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PTS (GS): CSE 2025

PTS (th-,l-): flfoy lsok ijh{kk 2025

Test Code: 02231602

GENERAL STUDIES DATE : 16/02/2025

M1T23: Full Syllabus Test

B
Test Booklet Series

ijh{k.k iqfLrdk vuqØe

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1. With reference to the Real Effective (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
Exchange Rate (REER), consider the are correct, but Statement-II is not the
following statements: correct explanation for Statement-I
1. If the rupee's REER index exceeds 100, (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II
it indicates that the rupee is overvalued is incorrect
relative to the base period. (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-
2. An appreciating REER generally II is correct
indicates a decrease in the 4. If the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
competitiveness of a country’s exports. conducts Open Market Operations (OMO)
Which of the statements given is/are correct? after purchasing a large amount of foreign
(a) 1 only exchange reserves, the most likely purpose
(b) 2 only of this action is to:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) Increase the money supply in the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 economy
2. Consider the following statements regarding (b) Encourage foreign capital inflows by
India’s Balance of Payment (BoP): raising domestic interest rates
1. Grant-in-aid provided by the (c) Neutralize the impact of forex
Government of India to another purchases on domestic liquidity
country will be recorded as a debit in (d) Reduce inflation by restricting
the Current Account of India’s BoP. government borrowing
2. Money paid by an Indian investor 5. Union Budget 2025-26 has proposed the
for purchasing shares in a foreign second Asset Monetisation Plan for period
company will be recorded as a debit in 2025-30. In this context, consider the
the Current Account of India’s BoP. following statements regarding the Asset
3. Money paid by an Indian importer for Monetisation:
buying machinery from abroad will 1. It involves leasing existing brownfield
be recorded as a debit in the Capital infrastructure assets to private
Account of India’s BoP. entities to generate revenue for new
Which of the statements given is/are correct? infrastructure projects.
(a) 1 only 2. It includes the transfer of ownership
(b) 1 and 2 only of loss-making core assets to private
(c) 2 and 3 only players.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are
3. Consider the following statements: correct?
Statement-I: (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Internationalisation of Rupee will increase
the exchange rate risk for Indian businesses. (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement-II:
6. Which of the following schemes of
Internationalisation of Rupee can increase the Government of India aims at the
the volatility of Rupee’s exchange rate. procurement of perishable agricultural and
Which one of the following is correct in horticultural commodities, which are not
respect of the above statements? covered under the Minimum Support Price
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (MSP) framework?
correct and Statement-II is the correct (a) Price Support Scheme (PSS)
explanation for Statement-I (b) Market Intervention Scheme (MIS)

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(c) Price Stabilization Fund (PSF) Which one of the following is correct in
(d) Price Deficit Payment Scheme (PDPS) respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
7. Consider the following statements regarding
correct and Statement-II is the correct
the inflation:
explanation for Statement-I
1. Depreciation of the rupee primarily
leads to demand-side inflation. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
2. An increase in inflation tends to benefit are correct, but Statement-II is not the
borrowers at the expense of lenders. correct explanation for Statement-I
3. Monetary policy is generally more (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II
efficient in tackling cost-push inflation is incorrect
than demand-pull inflation. (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-
II is correct
How many of the statements given above
are correct? 10. Consider the following situations related to
(a) Only one the Indian Judicial System:
(b) Only two Situation A: An individual, fearing false
(c) All three implication in a criminal case, seeks legal
(d) None protection from arrest before any formal
8. Consider the following statements regarding detention occurs.
the Vice-President of India: Situation B: A person accused of an offense
1. As the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, applies for bail, but the court needs time
the Vice-President does not have a to review the application. To prevent
casting vote in case of a tie, as he is not immediate detention, the court grants
a member of the House. temporary bail until a final decision is made.
2. Both elected and nominated members Which of the following correctly matches
of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are the type of bail applicable in each case?
eligible to vote in the election as well (a) Situation A – Anticipatory Bail,
as removal of the Vice-President. Situation B – Default Bail
3. A resolution for the removal of the (b) Situation A – Interim Bail, Situation B
Vice-President cannot be introduced in – Anticipatory Bail
the Lok Sabha. (c) Situation A – Default Bail, Situation B
Which of the statements given above is/are – Interim Bail
correct? (d) Situation A – Anticipatory Bail,
(a) 1 only Situation B – Interim Bail
(b) 2 only 11. In the context of the state legislature,
(c) 1 and 3 only consider the following matters:
(d) 2 and 3 only 1. Introduction of an Ordinary Bill
9. In the context of Indian polity, consider the 2. Consideration of the reports of State
following statements: Finance Commission
3. Election of members of Rajya Sabha
Statement-I:
4. Approval of ordinance issued by
Parliament, by law, can enforce the Governor
Fundamental Duties.
In how many of the above matters do the
Statement-II: State Legislative Assembly and the State
Constitution of India provides for a Legislative Council have equal powers?
mechanism to make the Fundamental (a) Only one
Duties justiciable. (b) Only two

