11/03/2025

Code A Phase 1

Aakaskn
Medicall|IT-JEE| Foundatlons
Corporate Office: AESL,3rd Floor, ncuspaze Campus-2, Plot No. 13, SectO1-18,
Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana - 122018, Ph.011-47623456
MM:720 Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25 Test-01A Time: 180 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics: Units &Measurements, Motion in a Staight Line, Motion in a Plane
Chemistry: Amines, Biomolecules, Principles Related to Practical Chemistry
Botany: Ecosystem, Biodiversity and Conservation
Zoology: Animal Kingdom

General Instructions:
Duration of Test is 3 hrs.
The Test consists of 180 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
There are four parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology having 45 questions in each part of equal
weightage.
Each question carries +4 marks. For every wrong response, -1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unanswered/unattempted
questions will be given no marks.
Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
Dark only one circle for each entry.
Dark the circle in the space provided only.
Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white fluid
any other rubbing material on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS

1 In an electric circuit, the power is measured as P= (100 + 2) 3. The error in the measurements which arise due to
W and the voltage is measured as V= (10 + 0.1) V. The hypermetropia in the observer eye is
value of current is
(1) Personal error
(1) (10 + 2.1) A
(2) Least count error
(2) (10 + 0.3) A
(3) Random error
(3) (10+ 0.2) A
(4) Instrument error
(4) (10 + 0.4) A
4. The dimensional formula for-Intensiyx Ara
2 is similar to that
The force on a particle varies as F= . The dimensions Speed

of is (where xis in metre and A, Bare constants)

(1) Coefficient of viscosity
(2) Force

(2)(ML-T (3) Pressure

(4) Angular momentum
(9) (ML-22
(4) |ML 3T2

1
Final Test Series(Pl)·2024- 25 Test-01A

5 The maximum percentage eno in the measurement of time 8 The position-time (x-t) graph showing negative acceleraion
period () of simple pendulum is : (Givern that T°-L
= (100 + 1) cm and g = (10 + 0.1) msé]
(1) 1%
(2) 0.5059% (1)
(3) 1.59%
(4) 1.75%
6. If force (F), velocity (V) and time ( X4
are
fundamental physical quantities, the dimensionschosen as
of energy
(2)
(1) FIM
(2) (F MT-1
(3) (F)M)
(4) [FM?
(3)
7. A person standing on the edge a tower of
throws a stone vertically upwards, the stone height 80 m
the ground near the foot of the tower with areturns and hits
speed of
40/2 ms.The speed of the projection is X.
(take g =10 ms )
(1) 20 m sl (4)

(2) 40 ms-l
(3) 20,2ms
The moticn of a particle .ovir.a along a staighi
(4) 10 ms-1 tine is
described by the equation (x = 8 +3t )where x is in
metre and tis in seconds. The magnitude of velocity v of the
particle when acceleration is zero, is
(1) 2 ms-1
(2) 4 ms-1
(3) 6 msl
(4) 3 ms-1
10. Govind reached the metro station and found
that the
escalator was not working. He walked up the stationary
escalator in time 60 s. On another day, he walked up on
moving escalator and it took him up in 20 s. If he remained
stationary on the moving escalator, then escalator takes him
up in time
(1) 30 s
(2) 40 s
(3) 35 s
(4) 50 s

2
11. A ball is thrown verticaly upward with a certain speed. It 13. A man wants to reach Chandigarh from Delhi in 5 hours
passesthrough the same point at 3seconds and 7 seconds and 30 minutes. The distance between Delhi and
from the start The speed of the projection is Chandigarh is 240 km. He drives from Delhi to midway at
{givcn g = 10 ms-2 an average speed of 40 kim/h and after having lunch, from
midway to Chandigarh at an average speed of 60 km/h.
(1) 60 ms-1 How much time would he get for lunch?
(2)50 n s-i (1) 40 min

(3) 40 ms-l (2) 20 min

(3) 10 min
(4) 70 ms-i
(4) 30min
12. For the following
acceleration-ime
possible velocity-time (v-) graph is
(a-t) graph, the best 14. Apark in the form of asquare has an area of
(100 + 0.4) m.The side of the park is
(1) (10 + 0.02) m
(2) (10 + 0.03) m
(3) (10 + 0.04) m
T
(4) (10 ± 0.3) mn
15. A ball is thrown obliquely from the top of a tower. Then
(1) lis kinetic energy remains constant
(2) Its horizontal component of velocity remains
constant
(3) Its acceleration remains constant
(4) Both (2) and (3)
(1) 16.
A particle whose position vector is
T=3ti +2t°j , is
moving in a xy-plane. The magnitude of acceleration of the
particle at (=1 sii
(1) 6/3 ms2
(2) 3/3 ms-2
(3) 5V ms-2
(2) (4) 6V5 ms-2
17. Given below are two
statements one is labelled as
Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as
A:Angle and strain are dimensionless. Reason (R).
R:Angle has unit while strain has no unit.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
Both Assertion & Reason are true
(1) and the reason is the
(3)
correct explanation of the assertion
T Both
2 (2) the Asserion & Reason are true but the reason is not
correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Asserion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

(4)

3
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25 Test-01A

18. Velocity (v) versus time (0) graph for two particles are given 22. Speed at maximum height of a projectile is of its initial
below.
speed. Its angle of projection from the horizontal is
(1) 60°
A B. (2) 30°
(3) 45°
(4) 37°
Acceleration is constant for 23. A car is moving with a constant velocity of 60 m/s towards
north and a truck is movingwith a constant velocity of 80
(1) A m/s towards east. The magnitude of relative velocity of car
W.r.t. truck will be
(2) B
(3) Both A
and B (1) 50 m/s

(4) Neither Anor B (2) 150 m/s

(3) 200 m/s
19, A particle starts from rest. If acceleration (a)versus time ()
graph is as shown in the figure, then the maximum speed of (4) 100 m/s
the particle will be
24.
a(in m/s)+ Given that y =acos-ga) where t is time in second and
Xand y represent distance in metre. Which of the following
20 is true?
(1) The unit of xis same as that ofq
(2) The unit of x is same as that of p
(3) The unit of tis same as that of g
10 t(in s) (4) The unit of tis same as that of p
(1) 50 m/s 25. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
(2) 100 rnis Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R}
A:A body can have velocity varying in both magnitude and
(3) 60m/s direction but stúllhave constant acceleration.
(4) 120 m/s
R:Acceleration is defined as rate of change of speed with
respect to time.
20. A man crosses a river of width 400 m flowing at 40 m/s in Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
minimum time. If velocity of man in stillwater is 50 m/s, then Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
the displacement of man while he reaches the opposite (1 explanation of (A)
bank of the river is

(1) 80 m (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(2) 8/4 m (3) (A)is true but (R) is false
(3) 80/41Im (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) 10/4I m 26.

