Questions Bank

Mediated by

MedZone Team
1. What is edema?
a.Excessive blood flow to an area
b.Accumulation of fluid in tissues
c.Decreased blood flow to tissues
d.Inflammation of blood vessels
2. What causes hyperemia?
a.Decreased blood flow
b.Increased blood flow
c.Fluid leakage from vessels
d.Blood clot formation
3. Which of the following is a common cause of pulmonary
congestion?
a.Heart failure
b.Dehydration
c.Anemia
d.Hypertension
4. What is the primary difference between hyperemia and
congestion?
a.Hyperemia involves increased blood flow; congestion
involves decreased
b.blood flow.
c.Hyperemia is a passive process; congestion is an
active process.
d.Hyperemia is due to inflammation; congestion is due to
obstruction.
e.Hyperemia is chronic; congestion is acute.
5. Which condition is most likely to result in edema?
a.Hypertension
b.Liver cirrhosis
c.Asthma
d.Myocardial infarction
6. What is a common symptom associated with edema?
a.Palpitations
b.Swelling in the affected area
c.Increased urine output
d.Chest pain
7. What is the mechanism behind the congestion observed
in congestive heart failure?
a.Decreased venous return
b.Increased venous pressure
c.Increased cardiac output
d.Increased oxygen delivery
8. Which condition is most commonly associated with
pulmonary congestion?
a.Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
b.Heart failure
c.Pulmonary embolism
d.Asthma
9. What is the primary pathological effect of chronic passive
congestion in the liver?
a.Hepatic steatosis
b.Cirrhosis
c.Nutmeg liver appearance
 d.Hepatitis
10. Which of the following can lead to localized venous
congestion?
a.Myocardial infarction
b.Deep vein thrombosis
c.Hypertension
d.Aortic regurgitation
11. What is a typical feature of acute congestion?
a.Chronic fibrosis
b.Gradual tissue change
c.Rapid onset of swelling
d.Increased vascular resistance
12. Chronic congestion often leads to which of the following
complications?
a.Hemorrhage
b.Edema
c.Infarction
d.All of the above
13. Which of the following is NOT a sign of chronic
congestion?
a.Hepatomegaly
b.Dependent edema
c.Acute pain
d.Cyanosis
14. Virchow's triad include the following EXCEPT:
a.Endothelial injury.
b.Alterations in normal blood flow.
c.Vascular wall injury.
 d.Hypercoagulability
15. Mural thrombus is thrombus of
a.Portal vein
b.Capillaries
c.Cardiac valves.
d.Cardiac chambers.
16. Propagation can occur in thrombosis of:
a.Renal artery.
b.Leg veins.
c.Vegetations.
d.Aorta
17. The major source of pulmonary emboli is
a.Mural thrombi complicating myocardial infarcts of left
side of heart.
b.Deep leg vein thrombi.
c.Portal vein thrombi
d.Thrombi overlying arterial ulcerated atherosclerotic
plaques.
18. In systemic embolism, the emboli are commonly
impacted in
a.Lower extremities and CNS arteries.
b.Lower extremities and CNS veins.
c.Lung arteries.
d.Lung veins
19. Transudation may occur due to the following EXCEPT:
a.Increased intravascular hydrostatic pressure.
b.Increased intravascular oncotic pressure.
c.Lymphatic obstruction
 d.Renal salt & water retention
20. A cholecystectomy specimen is examined fresh in the
laboratory. It shows a large impacted gallstone in the
neck. Fundus of the gallbladder shows engorgement of
blood vessels on external surface. This is most likely due
to:
a.A malignant process
b.Hyperemia
c.Congestion due to obstruction to outflow of blood
d.Chronic inflammation
21. Which of the following is the least important risk factor
for development of thrombus?
a.Smoking
b.Antithrombin III deficiency
c.Disseminated malignancy
22. Which of the following regarding arterial thrombi is
TRUE?
a.It typically creates a long cast of vessel lumen with a
propagational long tail,
b.The tail of thrombi often breaks off & embolizes to
distal sites
c.Most common sites are cerebral, coronary & femoral
arteries
d.Mural thrombi is most commonly found in the femoral
artery
23. Thrombosis due to hypercoagulability is seen in:
a.Severe trauma or burns
b.Cardiac failure
 c.Women taking oral contraceptives
d.All of the above
24. Which of the following being is the most frequent site of
thrombus?
a.hepatic vein
b.Pulmonary vein
c.Portal vein
d.Veins of lower extremities
25. What is the primary characteristic of arterial thrombosis
compared to venous thrombosis?
a.It usually occurs in the lower extremities.
b.It is more associated with atherosclerotic plaques.
c.It is less likely to lead to ischemic necrosis.
d.It predominantly occurs due to stasis.
26. In which scenario would the presence of a "pale
thrombus" most likely be observed?
a.During acute venous thromboembolism
b.In atherosclerotic arterial occlusion
c.Following stasis in a large vein
d.After a myocardial infarction
27. Which of the following components is NOT typically
associated with the formation of a venous thrombus?
a.Fibrin
b.Platelets
c.Red blood cells
d.Smooth muscle cells
28. Which of the following best describes the composition of
a "red thrombus" typically found in venous thrombosis?
 a.High fibrin content with few red blood cells
b.Predominantly red blood cells with a network of fibrin
c.Platelet-rich with minimal fibrin
d.Composed mainly of white blood cells
29. In the context of arterial thrombosis, what is the
primary cellular component that leads to the formation of
the thrombus?
a.Platelets
b.Erythrocytes
c.Leukocytes
d.Fibrinogen
30. Which of the following best differentiates
phlebothrombosis from thrombophlebitis?
a.Phlebothrombosis involves inflammation of the vein
wall.
b.Thrombophlebitis is characterized by the presence of a
thrombus without inflammation.
c.Phlebothrombosis typically occurs in superficial veins,
while thrombophlebitis occurs in deep veins.
d.Thrombophlebitis involves inflammation of the vein
wall along with thrombus formation.
31. Which of the following is a common risk factor for both
phlebothrombosis and thrombophlebitis?
a.High-intensity
b.Prolonged immobility
c.Use of anticoagulants
d.Low body mass index
32. In which location is phlebothrombosis most commonly
found?
a.Superficial veins of the arm
b.Deep veins of the legs
c.Coronary arteries
d.Pulmonary arteries
33. Which of the following best describes how alterations in
blood flow contribute to thrombosis as per Virchow's
triad?
a.Increased blood flow enhances fibrinolysis.
b.Stasis and turbulence in blood flow promote clot
formation.
c.Faster blood flow reduces platelet aggregation.
d.Altered flow only affects arterial circulation, not
venous.
34. What type of blood flow alteration is typically observed
in cases of atherosclerosis?
a.Increased laminar flow
b.Turbulent flow at the site of plaque formation
c.No change in blood flow dynamics
d.Complete cessation of blood flow
35. Which of the following factors can lead to endothelial
injury?
a.Chronic hypertension
b.Hypotension
c.Anemia
d.All of the above
36. Which of the following outcomes is most commonly
associated with an organized thrombus?
a.Embolization
b.Resolution
c.Recanalization
d.Hemorrhage
37. What is the primary mechanism through which a
thrombus can resolve spontaneously?
a.Fibrinolysis
b.Increased blood flow
c.Platelet aggregation
d.Anticoagulant therapy
38. What is the most common histopathological finding in
the liver due to chronic congestion
a.Steatosis
b.Centrilobular necrosis
c.Sinusoidal dilatation and hemorrhage
d.Fibrosis
39. In chronic lung congestion, which of the following is a
typical pathological finding in lung tissue?
a.Eosinophilic infiltration
b.Bronchial hyperplasia
c.Fibrotic changes
d.Alveolar edema
40. Which of the following microscopic features is most
characteristic of chronic lung congestion?
a.Neutrophilic infiltration
b.Alveolar edema
 c.Hemosiderin-laden macrophages (heart failure cells)
d.Granulomatous inflammation
41. What is an embolism?
a.A type of blood clot that forms in the heart
b.An obstruction in a blood vessel caused by a foreign
substance
c.An inflammation of the blood vessels
d.D.A narrow of the blood vessels
42. Which of the following is a common type of embolus?
a.Bacterial embolism
b.Fat embolism
c.Air embolism
d.All of the above
43. In fat embolism syndrome, fat globules typically
originate from:
a.Adipose tissue
b.Bone marrow
c.Muscle
d.Liver
44. Which of the following can lead to an air embolism?
a.Intravenous therapy
b.Surgery
c.Diving accidents
d.All of the above
45. Which of the following conditions is most commonly
associated with systemic embolism originating from the
heart?
a.Aortic dissection
 b.Myocardial infarction
c.Pulmonary hypertension
d.Endocarditis
46. What is the most common site for a systemic embolus to
lodge in the body?
