralization in kJ mol−1?

200 × 4.18 × y
A.
1000 × 0.020
200 × 4.18 × y
B.
1000 × 0.010
100 × 4.18 × y
C.
1000 × 0.010
200 × 4.18 × (y + 273)
D.
1000 × 0.010

46. Which statement is correct for this reaction?

Fe2O3 (s) + 3CO (g) → 2Fe (s) + 3CO2 (g) ΔH = −26.6 kJ

A. 13.3 kJ are released for every mole of Fe produced.

B. 26.6 kJ are absorbed for every mole of Fe produced.
C. 53.2 kJ are released for every mole of Fe produced.
D. 26.6 kJ are released for every mole of Fe produced.

47. The enthalpy changes for two reactions are given.

Br2 (l) + F2 (g) → 2BrF (g) ΔH = x kJ

Br2 (l) + 3F2 (g) → 2BrF3 (g) ΔH = y kJ

What is the enthalpy change for the following reaction?

BrF (g) + F2 (g) → BrF3 (g)

A. x – y
B. –x + y
1
C. (–x + y)
2
1
D. (x – y)
2

64
48. What is the enthalpy change, in kJ, of the following reaction?
3H2 (g) + N2 (g) ⇌ 2NH3 (g)

A. (6 × 391) − [(3 × 436) + 945]

B. (3 × 391) − (436 + 945)
C. −[(3 × 436) + 945] + (3 × 391)
D. −(6 × 391) + [(3 × 436) + 945]

49. The combustion of glucose is exothermic and occurs according to the following equation:
C6H12O6 (s) + 6O2 (g) → 6CO2 (g) + 6H2O (g)

Which is correct for this reaction?

50. The enthalpy change for the dissolution of NH4NO3 is +26 kJ mol–1 at 25 °C. Which statement
about this reaction is correct?

A. The reaction is exothermic and the solubility decreases at higher temperature.

B. The reaction is exothermic and the solubility increases at higher temperature.
C. The reaction is endothermic and the solubility decreases at higher temperature.
D. The reaction is endothermic and the solubility increases at higher temperature.

65
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

A A D C B C C C D A B D B A C

16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

A D A D C A C C A B C A B C D

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45

C B A D D D C A C C A D A B B

46 47 48 49 50

A C D A D

66
 Topic 6: Chemical kinetics
1. What initial rate of reaction can be determined from the graph?

A. 0.1 mol dm−3 s−1

B. 0.2 mol dm−3 s−1
C. 1.0 mol dm−3 s−1
D. 1.6 mol dm−3 s−1
2. Which changes would increase the rate of an exothermic reaction?

3. A sample of calcium carbonate reacts with excess hydrochloric acid in a beaker. The solid line
shows how the mass of the beaker changes with time.

Which dashed line represents the results obtained when the acid concentration is doubled?

67
4. A student was investigating rates of reaction. In which of the following cases would a
colorimeter show a change in absorbance?

A. KBr (aq) + Cl2 (aq)

B. Cu (s) + Na2SO4 (aq)
C. HCl (aq) + NaOH (aq)
D. (CH3)3COH (aq) + K2Cr2O7 (aq)
5. Why does a reaction for a sample of gases, at constant temperature, occur faster at higher
pressure?

A. Collisions are more frequent.

B. Collisions are more energetic.
C. High pressure lowers activation energy.
D. The reaction is more exothermic at high pressure.
6. Which instrument would best monitor the rate of this reaction?

2KI (aq) + Cl2 (aq) → 2KCl (aq) + I2 (aq)

A. Balance
B. Colorimeter
C. Volumetric flask
D. Gas syringe
7. Which combination has the greatest rate of reaction at room temperature?

68
8. Curve 1 shows the mass change when marble chips are added to excess hydrochloric acid in an
open beaker.

Which changes would produce curve 2?

A. Powdering the marble chips and heating

B. Powdering the marble chips and doubling their mass
C. Doubling the volume of acid and heating
D. Doubling the acid concentration and powdering the marble chips
9. On the following Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution, which letter represents activation energy?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
10. Which change causes the greatest increase in the initial rate of reaction between nitric acid and
magnesium?
2HNO3 (aq) + Mg (s) → Mg(NO3)2 (aq) + H2 (g)

69
11. The graph shows the Maxwell–Boltzmann energy distribution curve for a given gas at a certain
temperature.

How would the curve change if the temperature of the gas decreases while the other conditions
remain constant?

A. The maximum would be lower and to the left of M.

B. The maximum would be lower and to the right of M.
C. The maximum would be higher and to the left of M.
D. The maximum would be higher and to the right of M.
12. Which explains increasing rate of reaction with increasing temperature?

13. Which statements are correct about the action of a catalyst in a chemical reaction?

I. It increases the energy of each collision.

II. It alters the mechanism of the reaction.
III. It remains unchanged at the end of the reaction.

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III

70
 14. Which apparatus can be used to monitor the rate of this reaction?

CH3COCH3 (a q) + I2 (a q) → CH3COCH2 I (a q) + H + (a q) + I − (a q)

I. A pH meter
II. A gas syringe
III. A colorimeter

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
15. Which arrow shows the activation energy of the uncatalysed forward reaction for this
equilibrium?

2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2SO3 (g) ΔH = − 196 k J m ol −1

16. Which change does not increase the rate of this reaction?

CuCO3 (s) + H2 SO4 (a q) → Cu SO4 (a q) + H2O (l) + CO2 (g)

A. Increasing the particle size of the CuCO3

B. Increasing the temperature
C. Increasing the concentration of H2 SO4 (a q)
D. Stirring the reaction mixture

71
















17. The dotted line represents the volume of carbon dioxide evolved when excess calcium
carbonate is added to hydrochloric acid.

Which graph represents the production of carbon dioxide when excess calcium carbonate is
added to the same volume of hydrochloric acid of double concentration?

18. The graph shows the Maxwell–Boltzmann energy distribution curve for a given gas at a certain
temperature.

How will the curve change if the temperature of the gas is increased, while other conditions
remain constant?

A. The maximum is higher and to the left of A.

B. The maximum is higher and to the right of A.
C. The maximum is lower and to the right of A.
D. The maximum is lower and to the left of A.

72
19. Which properties can be monitored to determine the rate of the reaction?

Fe (s) + CuSO4 (aq) → Cu (s) + FeSO4 (aq)

I. change in volume
II. change in temperature
III. change in colour

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
20. Which will increase the rate of reaction between calcium carbonate and hydrochloric acid?

I. an increase in temperature
II. an increase in concentration of hydrochloric acid
III. an increase in particle size of calcium carbonate

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
21. The dotted line represents the formation of oxygen, O2(g), from the uncatalysed complete
decomposition of hydrogen peroxide, H2O2 (aq).

Which curve represents a catalysed reaction under the same conditions?

73
22. The same amount of two gases, X and Y, are in two identical containers at the same
temperature. What is the difference between the gases?

