1. What is the primary purpose of acquiring a License to Sell according to PD 957?

A. To increase property taxes

B. To serve as developer’s proof of legitimacy and financial stability
C. To advertise the property
D. To register the property with the local government

2. What does the License to Sell provide in terms of property quality?

A. A guarantee of the lowest price
B. A level of quality assurance of the building plans and specifications
C. An insurance policy for the property
D. A detailed history of the property’s previous owners

3. Which decree mandates the importance of the License to Sell before

transactions between buyers and developers?
A. The Real Estate Service Act
B. The Condominium Act
C. The Home Development Mutual Fund Law
D. The Subdivision and Condominium Buyer’s Protection Decree (PD 957)

4. What does the Certificate of Registration (CR) certify?

A. The legal ownership of the property
B. The viability of the project and the developer’s capacity
C. The zoning regulations compliance
D. The environmental impact of the project

5. Which department issues the Certificate of Registration (CR)?

A. The Department of Real Estate Services
B. The Department of Urban Planning
C. The Department of Human Settlements and Urban Development (DSHUD)
D. The Department of Environmental Management

6. What is the former name of the DSHUD?

A. The Real Estate Regulatory Agency
B. The Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board (HLURB)
C. The Urban Development Corporation
D. The National Housing Authority

7. What is the first step in the application process?

A. Issuing a Notice to Publish
B. Evaluating the application’s compliance
C. Public announcement of the application
D. Reviewing public feedback
8. What is the timeframe for evaluating the application’s compliance?
A. 1-3 hours
B. 1-3 weeks
C. 1-3 days
D. 1-3 months

9. How long does the processor have to evaluate the application?

A. One day maximum
B. Up to three days
C. At least three days
D. More than a week

10. What document is prepared for applications that meet the standards?
A. Notice of Approval
B. Certificate of Compliance
C. Pro-forma Notice to Publish
D. Official Letter of Commendation

11. What is the initial step in the Performance Bond Evaluation and CR Awarding
Process?
A. Preparing the Certificate of Registration/License to Sell
B. Reviewing and signing the documents by the Head of the TTSG
C. Evaluating the acceptability of the performance bond
D. Releasing the Certificate of Registration/License to Sell to the applicant

12. After evaluating the performance bond, what does the processor prepare?
A. An executive Summary
B. A performance Bond Approval
C. The Certificate of Registration / License to Sell and Executive Brief
D. An order of payment

13. Who is responsible for reviewing and signing of the Certificate of Registration /
License to Sell and Executive Brief?
A. The Records officer
B. The Applicant
C. The Head of the TTSG
D. The cashier

14. What action does the inspector take after accomplishing the Pro-forma?
A. Submits the performance bond
B. Evaluates and initials
C. Pays the processing fee
D. Forwards the documents to the records section
15. What document does the processor receive that initiates the processing time?
A. Certificate of Registration
B. Official Receipt
C. Affidavit of Publication
D. Compliance Order

16. What does the inspector do during the site inspection?

A. Reviews the Affidavit of Publication
B. Issues the Certificate of Registration
C. Determines the extent of the development and computes the performance
bond and processing fee
D. Receives the processing fee

17. What is the first action the applicant must take during the Public and Pre-
inspection process?
A. Schedule a site inspection
B. Submit Affidavit of Publication
C. Receive and publish Notice to publish
D. Pay the inspection fee

18. What document must the applicant submit after publishing the Notice to Publish?
A. Order of payment
B. Official Receipt
C. Affidavit of publication
D. Inspection Report

19. Who does the applicant coordinate with to schedule a site inspection?
A. The cashier
B. The Records Officer
C. The inspector or processor
D. The regional director

20. What is the processing time for forwarding documents back to the Records
Section?
A. One day
B. Two to three days
C. One week
D. One month

21. What is one of the primary responsibilities of a property developer?

A. Marketing properties
B. Securing the Certificate of Registration (CR) and License to Sell (LS)
 C. Designing property layouts
D. Conducting property valuations

22. What does PD 957 primarily protect?

A. Property developers
B. Real estate agents
C. Subdivision and condominium buyers
D. Construction companies

23. What is the purpose of the License to Sell in real estate transactions?
A. To set property prices
B. To advertise the property
C. To authorize the sale of the property
D. To record the property sale

24. What additional identification is advised for real estate buyers to check according
to PD 957?
A. The seller’s personal ID
B. The Department of Human Settlement and Urban Development ID Cards
C. The property insurance
D. The local government ID

25. What is the consequence of not acquiring a License to Sell a property

development?
A. Increased marketing costs
B. Delayed construction
C. Potential legal issues and transaction complications
D. Decreased property value

26. Which decree should real estate buyers refer to for protection when purchasing
property?
A. The Real Estate Service Act
B. The building code
C. Presidential Decree 957
D. The Urban Development Act

27. Why is it important for property developers to acquire all related certifications and
licenses?
A. To avoid legal penalties
B. To serve the market with confidence and professionalism
C. To increase speed of construction
D. To reduce development costs
28. According to PD 957, what should real estate buyers verify before purchasing a
property?
A. The property’s age
B. The seller’s personal background
C. The essential documents like CR, LS, and agent’s registration
D. The previous property valuation

29. What does PD 957 advise buyers to check regarding real estate agents?
A. Their sales history
B. Their certificate of registration
C. Their personal ID
D. Their company’s financial status

30. Which ID card is recommended for buyers to inspect according to PD 957?

A. The National ID
B. The voter’s ID
C. The Department of Human Settlement and Urban development ID cards
D. The Social Security ID Card.