a.Brain
b.Kidney
c.Spleen
d.Lung
47. What is the most common source of pulmonary
embolism?
a.Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
b.Atrial fibrillation
c.Cardiac arrhythmias
d.Atherosclerosis
48. In the context of systemic embolism, what does the
term "paradoxical embolism" refer to?
a.An embolus that moves to a different location after
treatment
b.An embolus that travels through a patent foramen
ovale or other septal defect
c.An embolus that forms in the venous system but
causes arterial obstruction
d.An embolus that dissolves spontaneously
49. In patients with endocarditis, what is the most common
type of embolus?
a.Non-septic emboli
b.Fat globules
 c.Air bubbles
d.Septic emboli
50. What is amniotic fluid embolism (AFE)?
a.A condition resulting from amniotic fluid leakage
b.An obstruction of blood vessels by amniotic fluid
components
c.An infection of the amniotic sac
d.A complication during labor
51. What is the most common cause of acute limb
ischemia?
a.Atherosclerosis
b.Embolism
c.Vasospasm
d.Thrombosis
52. Which condition is most commonly associated with
chronic limb ischemia?
a.Diabetes mellitus
b.Atrial fibrillation
c.Hypertension
d.Deep vein thrombosis
53. Which of the following is a key risk factor for developing
chronic ischemia?
a.Sedentary lifestyle
b.Regular exercise
c.High dietary fiber intake
d.Low cholesterol levels
54. What is an infarction?
a.An abnormal growth of tissue
 b.A type of inflammation
c.Alocalized area of tissue death due to inadequate
55. What is the primary cellular response to ischemia
leading to infarction?
a.Apoptosis
b.Hyperplasia
c.Necrosis
d.Regeneration
56. What is the characteristic histological feature of an area
of myocardial infarction?
a.Granulomatous inflammation
b.Coagulative necrosis
c.Caseous necrosis
d.Liquefactive necrosis
57. Which of the following best describes the difference
between a red (hemorrhagic) infarct and a white (anemic)
infarct?
a.Red infarcts occur in solid organs, while white infarcts
occur in the lungs.
b.Red infarcts are associated with venous occlusion,
while white infarcts are due to arterial occlusion.
c.White infarcts are caused by thrombosis; red infarcts
by embolism.
d.Red infarcts are typically seen in well-perfused
tissues; white infarcts in poorly perfused tissues.
58. What distinguishes a red (hemorrhagic) infarct from a
white (anemic) infarct?
a.The type of tissue affected
 b.The mechanism of infarction
c.The presence of blood in the infarcted area
d.The size of the infarct
59. Which type of infarct typically occurs in tissues with
dual blood supply?
a.Red infarct
b.White infarct
c.Neither type
d.Both types
60. What is gangrene?
a.Death of tissue due to loss of blood supply
b.A type of infection
c.C.A benign tumor
d.Inflammation of the tissue
61. Which type of gangrene is characterized by the
presence of bacterial infection and often occurs in the
presence of underlying disease, such as diabetes?
a.Dry gangrene
b.Wet gangrene
c.Gas gangrene
d.Dry and wet gangrene
62. Which clinical finding is most characteristic of wet
gangrene?
a.Foul odor and swelling
b.Black, mummified tissue
c.Painless skin lesions
d.Dry, shriveled appearance
63. Which type of gangrene is often associated with chronic
diseases such as atherosclerosis?
a.Gas gangrene
b.Dry gangrene
c.Wet gangrene
d.Fournier's gangrene
64. What is a common complication of untreated gangrene?
a.Amputation
b.Scarring
c.Hyperglycemia
d.Chronic pain
65. What is shock?
a.A sudden emotional disturbance
b.A life-threatening condition of inadequate tissue
perfusion
c.An allergic reaction
d.A type of infection
66. In septic shock, what is the primary underlying
mechanism?
a.Pulmonary embolism
b.Direct cardiac injury
c.Systemic vasodilation and increased permeability
d.Decreased cardiac output
67. Which of the following is a common early sign of shock?
a.Bradycardia
b.High blood pressure
c.Warm, dry skin
d.Confusion
68. Which type of shock is associated with spinal cord
injury leading to loss of sympathetic tone?
a.Neurogenic shock
b.Anaphylactic shock
c.Cardiogenic shock
d.Septic shock
69. What is the classic clinical sign of hypovolemic shock?
a.Warm, flushed skin
b.Bradycardia
c.Hypertension
d.Cold, clammy skin
70. Which of the following is NOT a common cause of
cardiogenic shock?
a.Arrhythmias
b.Heart failure
c.Severe dehydration
d.Myocardial infarction
71. What physiological response is triggered in the body
during shock?
a.Vasodilation
b.Increased heart rate
c.Decreased respiratory rate
d.Decreased blood glucose levels
72. Gangrene where natural amputation can occur:
a.Moist gangrene
b.Intestinal gangrene.
c.Senile gangrene
d.Diabetic gangrene.
73. Dry Gangrene is characterized by:
a.Affects internal organs
b.Rapid putrefaction
c.Well-developed line of demarcation & line of
separation.
d.Severe toxemia.
74. What type of gangrene is likely to be caused by poor
arterial circulation within an area of the body?
a.Gas gangrene
b.Dry gangrene
c.Wet gangrene
d.viral gangrene
75. Each of the following pairs is correctly associated
EXCEPT:
a.air embolism - deep sea diving
b.tumour arterial embolism - pulmonary infarct
c.Fat embolism - fractures of long bones.
d.Paradoxical embolism - atrial septal defect.
76. An infarct is most frequently characterized by what type
of necrosis?
a.Qualitative
b.Coagulative
c.Fatty
d.Gangrenous
77. Pale infarcts caused by:
a.Venous occlusions.
b.Arterial occlusion in tissues with dual circulations.
c.Arterial occlusion in previously congested tissues.
 d.Arterial occlusions in solid organs with end-arterial
circulations.
78. Which of the following types of infraction may be
followed by gangrene?
a.Intestinal infraction
b.Cerebral infraction
c. Myocardial infarction
d.Renal infraction
79. In early phase of diabetic gangrene it's considered:
a.Moist gangrene
b.Dry gangrene
c.Infective gangrene
d.Gas gangrene
80. Chronic ischemia is caused by:
a.Thrombus
b.Atherosclerosis
c.Embolus
d.Surgical ligature of artery.
81. Type of embolism occurs in fracture of long bone:
a.Air embolism.
b.Amniotic fluid embolism.
c.Fat Embolism
d.Thromboembolism
82. In hypovolemic shock:
a.The central venous pressure is high
b.The extremities are pale, cold and sweating
c.There is always a site of bleeding
d.Urine output is unaffected
83. The most common cause of infarction of an organ or
tissue is:
a.Venous occlusion due to twisting of the organ
b.Thromboembolism
c.Compression of organ in the hernial sac.
d.Ballooning of atheroma secondary to haemorrhage into
the plaque
84. Diabetic gangrene is an example of:
a.Moist gangrene.
b.Dry gangrene
c.Infective gangrene.
d.Gas gangrene
85. Diabetic gangrene is caused by:
a.Vasospasm
b.Peripheral neuritis
c.Atherosclerosis
d.None of the above
86. Partial or complete obstruction of some part of the
cardiovascular system by a foreign body transported by
the blood stream is termed as
a.Coagulation
b.Ischaemia
c.Thrombosis
d.Embolism
87. shock is a circulatory disturbance characterized
a.Increased blood pressure
b.Decreased volume of circulating blood
c.Elevated body temperature
 d.Decreased volume of interstitial fluid
88. Venous emboli are most often lodged in:
a.Heart
b.Kidneys
c.Intestines
d.Lungs
89. White infarcts occur in:
a.Kidney
b.Small intestine
c.Lung
d.Sigmoid colon
90. Which of the following statements accurately describes
wet gangrene?
a.Can be caused by an infection and almost always
produces gas
b.Can be caused by an infection but typically doesn't
produce gas
c.C.is usually the cause of gangrene in people with
diabetes
d.Can result in little to no damage to infected tissue(s)
91. With regard to embolism:
a.arterial emboli most often lodge in the viscera
b.pulmonary emboli are rarely multiple
c.amniotic fluid emboli are associated with the highest
mortality
d.most pulmonary emboli produce signs of respiratory
distress
92. Which of following statements are FALSE?
a.Embolic obstruction of small or medium sized arteries
results in pulmonary infarct
b.Multiple PEs can lead to development of pulmonary
hypertension & chronic right heart failure.
c.60-80% of PEs are clinically silent
d.Natural course of PE includes resolution &
organization of the emboli.