21. If the error in the measurement ofradius of a sphere is 3%,

If
|7+B-7-, then the angle between vectors
then the maximum percentage error in the determination of
volume of the sphere will be
A &B is
(1) 60°
(1) 9%
(2) 3%
(2) 30°
(3) 6% (3) 90°

(4) 12% (4) 45°

 S

27. The angutar speed of a fiwheel making 240 32.

'evoluions/miute is Aand B are two co-initial vectors acting at an angle to
each other. The resultant of these two vectors makes
(1) 2r radis
(2) 3n radis angle o with A as shown, Then

(3) 6n radis
(4) ST ad/s
28. Abody is movingwith a unifom speed v in a circular pathof
radius r as shown in figure. T is period of revolution. The
average velociy in section AB is?

A
(1) A VA+ B-2AB cos
(2)/a
siu sin

(1) 4 (3)
(2)

(3)
sin 0

(4) 22 33. A particle starts from the origin at t = 0 with a velocity

29. (10i) ms' and moves in x-y plane with acceleration of
Two vectors are given as i- (2i+sj+sâ)and (2i +25) ns. ien at t=2 3,natch the enteries ncslumn
B-(i+j). Unit vector in the direction of (Ä - 2B) will be Iwith column Il (in Sl unit).

ColumnI BColumn
(1)
a X-coordinate is 02/2
(2)
b.y-coordinate is () 2/53
7+3k
GD24
(3)o C.Speed of the particle is

+5k: d.} Magnitude

particle is
of acceleration of the
(iv)14
(4) /26

30. A bomb is dropped from an aeroplane moving horizontally (1) a(i), bi), c(ii), d(iv)
at constant velocity. If air resistance is not taken into (2) a(i), b(iv), c(üi), d(i)
consideration, then the bomb?
(3) a(i), b(iv), c), d(üi)
(1) Hits the earth exacly below the aeroplane
(4) a(iv), b(ii), c(ii), d(i)
(2) Hits the earth behind the aeroplane
34. A ball is thrown vertically upward and it covers
(3) Hits the earth ahead of the aeroplane Sh distance in last second of its upward motion. If h is
36
(4) Flies with the aeroplane
maximum height, then h is equal to [Given g =10 ms-2)
31. Which of the following is a dimensionless quantity? (1) 36 m
(1) Gravitational constant
(2) 72 m
(2) Speed of light
(3) 54 m
(3) Planck's constant
(4) 1.8 m
(4) Relative density

5
Finl Test Series(P1)-2024-25 Test-01A

35. A ball is projected upward with speed 48 m/s from the 40.
ground. If there is constant alr friction which produces Aparticle is projected with
retardation of 2 ms,then time taken by the ball during its velocity (10i +20j) ms from
the horizontal
downward motion is [g =10 ms) of projectile is ground. If g= 10 m s, the
(x is along ground equation path
of
(1) 4 s andy is vertically upward]
(1) y - 2.z-i 0
(2) 2,3 s
(3) 26 s (2) y= 2r+
(4) 6s (3) y= 2r +
36. The number of
significant figures in mneasurement
0.0400200m is (4) y= 2r
(1) 4 41. In an
(2) 6
experiment, a physical quantity 2 given by
Is calculated with
(3) 2 percentage errors in
measurements of P, Q and R as 2%, 3% and 1%
(4) 3 respectively. The maximum percentage error in Z will be?
37. If x denotes (1) 6%
position of an object at time tasX=5 cost, then
its acceleration is (2) 3%
(1) 5 cos() (3) 2%
(2) -5 cos() (4) 8%
(3) 5 sin(t) 42. A body starts moving from rest
and travels 8 m in 8th
(4) -5 sin() second with constant acceleration, then acceleration of
body is
38. A man standing on the roof a house of height 100
throws a ball horizontally with speed 40 m s
m (1) 1.07 msz
The speed
with w'hich the ball hits the iound is g = 1C ms7 (2) 9.7 ms-2
(1) 40/2 ms! (3) 2.07 ms-2
(2) 60 m s-1 (4) 0.5 ms-2
(3) 60/2 ms' 43. The most uncertain digit in
as 21.47 cm is measurement of length reported
(4) 80 ms
(1) 2
39. Given below are two
statements: one is
labelled as (2) 4
Assertion (A) and the other is
A:The velocity-time graph of labelled
as Reason (R).
a body may be a straight line (3) 1
parallel to the time axis.
R :Area under (4) 7
body.
velocity-time graph gives acceleration
of the
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
Both
Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the
(1)
correct explanation of the assertion
Both
(2) the ASsertion & Reason are true but the reason is not
correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Asserion is true statement but
Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and
Reason are false statements

6
44. The velocity-postion (v-x) relation of a particle noving in
stuaight line is qiven by v = 4x (m s) where x is in mete,
What1s the acceleraton of the particle at .r m?