A. X has the higher molar mass.

B. Y has the higher molar mass.
C. X has the higher average kinetic energy.
D. Y has the higher average kinetic energy.
23. Several reactions of calcium carbonate with dilute hydrochloric acid are carried out at the same
temperature.

CaCO3 (s) + 2HCl (aq) → CaCl2 (aq) + H2O (l) + CO2 (g)

Which reaction has the greatest rate?

24. Which conditions are required for the reaction between two molecules?

I. a collision
II. E ≥ Ea
III. proper orientation

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III

74
25. Samples of sodium carbonate powder were reacted with separate samples of excess
hydrochloric acid.

Na2CO3 (s) + 2HCl (aq) → CO2 (g) + 2NaCl (aq) + H2O (l)

Reaction I: 1.0 g Na2CO3 (s) added to 0.50 mol dm−3 HCl (aq)
Reaction II: 1.0 g Na2CO3 (s) added to 2.0 mol dm−3 HCl (aq)

What is the same for reactions I and II?

A. Initial rate of reaction

B. Total mass of CO2 produced
C. Total reaction time
D. Average rate of production of CO2
26. What decreases the activation energy of a reaction?

A. Increasing the temperature

B. Adding a catalyst
C. Adding more reactants
D. Increasing collision frequency of reactants
27. Which change increases the rate of formation of hydrogen when zinc reacts with excess
hydrochloric acid, assuming all other conditions remain the same?

Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)

A. Adding water to the hydrochloric acid

B. Decreasing the temperature
C. Increasing the volume of hydrochloric acid
D. Decreasing the size of the zinc particles while keeping the total mass of zinc the same
28. Which statements are correct?

I. The activation energy of a reaction is not affected by temperature.

II. A catalyst reduces the enthalpy change of a reaction.
III. Catalysts provide alternative reaction pathways.

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III

75
29. The potential energy profile for the reversible reaction, X + Y ⇌ Z is shown.

Which arrow represents the activation energy for the reverse reaction, Z → X + Y, with a
catalyst?

30. Which factors can affect the rate of reaction?

I. Particle size of solid reactant

II. Concentration of reacting solution
III. Pressure of reacting gas

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
31. The diagram shows the energy profile for a catalysed and uncatalysed reaction.
Which represents the enthalpy change, ΔH, and the activation energy, Ea, for the
catalysed reaction?

76
32. Excess magnesium powder was added to a beaker containing hydrochloric acid, HCl (aq).

The mass of the beaker and its contents was recorded and plotted against time (line I).

77
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

A A B A A B A B B A C B C B C

16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

A D C C A B A A D B B D B C D

31 32

A D

78
 Topic 7: Equilibrium
1. The exothermic reaction I2 (g) + 3Cl2 (g) ⇌ 2ICl3 (g) is at equilibrium in a fixed volume. What
is correct about the reaction quotient, Q, and shift in position of equilibrium the instant
temperature is raised?

A. Q > K, equilibrium shifts right towards products.

B. Q > K, equilibrium shifts left towards reactants.
C. Q < K, equilibrium shifts right towards products.
D. Q < K, equilibrium shifts left towards reactants.
2. Which of these changes would shift the equilibrium to the right?

[Co(H2O)6]2+ (aq) + 4Cl− (aq) ⇌ [CoCl4]2− (aq) + 6H2O (l)

I. Addition of 0.01 M HCl

II. Addition of concentrated HCl
III. Evaporation of water

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
1 1
3. Cl2 (g) + I2 (g) ⇌ ICl (g) Kc = 454
2 2

What is the Kc value for the reaction below?

2 ICl (g) ⇌ Cl2 (g) + I2 (g)

A. 2 × 454
1
B.
2 × 454
C. 4542
1
D.
454 2
4. Which species are acids in the equilibrium below?

CH3NH2 + H2O ⇌ CH3NH3+ + OH–

A. CH3NH2 and H2O

B. H2O and CH3NH3+
C. H2O and OH–
D. CH3NH2 and CH3NH3+

79
5. The equilibrium constant, Kc, for the reaction 2A + 4B ⇌ 2C + 4D has a value of 4.0. What is
the value of Kc for the reaction below at the same temperature?

C + 2D ⇌ A + 2B

A. 0.25
B. 0.50
C. 1.0
D. 16
6. At equilibrium, the concentrations of chlorine and iodine are both 0.02 mol dm–3.

1 1
Cl2 (g) + I2 (g) ⇌ ICl (g) Kc = 454
2 2

What is the concentration of iodine monochloride, ICl?

454
A.
0.02
B. 454 × 0.02
454
C.
0.04
D. 454 × 0.04
7. 0.50 mol of I2 (g) and 0.50 mol of Br2 (g) are placed in a closed flask. The following
equilibrium is established.

I2 (g) + Br2 (g) ⇌ 2IBr (g)

The equilibrium mixture contains 0.80 mol of IBr (g). What is the value of Kc?

A. 0.64
B. 1.3
C. 2.6
D. 64
8. The equilibrium 2H2 (g) + N2 (g) ⇌ N2H4 (g) has an equilibrium constant, K, at 150 °C.

What is the equilibrium constant at 150 °C, for the reverse reaction?
N2H4 (g) ⇌ 2H2 (g) + N2 (g)

A. K
B. K−1
C. −K
D. 2K

80
9. A reversible reaction has a reaction quotient, Q, of 4.5 and equilibrium constant, Kc, of 6.2.

2A (g) ⇌ A2 (g)

Which statement describes the reaction at this time?

A. The system has reached equilibrium.

B. The rate of the forward reaction is greater than the rate of the reverse reaction.
C. The concentration of reactant is greater than the concentration of product.
D. At equilibrium, the concentration of reactant is greater than the concentration of product.
10. What is correct for pure hot water?

11. Which changes produce the greatest increase in the percentage conversion of methane?

CH4 (g) + H2O (g) ⇌ CO (g) + 3H2 (g)

12. What effect does a catalyst have on the position of equilibrium and the value of the equilibrium
constant, Kc, for an exothermic reaction?

81
 13. Sulfur dioxide reacts with oxygen to form sulfur trioxide.

2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2SO3 (g) ΔH = −197 kJ

Which change increases the value of Kc?

A. increasing the temperature

B. decreasing the temperature
C. decreasing [SO2 (g)]
D. decreasing [SO3 (g)]
14. What is correct when temperature increases in this reaction at equilibrium?

2NOCl (g) ⇌ 2NO (g) + Cl2 (g) ΔH ⦵ = + 75.5 k J

15. What effect does increasing both pressure and temperature have on the equilibrium constant,
Kc?

N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2NH3 (g) ΔH = −45.9 kJ

A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Remains constant
D. Cannot be predicted as effects are opposite
16. Kc for 2N2O (g) ⇌ 2N2 (g) + O2 (g) is 7.3 × 1034.

What is Kc for the following reaction, at the same temperature?