93. Which type of hyperemia results from increased arterial
inflow?
a.Passive hyperemia
b.Active hyperemia
c.Localized hyperemia
d.Systemic hyperemia
94. Passive congestion typically leads to which of the
following changes in tissue?
a.Edema and ischemia
b.Necrosis and inflammation
c.Hemorrhage and fibrosis
d.Hyperemia and regeneration
95. What is Virchow's triad?
a.Injury, infection, inflammation
b.Stasis, hypercoagulability, endothelial injury
c.Ischemia, infarction, necrosis
d.Hypertension, hyperlipidemia, diabetes
96. Which condition is a major risk factor for venous
thromboembolism (VTE)?
a.Dehydration
 b.Immobility
c.High physical activity
d.Low cholesterol
97. What type of embolism is caused by a dislodged
thrombus?
a.Fat embolism
b.Air embolism
c.Thromboembolism
d.Septic embolism
98. Ischemia can lead to which of the following outcomes if
prolonged?
a.Hyperemia
b.Infarction
c.Edema
d.Regeneration
99. Which type of infarction is characterized by a pale
appearance and occurs in solid organs?
a.Hemorrhagic infarction
b.White infarction
c.Red infarction
d.Necrotizing infarction
100. What is a common cause of dry gangrene?
a.Bacterial infection
b.Vascular insufficiency
c.Frostbite
d.All of the above
101. In shock, which physiological parameter is most
commonly decreased?
a.Blood pressure
b.Heart rate
c.Cardiac output
d.Respiratory rate
102. What is the primary mechanism of anaphylactic shock?
a.Cardiac failure
b.Severe allergic reaction
c.Fluid loss
d.Septic infection
103. Which type of embolism can occur after long bone
fractures?
a.Fat embolism
b.Thromboembolism
c.Air embolism
d.Amniotic fluid embolism
104.What is the primary cause of myocardial ischemia?
a.Hyperlipidemia
b.Arterial obstruction
c.Increased oxygen demand
d.All of the above
105.What is the most common cause of dry gangrene?
a.Bacterial infection
b.Vascular insufficiency
c.Trauma
d.Frostbite
106. What is a common clinical feature of wet gangrene
a.Clear demarcation
b.Dry, black tissue
c.Foul odor
d.Minimal swelling
107. Which type of shock is characterized by heart failure
due to myocardial dysfunction?
a.Hypovolemic shock
b.Cardiogenic shock
c.Septic shock
d.Neurogenic shock
108.What is the primary pathological change in the tissue
during ischemia?
a.Increased perfusion
b.Oxygen deprivation
c.Excessive inflammation
d.Hyperemia
109. What is the key feature of hemorrhagic infarction?
a.Pale, necrotic tissue
b.Bleeding into the necrotic area
c.No vascular compromise
d.Complete tissue regeneration
110. Which of the following factors is NOT part of Virchow's
triad?
a.Venous stasis
b.Endothelial injury
c.Dehydration
d.Hypercoagulability
111. Which type of shock is most likely to result from
significant blood loss?
a.Neurogenic shock
b.Hypovolemic shock
c.Septic shock
d.Anaphylactic shock
112. What is the major complication associated with a large
pulmonary embolism?
a.Respiratory failure
b.Hemoptysis
c.Stroke
d.Cardiac arrest
113. Which condition is associated with a marked increase in
venous pressure leading to congestion?
a.Aortic stenosis
b.Heart failure
c.Hemorrhage
d.Shock
114. Which type of infarction is most commonly associated
with arterial obstruction? *
a.Red infarction
b.White infarction
c.Septic infarction
d.Gangrenous infarction
115. What is the primary treatment strategy for managing
septic shock?
a.Fluid resuscitation and antibiotics
b.Vasopressors only
 c.Steroid therapy
d.Surgical intervention
116. What mechanism leads to the characteristic pallor in
ischemic tissue?
a.Increased blood flow
b.Decreased blood supply
c.Vasodilation
d.Hemorrhage
117.In the context of thrombosis, what does the term
"propagation" refer to?
The breakdown of a thrombus
The growth of a thrombus along the vessel
The formation of new blood vessels
The complete resolution of a thrombus
118. The factors predisposing to thrombosis include:-
a.Smooth intima
b.Slow blood flow
c.Anemia
d.Rapid flow
e.Diluted blood
119. Thrombosis is caused by all of the following except:-
a.Increased blood viscosity
b.Venous stasis
c.Increased number of blood platelets
d.Roughening of endothelial lining of blood vessels
e.Vasodilatation
120. Which of the following isn't associated with thrombosis:-
a.Activation of thrombosis mechanism
 b.Endothelial damage
c.Formation of platelets aggregates
d.Thrombocytopenia
e.Vascular stasis
121. Which of the followings has no relation to thrombus
formation:-
a.Increased platelet number
b.Polycythemia
c.Aneurysmal sacs and varicose veins
d.Atheroma
e.Normal leucocytic count
122. The following are factors in venous thrombosis except:-
a.Endothelial damage
b.Increased viscosity of blood
c.Decreased plasma proteins
d.Increased fibrinogen
123. Heart failure cells are indicative of:-
a.Right sided heart failure
b.Pulmonary stenosis
c.Pulmonary embolism
d.Pulmonary venous congestion
e.Myocardial infarct
124. Three major factors that predispose to thrombosis are:-
a.Decreased blood viscosity, accelerated blood flow
and endothelial damage
b.Increased blood viscosity, accelerated blood flow and
endothelial damage
 c.Endothelial damage, increased blood viscosity and
diminished blood flow
d.Fibrinolysis, fibrinoid necrosis of vessel wall and
atherosclerosis
e.Disintegration of WBCs lysosomes, thrombocytopenia
and bacteremia
125. As regard Virchow's triad:-
a.It describes the pathogenesis of congestion
b.It describes the pathogenesis of thrombosis
c.It describes the pathogenesis of hyperemia
d.Healthy intima is one of its components
e.Anemia is one of its causes
126.As regards thrombosis, Virchow's triad includes the
following except:-
a.Endothelial injury
b.Stasis or turbulent blood flow
c.Hypercoagulability of blood
d.Thrombocytopenia
127. Thrombosis is caused by:-
a.Rough intima
b.Decreased platelets
c.Decreased plasma heparin
d.Neutropenia
e.Anemia
128. All of the followings would be expected in liver with
chronic venous congestion except:-
a.Increased weight of liver
b.Nutmeg pattern.
 c.Central zonal necrosis of liver lobules.
d.Increased size of liver
e.Wrinkled capsule
129. Which of the followings is true for nutmeg liver:-
a.This is the gross description of the liver in case of
hepatic amyloidosis
b.It is the microscopic description of the liver in
hepatic bilharziasis
c.It is a gross state of yellow and dark red mottling of
the liver due to passive congestion
d.It is extensive iron deposition in hepatocytes
e.It is a caseating granuloma of the liver
130. A 49 year old man with right sided heart failure. He
develops the followings except:-
a.Nut meg liver
b.Edema of lower limb
c.Cyanosis
d.Dilatation of right ventricle
e.Lung congestion
131. In chronic venous congestion of the lung, alveolar
spaces contain:-
a.Red cells
b.Heart failure cells
c.Transudate fluid
d.Hemosiderin granules
e.All of the above
132.Lung with chronic venous congestion with brown
pigment in alveolar macrophages. This pigment is most
likely:-
a.Hematin
b.Melanin
c.Carbon particles
d.Hemosiderin
e.Lipofuscin
133. The lungs of a patient with mitral stenosis may contain
numerous hemosiderin-laden cells within the alveoli.
These cells are called:-
a.Endothelial cells
b.Pneumocytes
c.Heart failure cells
d.T-lymphocytes
e.Eosinophils
134. Dilatation of blood channels in the center of liver lobules
with shrinkage of liver cells in this area is seen as:-
a.Acute active congestion
b.Acute passive congestion
c.Chronic passive congestion
d.Chronic active congestion
e.None of the above
135. In a patient with chronic right ventricular failure, the
usual pathologic change which occurs in the liver is:-
a.Acute inflammation
b.Congestion
c.Edema
 d.Hemorrhage
e.Infarction
136. Chronic passive congestion of the liver "Nut meg liver"
most often results from:-
a.Right sided HF
b.Liver cirrhosis
c.Hepato-renal failure
d.Left sided HF
e.Portal HTN
137. Nut-meg liver is defined as:-
a.Fatty liver
b.Acute venous congestion of the liver
c.Amyloid liver
d.Chronic venous congestion of the liver
e.Cloudy swelling of the liver
138. On examination of a liver slide by microscope you found
liver cell necrosis around dilated central veins. This
lesion is most likely called:-
a.Nutmeg liver
b.Liver necrosis
c.Fatty change liver
d.Amyloid liver
e.Toxemia of liver
139. Post mortem examination of a case reveals bilateral
edema of lower limbs and Nutmeg liver. In such case one
would also expect to find:-
a.Pulmonary embolus.
b.Right side heart failure.
 c.Portal vein thrombosis.
d.Biliary cirrhosis.
e.Splenic amyloidosis.