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(c) Only three 1. Enemy property is the property left

(d) All four behind in India by individuals who
12. With reference to the Sixth Schedule of the migrated to countries designated as
Indian Constitution, consider the following “enemy nations” during times of
statements: conflict.
1. The Governor of a State, by public 2. Enemy property shall continue to
notification, can create a new remain under government control even
Autonomous District in areas covered if the legal heir is a citizen of India.
under the Sixth Schedule.
Which of the statements given above is/are
2. A bill seeking to amend the Sixth
correct?
Schedule must be passed by both
(a) 1 only
Houses of Parliament with a special
majority under Article 368. (b) 2 only
3. At present, only the tribal areas of (c) Both 1 and 2
Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Mizoram are covered under the Sixth 15. Which of the following correctly describes
Schedule. one of the most significant challenges
Which of the statements given above are in the practical realization of Quantum
correct? Computing?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) Inability to perform multiple
(b) 2 and 3 only calculations simultaneously, making
(c) 1 and 3 only
Quantum Computers slower than
(d) 1, 2 and 3
supercomputers.
13. With reference to the Election Commission (b) High energy consumption, making
of India, consider the following statements: Quantum Computers less efficient than
1. Election Commissioners enjoy the classical supercomputers.
same status and salary as Judges of the (c) Maintaining the stability of quantum
Supreme Court. states and minimizing errors caused by
2. The Salary of the Chief Election external disturbances.
Commissioner is charged upon the
(d) Limited computational capability in
Consolidated Fund of India.
solving complex problems as compared
3. The Constitution of India does
not prohibit retiring Election to advanced classical supercomputers.
Commissioners from holding further 16. World’s highest imaging Cherenkov
appointments under the Government Observatory was recently inaugurated
of India. in Ladakh. What is its technological
Which of the statements given above is/are significance for India’s space exploration
correct? and astrophysics research?
(a) 1 only (a) It enables real-time monitoring of solar
(b) 2 only flares, providing early warnings for
(c) 1 and 3 only space weather disruptions.
(d) 2 and 3 only
(b) It enhances India’s ability to detect
14. With reference to the Enemy Property high-energy cosmic gamma rays,
(Amendment and Validation) Act, 2017, contributing to the study of black holes
consider the following statements: and supernovae.

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(c) It is equipped with X-ray detection (a) Adding more water to the ink to
systems, supporting India’s increase its flow and drying speed.
interplanetary missions by mapping (b) Using a solvent with a lower boiling
cosmic radiation levels. point that evaporates more quickly, and
(d) It serves as a key facility for detecting using a fast-curing binder.
gravitational waves from distant (c) Reducing the amount of dye in the ink
mergers of neutron stars and black to make it dry more quickly.
holes. (d) Adding larger ink particles, making the
17. Which of the following techniques are ink more resistant to smudging.
employed for prevention of mitochondrial
20. Consider the following statements:
diseases in offspring?
1. Maternal Spindle Transfer (MST) Statement-I:
2. Pronuclear Transfer (PNT) 4D printing involves the creation of 3D
3. Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer (SCNT)
objects that can change shape over time.
Select the correct answer using the code
Statement-II:
given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only 4D printing uses ‘smart’ materials that can
(b) 2 and 3 only change shape when they come into contact
(c) 1 and 3 only with external stimuli.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Which one of the following is correct in
18. Consider the following statements: respect of the above statements?
Statement-I: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Unlike cruise missiles, ballistic missiles correct and Statement-II is the correct
can travel beyond the Earth’s atmosphere. explanation for Statement-I
Statement-II: (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct, but Statement-II is not the
Cruise missiles are powered by rocket
engines, whereas ballistic missiles are correct explanation for Statement-I
powered by jet engines. (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II
is incorrect
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements? (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are II is correct
correct and Statement-II is the correct 21. Consider the following pairs:
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II Space mission Description
are correct, but Statement-II is not the 1. Axiom-4 World’s first
correct explanation for Statement-I privately managed
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II spacewalk.
is incorrect 2. Polaris Dawn World’s first mission
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement- to send private crew
II is correct to the International
19. Some ballpoint pens claim to use "low- Space Station.
smudge" or "fast-drying" ink. What is the 3. NISAR India’s first zero
primary change made to the ink to achieve orbital debris
these characteristics? mission.