1
N2 (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ N2O (g)
2

A. 7.3 × 1034
1
B.
7.3 × 1034
2
C.
7.3 × 1034
1
D.
2 × 7.3 × 1034

82




17. What is the equilibrium constant expression for the following equation?

2NO2 (g) + F2 (g) ⇌ 2NO2F (g)

2[ NO2 F]
A.
2[ NO2] + [ F2]
2[ NO2 F]
B.
2[ NO2][ F2]
[ NO2]2[F2]
C.
[ NO2 F]2
[ NO2 F]2
D.
[ NO2]2[ F2]
18. Kc for 2N2O (g) ⇌ 2N2 (g) + O2 (g) is 7.3 × 1034.

What is Kc for the following reaction, at the same temperature?

1
N2 (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ N2O (g)
2

A. 7.3 × 1034
1
B.
7.3 × 1034
1
C.
7.3 × 1034
1
D.
2 × 7.3 × 1034
19. Consider the following equilibrium reaction.

2N2O (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 4NO (g) ΔH = +16 kJ

Which change will move the equilibrium to the right?

A. Decrease in pressure
B. Decrease in temperature
C. Increase in [NO]
D. Decrease in [O2]

83
20. Consider the reaction:

2N2O (g) ⇌ 2N2 (g) + O2 (g)

The values of Kc at different temperatures are:

Which statement is correct at higher temperature?

A. The forward reaction is favoured.

B. The reverse reaction is favoured.
C. The rate of the reverse reaction is greater than the rate of the forward reaction.
D. The concentration of both reactants and products increase.
21. The equilibrium constant for N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) is K.

What is the equilibrium constant for this equation?

2N2(g) + 6H2(g) ⇌ 4NH3(g)

A. K
B. 2K
C. K2
D. 2K2
22. Which factor does not affect the position of equilibrium in this reaction?

2NO2(g) ⇌ N2O4(g) ΔH = −58 kJ mol−1

A. Change in volume of the container

B. Change in temperature
C. Addition of a catalyst
D. Change in pressure
23. What is the effect of increasing the temperature in this reaction?

CO2(g) + H2O(l) ⇌ H+(aq) + HCO3−(aq) ΔH < 0

A. The pH will decrease.

B. The pH will increase.
C. CO2 pressure will decrease.
D. The equilibrium position will shift to the right.

84
24. What occurs when the pressure on the given equilibrium is increased at constant temperature?

N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) ΔH = +180 kJ

A. Kc increases and the position of equilibrium moves to the right.

B. Kc stays the same and the position of equilibrium is unchanged.
C. Kc stays the same and the position of equilibrium moves to the left.
D. Kc decreases and the position of equilibrium moves to the left.
25. What will happen if the pressure is increased in the following reaction mixture at equilibrium?

CO2 (g) + H2O (l) ⇌ H+ (aq) + HCO3− (aq)

A. The equilibrium will shift to the right and pH will decrease.

B. The equilibrium will shift to the right and pH will increase.
C. The equilibrium will shift to the left and pH will increase.
D. The equilibrium will shift to the left and pH will decrease.
26. The enthalpy change for the dissolution of NH4NO3 is +26 kJ mol–1 at 25 °C.

Which statement about this reaction is correct?

A. The reaction is exothermic and the solubility decreases at higher temperature.

B. The reaction is exothermic and the solubility increases at higher temperature.
C. The reaction is endothermic and the solubility decreases at higher temperature.
D. The reaction is endothermic and the solubility increases at higher temperature.

85
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

B C D B B B D B B B C C B D A

16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26

B D B A A C C B B A D

86
 Topic 8: Acids and bases
1. Which products are formed from the neutralization of nitric acid by calcium hydroxide?

A. Calcium oxide and ammonia

B. Calcium nitrate and water
C. Calcium nitrate and ammonia
D. Calcium nitrate and hydrogen
2. Equal volumes of 0.10 mol dm−3 weak acid and strong acid are titrated with 0.10 mol dm−3
NaOH solution. Which of these is the same for the two acids?

A. Initial pH
B. Heat evolved in the neutralization
C. Volume of NaOH for complete neutralization
D. Initial electrical conductivity
3. Which species has the weakest conjugate base?

A. HCl
B. NH4+
C. HCO3−
D. H2O
4. Which of these changes would shift the equilibrium to the right?

[Co(H2O)6]2+ (aq) + 4Cl− (aq) ⇌ [CoCl4]2− (aq) + 6H2O (l)

I. Addition of 0.01 M HCl

II. Addition of concentrated HCl
III. Evaporation of water

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
5. Which 0.01 mol dm–3 aqueous solution has the highest pH?

A. HCl
B. H2SO4
C. NaOH
D. NH3
6. Which of the 0.001 mol dm−3 solutions is most likely to have a pH of 11.3?

A. Ca(OH)2 (aq)
B. H3PO4 (aq)
C. NaOH (aq)
D. NH4OH (aq)

87
7. What is the strongest acid in the equation below?

H3AsO4 + H2O ⇌ H2AsO4− + H3O+ Kc = 4.5 × 10−4

A. H3AsO4
B. H2O
C. H2AsO4−
D. H3O+
8. 20 cm3 of 1 mol dm−3 sulfuric acid was added dropwise to 20 cm3 of 1 mol dm−3 barium
hydroxide producing a precipitate of barium sulfate.

H2SO4 (aq) + Ba(OH)2 (aq) → 2H2O (l) + BaSO4 (s)

Which graph represents a plot of conductivity against volume of acid added?

9. What happens to the amount of hydroxide ions and hydroxide ion concentration when water is
added to a solution of NH3 (aq)?

88
10. Which ions are present in an aqueous solution of Na2CO3?

I. HCO3−
II. OH−
III. CO32−

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
11. What is the conjugate acid of HS−?

A. H2S
B. S2−
C. H2SO3
D. H2SO4
12. What is the pH of 0.01 mol dm−3 KOH (aq)?

A. 1.0
B. 2.0
C. 12.0
D. 13.0
13. What is a possible value of pH at the equivalence point in the titration of a strong acid with a
weak base?

A. 5
B. 7
C. 9
D. 11
14. Which solution has a pH of 9?

A. 1.0 × 10−9 mol dm−3 HCl (aq)

B. 1.0 × 10−5 mol dm−3 KOH (aq)
C. 1.0 × 10−9 mol dm−3 KOH (aq)
D. 1.0 × 10−5 mol dm−3 HCl (aq)
15. Which cannot act as a Brønsted–Lowry base?

A. HPO42−
B. H2O
C. CH4
D. NH3

89
 16. Which causes acid deposition?

A. SO2
B. SiO2
C. SrO
D. CO2
17. Which is a Lewis acid, but not a Brønsted-Lowry acid?

A. BF3
B. H 3O +
C. NH3
D. Cl−
18. Which substance will not produce copper(II) chloride when added to dilute hydrochloric acid?