140.Which of the following is an example of active
hyperemia:-
a.Hemorrhagic disease
b.Inflammation
c.Fatty liver
d.Leg after delivery
e.Cloudy swelling of the kidney
141. Which of the following represents active hyperemia:-
a.A 21 year old medical student who develops a red hot
face after being asked a question in the lecture
b.A 69 year old male patient who died due to right sided
heart failure and had a nutmeg liver
c.A patient with mitral stenosis whose lungs show
brown induration
d.A 6 year old boy who develops severe pain due to
testicular torsion
e.A 71 year old female patient who developed
hemorrhage due to Vit C deficiency
142. Congestion is:-
a.Active dilatation of veins and venules
b.Passive dilatation of veins and venules
c.Active dilatation of arterioles
d.Active hyperemia
e.Active dilatation of the heart
143. Congestion means:-
a.Active process in which arteriolar dilation leads to
increased blood flow
b.Passive process resulting from reduced outflow of
blood from a tissue
c.Severe and generalized edema
d.Fluid collections in peritoneal cavity
144. A 55 year old female patient is complaining of
generalized pitting edema starting at her lower limbs. On
physical examination there was cyanosis, congested
neck veins and enlarged congested liver. The most
probable diagnosis is:-
a.Nephrotic syndrome
b.Right sided HF
c.Protein losing enteropathy
d.Filariasis
e.Acute diffuse glomerulonephritis
145. All of the followings are general effects of right sided
HF except:-
a.Congested neck veins
b.Cyanosis
c.Congestion of all organs except lungs
d.Cardiac edema
146. Thrombosis over the left ventricle is called:-
a.Mural thrombus
b.Auricular thrombus
c.Vegetation
d.Phlebothrombosis
 e.None of the above
147. A thrombus over the heart valve is called:-
a.Mural thrombus
b.Ball-valve thrombus
c.Vegetation
d.Phlebothrombosis
e.None of the above
148. Vegetations mean:-
a.Thrombi on heart valves
b.Arterial thrombi
c.Venous thrombi
d.Capillary thrombi
149. All are the fate of thrombosis except:-
a.Organization
b.Hyperemia
c.Fragmentation
d.Calcification
e.Recanalization
150.Which of the followings are fates to thrombosis:-
a.Embolization
b.Organization and recanalization
c.Fragmentation
d.Calcification
e.All of the above
151. The followings are good fates of thrombus except:-
a.Lysis.
b.Recanalization.
c.Retraction.
 d.Embolization.
e.Organization.
152. The commonest site of thrombus formation is:-
a.Heart
b.Capillary
c.Large artery
d.Vein
e.Small artery
153. A thrombus in vein is called:-
a.Mural thrombus
b.Ball-valve thrombus
c.Vegetation
d.Phlebothrombosis
e.None of the above
154. Thrombophlebitis is:-
a.Venous thrombosis
b.Thrombosis of inflamed vein
c.Thrombosis of inflamed artery
d.Thrombosis in a vein due to blood stagnation
155. Three days after a labor a 20 year old lady presented
with swollen tender leg. The possible diagnosis is:-
a.Hyperemia of the leg
b.Venous embolization of the leg
c.Septic shock
d.Deep venous thrombosis of the leg
e.Blood clot
156. Which of the following is most closely associated with
deep vein thrombosis:-
a.Prolonged bed rest
b.Always accompanied by thrombocytopenia
c.Its commonest location is lower esophagus
d.Also termed varicocele
e.None of the above
157. Which of the following is true about post-operative
thrombosis:-
a.It may result from stasis and venous compression due
to bed rest
b.It affects arteries more commonly than veins
c.It results from massive increase of leucocytic count
d.All of the above
e.None of the above
158. Venous infarction may follow:-
a.Coronary artery thrombosis
b.Obstruction of renal artery by an embolus
c.Testicular vein occlusion
d.Septic embolus in the lung
e.Episode of hypotension
159. A venous infarction would be most likely to occur in:-
a.Kidney.
b.Heart.
c.Spleen.
d.Ovary.
e.All of the above.
160. Myocardial infarction:-
a.Liquefactive necrosis
b.Coagulative necrosis
c.Fibrinoid necrosis
d.Caseous necrosis
e.Fat necrosis
161. Which of the following tissues undergoes liquefaction
when infarcted:-
a.Kidney
b.Lung
c.Heart
d.Brain
e.Spleen
162.Red infarction is seen in:-
a.Coronary artery thrombosis
b.Renal artery thrombosis
c.Thrombosis of superior mesentric artery
d.Embolization of splenic artery
e.All of the above
163. Red infarction occurs in the following sites except:-
a.Heart
b.Intestine
c.Brain
d.Lung
e.None of the above
164. What is ischemic death (necrosis) of tissues:-
a.Ischemia
b.Infarction
 c.Atheroma
d.Caisson disease
e.Embolism
165. Infarction occurs due to:-
a.Sudden incomplete obstruction of blood supply
b.Gradual complete obstruction of blood supply
c.Sudden complete obstruction of blood supply
d.All of the above
166. All of the following cause infarction except:-
a.Local arterial obstruction
b.Thrombosis
c.Atherosclerosis
d.Diminished clotting factors
e.Embolism
167. The following are factors that influence the
development of an infarct except:-
a.The nature of vascular supply
b.The rate at which occlusion develops
c.Vulnerability to hypoxia
d.Race and geographic distribution
e.Acute local vascular obstruction
168. An 18 year old male has fracture femur. 48 hours later
he felt pain in the chest with dyspnea, cyanosis and
hemoptysis. Then he died. The most possible cause of
death is:-
a.Chronic venous congestion of the lung
b.Fat embolism in pulmonary artery
c.Myocardial infarction
 d.Thrombotic pulmonary embolism
e.Chronic heart failure
169. The most common cause of clinically significant fat
embolism is:-
a.Abdominal surgery
b.Pancreatitis
c.Diabetes insipidus
d.Fracture of long bones
e.Traumatized fatty liver
170. During routine vaginal delivery of a term infant, A 23
year old female with an uncomplicated pregnancy
developed sudden dyspnea with cyanosis and
hypotension. The most probable cause is:-
a. Fat embolism
b. Thromboembolism
c. Gas embolism
d. Amniotic fluid embolism
e. Foreign body embolism
171. Each of the following pairs is correctly associated
except:-
a.Air embolism - Deep sea diving
b.Multiple aseptic arterial embolism - Pyemic
abscesses
c.Fat embolism - Fracture of long bones
d.Amniotic fluid embolism - Child birth
e.Venous embolism - post operative state
172. If the following events are placed in their correct order
which will come fourth:-
a.Pulmonary infarction
b.Prolonged bed rest
c.Pulmonary embolism
d.Deep vein thrombosis
e.Fracture neck of femur
173. Sequelae of pulmonary embolism include all of the
followings except:-
a.Sudden death
b.Pulmonary infarction
c.Pulmonary HTN
d.Right sided HF
e.Interstitial emphysema
174. Fracture of long bones of the lower limb predispose to:-
a.Air embolism.
b.Fat embolism.
c.Nitrogen embolism.