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Which of the pairs given above is/are 24. Which of the following Vijayanagara rulers
correctly matched? established the township of Nagalapuram
(a) 2 only near Vijayanagara in honor of his mother
(b) 1 and 3 only and assumed the title "Yavanarajya
(c) 2 and 3 only Sthapanacharya" for intervening in the
power struggles of the Deccan Sultanates?
(d) None
(a) Devaraya I
22. Which of the following revolutionary (b) Krishnadeva Raya
activities in colonial India is/are correctly (c) Vira Vijaya
matched with their organisations and the (d) Rama Raya
respective leaders? 25. With reference to the ancient Indian history,
‘Kurinji’, ‘Mullai’, and ‘Palai’ refer to:
Revolutionary Associated Leader
(a) Types of land grants given during the
Activity Organisation
Gupta period
1. Kakori Hindustan Ram Prasad
(b) Administrative divisions of the
Conspiracy Republican Bismil Mauryan Empire
Case Association (c) Eco-zone division in Sangam period
2. Assembly Anushilan Batukeshwar (d) Sacrifices mentioned in Vedic literature
Bomb Samiti Dutt
26. Consider the following statements:
Explosion
1. The Indian National Calendar is based
3. Chittagong Indian Surya Sen on the Saka Era.
Armoury Raid Republican 2. Chaitra 1 of the national calendar falls
Army on 22 April.
Select the correct answer using the code 3. In February 2025, we will be in the
given below: 1957th year of the Saka Era.
(a) 1 only How many of the statements given above
(b) 1 and 3 only are correct?
(a) Only one
(c) 3 only
(b) Only two
(d) 2 and 3 only
(c) All three
23. Consider the following philosophical (d) None
beliefs: 27. Consider the following statements:
1. The belief in a creator God responsible
Statement I:
for the creation of the universe.
The Indian National Congress rejected the
2. The law of Karma, which asserts that
Cripps Offer.
actions have consequences.
3. The concept of Rebirth. Statement II:
4. The notion of an eternal, unchanging The Cripps Mission offered independence
Soul. with a Partition Plan, declaring that the
British had decided to transfer power to two
Which of the above beliefs is/are not separate governments.
accepted by Buddhism? Which of the following is correct with
(a) 1 only respect to the above statements?
(b) 1 and 4 only (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(c) 2 and 3 only correct, and Statement II is the correct
(d) 1, 3, and 4 explanation for Statement I

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(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are (b) A marketing strategy where companies
correct, but Statement II is not the falsely portray their products or
correct explanation for Statement I policies as environmentally friendly to
(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II mislead consumers.
is not correct (c) The process of governments
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement- implementing strict regulations to
II is correct ensure corporate environmental
28. With reference to the ‘Ashtapradhan responsibility.
System’ of Maratha Empire, consider the (d) A collaborative effort among
following statements: corporations to fund environmental
1. All Ashtapradhans of Shivaji had conservation projects globally.
military as well as civil duties. 31. Which of the following statements correctly
2. Under Shivaji Central administrative differentiates between Gharial and Mugger
offices were hereditary and permanent crocodiles?
in nature. (a) Gharial has a broad snout, whereas
3. Mazumdar looked into the income and Mugger has a thin, long snout.
expenditure of the state. (b) Gharial generally prefers deep fast
How many of the statements given above flowing rivers while the Mugger
are correct? prefers slow moving, shallow water
(a) Only one bodies.
(b) Only two (c) Gharial is a saltwater crocodile,
(c) All three whereas Mugger is a freshwater
(d) None species.
29 Which of the following feedback (d) Gharials are widely distributed across
mechanisms contribute to the intensification India, while Muggers are critically
of Arctic Amplification? endangered with a very limited
1. Loss of reflective ice surfaces, population.
increasing solar heat absorption.
32. Consider the following pairs:
2. Accelerated methane release from
thawing permafrost. Conservation Description Recognized
3. Weakening of the ocean’s ability to Area Under
act as a carbon sink due to rising 1. Eco-Sensitive A buffer area Environment
temperatures. Zone around protected Protection
Select the correct answer using the code areas Act, 1986
given below: 2. Reserved A forest where Indian
(a) 1 and 2 only Forest all activities are Forest Act,
(b) 2 and 3 only prohibited unless 1927
(c) 1 and 3 only specifically
(d) 1, 2, and 3 permitted
3. Biosphere A large area with UNESCO's
30. Which of the following best describes the
term 'greenwashing' often seen in the news? Reserve core, buffer, and Man and
(a) The practice of companies investing transition zones Biosphere
heavily in sustainable practices to for conservation (MAB)
genuinely reduce their environmental and sustainable Programme
impact. use