(i)2ms2
(2) 4 ms2
(3)6ms2
(4)Sms-2
45. Aparticle moving along a circle with constant speed of 20 m
Sextends an angle of 120° in 10 seconds. The average
acceleration of the particle is
(1) 2ms2
(2) 2,3 ms2
(3) 3 ms-2
(4) i ms2

CHEMISTRY

46. Choose the correct option with Fat soluble and Water 50. Given below are the two statements
soluble Vitamin respectively. Statement : Amylose is a long unbranched chain with 200
1000 a-D-(+)-glucose units held by C1-C4 glycosidic
(1)Vitamin E and Vitamin K linkage.
(2) Vita:NAand Riboflavin Statement : Amylope cin is a ianched chair. poiymer
of a-D-glucose units with branching of C1-C4 glycosidic
(3) Pyridoxine and Ascorbic acid linkages
(4) Thiamine and Vitamin D In light of above statements, choose the correct answer
(1) Statement lis correct but statement Il is incorrect
47. Xerophthalmia occurs due todeficiency of
(1) Vitamin A (2) Both statement land statement |lare correct

(2) Vitamin B1 (3) Both statement I and statement Il are incorrect

(4)Statement I is incorrect but statement Il is correct
(3) Vitamin B2
51. Which among the following is a basic amino acid?
(4) Vitamin Be
(1) Leucine
48. Maltose on hydrolysis gives (2) Valine
(1) a-D-glucose + B-D-glucose (3) Threonine
(2) B-D-glucose + B-D-glucose (4) Lysine
(3) -D-fructose + B-D-fructose
52. Which of the following statements is incorrect about
(4) a-D-glucose +a-D-glucose glucose?
49. Consider the following reacions (1) Glucose does not give Schiff's test
INO3 Brz / water
AGlucose -’ B (2) Melting point of a-form of glucose is higher tt an its
B-form
Choose the correct option for A and B respectively
(3) On prolonged heating with HI, c"ucose for i n-hexane
(1) Gluconic acid and sacchari acid
(4) Glucose is an aldohexose
(2) Saccharic acid and gluconic acid
(3) Gluconic acid and gluconic acid
(4) Saccharic acid and saccharic acid

7
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25 Test-01A

53. The sugar moiety in DNA and

RNArespectively are 58. Consider the following reaction
(1)B-D-2-deoxyribose and B-D-ribose NH. NH. NH. NH.
(2) B-D-ribose and B-D-2-deoxyribose HNO. H,SO, NO
(3) a-D-ribose and
a-D-2-deoxyribose 238 K
(4) a-D-2-deoxyribose and NO
a-D-ribose
54. Given beloware the two
statements NO,
Statement I: Complete hydrolysis of DNA yields a pentose A B C
sugar, phosphorus acid and
nitrogeneous
Statement DNA contains four bases viz.
ll: bases. ldentify the correct order for percentage yield of
products A, B and C the
guanine (G), cytosine (C) and uracil (U). adenine (A),
In light of above (1) C > B> A
statements, choose the correct answer
(1) Statement | is (2) A>B> C
correct but statement Il is incorrect
(2) Both stalement Iand
statement |l| are correct (3) B> A>C
(3) Both
statement land statement ll are incorrect (4) B> C>A
(4) Statementl is
incorrect but statement Il is Correct
55. Given below are the two
Statement CH2CNI: statements
on
secondary amine. reduction with LiAIHa gives a
Statement Il: CHaNC on reduction with
primary amine. LiAIHa yields a
In light of above
statements, choose the correct answer
(1) Statementlis correct but statement |Il is
(2) Both incorrect
statementIand statement Il are correct
(3) Both
statement I and statement Il are incorrect
(4)
Steieineris incorreci but staiement Ilis curreci
56. Which the following
aliphaticstatements
a. Primary are incorrect.
highly stable amines react with nitrous acid to give
b. Aliphatic diazonium salts.
and aromatic
with chloroform and secondary amines on heating
ethanolic potassium
isocyanides. hydroxide form
C. Primary
aliphatic amines can be
phthalimide synthesis.
Choose the correct answer from the
synthesised by Gabriel
(1) a and b only options given below
(2) a, b and c
(3) b and c only
(4) a and c only
57. Which of the
following
statements is
benzenesulphonyl
(1) It is
chloride. incorrect for
known as Hinsberg's reagent
(2) On treatment with
insoluble in alkali primary amine, it leads to a product,
(3) It is used to
distinguish between 1°,2° and 3° amines.
4) it does n treact with
tertiary amines.
:IUes(20 st-01A

59. The product of the following reaction sequence is 60. ldentifly the products 'X' and 'Y' respectively for the following
NH. reactin.
u) Acetic anhydr1de/pyrid1ne NO,
() Br. in CH.COOH
’Product
(i) H,0. heat Zn dust LiAIH,
(Major)
aq. NaOH Ether
NHCOCH, Choose the correct option.
(1) Azoxybenzene and azobenzene
(2) Azobenzene and hydrazobenzene
(3) Azobenzene and azoxybenzene
(4) Hydrazobenzene and azobenzene
61, Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Br Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts
NH, reaction
Reason (R):
NH,
(2
+ AICI, ’CH,NH,AICI,"
Br Salt formed in the above reaction acts as a strong
NH, deactivating group
In the light of above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below.
-Br Both (A) and (R) are true ánd (R) is the correct
(1) explanation of (A)
(3)
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(2) explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
Br
(4) (A)is false but (R) is true
Br
62. Which of the following ions on treatment with MnO2 and
conc. H2SO4 is responsible for evolution of light greenish
yellow gas.
(4) (1) NO,
(2) NO,
Br (3) CI
(4) Br