d.Parasitic embolism
e.Tumor embolism
175. When a left ventricular mural thrombus develops,
embolism may result in all of the following organs
except:-
a.Brain
b.Kidneys
c.Lungs
d.Small intestine
e.Spleen
176. The effect of the detached non-septic thrombus
depends mainly on:-
a.The organ affected
b.The size of the vessel in which the thrombus formed
c.The size of the detached thrombus
d.All of the above
e.None of the above
177. The commonest source of pulmonary emboli is:-
a.Thrombosed varicose veins
b.Deep veins of the leg (DVT)
c.Thrombophlebitis
d.Puerperal sepsis
e.Osteomyelitis
178. If the following events are placed in correct order
which will come fourth:-
a.Major abdominal surgery
b.Deep venous thrombosis
c.Embolization
d.Pulmonary infarction
e.Stasis in the calf veins
179. The commonest type of emboli is:-
a.Fat emboli
b.Air emboli
c.Thrombotic
d.Parasitic
e.Tumor
180. An embolus rising from a thrombus in the leg vein will
be impacted in:-
a.Lung
b.Heart
c.Kidney
d.Brain
e.Liver
181. Emboli which impact in the arterial side of the
circulation generally originate from:-
a.Right atrium
b.Right ventricle
c.Leg veins
d.Pelvic veins
e.Left side of the heart
182. An embolus in the arterial system may originate from:-
a.Atheroma in pulmonary artery
b.Infarct of left ventricle
c.A venous thrombus in patient with normal heart
d.A prosthetic pulmonary valve
e.Air entering a venous cannula
183. Embolus means:-
a.Detached intravascular solid, liquid or gaseous mass
that is carried by the blood to a site distant from its
point of origin
b.Detached intravascular solid mass only that is carried
by the blood to a site distant from its point of origin
c.Only intravascular insoluble liquid that is carried by
the blood to a site distant from its point of origin
 d.Only intravascular gas that is carried by the blood to
a site distant from its point of origin
e.None of the above
184. Which of the followings is not a type of embolus:-
a.Air
b.Thrombotic
c.Amniotic fluid
d.Virus
e.Fat
185. Which of the following is not true of moist gangrene:-
a.It's caused by sudden occlusion of the artery and vein
b.It's most common in extremities
c.The affected part is swollen
d.Putrefaction is rapid
e.No line of demarcation
186. Wet gangrene usually develops in:-
a.Bowel
b.Kidney
c.Liver
d.Brain
e.Myocardium
187. Dry gangrene is differentiated from moist gangrene by
that in dry gangrene:-
a.Is more common in internal organs
b.Is caused by gradual occlusion of the artery
c.Is a rapid process
d.Manifests severe toxemia
e.Shows no line of demarcation
188. Which of the followings is true of dry gangrene:-
a.It is usually due to sudden cut of both arterial and
venous blood supply
b.It affects upper limbs only
c.Products of putrefaction are excessive
d.Black - Dry - Mummified
e.Rapid putrefaction
189. All are characteristic of dry gangrene except:-
a.Slow progression
b.Marked toxemia
c.Black discoloration
d.Prominent line of demarcation
e.Self-separation may occur
190. Which of the followings is true for dry gangrene:-
a.It's characterized by rapid putrefaction
b.It most commonly affects the intestine due to
volvulus
c.It occurs in limbs due to arterial obstruction
d.Occurs over bony prominences due to old age
e.Affected organ is usually red in color due to
congestion
191. In case of dry gangrene one of the followings is
incorrect:-
a.Slow putrefaction
b.Caused by arterial occlusion
c.Severe toxemia
d.Prominent line of demarcation
e.Only affects limbs
192. The best definition of gangrene is:-
a.Necrosis of tissue caused by ischemia
b.Necrosis of tissue caused by bacterial toxins
c.Gas production in dead tissue
d.Digestion of living tissue by saprophytic bacteria
e.Digestion of dead tissue by saprophytic bacteria
193. Gangrene is necrosis plus:-
a.Hemorrhage
b.Putrefaction
c.Caseation
d.Calcification
e.Fibrosis
194. Dry gangrene is possible in:-
a.Kidney
b.Myocardium
c.Brain
d.Soft tissues of lower extremities
e.In all enumerated localizations
195. All the following are true of dry gangrene except:-
a.Common in lower limbs
b.Results from occlusion of both the artery and vein of
the limb
c.The affected part is mummified
d.The gangrenous process advances slowly
e.Toxemia is mild
196. Lymphatic edema is present in the following except:-
a.Congestive heart failure
b.Filariasis
 c.Post irradiation
d.Breast carcinoma
e.Post-surgical LN resection
197. Edema of lower limb, commonly seen with:-
a.Lymphangioma
b.Leishmaniasis
c.Elephantiasis.
d.Bilharziasis
e.Madura foot (actinomycosis).
198. Which of the followings is responsible for edema in a
patient with right sided "Congestive" heart failure:-
a.Decreased plasma osmotic pressure
b.Endothelial damage
c.Lymphatic obstruction
d.Increased hydrostatic pressure
e.Decreased colloid osmotic pressure
199. Causes of localized edema include the followings
except:-
a.Inflammatory edema
b.Congestive heart failure
c.Edema with varicose veins
d.Filariasis
e.Surgical removal of LN
200. Which of the followings is the cause of malnutrition
edema:-
a.Decreased plasma osmotic pressure
b.Endothelial damage
c.Lymphatic obstruction
 d.Increased hydrostatic pressure
e.Increased vascular permeability
201. Edema due to lymphatic obstruction:-
a.Malnutrition
b.Constrictive pericarditis
c.Post-surgical
d.Nephrotic syndrome
e.Heart failure
202. The best definition of edema is:-
a.Increased fluid inside the cells due to failure of
sodium pump
b.Collection of blood in tissue spaces
c.Increased fluid in interstitial tissue spaces
d.All of the above
e.None of the above
203. Which of the following doesn't lead to edema:-
a.Increased plasma colloid osmotic pressure
b.Increased tissue osmotic pressure
c.Increased capillary permeability
d.Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
e.Lymphatic obstruction
204. An example of generalized edema:-
a.Acute inflammation
b.Chronic inflammation
c.Renal edema
d.Lymphatic obstruction
e.DVT of the leg veins
205. Which of the following isn't a cause of generalized
edema:-
a.Right ventricular failure
b.Nephrotic syndrome
c.Inflammatory edema
d.Liver cirrhosis
e.All of the above
206. Which of the following is an example of active
hyperemia :
a.Lung In acute left ventricular fallure
b.Tissue of lung in femoral vein thrombosis
c.Lung in right sided heart fallure
d.Erythema in inflammation
e.Kidney in renal vein thrombosis
207. Which of the following is an example of active
hyperemia:-
a.Hemorrhagic disease
b.Inflammation
c.Fatty liver
d.Leg after delivery
e.Cloudy swelling of the kidney
208. Which of the following represents active hyperemia:
a.A 21 year old medical student who develops a red hot
face after being asked a question in the lecture
b.A 69 year old male patient who died clue to right
sided heart failure and had a nutmeg liver
c.A patient with mitral stenosis whose lungs show
brown induration c
 d.A 6 year old boy who develops severe pain due to
testicular torsion
e.A 71 year old female patient who developed
hemorrhage due to Vit C Deficiency
209. A 55 year old female patient is complaining of
generalized pitting edema starting at her Lower limbs. On
physical examination there was cyanosis, congested neck
veins and Enlarged congested liver. The most probable
diagnosis is:-
a.Nephrotic syndrome
b.Right sided HF
c.Protein losing enteropathy
d.Filariasis
e.Acute diffuse glomerulonephritis
 Congenital heart diseases
1. Most common congenital anomaly of the heart is
a.VSD
b.ASD
c.PDA
d.Tetralogy of Fallot
2. Eisenmenger syndrome (Acynotic group) presents with
late complication in which of the following congenital
heart disease,
a.Atrial septal defect.
b.Transposition of great vessels.
c.Truncus arteriosus.
d.Coarctation of aorta.
3. What is the most common cardiovascular abnormality
seen in patients with congenital rubella syndrome?
a.Patent ductus arteriosus
b.Interrupted aortic arch
c.Coarctation of the aorta
d.Ventricular septal defect
e.Transposition of the great vessels
4. Tetralogy of Fallot includes all of the following features
except:
a.Atrial septal defect
b.pulmonic stenosis.
c.Hypertrophy of right ventricle.
d.Overriding of the aorta.
 e.Ventricular septal defect.
5. A large ventricular septal defect and congenital
obstruction to pulmonary blood flow are characteristic
features of
a.transposition of the great arteries
b.persistent common atrioventricular canal
c.tetralogy of Fallot
d.truncus arteriosus
e.Patent ductus artriosus
6. Which of the following congenital cardiac anomaly is
most commonly associated with early cyanosis?
a.ventricular septal defect
b.atrial septal defect
c.tetralogy of Fallot
d.coarctation of the aorta
e.patent ductus arteriosus
7. The feature of tetralogy of Falott are as under EXCEPT:
a.VSD.
b.Displaced aorta to right to override the VSD.
c.Pulmonary stenosis.
d.Left ventricular hypertrophy
8. The severity of the clinical features of Fallot's teratology
depends on:
a.Hypertrophy of right ventricle.
b.Dextroposition of large vessels.
c.Atrial septal defect.
