Nanotechnology (1–30)

1.​ What size range defines nanomaterials?​

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A. 1–100 nm​
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B. 1–100 µm​
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C. 1–100 mm​
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D. 1–100 Å​
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Answer: A​

2.​ Which scientist is credited with the idea of manipulating atoms individually?​
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A. Isaac Newton​
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B. Albert Einstein​
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C. Richard Feynman​
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D. Eric Drexler​
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Answer: C​

3.​ What causes nanomaterials to have different properties from bulk materials?​
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A. Higher density​
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B. Smaller atomic number​
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C. Surface area-to-volume ratio and quantum effects​
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D. Magnetic field interaction​
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Answer: C​

4.​ Which of the following is a medical application of gold nanoparticles?​

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A. Fuel cells​
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B. Cancer treatment​
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 C. Battery improvement​
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D. Solar panel coatings​
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Answer: B​

5.​ What is quantum confinement?​

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A. Limited visibility in optical scopes​
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B. Restriction of electrons in small dimensions​
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C. Entrapment of molecules in a box​
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D. None of the above​
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Answer: B​

6.​ What is the thickness of a human hair in nanometers?​

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A. 10–50 nm​
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B. 1,000–2,000 nm​
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C. 80,000–100,000 nm​
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D. 1,000,000 nm​
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Answer: C​

7.​ What term is used to describe the efficient energy transfer in biomolecules?​
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A. Bio-photonic resonance​
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B. Molecular conduction​
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C. Natural nanotransfer​
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D. Electron efficiency​
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Answer: C​

8.​ Why are carbon nanotubes important in nanotechnology?​

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 A. They are transparent​
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B. They are highly magnetic​
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C. They are strong and conductive​
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D. They are biodegradable​
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Answer: C​

9.​ What does the term ‘nano’ mean?​

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A. Giant​
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B. Small​
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C. Dwarf​
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D. Tiny​
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Answer: C​

10.​What is the significance of the book “Engines of Creation”?​

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A. First book on atomic theory​
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B. Introduced genetic engineering​
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C. Envisioned nanotechnology future​
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D. Discussed early robotics​
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Answer: C​

11.​What is the role of MEMS in nanotechnology?​

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A. Data analysis​
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B. Nano-assembly​
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C. Micro-electro-mechanical integration​
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D. Power storage​
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 Answer: C​

12.​Which product contains nano-silver for antibacterial use?​

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A. Socks​
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B. Solar panels​
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C. Laptops​
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D. Batteries​
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Answer: A​

13.​Which field benefits most from nano-enhanced sunscreens?​

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A. Architecture​
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B. Agriculture​
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C. Medicine​
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D. Cosmetics​
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Answer: D​

14.​Which nanomaterial is used in face creams to neutralize free radicals?​

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A. Titanium dioxide​
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B. Zinc oxide​
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C. Fullerene C-60​
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D. Silica​
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Answer: C​

15.​Nanoparticles can clean heavy metals from:​

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A. Water only​
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B. Soil only​
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 C. Soil and water​
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D. Air only​
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Answer: C​

16.​Why is photosynthesis more efficient than current technologies?​

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A. Faster reaction​
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B. Low temperature required​
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C. No energy loss​
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D. Natural nano-efficiency​
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Answer: D​

17.​What kind of energy is used in retinal nanoprotheses?​

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A. Ultraviolet​
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B. Near-infrared light​
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C. Gamma radiation​
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D. Microwave​
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Answer: B​

18.​What does a photovoltaic retinal implant do?​

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A. Stimulates brain directly​
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B. Converts light to electricity​
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C. Blocks UV rays​
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D. Captures images​
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Answer: B​

19.​Nanotechnology originated from work in what industry?​

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 A. Automobile​
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B. Semiconductor​
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C. Military​
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D. Textile​
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Answer: B​

20.​Which property is key to the effectiveness of nano-sensors?​

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A. Color​
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B. Shape​
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C. Surface reactivity​
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D. Sound absorption​
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Answer: C​

21.​What does CNT stand for?​

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A. Computer nano transistor​
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B. Carbon nanotube​
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C. Control nano technology​
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D. Chemical nano treatment​
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Answer: B​

22.​Which of the following has the best potential for flexible electronics?​
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A. Metal wires​
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B. Optical fibers​
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C. CNTs​
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D. Rubber insulators​
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 Answer: C​

23.​What is the purpose of nanowires in solar cells?​

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A. Increase brightness​
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B. Reduce size​
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C. Improve electron transport​
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D. Absorb sound​
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Answer: C​