9
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25 Test-01A

63. Which among the following are white

precipitate? 68. How many moles of acidified
a
AgCi FeSO4 can be
b.
C.
PbCrO4
BaSOA
oxidised by two moles of KMnO4? completely
(1) 2
Agi
Choose the correct option (2) 10
(1) a and d only (3) 5
(2) b and conly (4) 8
(3) a, b and d only 69. Consider the following statements.
(4) a andc only Statement I: Nucleoside is
64. Given below are the two base to 1' position of sugar. formed by the
attachment of a
Statement I: NHg gasstatements Statement I|: Nucleotides are joined
reagent gives a brown
on passing
through Nessler's phosphodiester linkage between 5' and 3' together
the pentose suga. carbon atoms of
by
amido-iodine. precipitate
of basic mercury (U) In the light of above
Statement I: PbSOa is statements, choose the correct option.
soluion due to formation of soluble in ammonium acetate (1)
Statement Iis correct but statement ll is
In light of
above statements,tetraacetoplumbate (1) ions.
choose the correct answer (2) Both incorrect
statement l and statement Il are correct
(1)
Statement correct but
| is
statement Il is incorrect (3) Both
statement Iand statement ll are incorrect
(2) Both
statementI and statement Il are correct (4) Statement I is
incorrect but statement ll is correct
(3) Both
statement I and statement ll are 70. Which among the
(4)
Statement lis incorrect but statement Ilincorrect
is correct
gas on treatment withfollowing amines will liberate
nitrous acid? nitrogen
65. Given below are the two (1) (CH3)2NH
statements
Statement Generally, size of
:
from 1-1000 nm. colloidal particle (2) (CH3)3N
ranges
Statementsols.Il: Starch and arsenius
charged (3) CH3CH2NH2
In light oí sulphide are negatively
above statements, chieose the
(1)
Statement correct but statement Il is
I is correct answer
(2) Both
statement land statement ll are correctincorrect (4)
(3) Both
statementland statement Ill are incorrect
(4)
Statement|
is
incorrect but statement ll is H
66. When HTS is correct 71. The
passed through reacion of benzene
bromobenzenediazonium
an
(Z), a white
precipitate is obtained. ammoniacal
(1) Nickel salt
salt
The (Z) can be a solution
HBr to give chloride with CuzBrT
is known as I
(1) Gattermann reaction
(2) Cobalt salt (2) Coupling reaction
(3) Zinc salt (3) Sandmeyer reaction
(4) Manganese salt (4) Balz--Schiemann reaction
67. Consider the following 72. Which of the following will give
(a) It is statements about
known as animal starch glycogen chloroform in the presence of foul smell
(b) Its
structure is
highly branched similar to amylopectin and is rather more (1) N-methylethanamine ethanolic KOHwhen reacts with
(c) It is found in (2) Propan-1-amine
The correct yeast and fungi
statement(s) islare
(1)(a). (b) and (c)
(3) N,N-dimethylmethanamine
(4) 1-nitropropane
(2) (a) only
73. The correct
(3) (a) and (c) only order of boiling points of
(1) Tertiary > isomeric amines is
(4) (b) and (c) only
(2) Secondary >
Secondary > Primary
Primary >Tertiary
(3) Primary >
(4)
Secondary >Tertiary
Secondary > Tertiary >Primary

l0
 green colour 79. Match List-l with List-Il and choose the correct code.
74. Which among the folloNVing ions inparts apple List-I|
List-I
to flame test ? (Deficiency diseases)
(Vitamins)
Convulsions
() sa2 a Thiamine
Muscular weakness
b Pyridoxine (i)
(2) s,2 Ascorbic acid (i) Beriberi
VitaminE (iv) Scurvy

(1) a(i), b(iv), c(), d(i)

(4) Ca2 (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d()
Nag[Fe(CN)gNO] to form a purple
75. Sulphide ion reacts with (3) a(ii), bi), c(iv), d(i)
coloured complex compound (A). In this reaction, oxidation
State of iron (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(), d(1)
B-D-(+)-Glucopyranose are
(1) Changes from +2 to
+3 80. a-D-(+)-Glucopyranose and
+2 (1) Anomers
(2) Changes from +3 to
(2) Epimers
(3) Changes from +2 to +4
(4) Does not change (3) Tautomers
statements (4) Enantiomers
76. Cons1der the following derivative of amino acid labelled as
(a) Thyroxine is an iod1nated two statements one is
81. Given below are reason (R).
tyrosine. carbohydrate metabolism. assertion(A) other is labelled as amines cannot be
(b) Gluco corticoids controlthe Assertion (A): Aromatic primary
molecules that act as intercellular synthesis.
(c) Homones are prepared by Gabriel phthalimide not undergo nucleophilic
messengers.
of thyroxine causes Reason (R): Aryl halides do by phthalimide.
(d) Abnormally low level substitution with the anion formed
statements, choose the most
hyperthyroidism. In the light of above below.
The correct statements are appropriate answer from the option given
(R) is the correct
(1) (a) and (b) only Both (A) and (R) are true and
(1 explanaticnn of (A)
(2) (b). (c) and (d) only
but (R) is not the correct
(3) (a). (b) aind (c) only ro Both (A) and (R) are true
explanation of (A)
(4) (a). (b), (c) and (d)
labelled as (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
two statements: One is
77. Given below are Reason (R). (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
other is labelled as
Assertion (A) and inactive amino acid. order of basic strength for the
Assertion(A): Glycine is an optically carboxylgroup(s) 82. The correct decreasing
of
Reason(R): Glycine has egqual number following compounds is NH COCH,
and amino group(s). the correct NH, CH,NH,
In the light of the
above statements, choose
below:
answer from the options given
correct
true and (R) is the
Both (A) and (R) are
( explanation of (A) (0) (1) (1)
correct
but (R) is not the
Both (A) and (R) are true
(2 explanation of (A) (1) |> | >|||
false (2) IIl >|>||
(3) (A)is true but (R) is
true (3) I| >|> ||
(4) (A) is false but (R) is
hydrogen bonds with (4) |I|> l>|
78. In DNA,adenine forms
(1) Cytosine
(2) Thymine
(3) Guanine
(4) Uracil

11
Final Test Series(Pl1)-2024-25 Test-01A

83. NH. 86. Lassaigne test is not applicable tor the

of nitrogen in case of
qualitative analvss
(1) CsHsNH2
CH3-- NH2 and can be distinguished by using
(1) Br2/H20
(2) Carbylamine test
e CH.-C-NH,
(3) Hinsberg's reagent (3) NH2 - NH2
(4) Tollen's reagent (4) (CH3)2C = N - OH
84, Consider the following reaction 87. Match the catíons given in List Ivwith their
respective grOup
reagent given in List Il
List-i List-l|

Medum ’Orange dye (a)icu2+il) NHaOH in presence of NHACI

Aand medium, respectively are (b)lco2+| (ii) |H2S gas is presence of dil. HCI
(1) Phenol and acidic medium
(c)Ca2+(iii)liH2S is presence of NH4OH
(2) Aniline and acidic medium
(3) Phenol and basic medium |(d)Aj3+ (iv) (NH4)2C03 in presence of NH4OH
(4) Aniline and basic medium Choose the correct option
85. Consider the following reaction (1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-()
NO (2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-i)
(3) (a)-((), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(i)
Sn HCA Br
HOB 0- 5CC06Ho
NaNOSHC: (4) (a)-(i),(b)-(), (c)-(iv), (d)-(0)
c.38. (a)Consider the folowing statements
Lyopñobic sol can be prepared by
Product D is phase and dispersion medium together. mixing dispersed
(b) Lyophobic sols are irreversible sols.
OH (c) Lyophobic sols are stabilised by charge on
particles. colloidal
(1 The correct statements are