d.Degree of pulmonary outflow obstruction
9. The disease of heart presents with early cyanosis is
 a.ASD
b.PDA
c.Truncus arteriosus
d.Atrioventricular septal defect
10. The feature of tetralogy of Fallot are as under EXCEPT
a.VSD
b.Displaced aorta to right to override VSD
c.Pulmonary stenosis
d.Left ventricular hypertrophy
11. The acyanotic group of congenital heart diseases
doesn't include:-
a.Patent ductus arteriosus
b.Fallot's tetralogy
c.Atrial septal defect
d.Ventricular septal defect
12. The cyanotic group of congenital heart diseases
includes all except:-
a.Fallot's tetralogy
b.Transposition of great vessels
c.Eisenmenger's syndrome
d.Patent ductus arteriosus
13. Which of the followings is not a feature of Fallot's
tetralogy:-
a.Pulmonary stenosis
b.Patent ductus arteriosus
c.Right ventricular hypertrophy
d.Ventricular septal defect
e.Displacement of the aorta to the right
14. In Fallot's tetralogy there is:-
a.Aortic stenosis
b.Aortic regurge
c.Pulmonary stenosis
d.Pulmonary regurge
 Rheumatic fever & Endocarditis
1. MacCallum patches appears in region of
a.Pericardial surface of posterior wall of left atrium
b.Pericardial surface of posterior wall of left ventricle
c.Endocardial surface of posterior wall of left atrium
d.Endocardial surface of posterior wall of left ventricle
2. Major criteria of jones criteria include the following
EXCEPT
a.Carditis
b.Polyarthritis
c.Raised reactive proteins
d.Subcutaneous nodule
3. Vegetation of the following types of endocarditis are
generally not friable except that of
a. Rheumatic endocarditis
b. Libman sacks endocarditis
c. Subacute bacterial endocarditis
d. Non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis
4. Vegetations are
a.Thrombi formed of RBC only
b.Thrombi formed of platelets & fibrin
c.Fragmented thrombi
d.Non detachable thrombi
5. The unique feature of rheumatic myocarditis is presence
of
a.Aschoff nodules
b.Group A hemolytic streptococci
c.Anitschkow myocytes
 d.Mucopolysaccharide deposits
e.Fibrinoid necrosis
6. Acute rheumatic heart disease is associated with
a.Emboli to multiple organs
b.Left to right shunt
c.Cardiac tamponade
d.Arthritis
7. Causes of death in patients with rheumatic heart
diseases include each of the following EXCEPT
a.Heart failure
b.Constrictive pericarditis
c.Bacterial endocarditis
d.Embolization of damaged valves
8. In a patient with acute rheumatic fever, least likely of
the findings is
a.Arthritis
b.Bacteria in heart valves
c.Elevated ASO titer
d.Heart murmur
9. Acute rheumatic endocarditis follows infection with
a.Enterococci
b.Group A beta hemolytic streptococci
c.Coagulase positive staph aureus
d.Streptococcus pneumoniae
e.Streptococcus viridians
10. Deformities 2ry to rheumatic endocarditis most often
affects
a.Mitral valves
 b.Aortic valves
c.Left atrial endocardium
d.Tricuspid valve
e.Pulmonary valve
11. Each of the following is a major manifestation of Jones
criteria of acute rheumatic fever EXCEPT
a.Carditis
b.Erythema marginatum
c.Glomerulonephritis
d.Migratory polyarthritis
e.Chorea
12. Causes of death in RHD include all of following EXCEPT
a.Cardiac failure
b.Embolization from heart
c.Bacterial endocarditis
d.Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
13. The most frequent clinical residual lesion of acute
rheumatic fever is
a.Aortic stenosis
b.Mitral stenosis
c.Myocardial fibrosis
d.Myocardial hypertrophy
e.Pericardial adhesion
14. Characteristics of acute rheumatic fever include all of
the following EXCEPT
a.Fibrinous pericarditis
b.Arthritis
c.High ASO titer
 d.Emboli from valvular verrucae
e.Myocarditis
15. Which contains bacteria in the cardiac lesions
a.Acute rheumatic heart disease
b.Recurrent rheumatic heart disease
c.Both
d.Neither
16. Which is pathognomonic of active rheumatic fever
a.Russel body
b.Granuloma
c.Bacterial vegetation
d.Fibrinous pericarditis
e.Aschoff body
17. The most common cause of subacute infective
endocarditis is
a.Candida albicans
b.Immune reaction to bacterial toxins
c.Staphylococcus aureus
d.Streptococcus pneumoniae
e.Streptococcus viridians
18. Acute rheumatic heart diseases may show all of the
following EXCEPT
a.Verruca on heart valves
b.Pericarditis
c.Cardiac tamponade
d.Aschoff bodies
19. Complications of chronic rheumatic heart diseases
include which of the following
 a.Constrictive pericarditis
b.Cardiac tamponade
c.Aneurysm of the heart
d.Mitral stenosis
20. A 40 years old male, died of sepsis with DIC. Upon
autopsy, small masses of fibrin thrombi were seen in the
heart valves. How do you interpret this?
a.Patient had infective endocarditis
b.Patient had nonbacterial Thrombotic endocarditis
(NBTE)
c.Patient had rheumatic heart diseases
d.It's normal finding
21. 15 years old student had sore throat, week later
developed swollen joints & murmur in the aortic valve
are. What's the diagnosis?
a.Infective endocarditis
b.SLE
c.Rheumatic heart disease
d.Diphtheria
22. Aschoff bodies are indicative of:
a.Active rheumatic myocarditis.
b.Healed rheumatic myocarditis.
c.Healed non specific myocarditis.
d.Active non specific myocarditis.
23. Subacute bacterial endocarditis is usually a result of:
a.rheumatic fever.
b.congential valve disease.
 c.bacteraemia in a patient with underlying heart
disease.
d.None of the above.
24. Mitral stenosis in most often the result of:
a.rheumatic endocarditis.
b.Atherosclerosis
c.Syphilis
d.congential heart disease
25. Complications of rheumatic heart disease include:
a.coronary atherosclerosis
b.coarctation of aorta
c.systemic hypertension
d.subacute bacterial endocarditis
26. which of the following findings is least likely to be found
In a patient with acute rheumatic fever:
a.Arthritis
b.bacteria in heart valves
c.elevated ASO titer
d.heart murmur
e.serofibrinous pericarditis
27. Congestive cardiac failure in the first attack of acute
rheumatic fever usually results from:
a.endocarditis
b.myocarditis
c.pericarditis
d.anemia
e.mitral stenosis
28. All of the following has provided evidence for the
relationship between streptococcal infection and
rheumatic fever except:
a.positive immunologic tests, such as antistreptolysin
O titers
b.reduced attack rates following adequate penicillin
therapy of streptococcal infections
c.demonstrated cross reactivity between
streptococcal antigens and myocardial tissues
d.isolation of Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci
from joint and cardiac tissue lesions in patients with
active rheumatic fever
29. Characteristic features of acute rheumatic fever include
all of the following except:
a.fibrinous pericarditis
b.emboli from large friable vegetation
c.arthritis
d.high antistreptolysin O titers
e.myocarditis
30. Which contain(s) bacteria in the cardiac lesions?
a.acute rheumatic heart disease
b.recurrent rheumatic heart disease
c.both
d.neither
31. Which is pathognomonic of active rheumatic fever?
a.granuloma
b.bacterial vegetation
c.fibrinous pericarditis
 d.Aschoff body
32. The most frequently involved valves in rheumatic heart
disease are the:
a.aortic and tricuspid
b.mitral and pulmonic
c.mitral and aortic
d.tricuspid and pulmonic
e.aortic and pulmonic
33. Rheumatic fever is a:
a.Suppurative disease
b.Autoimmune disease
c.Immune-mediated disease
d.Degenerative disease
e.None of the above
34. Rheumatic fever licks the joints but bites the:
a.Skin
b.Brain
c.Blood vessels
d.Heart
35. Aschoff nodule consists of all EXCEPT:
a.Epithelioid cells
b.Necrosed collagen
c.Lymphocytes
d.Macrophages
e.Giant cells
36. Aschoff giant cells are:
a.Fused epithelioid cells
b.Modified histiocytes
 c.Fused epithelial cells
d.Dead polymorphonuclear cells
37. The type of inflammation in rheumatic pericarditis is:
a.Catarrhal
b.Membranous
c.Fibrinous
d.Suppurative
38. Libman-Sacks endocarditis occurs in:
a.Rheumatic fever
b.Rheumatoid fever
c.Systemic lupus erythematosus
d.Systemic sclerosis
39. The most combination of multiple valve involvement in
chronic rheumatic valvitis:
a.Mitral, aortic, tricuspid and pulmonary.
b.Mitral and tricuspid.
c.Mitral and aortic
d.aortic and pulmonary
40. Which of the following are routes of the entry of
causative organisms in bacterial endocarditis:
a.the use of the needle by drug addicts
b.infections associated with intravenous catheters
c.e- cardiac surgery and valvular prosthesis
d.all the above
41. The most frequent site affected in rheumatic fever is:
a.heart
b.serous sacs
c.blood vessels.
 d.Joints
42. During the course of rheumatic fever streptococci can
detected in:
a.blood
b.connective tissue of the body
c.myocardium
d.non of the above

43. Which of the following is true with regard to non-

bacterial thrombotic endocarditis:
a.It is seen systemic lupus erythematosis.
b.It is associated with inflammatory changes
c.Bulky vegetative lesions occur on the mitral valve
d.It is seen in association with metastatic carcinoma.