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In how many of the above rows is the given (c) Only three
information correctly matched? (d) Only four
(a) Only one 36. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
(b) Only two correct regarding the Digital Bharat Nidhi,
(c) All three which has been recently established by the
(d) None Government of India?
33. With reference to ecological succession, 1. It replaced the Universal Service
consider the following areas: Obligation Fund (USOF).
1. Flooded lands 2. The fund focuses on expanding telecom
2. Uplifted marine deposits networks in Tier-I and Tier-II cities.
3. Bare rocks
Select the correct answer using the code
4. Newly created reservoir
given below:
5. Abandoned farm lands
(a) 1 only
6. Burned Forest
(b) 2 only
Which of the areas given above can be (c) Both 1 and 2
classified as Secondary succession sites? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(b) 2, 4 and 6 only 37. Consider the following pairs:
(c) 1, 5 and 6 only Defence Associated
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 6 only exercise countries
1. Ekuverin India and Mauritius
34. Consider the following statements regarding 2. CYCLONE India and Egypt
the Global River Cities Alliance: 3. Garud Shakti India and Malaysia
1. It was launched at COP28, the United
Nations Climate Change Conference in Which of the pair(s) given above is/are
Dubai, United Arab Emirates. correctly matched?
2. Its primary objective is to establish (a) 1 and 2 only
a unified regulatory framework for (b) 2 and 3 only
managing cross-border river disputes (c) 2 only
among member cities. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are 38. In the context of Kumbh Mela, consider the
correct? following statements:
(a) 1 only 1. Kumbh Mela is included in UNESCO’s
(b) 2 only Representative List of Intangible
(c) Both 1 and 2 Cultural Heritage.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Hiuen Tsang’s writings describe the
35. Consider the following Biosphere Reserves grandeur of a fair in Prayagraj in the
of India: seventh century.
1. Nilgiri 3. One of the four places where Kumbh
2. Pachmarhi Mela is organized is located on the
3. Seshachalam banks of the river Narmada.
4. Achanakmar-Amarkantak Which of the statements given above are
5. Dehang-Debang correct?
How many of the above Biosphere Reserves (a) 1 and 2 only
span across more than two states of India? (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) Only one (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) Only two (d) 1, 2 and 3

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39. Which of the following best describes the What is the correct sequence of these
objective of the PM-JANMAN Mission geographical features from the north to the
launched by the Government of India? south?
(a) To provide financial assistance to (a) 1-2-3-4-5
tribal communities for entrepreneurial (b) 1-2-3-5-4
activities. (c) 1-3-2-4-5
(b) To ensure the basic facilities for PVTG (d) 1-3-2-5-4
households and habitations. 43. Consider the following statements with
(c) To promote cultural preservation and reference to the Western Disturbances:
tourism in tribal areas. 1. They are usually brought to the Indian
(d) To encourage the use of advanced subcontinent by the Westerly Jet
technology in agriculture among tribal Stream.
communities. 2. Precipitation from the Western
40. Consider the following Indian traditional Disturbances is vital for the Rice crop
sports: in northern India.
1. Kabaddi 3. Western Disturbances have the effect
2. Kho Kho of causing dense fog in northern India.
3. Mallakhamb Which of the statements given above are
4. Yogasana correct?
How many of the above are included in the (a) 1 and 2 only
Olympic Games as a medal sport? (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) Only two (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) Only three (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) All four 44. Consider the following statements:
(d) None
Statement-I:
41. Consider the following pairs:
Places in news Country In continental-oceanic convergence, it
located in is always the oceanic plate that subducts
beneath the continental plate.
1. Darfur Syria
2. St. Martin’s Island Bangladesh Statement-II:
3. Goma Palestine The oceanic plate is denser than the
How many of the pairs given above are continental plate.
correctly matched? Which one of the following is correct in
(a) Only one pair respect of the above statements?
(b) Only two pairs (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(c) All three pairs correct and Statement-II is the correct
(d) None of the pairs explanation for Statement-I
42 In the context of the physiography of India, (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
consider the following: are correct, but Statement-II is not the
1. Vindhya Range correct explanation for Statement-I
2. Narmada Basin (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II
3. Satpura Range is incorrect
4. Tapi Basin (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
5. Ajanta Range II is correct