24.​Who predicted the future of nanorobotics?​

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A. Richard Feynman​
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B. Eric Drexler​
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C. Linus Pauling​
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D. Max Planck​
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Answer: B​

25.​What material is often used in nano-enabled sunblock?​

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A. CNT​
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B. ZnO and TiO2​
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C. AgNO3​
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D. Fullerenes​
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Answer: B​

26.​Which nanostructure is used in energy storage?​

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A. Nanowhiskers​
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B. Nanofoam​
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 C. Shag electrode CNT​
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D. Nanobots​
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Answer: C​

27.​What is a benefit of using nanomaterials in manufacturing?​

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A. High waste​
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B. More energy consumption​
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C. Precision with less material​
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D. Longer processing time​
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Answer: C​

28.​Nanopants repel water due to:​

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A. Coatings​
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B. Nanowhiskers​
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C. Electrostatics​
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D. Porous fabric​
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Answer: B​

29.​What kind of microscopy is essential in nanotech?​

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A. Compound microscope​
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B. Scanning electron microscope​
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C. X-ray​
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D. Optical scanner​
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Answer: B​

30.​Which nanomaterial is known for high tensile strength and conductivity?​

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 A. Fullerene​
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B. Graphene​
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C. TiO2​
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D. Nano-silver​
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Answer: B​

Conveyors and Centrifugation (31–50)

31.​What is the primary purpose of a conveyor?​

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A. Compress gas​
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B. Move materials​
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C. Heat surfaces​
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D. Filter liquids​
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Answer: B​

32.​Which conveyor type uses reciprocating motion?​

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A. Belt​
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B. Chain​
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C. Oscillating​
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D. Pneumatic​
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Answer: C​

33.​Which part of a belt conveyor ensures tension?​

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A. Pulley​
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B. Take-up​
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 C. Shaft​
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D. Belt cleaner​
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Answer: B​

34.​Chain conveyors are suitable for:​

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A. Delicate food​
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B. Lightweight materials​
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C. Heavy-duty transport​
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D. Glassware​
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Answer: C​

35.​Which part supports the belt in a conveyor?​

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A. Rollers​
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B. Drives​
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C. Idlers​
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D. Base plate​
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Answer: C​

36.​Centrifugation separates based on:​

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A. Volume​
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B. Color​
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C. Density​
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D. Temperature​
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Answer: C​

37.​What is the unit of rotation in a centrifuge?​

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 A. m/s​
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B. rpm​
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C. Hz​
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D. kg/m³​
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Answer: B​

38.​What component holds test tubes in a centrifuge?​

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A. Bucket​
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B. Clamp​
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C. Holder​
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D. Rotor​
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Answer: D​

39.​Which rotor type is best for speed-based sedimentation?​

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A. Swinging bucket​
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B. Vertical​
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C. Fixed angle​
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D. Open frame​
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Answer: C​

40.​How does centrifugation speed affect separation?​

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A. Higher speed = slower separation​
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B. No effect​
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C. Higher speed = faster separation​
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D. Random effect​
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 Answer: C​

41.​RCF is affected by radius and:​

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A. Speed​
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B. Temperature​
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C. Pressure​
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D. Volume​
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Answer: A​

42.​Ultracentrifuges can reach speeds of up to:​

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A. 5,000 rpm​
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B. 10,000 rpm​
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C. 100,000 rpm​
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D. 500 rpm​
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Answer: C​

43.​Centrifugation is commonly used in which field?​

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A. Literature​
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B. Biology​
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C. Architecture​
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D. Astrology​
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Answer: B​

44.​Which of the following ensures balance in centrifugation?​

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A. Equal temperature​
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B. Matching tube weights​
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 C. High speed​
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D. UV light​
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Answer: B​

45.​What happens if a centrifuge is unbalanced?​

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A. It runs faster​
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B. Vibration and damage​
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C. Improved separation​
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D. Stops immediately​
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Answer: B​

46.​Main safety concern in centrifuge use:​

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A. Color coding​
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B. Time setting​
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C. Rotor failure​
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D. Sample size​
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Answer: C​

47.​Purpose of centrifuge cooling systems:​

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A. Freeze samples​
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B. Prevent overheating​
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C. Balance rotor​
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D. Lubricate motor​
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Answer: B​

48.​High RCF is needed for:​

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 A. DNA separation​
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B. Gram staining​
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C. Buffer mixing​
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D. Labeling tubes​
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Answer: A​