A. Cu (s)
B. Cu(OH )2 (s)
C. CuCO3 (s)
D. CuO (s)
19. Which of these acids has the weakest conjugate base?

A. HCl
B. CH3COOH
C. NH4Cl
D. C6 H5COOH
20. Which of these oxides contribute to acid deposition?

I. SO2
II. NO2
III. CO2

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
21. Which species is a Lewis acid but not a Brønsted–Lowry acid?

A. Cu2+
B. NH4+
C. Cu
D. CH3COOH

90




22. What is the pH of an ammonia solution that has [OH −] = 1 × 10−4 m ol d m−3?

A. 4.0
B. 8.0
C. 10.0
D. 12.0
23. What is the difference between a conjugate Brønsted–Lowry acid–base pair?

A. Electron pair
B. Positive charge
C. Proton
D. Hydrogen atom
24. Which is an example of an amphiprotic species?

A. Al2O3
B. CO32−
C. P4O10
D. HPO42−
25. Which solution is basic at 25 °C? (Kw = 1.0 × 10−14)

A. [H+] = 1.0 × 10−3 mol dm−3

B. [OH−] = 1.0 × 10−13 mol dm−3
C. solution of pH = 4.00
D. [H3O+] = 1.0 × 10−13 mol dm−3
26. Which is not a source of oxides of sulfur and nitrogen?

A. burning coal
B. internal combustion engines
C. burning methane
D. volcanic eruptions
27. What is the pH of 0.001 mol dm−3 NaOH (aq)?

A. 1
B. 3
C. 11
D. 13
28. What is the major reason why the pH of unpolluted rain is less than 7?

A. methane
B. carbon dioxide
C. nitrogen oxides
D. sulfur dioxide

91


29. With which do most acids react?

I. sodium hydrogen carbonate

II. magnesium
III. calcium sulfate

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
30. What is the pH of 0.001 mol dm−3 NaOH (aq)?

A. 1
B. 3
C. 11
D. 13
31. What is the major reason why the pH of unpolluted rain is less than 7?

A. methane
B. carbon dioxide
C. nitrogen oxides
D. sulfur dioxide
32. Which two species act as Brønsted–Lowry acids in the reaction?

H2PO4− (aq) + OH− (aq) ⇌ HPO42− (aq) + H2O (l)

A. HPO42− (aq) and OH− (aq)

B. H2PO4− (aq) and HPO42− (aq)
C. HPO42− (aq) and H2O (l)
D. H2PO4− (aq) and H2O (l)
33. What is the order of increasing pH for the following solutions of the same concentration?

A. HCl (aq) < NH3 (aq) < NaOH (aq) < CH3COOH (aq)
B. CH3COOH (aq) < HCl (aq) < NH3 (aq) < NaOH (aq)
C. HCl (aq) < CH3COOH (aq) < NH3 (aq) < NaOH (aq)
D. NaOH (aq) < NH3 (aq) < CH3COOH (aq) < HCl (aq)
34. Which classification is correct for the reaction?
H2PO4−(aq) + H2O(l) → HPO42−(aq) + H3O+(aq)

92
35. What are the products of the reaction between sulfuric acid and sodium hydrogen carbonate?

A. NaSO4 + H2O + CO2

B. Na2SO4 + CO2
C. Na2SO4 + H2O + CO2
D. NaSO4 + H2CO3
36. Activity series of selected elements:

K, Ca, Al, Fe, H, Cu, Ag, Au

greatest activity least activity

Which react with dilute sulfuric acid?

I. Cu
II. CuO
III. CuCO3

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
37. Which statement is correct?

A. A strong acid is a good proton donor and has a strong conjugate base.
B. A weak acid is a poor proton acceptor and has a strong conjugate base.
C. A strong acid is a good proton donor and has a weak conjugate base.
D. A strong base is a good proton donor and has a weak conjugate acid.
38. What describes HPO42−?

A. Amphiprotic but not amphoteric

B. Amphoteric but not amphiprotic
C. Amphiprotic and amphoteric
D. Neither amphiprotic nor amphoteric
39. What is the pH of a solution in which the hydroxide ion concentration is 1 × 10−11 mol dm−3 at
298 K? (Kw = 1 × 10−14 at 298 K)

A. 3
B. 7
C. 11
D. 14

93
40. What will happen if the pressure is increased in the following reaction mixture at equilibrium?

CO2 (g) + H2O (l) ⇌ H+ (aq) + HCO3− (aq)

A. The equilibrium will shift to the right and pH will decrease.

B. The equilibrium will shift to the right and pH will increase.
C. The equilibrium will shift to the left and pH will increase.
D. The equilibrium will shift to the left and pH will decrease.
41. 10.0 cm3 of an aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide of pH = 10 is mixed with 990.0 cm3 of
distilled water. What is the pH of the resulting solution?

A. 8
B. 9
C. 11
D. 12
42. Which statement is incorrect for a 0.10 mol dm–3 HCOOH solution?

A. pH = 1
B. [H+] << 0.10 mol dm–3
C. [HCOO–] is approximately equal to [H+]
D. HCOOH is partially ionized

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

B C A C C A D B C D A C A B C

16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

A A A A A A C C D D C C B A C

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42

B D C D C C C C A A A A

94
 Topic 9: Redox processes
1. Which statement is correct about the ions in a cell assembled from these half-cells?

A. Negative ions flow into the zinc half-cell from the salt bridge.
B. Negative ions flow into the nickel half-cell from the salt bridge.
C. Zn2+ ions are reduced to Zn.
D. The concentration of Ni2+ ions increases.
2. What occurs during the operation of a voltaic cell based on the given reaction?

2Cr (s) + 3Fe2+ (aq) → 2Cr3+ (aq) + 3Fe (s)

3. Which substance is the reducing agent in the given reaction?

H+ (aq) + 2H2O (l) + 2MnO4− (aq) + 5SO2 (g) → 2Mn2+ (aq) + 5HSO4− (aq)

A. H+
B. H2O
C. MnO4−
D. SO2
4. Which combination is correct regarding the anode and electron flow in an electrolytic cell?

5. In which of the following species would sulfur be reduced if converted to SCl2?

A. S2O32–
B. H2S
C. S
D. SO2

95
6. Which statement is correct for both voltaic and electrolytic cells?

A. The oxidation reaction releases electrons.

B. The oxidation reaction occurs at the positive electrode.
C. The cathode is negative.
D. Electrons flow through the electrolyte.
7. How many electrons are needed when the following half-equation is balanced using the lowest
possible whole numbers?

__ NO3– (aq) + __ H+ (aq) + __ e– → __ NO (g) + __ H2O (l)

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
8. Which species could be reduced to form NO2?

A. N2
B. NO3−
C. HNO2
D. NO
9. The arrows represent electron flow in the diagram. What does terminal X on the battery
represent?

A. Anode and positive terminal

B. Anode and negative terminal
C. Cathode and positive terminal
D. Cathode and negative terminal
10. What is the change in the oxidation state of oxygen?