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45. What is the correct sequence of the following 3. In this layer, the temperature starts to
water bodies from the north to south? decrease with an increase in height.
1. Bosporus Strait Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Sea of Azov correct?
3. Dardanelles Strait (a) 1 only
4. Kerch Strait (b) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code (c) 3 only
given below: (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 4-1-2-3
49. Consider the following rivers of India:
(b) 2-4-1-3
1. Son
(c) 2-4-3-1
2. Periyar
(d) 4-1-3-2
3. Mandovi
46. Cobalt is a critical mineral, crucial for the 4. Shetrunji
production of batteries used in electric
How many of the above mentioned rivers
vehicles and renewable energy storage discharge their waters into the Arabian Sea?
systems. Which of the following countries (a) Only one
is the largest producer of Cobalt in the
(b) Only two
world?
(c) Only three
(a) Australia
(d) All four
(b) China
(c) South Africa 50. With reference to Panchayati Raj Institutions
(d) Democratic Republic of Congo in India, consider the following statements:
1. Gram Sabha is the only permanent
47. “This type of climatic region is characterised
body in the Panchayati Raj system.
by an alternate hot rainy season and cool
2. All the seats in a Panchayat are filled
dry season. It is flanked by a hot desert in
by direct election from territorial
the west and by the monsoonal climate in
constituencies in the Panchayat area.
the east. It is a transitional zone between
3. States shall reserve at least one-third of
the wet equatorial in the south and the
the offices of the Chairpersons in the
semi-arid Steppe in the north. This region
Panchayats for women.
vacillates between the rain-bearing ITCZ
and the rain-suppressing subtropical high Which of the statements given above are
pressure belt.” correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
The above paragraph describes which of the
(b) 2 and 3 only
following climatic regions of the World?
(c) 1 and 3 only
(a) Mediterranean Climate
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Steppe Climate
(c) British-type Climate 51. Consider the following:
(d) Sudan-type Climate 1. Equality of opportunity
2. Liberty of thought and expression
48. With reference to Ionosphere, consider the
3. Economic liberty
following statements:
4. Social justice
1. Radio waves transmitted from the earth
are reflected back to the earth by this Which of the above objectives are explicitly
layer. enshrined under the Preamble to the
2. This layer absorbs ultraviolet radiation Constitution of India?
and thereby shields life on the earth (a) 2 and 3 only
from harmful forms of energy. (b) 3 and 4 only

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(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 only
52. With reference to the Parliamentary 55. With reference to the exports and imports
Committee on Estimates, consider the under the Goods and Services (GST)
following statements: regime, consider the following statements:
1. Rajya Sabha has no representation in 1. Imports are treated as inter-state supply
it. and Integrated Goods and Services Tax
2. A minister cannot be elected as a (IGST) is levied on imports in addition
member of the Committee. to the custom duty.
3. It is the largest committee of Parliament 2. Exports of goods and services are
in terms of number of members. treated as zero rated supplies.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
53. Consider the following statements with
56. Which of the following is/are likely
respect to the Supreme Court of India:
impact(s) of a contractionary monetary
1. Power to increase the number of judges
policy by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
of the Supreme Court (SC) is vested
1. Depreciation of Rupee
with the Parliament.
2. Decline in savings rate among
2. Power to establish regional benches of
consumers
the Supreme Court rests with the Chief
Justice of India. 3. Reduction in investment expenditure

Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below:
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
54. In the context of the government securities 57. In the context of fiscal policy of the Central
market in India, consider the following Government of India, consider the following
statements: statements:
1. State Governments are not allowed to 1. Central Government, under normal
issue government bonds in India. circumstances, can borrow from the
2. RBI conducts primary auctions of RBI only through the Ways and Means
government securities through the Advances.
Negotiated Dealing System-Order 2. Off-budget borrowings are loans taken
Matching (NDS-OM) platform. directly by the Central government
3. An increase in the fiscal deficit tends to but not directly reflected in the budget
raise the yield on government bonds. documents.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. A higher amount of interest paid on
correct? borrowings from the previous year
(a) 1 and 2 only is likely to reduce the value of the
(b) 3 only primary deficit.

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M1T23

Which of the statements given above are Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
58. Which of the following financial instruments 61. Which of the following best describes
are part of the primary capital market? an advantage of RNA editing over DNA
1. Follow-on Public Offering (FPO) by a editing?
listed company (a) RNA editing allows for temporary
2. Certificate of Deposit (CD) issued by genetic modifications, reducing the
Scheduled commercial banks risk of permanent errors.
3. Rights Issue by a company (b) RNA editing permanently alters the
4. Collateralized borrowing and lending genome, making it more effective than
obligation DNA editing.
Select the correct answer using the code (c) RNA editing ensures that all cells in
given below: an organism undergo identical genetic
(a) 1 and 2 only changes, unlike DNA editing.
(b) 1 and 3 only (d) RNA editing can be performed only
(c) 3 and 4 only once, whereas DNA editing requires
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only repeated interventions.
59. Consider the following statements regarding 62. With reference to High-Altitude Pseudo-
Urea fertilizer: Satellite (HAPS) vehicles, consider the
1. India is a net importer of urea. following statements:
2. Maximum Retail Price (MRP) of Urea 1. HAPS are generally solar-powered,
is fixed by the Union Government. allowing them to stay airborne for
3. Government of India mandates all months.
indigenous urea manufacturers to 2. Unlike Unmanned Aerial Vehicles
produce 100% neem-coated urea.
(UAVs), HAPS can provide continuous
How many of the statements given above monitoring due to their slower speed.
are correct? 3. HAPS primarily operate in the
(a) Only one troposphere, making them suitable
(b) Only two for weather monitoring and disaster
(c) All three management.
(d) None
Which of the statements given above is/are
60. Which of the following types of hydrogen correct?
can qualify as "green hydrogen" according (a) 1 and 2 only
to the Green Hydrogen Standards released (b) 2 and 3 only
by India? (c) 1 and 3 only
1. Hydrogen generated through (d) 1, 2 and 3
electrolysis powered by renewable
sources of energy. 63. With reference to biogas and natural gas,
2. Hydrogen produced through consider the following statements:
conversion of biomass 1. Biogas is a renewable energy source,
3. Hydrogen produced through steam whereas natural gas is a non-renewable
methane reforming fossil fuel.