(1) (a) and (b) only

Br
(2) (b) and (c) only
OH (3) (a) and (c) only
(2 (4) (a), (b) and (c)

Br
Br Br

(3)

Br
OH
Br. Br
(4)

12
gg Corsider the tollowing two statements.
Statement : On re ating a salt with conc. HzSO4
eycluton of brown fumes which gets ntense on heating
wthcopper turnng indicates the presence of nitrale ion.
Statement I: The colour of nitoso ferrous sulphate is
brow:.
Cheose the corTect opton.
(1) StatementiIS COrect but satement Il is incorrect

(2) Statementlis incorrect but statement Il is correct

(3) Both statementland statementIl are incorrect

(4) Both statementland statement llare correct

90. When dimethyl glyoxime is added to the agueous solution
of nickel chloride in an alkaline medium, it forms a complex
having
(1) Black colour
(2) Red colour
(3) Blue colour
(4) Yellow colour

BOTANY

S4. Rate of decopcsition of octrius is iast when

91. Which of th: iollowing is a stuctural componat of the
ecosystem? (1) It is rich in suberin and chitin
(1) Decomposition Temperature is more than 25°C and environment is
(2) humid
(2) Species composition
(3) Anaerobic condition prevails
(3) Producüvity
(4) It contains lignins, tannins and chitins.
(4) Nutrient cycling
95. Pyramid of biomass is usually inverted in
92. All of the folowing are true for humus, except
(1) Atree ecosystem
(1) Rich in cellulose,lignin and tannins
(2) Colloidal in nature (2) Sea ecosystem
(3) Agro ecosystem
(3) Susceptible to microbialaction
(4) Grassland ecosystem
(4) Slightly acidic in nature
96. Standing crop refers to the
93. Select the incorrect match.
(1) Total primary production of crop field in a period of time
(1) First trophic level- Grass
(2) Mass of livingmaterial in an area at a particular time
(2) Tertiary consumer- Lion food chain
(3) Amount of inorganic substances in a detritus
(3) Secondary consumer -Grasshopper
Total amount of transferable energy from producers to
(4) Reducers - Decomposers (4) primary consumers ina grazing food chain

13
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25 Test-01A

102.0bserve the pie chart given below showing the qlobal

97. An ecosystem refers to
diversity regarding total number of the invertebrate species.
(1 A group of species interacting with each other in Select the correctoption for Xand Y.
terestual environment but not in aquatic environment

An area comprising only physical lactor like

(2 temperature, soil, etc.
The group of living organisms interacting with each
(3) other and their physical environnment
Interaction of only biotic components among themselves
(4) in a particular habitat Y
98. Which of the following is an example of ex situ
Conservation?

(1)Wildlife sanctuary
(2) Biosphere reserve (1) X-Molluscs, Y- Fishes
(2) X-Crustaceans, Y- Insects
(3) Botanical garden
(4) National park (3) X-Insects, Y- Molluscs

99. ldentify the incorrect statement w.r.t biodiversity hotspots (4) X-Crustaceans, Y- Molluscs
When all the biodiversity hotspots put together, they 103.The historic convention "The Earth Summit held in 1992
(1) cOver less than 2% of eath's land area was called upon all the natons to take appropriate
measures for
(2) Initially 25 biodiversity hotspots were identified
Conservation of biodiversity and sustainable utilisation
They are the richest and least threatened reservoir of (1 of its benefits
(3) plant and animal life on earth
Reducing greenhouse gas emission and global
Strict prote ction of the hotspots can reduce the ongoing (2
(4) mass extinction by almost 30% warming
100.ldentify the incorrect match W.r.t. the extinct animal and the (3)
Reducing release of persistent organic pollutant in
place wt.ere tiey were found. atmocphere.
Ex situ Conservation of endangered species of wild flora
(1) Thylacine Australlia (4) and fauna
(2), Dodo Mauritius
Africa
104.In the given equation of species-area relationship
(3) Quagga log S=log C +Zlog A, 'Z' stands for
(4) Clarias gariepinus Russia
(1) Species richness
(1) (1) (2) Regression coeficient
(2) (2) (3) Y-intercept
(3) (3) (4) Area of the habitat
(4) (4)
105.By long-term ecosystem experiments using outdoor plots,
101.The term that describes the species that are at risk of who found that a habitat with more species show less year
extinction in the wild in the near future is to year variations in the total biomass?
(1) Exinct species (1) David Tilman
(2) Endangered species (2) Paul Ehrlich
(3) Vuinerable species (3) Alexander von Humboldt
(4) Endemic species (4) Edward Wilson
106.According to an analogy 'Rivet popper Hypothesis' used
Paul Ehrlich, "passengers starts popping a rivet to take
home
What loes it infer w.r.t. ecosystem?
(1) 31 ibilisation of ecosystem
(2) Extinction of species
(3) Expansion of species
(4) Immigration of species into the ecosystem

14
 correct
captured by plants? 113. Read the tollowing statements and select the
107.14hai percentage of PAR Is option.
Statement A : Gross prinary productivity of an ecosystem
(1) More than 50 0s the rate of production of organic matter
during
(2) 50°% photosynthesis.
is the available
Statement B: Net primary productivity herbivores
3) 20-40% and
biomass for the consumption to
(4) 2-109% cdecomposers.
energy in the fom of sunlight has (1) Only statement A is Correct
108.n an ecosystem, 100 kJ the first trophic level of
fallen on the organism that occupiesenergy will be utilised by (2) Only statement B is correct
that
a tood chain. What amount of biolog1cal activities which correct
the organism tor its different (3) Both the statements A and B are
level?
0ccupies the second trophic (4) Both the statements A
andB are incorrect

(1)0.009 kJ following are the characteristics of man

114. Which amongst the
(2) 0.9 kJ made ecosystems?
nutrients
a. Abundant cycling of
(3) 9 kJ b.Simple food chain
(4)0.09 kJ C. Little diversity
d. Low productivity
terms of energy is
109.The unit of primary production in The correct ones are