2Fe2+ (aq) + H2O2 (aq) + 2H+ (aq) → 2H2O (l) + 2Fe3+ (aq)

A. +1
B. 0
C. −1
D. −2

96
11. Which statement is correct about the electrolysis of molten lead(II) bromide, PbBr2?

A. Br− ions accept electrons at the cathode (negative electrode).

B. Pb2+ ions accept electrons at the anode (positive electrode).
C. Br− ions lose electrons at the anode (positive electrode).
D. Pb2+ ions lose electrons at the cathode (negative electrode).
12. Consider this voltaic cell, where Cu is a more reactive metal than Ag:

Which combination describes the movement of charge in this cell?

13. A student performed displacement reactions using metals W and X and solutions of salts of
metals W, X, Y and Z. The results are summarized in the table.

Which of the four metals is most reactive?

A. W
B. X
C. Y
D. Z

97
14. What is correct for this redox reaction?

MnO2 (s) + 2I− (aq) + 4H+ (aq) → Mn2+ (aq) + I2 (aq) + 2H2O (l)

15. Which statements are correct for electrolysis?

I. An exothermic reaction occurs.

II. Oxidation occurs at the anode (positive electrode).
III. The reaction is non-spontaneous.

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
16. What is the oxidation state of oxygen in H2O2?

A. −2
B. −1
C. +1
D. +2
17. What are the products of the electrolysis of molten potassium chloride, KCl (l)?

18. What occurs at an anode?

98
19. Iron is a stronger reducing agent than silver.

What is correct when this voltaic cell is in operation?

20. What is correct in an electrolytic cell?

21. What are the oxidation states of oxygen?

22. In which species does sulfur have the same oxidation state as in SO32–?

A. S2O32–
B. SO42–
C. H2S
D. SOCl2

99
23. The following occurs when metal X is added to Y sulfate solution and Z sulfate solution. (X, Y
and Z represent metal elements but not their symbols.)

X (s) + YSO4 (aq) → XSO4 (aq) + Y (s)

X (s) + ZSO4 (aq): no reaction

What is the order of increasing reactivity?

A. X<Y<Z
B. Y<X<Z
C. Z<Y<X
D. Z<X<Y
24. What is formed at the electrodes during the electrolysis of molten sodium bromide?

25. What are the products of electrolysis of concentrated aqueous sodium bromide?

26. Where does oxidation occur in a voltaic cell?

A. positive electrode and anode

B. negative electrode and anode
C. positive electrode and cathode
D. negative electrode and cathode
27. Which is the species oxidized and the oxidizing agent in the reaction?

MnO2 (s) + 4HCl (aq) → MnCl2 (aq) + Cl2 (g) + 2H2O (l)

100
28. Which product will be obtained at the anode (positive electrode) when molten NaCl is
electrolysed?

A. Na (l)
B. Cl (g)
C. Cl2 (g)
D. Na (s)
29. Which species contains nitrogen with the highest oxidation state?

A. NO3−
B. NO2−
C. NO2
D. N2O
30. Consider the following electrochemical cell.

What happens to the ions in the salt bridge when a current flows?

A. Na+ ions flow to the zinc half-cell and SO42− ions flow to the copper half-cell.
B. Na+ ions flow to the copper half-cell and SO42− ions flow to the zinc half-cell.
C. Na+ and SO42− ions flow to the copper half-cell.
D. Na+ and SO42− ions flow to the zinc half-cell.
31. The following reaction occurs in a voltaic (galvanic) cell.

Mg (s) + 2Ag+ (aq) → Mg2+ (aq) + 2Ag (s)

Which reaction takes place at each electrode?

101
32. Which product will be obtained at the anode (positive electrode) when molten NaCl is
electrolysed?

A. Na (l)
B. Cl (g)
C. Cl2 (g)
D. Na (s)
33. Which compound contains sulfur with an oxidation state of +6?

A. SO2
B. H2S
C. H2SO3
D. H2SO4
34. Which is correct for the reaction?

P4 (s) + 3H2O (l) + 3OH− (aq) → PH3 (g) + 3H2PO2− (aq)

35. Which describes the flow of electrons in a voltaic cell?

A. From the cathode (positive electrode) to the anode (negative electrode) through the
external circuit
B. From the anode (negative electrode) to the cathode (positive electrode) through the external
circuit
C. From the oxidizing agent to the reducing agent through the salt bridge
D. From the reducing agent to the oxidizing agent through the salt bridge
36. Which represents a reduction?

A. SO3 to SO42−
B. Mn2O3 to MnO2
C. H2O2 to OH−
D. CrO42− to Cr2O72−
37. Which equation shows oxygen undergoing reduction?

A. 2F2 + O2 → 2F2O
B. Na2O + H2O → 2NaOH
C. H2O2 + 2HI → 2H2O + I2
D. 2CrO42− + 2H+ ⇌ Cr2O72− + H2O

102
38. What are the products of electrolysis when molten calcium bromide is electrolysed using
graphite electrodes?

39. Which coefficients correctly balance this redox equation?

aFe2+(aq) + MnO4−(aq) + bH+(aq) → cFe3+(aq) + Mn2+(aq) + dH2O(l)

40. Which element has the same oxidation number in both species?

A. C in C2H4 and CO2

B. H in H2O and NaH
C. S in SO42−and SO3
D. O in H2O2 and H2O
41. Which can describe oxidation?

A. Loss of hydrogen
B. Decrease in oxidation number
C. Gain of electrons
D. Loss of oxygen
42. What are the products of the electrolysis of molten zinc bromide?

103
43. What are the oxidation states of chromium in (NH4)2Cr2O7 (s) and Cr2O3 (s)?

44. Which of the following is a redox reaction?

A. 3Mg (s) + 2AlCl3 (aq) → 2Al (s) + 3MgCl2 (aq)

B. SiO2 (s) + 2NaOH (aq) → Na2SiO3 (aq) + H2O (l)
C. KCl (aq) + AgNO3 (aq) → AgCl (s) + KNO3 (aq)
D. 2NaHCO3 (aq) → Na2CO3 (aq) + CO2 (g) + H2O (l)
45. Consider the following half-equations:

I2 (s) + 2e– ⇌ 2I– (aq) Eθ = +0.54 V

(brown) (colourless)

MnO4– (aq) + 8H+ (aq) + 5e– ⇌ Mn2+ (aq) + 4H2O (l) Eθ = +1.51 V
(purple) (colourless)

Which statement is correct for the reaction between KMnO4 (aq) and KI (aq) in acidic
conditions?

A. MnO4– reduces I– to I2.

B. I– reduces MnO4– to Mn2+.
C. The colour changes from brown to purple.
D. MnO4– is oxidized to Mn2+.

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

A B D A D A C B C C C D D A C

16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

B B D D D C D B D D B D C A B

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45

C C D D B C C A D C A A B A B

104
 Topic 10: Organic chemistry
1. Which formula represents an ether?

A. C6H5OH
B. CH3CHO
C. CH3COCH3
D. CH3OCH3
2. Which are isomers of C5H12?

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
3. Which homologous series has the general formula CnH2nO (n > 2)?