44. Acute Rheumatic fever is a:
a.Suppurative disease
b.Immune mediated
c.Degenerative
d.Non of the above
45. The characteristic histologic feature of rheumatic fever
is:
a.Rheumatoid nodules
b.Aschoff nodules
c.Peyer s patch
d.Non of the above
46. Bread and butter appearance is characteristic of:
a.Rheumatic pericarditis
b.Rheumatic Endocarditis
 c.Rheumatic valvulitis
d.Rheumatic myocarditis
47. The commonest valve affected in rheumatic fever is:
a.Aortic
b.Pulmonary
c.Tricuspid
d.Mitral

48. The following is not features of rheumatic vegetations:

a.Multiple
b.Beaded
c.Easily detached
d.Sterile
49. Vegetations in AIE are characterized by all, except:
a.Large
b.Globular
c.Firmly adherent to the valve
d.Give rise to pyaemic abscesses
50. The vegetations in SBE consist of:
a.Platelets
b.Bacteria
c.Polymorphs
d.Fibrin
e.All the above
51. Rheumatic fever is related to infection by:-
a.Staphylococci
b.Streptococcus pyogens
c.Streptococcus viridans
 d.All of the above
52. The pathognomonic microscopic lesion of rheumatic
fever is:-
a.Mac Callum's patch
b.Aschoff nodule
c.Myocardial abscess
d.Osler nodule
e.Myocarditis
53. The organ not affected by rheumatic fever is:-
a.Heart
b.Brain
c.Joints
d.Liver
54. Aschoff nodule is a characteristic lesion of:-
a.Rheumatoid fever
b.Rheumatic fever
c.Typhoid fever
d.All of the above
e.None of the above
55. Typical Aschoff nodule doesn't include:-
a.Multi-nucleated giant cells
b.Fibrinoid necrosis
c.Pus cells
d.Fibroblasts
e.Lymphocytes
56. Aschoff giant cells are:-
a.Modified smooth muscles
b.Foreign body giant cells
 c.Necrotic epithelial cells
d.Fused epitheloid cells
e.Fused cardiac histiocytes
57. Aschoff bodies are characterized by all of the following
lesions except:-
a.They are characteristic proliferative lesions of
rheumatic fever
b.They contain a central area of fibrinoid necrosis
c.They are found exclusively in the heart
d.Usually heal by fibrosis
e.May contain small giant cells
58. Which of the following types of inflammation is most
likely characteristic of that found in acute rheumatic
fever:-
a.Endocarditis
b.Myocarditis
c.Pancarditis
d.Pericarditis
e.Vasculitis
59. The type of inflammation in rheumatic pericarditis is:-
a.Catarrhal
b.Fibrinousaq
c.Membranous
d.Suppurative
60. Mac Callum's patch is seen in:-
a.Rheumatic valvulitis
b.Rheumatic myocarditis
c.Rheumatic endocarditis
 d.Rheumatic pericarditis
e.Rheumatic arthritis
61. The following is not a feature of rheumatic vegetations:-
a.Multiple
b.Small
c.Firm
d.Contain streptococci
e.Adherent
62. The followings are true for rheumatic arthritis except:-
a.Fleeting arthritis
b.More common in large joints
c.The synovial cavity contains serous exudate
d.Shows Aschoff nodules
e.Articular cartilage is affected
63. Which of the followings is least likely to be found in a
child dying of acute rheumatic fever:-
a.Aschoff bodies
b.Fibrinous pericarditis
c.History of tonsillitis
d.Large friable vegetations
e.Raised anti-streptolysin O titre
64. One of the diagnostic features of rheumatic fever:-
a.Presence of streptococcal bacteria in blood
b.Increased serum level of anti-streptolysin O
c.Presence of bacteria in rheumatic lesions
d.All of the above
65. The following type of vegetations never gives emboli:-
a.Rheumatic vegetations
 b.Vegetations in acute infective endocarditis
c.Vegetations in subacute infective endocarditis
d.Vegetations in non-bacterial endocarditis
66. Mycotic aneurysms occurs as a complication of:-
a.Subacute bacterial endocarditis
b.Acute bacterial endocarditis
c.Actinomycosis
d.Systemic lupus erythematosus
e.Rheumatic fever
67. The followings are embolic lesions in subacute infective
endocarditis except:-
a.Infarcts
b.Retinal necrosis
c.Pyemic abscesses
d.Mycotic aneurysms
e.Coronary artery embolism
 Ischemic Heart Diseases & MI & Myocarditis
1. Non-infarct effects of myocardial ischemia are as under
EXCEPT
a.Sudden cardiac death
b.Angina pectoris
c.Subendocardial infarction
d.Chronic ischemic heart disease
2. Chronic ischemic heart disease is most often due to
a.Coronary atherosclerosis
b.Repetitive coronary spasm
c.Embolism to coronary branches
d.Stenosis of coronary ostia
3. Causes of ventricular aneurysm include
a.Myocardial infarction
b.Aortic stenosis
c.Both
d.Neither
4. Myocardial infarction may be followed by the following
EXCEPT
a.Elevated temperature
b.Elevated venous pressure
c.Elevated ESR
d.Neutropenia
5. The most common cause of myocardial infarction is
a.Luminal narrowing by atherosclerotic material in
coronary arteries
b.Ostial stenosis of coronary arteries
 c.Thrombosis on atheromatous plaque in coronary
artery
d.Embolization from mural thrombus
6. Complications of acute M.I in the 1st week include all of
the following EXCEPT
a.Ventricular rupture
b.Pericarditis
c.Cardiogenic shock
d.Extension of infarction
e.Myocardial fibrosis
7. The most frequent site of myocardial infarction is
a.Anterior septal
b.Anterior lateral
c.Posterior lateral
d.Posterior
e.Posterior septal
8. Complications of myocardial infarction includes
a.Fibrinous pericarditis
b.Hemopericardium with tamponade
c.Both
d.Neither
9. The major cause of death of myocardial infarction is
a.Rupture of papillary muscle
b.Congestive heart failure
c.Ventricular aneurysm
d.Arrhythmia
e.Septal rupture
10. Complications of acute M.I in 1st week includes all of
the following EXCEPT
a.Ventricular rupture
b.Pericarditis
c.Cariogenic shock
d.Extension of infarction
e.Cor pulmonale
11. Complications of myocardial infarction include all of the
following EXCEPT
a.Ventricular rupture
b.Arrhythmia
c.Ventricular aneurysm
d.Bacterial endocarditis
12. Which of the following histological feature is most
suggestive of acute myocardial infarction?
a.Box car nuclei
b.Liquefactive necrosis
c.Neutrophil infiltration
d.Lymphocyte infiltration
13. Histopathology examination of heart of patient died of
AMI, showed coagulative necrosis, edema, hemorrhage
&neutrophil infiltration. How old the infarction
a.30 minutes
b.1 day
c.12 hours
d.1 week
14. The most reliable test in detecting occurrence of
myocardial infarction:
 a.LDH
b.Uric acid
c.Troponin I
d.CK-MB
15. Which of the following may results from rupture of the
myocardium following an infarct:
a.Cardiac tamponade
b.True aneurysm
c.Both A and B
d.Neither A and B
16. Myocardial infarct is a good example of:
a.Caseous necrosis
b.Fat necrosis
c.Liquefactive necrosis
d.Coagulative necrosis
17. 45 years old male develops a myocardial infarct, all of
the following may be seen histologically except:
a.Loss of striation = waviness
b.Neutrophils
c.Edema
d.Myocyte mitosis
18. The following does not produce toxic myocarditis:
a.Diphtheria
b.Typhoid fever
c.Rheumatic fever
d.Pneumonia
19. When a person dies suddenly from a “heart attack", the
most likely event that led to the sudden death is:
 a.rupture of the heart
b.congestive heart failure
c.angina pectoris
d.coronary artery embolism
e.cardiac arrhythmia
20. Angina that is unstable is clinically described as:
a.Transient.
b.Precipitated by physical stress.
c.Relieved by rest.
d.Progressive.