(1) Only a and b

(1)gmy1
(2) Only b and c
(2) kcal m-2
(3) Only c and d
(3) g-2 (4) Only a and d
(4) (kcal m-'y2 energy is as follows
115. In an ecosystem, flow of
’Herbivores ’ B
110.Ecological pyramid does not accommodate all,
except Solar radiation -A option for A and B.
Fill in the blankS With suitable opu
(1) Food web
(2) InsccivGrGUS plants Secondary carnivores
(1)|Decomposer
(2)Primary carnivoreSecondary carnivores
(3) Saprophytes
Secondary consumers
(4) Herbivores (3)|Producers
reserves is (4)Primary consumer Tertiary consumer
111. Buffer zone in biosphere
comprises an undisturbed and
Natural zone which (1) (1)
(1) legally protected ecosystem
biosphere reserve (2) (2)
(2) Outermost part of the
greater research and (3) (3)
Managed to accommodate a
(3) educational activities (4) (4)
evaluate the net primary
(4) Human setiement zone 116.Select the correct expression to
productivity
area depends on
112. Primary productivity of an of plants (1) GPP= NPP- R
capacity
a. Photosyntheticinhabitingthat area
b. Plant species (2) NPP= GPP/R
C. Availability of nutrients factors (3) NPP= GPP-R
d. Variety of environmental
The correct ones are (4) NPP= GPP x R
(1)Only a and b inhabiting an area,
117.Regarding the number of birds species
following representation is correct?
(2)CilyC and d which of the
Greenland
(3) Onlyb, c and d (1) New York > India >
(4) Alla, b, c and d (2) Colombia > Greenland > India
(3) India > New York > Colombia
(4) Colombia > New York > Greenland

15
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25 Test-01A

118.Species diverSity 121.Read the following stalements and select the correct
(1) ls diversity of a species at genetic level option.
Statement A: A stable community should not show too
(2) Is diversity of species within aregion much variation in productivity from year to year.
(3) Play a key role in process ofspeciation Statement B: The relation between species richness and
area for a wide variety of taxa turns out to be rectangular
(4) Enables a population to adapt to its environment hyperbola.
119.Read the following statements and state them as true (T) or (1) Only statement A is correct
false (F).
A. India with only 2.4% of the (2) Only statement B is correct
world's land area possesses
8.1% species diversity of the world. (3) Both
B. Only about 50,000 statements A and B are correct
found in whole world. genetically different strains of rice are (4) Bothstatements A and B are incorrect
C. The biodiversiy decreases when we move from low to
high latitude. 122.Regarding the causes of biodiversity losses, which one of
the following is not considered amongst'The Evil
A B C Quartet'?
(1) T (1) Alien species invasions
(2) T (2) Over-exploitation
(3) T (3) Co-evolution
(4) (4) Co-extinctions
(1) (1) 123.Dachigam
the famous
National Park, Jammu and Kashmir is home to
(2) (2)
(1) Musk deer
(3) (3)
(4) (4) (2) Tiger
120. (3) Lion
(4) Rhino

0-089 124.Trophic levels represents

C-069,(1)Food web
(2 Vertical distribution of different species of same
nutritional habit
Produce
(3) Only producers in food
chain
Which of the following does not hold Each
ecological pyramid? true for the given (4) place. level in food chain where transfer of energy takes
a. Represents the flowof
b. Represents the amountenergy
in a pond ecosystem.
of biomass at each 125.The bottom strata in a forest
in a lake ecosystem when trophic level ecosystem is occupied by
C. Represents the numberproducers are phytoplanktons.
of individuals at each trophic
(1) Shrubs and trees
level in a forest ecosystem. (2) Trees only
d. Cannot represent number of individuals at each trophic
level in a tree ecosystem. (3) Herbs and shrubs only
e. Cannot represent the flow of (4) Herbs and grasses
ecosystem. energy in a grassland
Choose the correct option. 126.In the ecological pyramid of
(1) b and d has the highest amount of energy, the trophic level that
energy is occupied by
(2) C, d and e (1) Tertiary consumers
(2) Secondary consumers
(3) a, cand d
(4) b and e (3) Primary consumers
(4) Primary producers

16
127.kiany speces exunciODS last 500 years Were due to 132.Read the following statements and select the incorrect
which of the
1aNnloitation by h!mans. This is true for one,

ollowing species? (1) Total number of biodiversity hotspot in the world is 34,
(2)Nile perch At the ecosystem level, India has agrealer ecosystem
(2) diversity than a Scandinavian country like Norvway.
(2) Eichhoua
Amazon rain forest is estimated to produce 20 percentof
(3) Afncancatt:s: (3) the total oxygen in the earth's atmosphere.
(4) Steller s sea cow Biodiversity hotspots are characterised by high levels of
mater by consumers (4) species richnesS and lack of endemism.
128.The rate of formation of new organic
133.How many of the following are considered to be narrowly
(1) Primary productivity utilitarian ecosystem services?
Oxygen, Pollination, Food, Firewood, Drugs, Flood controi,
(2) Netprimary productivity Aesthetic pleasure, Industrial products, Erosion control.
(3) Gross primary productivity (1) Two
(4) Secondary productivity (2) Five
how many species of
129.According to IUCN red list (2004),species? (3) Four
plants were doCumented as extinct (4) Three
(1) 359 (T) or false (F) and
134.State the following statements as true
select the correct option.
(2) 338 population to adapt to its
A. Genetic diversity enables a
(3) 87 environment.
B. Among the animals,
insects are the most species rich
(4) 78 taxonomic group.
and cho0se the correct rain forest has the greatest
130.Read the following statements C. Tropical amazonian
option. biodiversity on earth.
Assertion (A): Biologists arenot sure about how many
be. ABC
prokaryotic species there might
taxonomic methods are not
Reason (R): Conventional (1) F TF
srecies.
suitable or dtifying microbial (2) T F T
(R) is correct explanation
Both (A) and (R) are true and
(1) of (A) (3) T TT
(R) is not the correct
Both (A) and (R) are true but (4) F FF
(2) explanation of (A)
(1) (1)
(3) (A)is true but (R) is false
(2) (2)
(4) Both (A)and (R) are false
option.
and select the correct (3) (3)
131.Match the following columnns
Column-l Column-ll (4) (4)
animals
a. Grasses (i) Key industry 135.Read the following statements:
we move away from the
b. Cows (i) Secondary consumers I. Species diversity decreases as
Transducers equator towards the poles.
C. Snakes (ii) Converters or has up to 10 times as many
primary and secondary consumer II. A forest in a temperate region forest of equal area in a
d. Sparrow (iv) Both species of vascular plants as a
tropical region.
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) temperate ones, are less
III. Tropical environments, unlike
more constant and predictable.
(2) a(ii),b(), c(iv), d(ii) seasonal, relatively
biodiversity, the correct ones are
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(ii), d(iv) Regarding pattern of
(1) Iand Il only
(4) a(), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(2) ll and l pnly
(3) |and Ill or y
(4) All I, Iland Ill