A. Alcohols
B. Carboxylic acids
C. Ethers
D. Ketones
4. Which conditions best favour oxidation of primary alcohols directly to carboxylic acids?

A. Excess acidified potassium dichromate (VI) and distillation

B. Excess acidified potassium dichromate (VI) and reflux
C. Few drops of acidified potassium dichromate (VI) and distillation
D. Few drops of acidified potassium dichromate (VI) and reflux
5. What are nucleophiles most likely to react with?

A. Alkenes
B. Benzene
C. Alkanes
D. Halogenoalkanes

105
6. What information about 2-hydroxybutanoic acid can be inferred through mass
spectrometry, MS, infrared spectroscopy, IR, and proton nuclear magnetic resonance
spectroscopy, 1H NMR?

7. Which functional groups are present in serine?

A. nitro, carbonyl and carboxyl

B. amino, hydroxyl and carbonyl
C. nitro, carboxyl and hydroxyl
D. amino, carboxyl and hydroxyl
8. Which compounds are members of the same homologous series?

A. propanal, propanone, propanoic acid

B. propane, propene, propyne
C. hexan-1-ol, hexan-2-ol, hexan-3-ol
D. ethanol, propan-1-ol, butan-1-ol
9. Which reagents and conditions are best for converting propan-1-ol into propanoic acid?

A. Reflux with acidified potassium dichromate (VI)

B. Reflux with aqueous sodium hydroxide
C. Distil with acidified potassium dichromate (VI)
D. Distil with aqueous sodium hydroxide
10. What is produced when chlorobutane is treated with aqueous sodium hydroxide solution?

A. butane
B. butanoic acid
C. butanal
D. butan-1-ol

106
11. Which combination best describes what is happening to chloromethane, CH3Cl, in the equation
below?

CH3Cl (g) + H2 (g) ⇌ CH4 (g) + HCl (g)

A. Oxidation and addition

B. Oxidation and substitution
C. Reduction and addition
D. Reduction and substitution
12. How many dichlorinated butane isomers can be formed by the halogenation of
CH3CH2CH2CH3 with excess Cl2 in the presence of UV light?

A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10
13. Which structure represents a repeating unit of a polymer formed from propene?

A. –CH2–CH(CH3)–
B. –CH2–CH2–CH2–
C. –CH(CH3)–CH(CH3)–
D. –CH2–CH2–
14. Which is a homologous series?

A. C2H4, C3H5, C4H6

B. C2H2, C3H4, C4H6
C. C2H2, C2H4, C2H6
D. C2H2, C4H4, C6H6
15. Which reaction mechanisms are typical for alcohols and halogenoalkanes?

16. Which reagents and conditions are best for converting propan-1-ol into propanoic acid?

A. Reflux with acidified potassium dichromate (VI)

B. Reflux with LiAlH4
C. Distil with acidified potassium dichromate (VI)
D. Distil with LiAlH4

107
17. Which reaction involves homolytic fission?

A. CH4 + Cl2
B. CH3Br + NaOH
C. (CH3)3CBr + NaOH
D. C6H6 + HNO3 + H2SO4
18. What is the name of this substance using IUPAC rules?

A. 2-ethyl-1-methylbutan-1-ol
B. 1-methyl-2-ethylbutan-1-ol
C. 3-ethylpentan-2-ol
D. 3-ethylpentan-4-ol
19. Which pair of compounds are structural isomers?

A. Propane and propene

B. Propanal and propanone
C. Propan-1-ol and propanal
D. Propyl propanoate and propanoic acid
20. What is the general formula of alkynes?

A. CnH2n+2
B. CnH2n
C. CnH2n−2
D. CnHn
21. Which series is in order of increasing boiling point?

A. CH2CH2CH3OH CH3COCH3 CH3CH2CH3

B. CH3CH2CH3 CH3COCH3 CH2CH2CH3OH
C. CH3COCH3 CH2CH2CH3OH CH3CH2CH3
D. CH3CH2CH3 CH2CH2CH3OH CH3COCH3

108
22. What is the name of this compound, applying IUPAC rules?

A. 4-methylhex-2-ene
B. 4-ethylpent-2-ene
C. 2-ethylpent-3-ene
D. 3-methylhex-4-ene
23. What is formed in a propagation step of the substitution reaction between bromine and ethane?

A. CH3CH2•
B. CH3CH2CH2CH3
C. H•
D. Br−
24. Which monomer would produce the polymer shown?

A. CF3CCl2F
B. CF3CClHF
C. CF2CClF
D. CF2CF2

25. Which is in the same homologous series as CH3OCH3?

A. CH3COCH3
B. CH3COOCH3
C. CH3CH2CH2OH
D. CH3CH2CH2OCH3
26. What is the IUPAC name of the molecule shown?

A. 2,4-dimethylhexane
B. 3,5-dimethylhexane
C. 2-methyl-4-ethylpentane
D. 2-ethyl-4-methylpentane

109
27. Which monomer forms the polymer shown?

A. CH(Cl ) = CH(CH3)
B. CH2 = C(Cl )CH3
C. (CH3)2CHCl
D. CH2 = CHCl
28. Which is a propagation step in the free-radical substitution mechanism of ethane with chlorine?

A. Cl2 → 2 •Cl
B. •C2H5 + Cl2 → C2H5Cl + •Cl
C. •C2H5 + •Cl → C2H5Cl
D. C2H6 + •Cl → C2H5Cl + •H
29. Which spectra would show the difference between propan-2-ol, CH3CH(OH)CH3, and
propanal, CH3CH2CHO?

I. mass
II. infrared
III. 1H NMR

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
30. Which can be reduced to a secondary alcohol?

A. C2H5COOH
B. CH3CH2OCH3
C. (CH3)2CHCHO
D. CH3COC2H5
31. Which functional groups are present in this molecule?

A. carbonyl, ether, nitrile

B. carbonyl, ester, nitrile
C. carboxyl, ether, amine
D. carboxyl, ester, amine
110
32. Which molecule will decolorize bromine water in the dark?

A. cyclohexane
B. hexane
C. hex-1-ene
D. hexan-1-ol
33. What is the IUPAC name of this molecule?

A. 1,1,2,4-tetramethylpent-1-ene
B. 2,4,5-trimethylhex-4-ene
C. 2,4,5,5-tetramethylpent-4-ene
D. 2,3,5-trimethylhex-2-ene
34. Which mechanism does benzene most readily undergo?

A. Nucleophilic substitution
B. Electrophilic substitution
C. Electrophilic addition
D. Free radical substitution
35. Which molecule can be oxidized to a carboxylic acid by acidified potassium dichromate(VI)?