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M1T23 -lai.w kZ ikB~;Øe VsLV

2. Biogas is produced through anaerobic Which of the statements given above is/are
digestion of organic matter, while correct?
natural gas forms over millions of years (a) 1 only
under high pressure and temperature. (b) 2 only
3. Biogas primarily consists of carbon (c) Both 1 and 2
monoxide, whereas natural gas is (d) Neither 1 nor 2
mainly composed of methane.
66. “It is a technique that enables the creation
Which of the statements given above are of multiple virtual networks within a single
correct?
physical network, each tailored for specific
(a) 1 and 2 only
applications. This allows efficient resource
(b) 2 and 3 only
allocation and improved performance.”
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the following techniques is being
64. Consider the following statements: described?
(a) Edge Computing
Statement I: (b) Network Slicing
Lagrange points in space can be utilized (c) Cloud Virtualization
by spacecraft to reduce fuel consumption (d) Quantum Networking
required to maintain their position.
67. With reference to colonial history of India,
Statement II: consider the following events:
Lagrange points are positions in space 1. Establishment of factory in Panji by
where the gravitational forces of two large Portuguese
masses balance each other, resulting in a net 2. Establishment of factory in Calcutta by
zero gravitational force. British
Which one of the following is correct in 3. Establishment of factory in
respect of the above statements? Masulipatnam by Dutch
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Which of the following is the correct
correct and Statement-II is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
explanation for Statement-I. (a) 1 - 2 - 3
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II (b) 1- 3 - 2
are correct, but Statement-II is not the (c) 3 - 1 - 2
correct explanation for Statement-I.
(d) 2 - 3 - 1
(c) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-II
is incorrect. 68. Consider the following pairs:
(d) Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II is Literary work Author
correct. 1. Bhavartha Dipika : Jnaneshvara
65. Consider the following statements regarding 2. Bhavartha Ramayana : Eknath
Microsatellite DNA: 3. Prabandha chintamani : Vishakhadatta
1. Microsatellites DNA are highly How many of the above pairs are correctly
repetitive and non-coding regions of matched?
the genome. (a) Only one
2. They vary significantly among (b) Only two
individuals, making them useful in (c) All three
forensic science and paternity testing. (d) None

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M1T23

69. Consider the following statements with 3. Lichens contribute to soil formation
respect to uprisings during British India: by breaking down rocks through
1. In Brahmaputra Valley, Britishers were biological weathering.
opposed under the leadership of Kiang Which of the statements given above are
Nongbah and Pa Togan Sangma. correct?
2. Chuar rebellion was led by the Chuars (a) 1 and 2 only
(local tribesmen) and Paiks (hereditary (b) 1 and 3 only
policemen). (c) 2 and 3 only
3. Deccan Riots of 1875 were a series (d) 1, 2 and 3
of peasant uprisings against the
73. Consider the following biomass:
moneylenders.
1. Sugarcane juice
How many of the statements given above 2. B- heavy Molasses
are correct? 3. C- heavy Molasses
(a) Only one
How many of the above can be used to
(b) Only two
produce ethanol as per the National Biofuel
(c) All three
Policy 2018?
(d) None (a) Only one
70. One of the core principles of Mahatma (b) Only two
Gandhi was inspired by ‘John Ruskin’. (c) All three
Which of the following pairs correctly (d) None
matches the principle with the book? 74. Consider the following statements regarding
(a) Satyagraha – "Unto This Last" Cheetah:
(b) Sarvodaya – "Unto This Last" 1. 'Cheetah' is the only large carnivore
(c) Sarvodaya – "The Kingdom of God is that got completely wiped out from
Within You" India
(d) Satyagraha – "The Kingdom of God is 2. Asiatic cheetahs are found only in Iran.
Within You" 3. African cheetahs are generally bigger
71. Which among the following statements than Asiatic cheetahs.
is not correct with reference to the Indus How many of the statements given above
Valley Civilisation? are correct?
(a) Chanhudaro and Lothal sites have (a) Only one
evidence of beadmaking. (b) Only two
(b) Cotton was used for manufacturing (c) All three
textile. (d) None
(c) Silver ornaments were used. 75. Consider the following statements regarding
(d) Barley and rice were the most common Methane (CH4) and its impact on global
crops cultivated. warming:
72. Consider the following statements regarding 1. Agriculture is the largest anthropogenic
'lichens': source of methane emissions.
1. Lichens are symbiotic associations 2. Global warming potential of methane
where cyanobacteria provide is more than that of carbon dioxide.
structural support, while fungi perform 3. Methane has a shorter atmospheric
photosynthesis. lifespan than carbon dioxide.
2. They are highly sensitive to air 4. India is a signatory to the Global
pollution and serve as bio-indicators of Methane Pledge and has committed to
environmental quality. reducing its methane emissions.