17
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25 Test-01A

ZOOLOGY

136.Select the odd one W..t, organisms formed from three germ 141.In brittle star, water vascular system helps in
layers. . Locomotion
(1) Planana b. Capture and transport of food
C. Respiration
(2) Physalia Choose the correct option.
(3) Pheretima (1) a and c only
(4) Psittacula (2) a, b and c
137.Sexual reproduction and indirect development is seen in (3) b and c only
(1) Pleurobrachia (4) a and b only
(2) Chelone
142.How many organism(s) mentioned the box below islare
(3) Labeo bilaterally symmetrical coelomate(s) that perform(s) external
(4) Pteropus fertilisation and exhibit(s) indirect development?
Euspongia, Gorgonia, Taenia, Ancylostoma, Ascaris,
138.Circulatory system which is devoid of blood Locusta, Saccoglossus
characterised by the pumping of the blood out ofcapillaries,
the heart Select the correct option.
which bathe the cells as well as tissues directly, present in
all of the following organisms, (1) Four
except
(1) Saccoglossus (2) Three
(2) Culex (3) Two
(3) Chaetopleura (4) One
(4) Myxine 143.Choose the correct statement.
139.Select the inc orrect option w.r.iletworms. (1) Allporifers are asymmetrical.
(1) Mostly endoparasites (2) All cnidarians exhibit alternation of generation.
(2) Dors0-ventrally flattened body (3) All arthropods are
oviparous.
(3) Tissue level of body organisation (4) All vertebrates are chordates.
(4) Exhibit internal fertilisation 144.Assertion (A): Pearl oyster exhibits true metamerism.
Reason (R): Their body is externally and internally divided
140.Match column | with column I| W.r.t. organisms and their into segments with a serial repetition of some
excretory structures. In the light of above organs.
statements, choose the correct option.
Column Column Il Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(1) correct
a.Liver fluke 0) Malpighian tubules explanation of (A)
b.Earthwormi(ii) Flame cells (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
C. Butterfly (ii) Nephridia (3) (A) is true; (R) is false
d. Toad () | Kidneys (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
Select the correct option. 145.Aedes, Ancylostoma and Aplysia are similar to each other
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(ii) as they all have a

(2) a(ii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (1) Body cavity that is completely lined by mesoderm
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(i), d(iv) (2) Well-developed circulatory system
(3) Ventral heart
(4) a(ii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(4) Similar level of body organisation

18
 -2.24-25 TeSt-Cls

have crop and qizzard in

152.The correct pair of organisms that
organisms, any plane paSSing their digestive tracts is
hich of ttie foliowing the organism
146.In
throua the central axiS of the body, divides (1) Corvus and Rana
halves?
intotwo Identicai
Sepia
a. Larae of ofCucumaria (2) Periplaneta and Pavo
form
D. Adult (3) Culex and lchthyophis
c. Adult iorm of Ctenoplana Myxine
Þ. Adult form of
Meandrina
(4) Aptenodytes and between
Larvae of Echinus features is common
e 153.Which of the following
Select the correct cption. Balanoglossus and Echinus?
( ) a. b and c of proboscis, collar and trunk
(1) Body is composed
(2) b,c and d body organisation
(2) Only organ level of
(3) c. d and e exclusively in marine habitat
(3) Resides
(4) Closed circulatory systerm
(4) b, d and e
except organisms that
organisms are dioecious, represents the setof
147.A!l of the oiven 154.Select the option which phylum.
same
(1) Sea urchin do not beiong to the
Euspongia
(2) Sea walnut (1)Spongilla, Sycon,
(2) Meandrina,
Adamsia,Physalia
(3) Sea lily
Taenia, Fasciola
(4) Sea cucumber (3) Planaria,
Wuchereria, Hirudinaria
statements: all (4) Ancylostoma,
148.Read the following tetrapods are gnathostomes but and noticed the
Statement A: All zoologist discovered a new animal
tetrapods. 155.A
gnathOstomeS are not vertebrates but all following features
B: All gnathostomes are tentacles
Statement gnath0stomes. i. Head has
vertebrates are not ii. Shell is present
option. contains radula be
Choose the correct iii. Mouth the animal should
correct basis of the above features,
statements A and B are On the
(1) Both
incorrect #he phylurno
classified Jrnde
statements A and B are
(2) Both (1) Aschelminthes
statement A is correct
(3) Only (2) Echinodermata
B is correct
(4)Only statemnent
marine animals which (3) Arthropoda
and are exclusively
skin. (4) Mollusca
149. placoid scales in theirrespective blanks.
possess minute to fillin the
correct option is responsible for
Choose the 156.Statocyst present in prawn
Pleurobrachia
(1)Myxine and (1) Balance
Exocoetus
(2) Scoliodon and (2) Vision
Pterophylum
(3) Chelone and (3) Taste
and Scolidon
(4) Carcharodon (4) Auditory response
thrOughout the life in selecting correct option.
150.Notochord is persistent 157.Complete the analogy by fertilization
fertilization : Periplaneta :: External
Doliolum Internal
(1) Ascid1a and
Salpa
(2) Petromyzon and
and Pristis (1) Fascíola
(3)Branchiostoma
Branchiostoma (2) Wuchereria
(4) Claias and
w.r.Ithe given organisms. (3) Euspongia
151.Choose the incorrect match
pumps out mixed blood (4) Ctenoplana
(1) Hyla - Ventricle f
exhibit cra ing mode
Naja - Shed its skin and
(2) |ocomotion
supplementrespiration
(3) Psittacula- Air sacs
possesses beak and
Pleropus Flying mammal that
(4)
wings

19
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25 Test-01A

158.How many paits of qll slits are found ncyclostomes?