A. Propan-1-ol
B. Propan-2-ol
C. 2-methylpropan-2-ol
D. Propanone
36. Which compound with the molecular formula C4 H8O has this high resolution H1 NMR?

A. but-3-en-2-ol, CH2 = CHCH(OH )CH3

B. butanal, CH3CH2CH2CHO
C. butanone, CH3COCH2CH3
D. but-3-en-1-ol, CH2 = CHCH2CH2OH
111

37. Which compound is not in the same homologous series as the others?

A. C5H12
B. C6H12
C. C7H16
D. C8H18
38. What type of reaction occurs when C6H13Br becomes C6H13OH?

A. Nucleophilic substitution
B. Electrophilic substitution
C. Radical substitution
D. Addition
39. Which will react with a halogen by an electrophilic substitution mechanism?

40. Which compound cannot undergo addition polymerization?

41. Which functional group is surrounded in the molecule?

A. hydroxyl
B. carboxyl
C. carbonyl
D. ether
42. What is the IUPAC name of the following molecule?

A. 2-bromo-3-ethylbutane
B. 3-methyl-4-bromopentane
C. 2-ethyl-3-bromobutane
D. 2-bromo-3-methylpentane
112
43. What is the mechanism of the reaction between alkenes and halogens in the absence of light?

A. radical substitution
B. electrophilic substitution
C. electrophilic addition
D. nucleophilic substitution
44. Which alcohol would produce a carboxylic acid when heated with acidified potassium
dichromate(VI)?

A. propan-2-ol
B. butan-1-ol
C. 2-methylpropan-2-ol
D. pentan-3-ol
45. Which compound has the lowest boiling point?

A. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3
B. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3
C. CH3CH(CH3)CH2CH3
D. CH3C(CH3)2CH3
46. Which of the following can be both formed from bromoethane and converted directly into
ethanal?

CH3CH2Br → X
X → CH3CHO

A. CH3CH2OH
B. CH3OCH3
C. CH3COOH
D. H2C=CHBr
47. Methane reacts with chlorine in sunlight.

CH4 (g) + Cl2 (g) → CH3Cl (g) + HCl (g)

Which type of reaction occurs?

A. free-radical substitution
B. electrophilic substitution
C. nucleophilic substitution
D. electrophilic addition

113
48. What is the name of this compound using IUPAC rules?

A. 2,3-diethylbutane
B. 2-ethyl-3-methylpentane
C. 3-methyl-4-ethylpentane
D. 3,4-dimethylhexane
49. What must be present on a nucleophile?

A. Negative charge
B. Lone pair of electrons
C. Positive charge
D. Symmetrical distribution of electrons
50. Which compounds cause the colour of acidified potassium manganate(VII) solution to change
from purple to colourless?

I. CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
II. (CH3)3CCH2OH
III. CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
51. What is the order of increasing boiling point for the isomers of C5H12?

A. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 < CH3CH(CH3)CH2CH3 < CH3C(CH3)3

B. CH3C(CH3)3 < CH3CH(CH3)CH2CH3 < CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3
C. CH3C(CH3)3 < CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 < CH3CH(CH3)CH2CH3
D. CH3CH(CH3)CH2CH3 < CH3C(CH3)3 < CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3
52. Which is correct for benzene?

A. It readily undergoes addition reactions and decolourises bromine water.

B. It contains alternate single and double carbon–carbon bonds and is planar.
C. Its 1H NMR spectrum shows six signals and it readily undergoes substitution reactions.
D. Its 1H NMR spectrum shows one signal and it forms a single C6H5Br isomer.
53. Which compounds react to form CH3CH2CH2COOCH(CH3)2?

A. propanoic acid and propan-2-ol

B. propanoic acid and butan-2-ol
C. butanoic acid and propan-1-ol
D. butanoic acid and propan-2-ol
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54. What are possible names of a molecule with molecular formula C4H10O?

I. 1-Methoxypropane
II. 2-Methylpropan-2-ol
III. Butanal

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
55. What is the product of the reaction between hex-3-ene and steam?

A. Hexan-1-ol
B. Hexan-2-ol
C. Hexan-3-ol
D. Hexan-4-ol
56. Which of these reactions proceeds by a free radical mechanism in the presence of UV light?

A. C6H6 + Cl2 → C6H5Cl + HCl

B. C6H6 + 3H2 → C6H12
C. CH2CH2 + HBr → CH3CH2Br
D. CH3CH3 + Cl2 → CH3CH2Cl + HCl
57. Which compound could be formed when CH3CH2CH2OH is heated with acidified potassium
dichromate(VI)?

I. CH3CH2CHO
II. CH3CH2COOH
III. CH3COCH3

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
58. Which compounds belong to the same homologous series?

A. CHCCH2CH3, CHCCH2CH2CH3
B. CH3CH2CH2CH2OH, CH3CH2OCH2CH3
C. CH2CHCH3, CH3CH2CH2CH3
D. CH3COCH3, CH3CH2OCH3

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59. What is the name of this compound, using IUPAC rules?

A. 1,1-dimethylpropanoic acid
B. 3,3-dimethylpropanoic acid
C. 2-methylbutanoic acid
D. 3-methylbutanoic acid
60. What is the mechanism for the reaction of propene with iodine in the dark?

A. electrophilic addition
B. electrophilic substitution
C. free radical substitution
D. nucleophilic substitution
61. Which are structural isomers?

I. CH3CH2OH and CH3OCH3

II. HOCH2CH3 and CH3CH2OH
III. CH3COOH and HCOOCH3

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
62. Which monomer could create this polymer?

A. But-2-ene
B. But-1-ene
C. Propene
D. 2-Methylprop-1-ene

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63. Which is a secondary alcohol?

64. Which would be the most effective method to distinguish between liquid propan-1-ol and
propan-2-ol?

A. Observation of colour change when warmed with acidified potassium dichromate

B. Determination of m/z value of molecular ion in the mass spectrum
C. Determination of percentage composition
D. 1H NMR spectroscopy

65. Which is the correct combination of substitution reaction mechanisms?

66. What is the major product of the reaction between HCl and but-2-ene?

A. 1,2-dichlorobutane
B. 2,3-dichlorobutane
C. 1-chlorobutane
D. 2-chlorobutane

117
67. Which compound can be oxidized when heated with an acidified solution of
potassium dichromate(VI)?

A. CH3C(O)CH2CH3
B. CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3
C. (CH3)3COH
D. CH3(CH2)2COOH
68. What is the name of this compound, using IUPAC rules?

A. 3-methylbutan-3-ol
B. 2-ethylpropan-2-ol
C. 2-methylbutan-2-ol
D. 3-methylbutan-2-ol
69. Which type of reaction occurs between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid?

A. Addition
B. Oxidation
C. Esterification
D. Polymerization
70. How many structural isomers of C6H14 exist?

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7

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71. Which functional group is responsible for the pKb of 4.1 in this compound?