31. What is the minimum parking slot ratio for a residential area with less than 50
sq.m. according to National building code?
A. 1:1
B. 1:4
C. 1:8
D. 1:2

32. For a residential area greater than 50 sqm, what is the required parking slot
ratio?
A. 1:1
B. 1:4
C. 1:8
D. 1:2

33. Is off-site parking permissible under the National Building Code of the
Philippines?
A. Yes, but only if it is not part of the project
B. No, off-site parking is never allowed
C. Yes, if it is part of the project and in accordance with the National Building
Code
D. Yes, without any additional conditions

34. According to the National Building Code of the Philippines, what conditions must
be met for off-site parking to be allowed for commercial condominium units?
 A. The parking area must be within 200 meters of the condominium project
B. The parking area must be explicitly indicated in the Contract of sale
C. The parking area must be part of the approved subdivision plan
D. All of the above

35. Where must the off-site parking located in relation to the commercial
condominium project?
A. Within 100 meters
B. Within 200 meters
C. Within 300 meters
D. Within 400 meters

36. In the context of the National Building Code of the Philippines, which of the
following is true regarding arrangements for commercial condominium units?
A. Parking arrangements need not be indicated in any contract
B. Parking arrangements must be part of the project indicated in the Contract of
Sale
C. Parking arrangements are only valid if located within 100 meters of the project
D. Parking arrangements area irrelevant to the approval of the subdivision plan.

37. What is the minimum floor area required for an open market family dwelling?
A. 12 sq.m.
B. 18 sq.m.
C. 22 sq.m
D. 36 sq.m.

38. For medium cost family dwelling, what is the minimum floor area specified?
A. 12 sq.m.
B. 22 sq.m.
C. 36 sq.m
D. 18 sq.m

39. How much is the minimum floor area for a single occupancy unit without
limitations?
A. 12 sq.m
B. 18 sq.m.
C. 22 sq.m
D. 36 sq.m

40. Under what condition can the floor area for a single occupancy unit be reduced to
12 sq.m?
A. If it is a medium cost unit
B. If it is part of an open market project
 C. If certain limitations are met
D. If it is for a family dwelling

41. What is the minimum height of a project from street level that mandates the
inclusion of an elevator as per the National Building Code?
A. 10 meters
B. 12 meters
C. 15 meters
D. 20 meters

42. Who is allowed to sign site development plans or subdivision plans as per the
resolution #75, S. 2002?
A. Only Environmental Planners (EnP)
B. Architects, Civil Engineers, and Geodetic Engineers with an EnP as co-
signatory
C. Architects who are not Environmental Planners within 2 years from the
effectivity of the revised IRR
D. Only Civil Engineers

43. Which professional can serve as co-signatories with an Environmental Planner

for a site development plan?
A. Architect
B. Civil Engineer
C. Geodetic Engineer
D. All of the above

44. After the two-year period post the effectivity of the revised IRR, who must sign
the site development plans or subdivision plans?
A. Any licensed Architect
B. An Architect or a Civil Engineer without EnP
C. An Architect, Civil Engineer, or Geodetic Engineer with an EnP as co-
signatory
D. A Geodetic Engineer only

45. What document has been removed as a requirement for the issuance of a
Development Permit for Subdivision and Condominium projects?
A. Zoning certification
B. DAR exemption code clearance
C. Environmental Clearance certificate
D. Building code compliance certificate

46. As per the new guidelines, what must be submitted instead of the DAR
exemption clearance for a development permit?
 A. A zoning certification indicating urban use prior to June 1988
B. A structural design plan including a loft
C. An environmental impact statement
D. A building safety compliance certificate

47. Which provision was removed from the revised IRRs that previously set a limit on
the cost of properties?
A. Minimum floor area requirement
B. Price ceiling provision
C. Mandatory parking slots
D. Environmental compliance certificate

48. What requirement is no longer necessary for subdivision owners/developers

according to the revised IRRs?
A. Registration as a dealer
B. Providing a development permit
C. Planting of trees in designated strips
D. Acquiring a zoning certification

49. What is required for subdivision projects that are 30 hectares or larger?
A. Environmental Impact Assessment
B. Traffic Impact Assessment
C. Community Impact Assessment
D. Economic Impact Assessment

50. Which of the following information is not required to be listed for the duly licensed
professionals who signed the plan for a subdivision development permit
application?
A. Surname/First/Middle Name
B. Professional License Number, Date of Issue, and Expiration
C. Professional Tax Receipt and Date of Issue
D. Birth Certificate Number