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Which of the statements given above are (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct? correct, but Statement II is not the
(a) 2 and 3 only correct explanation for Statement I
(b) 2 and 4 only (c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only is incorrect
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement
76. Consider the following species: II is correct
1. Whale 80. The organisms 'Blue magpie, White
2. Shark Common Sandpiper, Blue Whistling
3. Dolphin Thrush, Giant Shrike' are
4. Sea Horse (a) Birds
How many of the above are considered true (b) Primates
fish as per biological classification? (c) Reptiles
(a) Only one (d) Amphibians
(b) Only two 81. Consider the following items in an economy:
(c) Only three 1. Profits earned by a foreign company
(d) All four operating in India.
77. The Clarion-Clipperton Zone (CCZ) has 2. Salaries paid to Indian workers
been frequently in the news due to its employed by Indian companies within
rich deposits of polymetallic nodules and India.
potential for deep-sea mining. Where is it 3. Remittances sent by Indian citizens
located? working abroad.
(a) Indian Ocean Basin 4. Interest earned by Indian residents on
(b) South Atlantic Ocean investments made in foreign countries.
(c) Central Pacific Ocean How many of the above items will be
(d) Southern Ocean included in both the Gross Domestic
78. Which of the following is not considered an Product (GDP) and the Gross National
ex-situ bioremediation method? Product (GNP) of India?
(a) Composting (a) Only one
(b) Bio-Augmentation (b) Only two
(c) Biopiles (c) Only three
(d) Phytoremediation (d) All four

79. Consider the following statements: 82. The Business Ready (B-READY) report,
which replaces the Ease of Doing Business
Statement I: Index, is a flagship report of which of the
Photochemical smog tends to persist longer following organizations?
during temperature inversion conditions. (a) World Economic Forum (WEF)
(b) World Bank
Statement II:
(c) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
Temperature inversion traps cooler air along (d) World Trade Organisation
with pollutants near the ground.
83. Consider the following statements regarding
Which one of the following is correct in the Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan
respect of the above statements? Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY):
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are 1. It provides health insurance coverage
correct, and Statement II is the correct only for secondary and tertiary care
explanation for Statement I health treatment.

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M1T23

2. There is no cap on family size for the 2. Mankidia Odisha

purpose of health insurance coverage. 3. Porja Andhra Pradesh
3. Senior citizens aged 70 and above How many pairs given above are correctly
within families already covered by AB matched?
PM-JAY will receive an additional top- (a) Only one pair
up cover of up to Rs 5 lakh per year. (b) Only two pairs
How many of the statements given above (c) All three pairs
are correct? (d) None of the pairs
(a) Only one
88. Consider the following statements regarding
(b) Only two
the cultivation of Pulses in India:
(c) All three
1. Cultivation of pulses in India is mostly
(d) None
concentrated in rainfed areas.
84. Lakadong turmeric has been in the news 2. Cultivation of pulses in India is done
recently for the mushrooming of its fake in Kharif, Rabi, as well as the summer
varieties. Which of the following states season.
has a Geographical Indication (GI) tag for 3. Chickpeas alone contributes nearly
Lakadong turmeric? 50% of India’s pulse production.
(a) Manipur
(b) Assam Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) Meghalaya correct?
(d) Nagaland (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
85. Which of the following is the largest source (c) 2 and 3 only
of revenue of the Union Government of
(d) 1, 2 and 3
India as projected in the Union Budget for
2025-26? 89. Consider the following statements:
(a) Union Excise Duties 1. During Inversion of Temperature,
(b) Income tax the normal lapse rate of temperature
(c) GST and other taxes undergoes disruption.
(d) Corporation tax 2. A long winter night with clear skies
and still air is an ideal situation for
86. Consider the following statements:
Inversion of Temperature.
1. Atal Setu, located in Maharashtra, is
3. Inversion of Temperature usually
the longest bridge in India.
results in dispersion of pollutants,
2. Sudarshan Setu, located in Gujarat,
thereby improving air quality.
is the longest cable-stayed bridge in
India. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (c) 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 90. Consider the following Ocean currents:
87. In the Indian context, consider the following 1. California current
pairs: 2. Brazilian current
Tribes in news State 3. Agulhas current
1. Konda Reddi Karnataka 4. Humboldt current