49.​Best practice before centrifuge operation:​

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A. Heat tubes​
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B. Balance opposite tubes​
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C. Spin empty​
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D. Use cold water​
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Answer: B​

50.​Centrifugation efficiency depends on:​

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A. Tube length​
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B. Rotor shape​
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C. Speed and radius​
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D. Labeling accuracy​
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Answer: C

Cyclones (51-70)

51. What is the main separation mechanism in a cyclone?

A. Electrostatic attraction

B. Gravitational settling

C. Centrifugal force
D. Filtration

Answer: C. Centrifugal force

52. The double vortex flow in a cyclone refers to:

A. Two gas streams entering simultaneously

B. Spiral downward and upward gas flow

C. Backflow of solids

D. Turbulent mixing of gases

Answer: B. Spiral downward and upward gas flow

53. Gravity has what level of effect in cyclone separators?

A. Dominant

B. Moderate

C. Minimal

D. Varies significantly

Answer: C. Minimal

54. In a reverse flow cyclone, gas enters:

A. Axially at the bottom

B. Tangentially at the top

C. Radially at the center

D. Axially at the top

Answer: B. Tangentially at the top

55. Cut diameter (x₅₀) refers to the particle size with:

A. 100% removal efficiency

B. 0% removal efficiency

C. 50% probability of capture

D. The largest particle present

Answer: C. 50% probability of capture

56. Which cyclone design offers the highest collection efficiency?

A. Low-pressure drop type

B. High-efficiency design

C. Axial flow cyclone

D. Standard cyclone

Answer: B. High-efficiency design

57. Cyclones work best with:

A. Large, dense particles

B. Fine, light particles

C. Humid gas streams

D. Sticky or oily particulates

Answer: A. Large, dense particles

58. What happens to the gas flow after it reaches the bottom of the cyclone?

A. It exits directly

B. It reverses and flows upward

C. It escapes through a side outlet

D. It continues downward into a trap

Answer: B. It reverses and flows upward

59. In a cyclone, most of the particulate matter is collected at:

A. The vortex finder

B. The cyclone wall

C. The top outlet

D. The cone tip (dust outlet)

Answer: D. The cone tip (dust outlet)

60. Stokes number (Stk₅₀) relates to:

A. Reynolds number of the inlet gas

B. Buoyancy-to-viscosity ratio

C. Centrifugal-to-drag force ratio

D. Particle concentration

Answer: C. Centrifugal-to-drag force ratio

61. Cyclones in series are used to:

A. Reduce the number of cyclones required

B. Minimize turbulence

C. Improve overall collection efficiency

D. Lower equipment costs

Answer: C. Improve overall collection efficiency

62. Cyclones in parallel are used to:

A. Increase cut size

B. Decrease gas flow rate

C. Handle larger gas volumes

D. Eliminate grade efficiency variation

Answer: C. Handle larger gas volumes

63. What is the typical air speed inside a cyclone separator?

A. 2–5 m/s

B. 5–10 m/s

C. 10–20 m/s

D. 20–30 m/s

Answer: C. 10–20 m/s

64. Axial flow cyclones differ from reverse flow in that:

A. They have higher efficiency

B. Gas flows straight through

C. They require more space

D. Solids exit from the top

Answer: B. Gas flows straight through

65. What is Euler number (Eu) used for in cyclone design?

A. Predicting pressure drop

B. Determining x₅₀

C. Sizing dust collectors

D. Evaluating drag force

Answer: A. Predicting pressure drop

66. A cyclone’s total efficiency is the:

A. Maximum theoretical capture rate

B. Sum of drag and centrifugal forces

C. Overall percentage of solids captured

D. Ratio of inlet to outlet gas pressure

Answer: C. Overall percentage of solids captured

67. Impingement separators differ from cyclones by using:

A. Electrostatic plates

B. Physical barriers for impact

C. Centrifugal vortex

D. High-speed gas jets

Answer: B. Physical barriers for impact

68. Which of the following increases cyclone efficiency?

A. Decreasing cyclone diameter

B. Increasing gas viscosity

C. Reducing inlet velocity

D. Enlarging outlet duct

Answer: A. Decreasing cyclone diameter

69. Which application is least suitable for cyclones?

A. Spray-dried particle recovery

B. Removal of fine mist

C. Dust collection in cement plants

D. Solid-solid separation in mining

Answer: B. Removal of fine mist

70. What is the typical range of centrifugal acceleration inside a cyclone?

A. 1–10 G

B. 10–100 G

C. 5–2500 G

D. 1000–5000 G

Answer: C. 5–2500 G