A. Amido
B. Amino
C. Chloro
D. Ether

119
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

D A D B D A D D A D D B A B D

16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

A A C B C B A A C D A A B D D

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45

A C D B A B B A A C C D C B D

46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

A A D B D B D D A C D A A D A

61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71

B A B D A D B C C B B

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 Topic 11: Measurement and data processing
1. What combination is the most effective for reducing random and systematic errors?

2. A student performed an experiment to find the melting point of sulfur, obtaining 118.0 °C. The
literature value is 115.2 °C. What was the percentage error?

118.0 − 115.2
A. × 100%
115.2
115.2
B. × 100%
118.0
118.0 − 115.2
C. × 100%
118.0
118.0
D. × 100%
115.2
3. How many signals are observed in the 1H NMR spectrum of this compound?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
4. What is the uncertainty, in cm3, of this measurement?

A. ±0.01
B. ±0.1
C. ±0.15

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 D. ±1
5. Given equimolar concentrations, which substance would produce the strongest signal in a 1H
NMR spectrum?

A. (CH3)3CH
B. C6H6
C. C8H18
D. Si(CH3)4
6. Consider the mass spectrum of an element:

What is the relative atomic mass of this element?

A. 10.2
B. 10.5
C. 10.8
D. 10.9
7. What is the slope of the graph?

A. −0.0025 mol dm−3 s−1

B. −0.0025 mol dm−3 s
C. −0.0033 mol dm−3 s−1
D. −0.0033 mol dm−3 s

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8. What can be deduced from the mass spectrum of CH3COCH2CH2CH3?

A. The molar mass is 43 g mol−1.

B. The atoms have many isotopes.
C. The most likely bond to break is C–C between carbons 2 and 3.
D. The signal with the largest mass is due to the oxidation of the ketone in the
spectrometer.
9. Burette readings for a titration are shown.

What is the mean titre?

A. 11.1 cm3 ± 0.1 cm3

B. 11.15 cm3 ± 0.05 cm3
C. 11.2 cm3 ± 0.05 cm3
D. 11.2 cm3 ± 0.1 cm3
10. Which spectra would show the difference between propan-2-ol, CH3CH(OH)CH3, and
propanal, CH3CH2CHO?

I. mass
II. infrared
III. 1H NMR

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III

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11. How should the difference between 27.0 ± 0.3 and 9.0 ± 0.2 be shown?

A. 18.0 ± 0.1
B. 18.0 ± 0.3
C. 18.0 ± 0.5
D. 18.0 ± 0.6
12. A liquid was added to a graduated cylinder. What can be deduced from the graph?

13. What is the index of hydrogen deficiency (IHD) in cyclohexanol?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

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14. Which region of the electromagnetic spectrum is used to identify hydrogen environments in a
molecule?

A. X-ray
B. UV
C. IR
D. radio waves
15. What is the value of the temperature change?

Initial temperature: 2.0 ± 0.1 °C

Final temperature: 15.0 ± 1.0 °C

A. 13.0 ± 0.1 °C
B. 13.0 ± 0.9 °C
C. 13.0 ± 1.0 °C
D. 13.0 ± 1.1 °C
16. Which shows the first ionization energies of successive elements across period 2, from left to
right?

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17. How should a measurement of 5.00 g from a balance be recorded?

A. 5.00 ± 0.1 g
B. 5.00 ± 0.01 g
C. 5.00 ± 1 g
D. 5.00 ± 0.001 g
18. What is the degree of unsaturation (index of hydrogen deficiency) for the molecule?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5
19. The following data were recorded for determining the density of three samples of silicon, Si.

Which average density value, in g cm−3, has been calculated to the correct number of
significant figures?

A. 2
B. 2.3
C. 2.27
D. 2.273

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20. Data collected from a larger number of silicon samples could also be plotted to determine the
density using the following axes.

Which statements are correct?

I. The density is the slope of the graph.

II. The data will show that mass is proportional to volume.
III. The best-fit line should pass through the origin.

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
21. What can be deduced from the infrared (IR) spectrum of a compound?

A. Number of hydrogens
B. Number of hydrogen environments
C. Bonds present
D. Molar mass
22. Which technique involves breaking covalent bonds when carried out on an organic compound

A. infrared spectroscopy
B. nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy
C. X-ray crystallography
D. mass spectrometry
23. Which is correct for the spectra of organic compounds?

A. Mass spectroscopy provides information about bond vibrations.

B. 1H NMR spectroscopy provides the values of carbon–hydrogen bond lengths.
C. Infrared spectroscopy provides the number of hydrogen atoms.
D. Mass spectroscopy provides information about the structure.
24. What is the ratio of areas under each signal in the 1H NMR spectrum of 2-methylbutane?

A. 6:1:2:3
B. 3:3:1:5
C. 6:1:5
D. 3:3:1:2:3

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25. What are the absolute and percentage uncertainties for the change in mass?

Initial mass: 22.35 ±0.05 g

Final mass: 42.35 ±0.05 g

26. The enthalpy of combustion of ethanol is determined by heating a known mass of tap water in a
glass beaker with a flame of burning ethanol.

Which will lead to the greatest error in the final result?

A. Assuming the density of tap water is 1.0 g cm−3

B. Assuming all the energy from the combustion will heat the water
C. Assuming the specific heat capacity of the tap water is 4.18 J g−1 K−1
D. Assuming the specific heat capacity of the beaker is negligible
27. Which value of q, in J, has the correct number of significant figures?

q = mcΔT, where m = 2.500 g, c = 4.18 J g−1 K−1 and ΔT = 0.60 K.

A. 6
B. 6.3
C. 6.27
D. 6.270
28. What is the index of hydrogen deficiency, IHD, of 3-methylcyclohexene?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

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29. What is the ratio of the areas of the signals in the 1H NMR spectrum of pentan-3-ol?

A. 6:4:1:1
B. 6:2:2:2
C. 5:5:1:1
D. 3:3:2:2:1:1
30. Which feature of a molecule does infrared spectrometry detect?

A. molecular mass
B. bonds present
C. total number of protons
D. total number of proton environments
31. How are the uncertainties of two quantities combined when the quantities are multiplied
together?

A. Uncertainties are added.

B. % uncertainties are multiplied.
C. Uncertainties are multiplied.
D. % uncertainties are added.
32. The rate of a reaction is studied at different temperatures.

Which is the best way to plot the data?

33. What information is provided by 1H NMR, MS and IR for an organic compound?

I. 1H NMR: chemical environment(s) of protons

II. MS: fragmentation pattern
III. IR: types of functional group

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III

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34. A student performs an acid-base titration using a pH meter, but forgets to calibrate it. Which
type of error will occur and how will it affect the quality of the measurements?

A. Random error and lower precision

B. Systematic error and lower accuracy
C. Systematic error and lower precision
D. Random error and lower accuracy

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

C A A C D C A C D D C B B D D

16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

C B D B D C D D A B B B C A B

31 32 33 34

D C D B

130