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M1T23

Which of the above mentioned currents are 94. Consider the following statements:
primarily found in the Pacific Ocean? Statement-I:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only The salinity of water in the surface layer of
oceans is highest near the equator due to the
(c) 1 and 4 only
higher rate of evaporation.
(d) 3 and 4 only
Statement-II:
91. Consider the following statements:
1. Hydroponics requires less water The salinity of water in the surface layer of
as compared to traditional farming oceans is influenced by the balance between
evaporation and precipitation.
methods.
2. Vertical farming requires less land Which one of the following is correct in
as compared to traditional farming respect of the above statements?
methods. (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
3. Precision farming requires less correct and Statement-II is the correct
fertilizer as compared to traditional explanation for Statement-I.
farming methods. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct, but Statement-II is not the
Which of the statements given above are correct explanation for Statement-I.
correct? (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
(a) 1 and 2 only is incorrect.
(b) 1 and 3 only (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
(c) 2 and 3 only II is correct.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
95. With reference to the Land Revenue System
92. In the context of Indian Geography, Dafla, during colonial rule in India, consider the
Miri, Abor and Mishmi are: following information:
(a) Tribes inhabiting Himachal Pradesh. I. Permanent Settlement
(b) Prominent Tea estates in Assam. II. Mahalwari System
(c) Glacial lakes in Eastern Himalayas. III. Ryotwari Settlement
(d) Hills in North East India. Affected region:
93. Consider the following tree species found A. Bengal and Bihar
in various regions of India: B. North-Western Provinces, Punjab,
parts of Central India
1. Rosewood
C. Madras and Bombay
2. Teak
3. Palash Key feature:
X. Fixed revenue demand and made
What is the correct sequence of the above zamindars hereditary as intermediaries
mentioned trees according to their forest Y. Direct revenue settlement with
type? individual cultivators
(a) Moist Deciduous forests - Thorn Z. Revenue settlement made with the
forests - Evergreen forests village collectively
(b) Thorn forests - Moist Deciduous
Select the correct answer using the code
forests - Evergreen forests
given below:
(c) Evergreen forests - Thorn forests - (a) A and X for I; B and Z for II; C and Y
Moist Deciduous forests for III
(d) Evergreen forests - Moist Deciduous (b) B and Z for I; C and X for II; A and Y
forests - Thorn forests for III

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(c) C and Y for I; A and Z for II; B and X (b) Increased write-offs of bad loans,
for III improving the bank’s balance sheet.
(d) A and X for I; B and Y for II; C and Z (c) Lower credit risk due to more funds set
for III aside against the bad loans.
(d) Increased profitability due to reduced
96. “These rock-cut caves, carved between the
provisioning requirements.
3rd century BC and the 2nd century AD, are
dedicated to Buddhism. They depict stories 99. Consider the following statements regarding
of three significant rulers: the Kshatrapas, the proclamation of emergency under
Satavahanas, and the Abhirs. The caves Article 352 of the Constitution of India:
are located in a city known for hosting the 1. President can revoke the proclamation
Kumbh Mela every 12 years. They are also without any parliamentary approval.
referred to as Trirashmi caves.” 2. President must revoke the proclamation
if the Lok Sabha passes a resolution
Which of the following caves is being
described above? disapproving its continuation.
(a) Kanheri Caves Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) Pandavleni Caves correct?
(c) Ellora Caves (a) 1 only
(d) Bhaja Caves (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
97. Consider the following statements regarding
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
the banking sector in India:
1. Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) can 100. In a country that operates under a
access the Liquidity Adjustment Democratic, Federal, and Presidential
Facility (LAF) window of the RBI. system of governance, which of the
2. Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs) following features are most likely to be
are exempted from maintaining the present in its political structure?
Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR). (a) Elected Head of State, Integrated
3. Both RRBs and UCBs are mandated to judiciary, and Parliamentary
allocate 75% of their total outstanding sovereignty.
advances towards Priority Sector (b) Dual citizenship, Collective
Lending (PSL). responsibility of the executive to
How many of the statements given above the legislature, and Decentralized
are correct? governance.
(a) Only one (c) Separation of power between Executive
(b) Only two and Legislature, Bicameral legislature,
(c) All three and Fixed tenure of the executive.
(d) None (d) Elected government, Nominal Head of
98. Which of the following is the most likely State, Integrated judiciary.
implication of the high Provisioning
Coverage Ratio (PCR) for a bank?
(a) Higher liquidity availability for lending
and investment.

nnnn

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