163.Which of the following is not tlie function of hind lmbs in
(1) 3 - 4 pairs birds?
(2) 6 - 15 pairs
(1) Flying
(3) 1 - 2 pairs
(2) Walking
(4) 15- 20 pairs
(3) Swimming
159.Choose the organism for which all of the below listed (4) Clasping
characternstics are true.
() Presence of air 164.An animal belonging
(i) Curved ta1l
bladder a taxon which includes nost
primitive craniates is
(u) Presence of long snout
(iv) Bony endoskeleton (1) Myxine
Select the correct option. (2) Pristis
(1) Hippocampus (3) Clarias
(2) Catla
(4) Ascidia
(3) Scoliodon
165.All of the following are
(4) Pristis skin and poikilotherms possessing cornified
epidermal scales, except
160.A general character shared by both (1) Chelone
Chameleon and Rana (2) Corvus
(1) Moist skin without scales
(3) Chameleon
(2) Three-chambered heart (4) Calotes
(3) External fertilisation
166.Select the fish which is capable of
(4) Viviparity current that can paralyse the prey: generating strong electric
161.In an animal belonging to the 'X', (1) Trygon
in larval tail while in the notochord is
animal belonging to present only (2) Hippocampus
persistert the Y', it is
region.
th:uughout their life exending from heac to tail 3) Torpedo
Select the correct option w.r.t. 'X' and Y. (4) Pristis
X
(1) Subphyum 167.Assertion (A): Struthio and Salamandra can requlate their
Urochordata Division- body temperature as per the
ambient environment.
(2) Division
Cephalochordata Reason (R):The members belonging to the class Amphibia
and Aves are homeotherms.
Protochordata Division-Urochordata In the light of above
(3) Class statements, choose the correct option.
Cyclostomata Sub-Class-Protochordata (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
(4) Subphylum Subphylum
Urochordata Cephalochordata (2 Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
explanation of (A) correct
(1) (1) (3) (A) is true; (R) is false
(2) (2) (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
162.Select the correct match w.r.t. the
taxonomic position of
lamprey.
(1) Phylum: Vertebrata
(2) Sub-phylum : Gnathostomata
(3) Division : Agnatha
(4) Super class: Cyclostomata

20
 . e s i Seies(j Test-Cit

172.Choose the correct statement.

represent four animals. Select the
168.The figures given below Common characteristic of can fly.
correct answer with respect to a (1) All birds possess pneumatic bones and
two of these animals.
(2) Allplatyheiminths show indirect development.
head
All amphibians have their body divided into only
(3) and trunk.
body.
(b) (4) All fresh water fishes have streamlined
a)
differentiated
173.Members of the class Chondrichthyes can be
class Osteichthyes in al! of the
from the members of
following features, except,

(1) Absence of air bladder

(2) Presence of claspers in males
(3) Absence of operculum
(c) (d)
(4) Presence of paired pectoral fins
below,
organisms given in the box
174.In how many of the gills?
respiration takes place through
Pterophylum,
(1) (a)and (c) are
metamerically segmented |Saccoglossus, Ophiura,Laccifer, Loligo,
cnidoblasts for self-defence |Aligator
(2) (b) and (d) have Select the correct option.
true coelom
(3) (c) and (d) possess a (1) Three
symmetrical
(4) (a) and (b)are radially (2) Four
organisms have a complete digestive
169.Al of the following (3) Two
system, except
(4) Five
(1) Flatworm and its members.
175.Complete the analogy w.r.t. phylum
Second largest phtum :
(2) Sea urchin Largest phylum.: Culex
(3) Say fish
Select the correct option.
(4) Devil fish
(1) Dentalium
features/tacts.
170.Given below are some
gills. (2) Ophiura
(1) It respires by book fossils.
(ü) It is one of the living (3) Nereis
(üi) It has jointed appendages.
facts/teatures are true for
Allthe above (4)Echinus
(1) Laccifer 176.Given below is a list of features:
(i) Ear is represented by tympanum.
(2) Locusta (i) Oviparity is seen.
(3) Limulus (ii) Eyes have eyelids.
(iv)Skin is moist without scales. with members of
(4) Loligo The above given features are associated
W.r.t. scientific and common
171.Match column Iwith column Il class
names of the organisms.
(1) Osteichthyes
Column Column Il
() Garden lizard
(2) Chondrichthyes
a. Chelone
(i)Wall lizard (3) Amphibia
b. Testudo
(ii); Tutle (4) Reptilia
C. Chameleon
pigeon, camel and
d. Calotes (iv) Tortoise 177.What is the common feature among
platypus ?
e. Hemidac lus (v)Tree lizard
elect the c rect option. (1) Allexhibit oviparity
(1) a(iv), bt: ,c(v), d(i), e(ii) (2) Allexhibit homeothermy
(2) a(ii), b v), ci), d(v), e(ii) (3) All have jawless mouth
circulaion
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(v), d(), e(i) (4) Allshow incomplete double
(4) a(iv). b(i), co), d(v), e()

21
Final Test Series(P)-2024-25 Test-01A

178.The biological name of gieat white shatk is 180.Consider the following statements
Statement A: Hag-fish is a jawBess true fish that emIgrate
(1) Pterophyilum to ivers for spawning.
(2) Carcharodon Statement B: In annehds. the neural system consIsts of
paired gangla connected by lateral nerves to a Single
(3) Aptenodytes ventral nerve cord.
(4) Balaenoptera Choose the correct option.
179.What is not true about Balanoglossus, Pinctada and (1) Both statements AandBare incorrect
Lacciter?
(2) Both statements A and B are correct
All possess dorsal, hollow and single central nevous (3) Only statement A is correct
(1) system

(2) All possess bilateral (4) Only statement B is correct

symmetry
(3) All possess a true coelom
(4) All possess organ-system level of body organisation