21. All of the following statements concerning myocardial
infarction are true except:
a.may be unrecognizable at autopsy if the patient dies
within four or five hours after the infarction
b.associated with sudden complete coronary artey
occlusion
c.may be followed by systemic arterial occlusions
d.is uncommon in hypertension because of capillary
proliferation developed secondary to myocardial
hypertrophy
e.is most common in the myocardium supplied by the
anterior descending branch of the left coronary
artery
 Pericarditis & C. Tumors
1. The most common site of cardiac myxoma:
a.Lt. atrium
b.Rt. Atrium
c.Lt. ventricle
d.Rt. Ventricle
2. Which type of pericarditis is typically associated with a
viral infection?
a.Acute fibrinous pericarditis
b.Tuberculous pericarditis
c.Dressler's syndrome
d.Suppurative pericarditis
3. Which type of pericarditis can occur after a myocardial
infarction?
a.Constrictive pericarditis
b.Dressler's syndrome
c.Viral pericarditis
d.Hemorrhagic pericarditis
4. What type of pericarditis is commonly seen in patients
with tuberculosis?
a.Fibrinous pericarditis
b.Serous pericarditis
c.Hemorrhagic pericarditis
d.Tuberculous pericarditis
5. What type of effusion is typically associated with
malignant pericarditis?
a.Serous
b.Transudative
 c.Exudative
d.Hemorrhagic
6. Which of the following can cause constrictive pericarditis?
a.Myocarditis
b.Post-radiation fibrosis
c.Viral infection
d.Acute myocardial infarction
7. What is the hallmark feature of acute fibrinous
pericarditis?
a.Thickened pericardium
b.Fibrinous exudate on the pericardial surface
c.Presence of pus
d.Serous fluid accumulation
8. What can cause acute serous pericarditis?
a.Bacterial infection
b.Post-myocardial infarction
c.Autoimmune disorders
d.Trauma
9. Which type of pericarditis is primarily caused by non-
infectious inflammatory processes?
a.Tuberculous pericarditis
b.Viral pericarditis
c.Fibrinous pericarditis
d.Hemorrhagic pericarditis
10. Which type of pericarditis is more common in patients
with cancer?
a.Serous pericarditis
b.Fibrinous pericarditis
 c.Hemorrhagic pericarditis
d.Acute bacterial pericarditis
11. What type of pericarditis is typically associated with an
autoimmune process?
a.Hemorrhagic pericarditis
b.Fibrinous pericarditis
c.Infectious pericarditis
d.Malignant pericarditis
12. Which type of pericarditis can follow a recent upper
respiratory tract infection?
a.Tuberculous pericarditis
b.Viral pericarditis
c.Fibrinous pericarditis
d.Constrictive pericarditis
 Hypertension
1. In benign hypertension, the arterial wall shows the
following pathological features EXCEPT
a.Fibrosis
b.Hyalinosis
c.Elastosis
d.Necrosis
e.Thickening
2. In malignant hypertension, arterioles NOT show
a.Fibrinoid necrosis
b.Endotheliosis
c.Elastosis
d.Thickening of the wall
e.Narrowing of the lumen
3. In benign hypertension the arterial changes include:
a.fibroid necrosis
b.endothelial proliferation
c.hyalinosis
d.fibro fatty infiltration
4. Which of the following is the most common cause of
hypertension:
a.Renal stenosis
b.Thyrotoxicosis
c.Adrenal cortical adenoma
d.Idiopathic
5. One of malignant hypertension complication:
a.Acute HF
b.Retinal exudates.
 c.Benign nephosclerosis
d.Chronic HF.
6. As regards essential hypertension which is incorrect:
a.Most common type of hypertension.
b.Unstable & rapidly progressive.
c.Easily controlled by anti-hypertensive drugs.
d.Runs in certain families.
7. All are acquired risk factors for hypertension except:
a.Smoking.
b.Intake of oral contraceptive pills.
c.Stresses.
d.Obesity.
e.Non of the above.
8. Is not a complication of malignant hypertension:
a.Chronic renal failure.
b.Acute heart failure.
c.Encephalopathy.
d.Malignant nephro-sclerosis.
9. Is a morphological change affecting the arteriolies in
benign hypertension:
a.Necrotizing arteriololitis.
b.Hyaline arteriole-sclerosis.
c.Hyperplastic arteriole-sclerosis.
d.Non of the above.
10. is true about benign hypertension:
a.Associated with multiple organ damage.
b.Diastolic pressure 90-120 mmHg.
c.Rapid progressive course.
 d.Commonly 2ry to renal diseases.

11. The followings may lead to secondary hypertension

except:-
a.Polycystic kidney
b.Cushing syndrome
c.Hypothyroidism
d.Toxemia of pregnancy
e.SLE
12. Renal HTN is caused by all of the followings except:-
a.Diabetic nephropathy
b.Chronic glomerulonephritis
c.Hypernephroma
d.Atherosclerosis of the renal artery
e.Reno-vascular disorders
13. Hyaline change in arteriolar wall is due to:-
a.Malignant hypertension
b.Benign hypertension
c.Polyarteritis nodosa
d.Atherosclerosis
e.Rheumatic fever
14. In benign hypertension, the arterial wall shows the
following pathological changes except:-
a.Fibrosis
b.Hyalinosis
c.Elastosis
d.Necrosis
e.Thickening
15. The surface of the kidney in benign hypertension is:-
a.Smooth
b.Finely granular
c.Coarsely irregular
d.Flea-bitten
e.Hemorrhagic
16. Hypertension affects:
a.Large arteries
b.Medium-sized arteries
c.Small arteries and arterioles
d.All of the above
e.None of the above
17. The commonest cause of secondary hypertension is:
a.Renal diseases
b.Liver diseases
c.Cerebral diseases
d.Blood diseases
e.Cardiac diseases
18. In benign hypertension, the arterial wall shows the
following pathological changes EXCEPT:
a.Fibrosis
b.Elastosis
c.Hyalinosis
d.Necrosis
e.Thickening
19. In malignant hypertension, the arterioles do NOT show:
a.Fibrinoid necrosis
b.Endotheliosis
 c.Elastosis
d.Thickening of the wall
20. Arteriolosclerosis occurs in:
a.Benign essential hypertension
b.Malignant essential hypertension
c.Atherosclerosis
d.All of the above
e.None of the above
21. The most common cause of death in malignant
hypertension is:
a.Renal failure
b.Cerebral haemorrhage
c.Congestive heart failure
d.Coronary insufficiency
e.Respiratory failure
22. Systemic hypertension leads to
a.Left ventricular hypertrophy
b.Increased incidence of infective endocarditis
c.Both
d.Neither
23. A 45-year-old male has a blood pressure of300 /200. A
needle biopsy of the kidney should reveal most
significantly in the above case:
a.hyperplastic (onion skin) arteriolosclerosis
b.hyaline arteriolosclerosis
c.atherosclerosis
d.Diabetic nephrosclerosis
 Arteriosclerosis
1. Medial calcification of arteries is seen in the following
except
a.Monckberg calcification
b.Atherosclerosis
c.Peusdoxanthoma elasticum
d.Idiopathic calcification of infancy
2. Atherosclerosis is predominantly disease of
a.Intima
b.Media
c.Adventitia
d.Entire vessel wall
3. The following lipids has high association with
atherosclerosis
a.Triglyceride
b.Low density lipoprotein
c.High density lipoprotein
d.Very low-density lipoprotein
4. Medial calcific sclerosis
a.Dystrophic calcification
b.Metastatic calcification
c.Both
d.Neither
5. All of the following may act as precursor of atheromatous
plaque EXCEPT
a.Fatty streaks
b.Fatty dots
c.Gelatinous lesions
 d.Fibrous plaques
6. Atherosclerosis is characterized by all EXCEPT
a.A very common disease
b.Affects arteries & veins
c.Hypertension is a major risk factor
d.Lipid accumulation in vessel wall
e.Thrombosis is the most important complication
7. Pathological features of atherosclerosis include all
EXCEPT
a.Fatty streaks
b.Atheromatous plaques
c.Hyaline thickening of arterial wall
d.Thrombus formation
e.Calcification
8. The most important complication of atherosclerosis is
a.Thrombus formation
b.Ulceration
c.Dystrophic calcification
d.Aneurysmal dilatation
e.Hemorrhage
9. Which of the following not appear to be risk factor in the
development and complications of atherosclerosis
a.Male sex
b.Diabetes mellitus
c.Hypertension
d.Alcoholism
10. The cleft shaped empty spaces in histological section of
an atheroma are indicative of
 a.Serum
b.Collagen
c.Fibrin
d.Cholesterol
e.Calcium
11. The earlry change of atherosclerosis is
a.Medial necrosis.
b.Medial calcinosis.
c.Adventitial fibrosis.
d.fatty steaks.
12. Monckeberg sclerosis affects:
a.large arteries
b.medium sized arteries
c.small arteries
d.arterioles
13. Atherosclerosis is characterized by fibro fatty
deposition within:
a.the intima
b.adventitia
c.media
d.all the above
14. All are risk factors for atherosclerosis, except:
a.age
b.hypertension
c.physical activities
d.hyperlipidemia
15. The commonest site of atheromatous plaques is:
a.thoracic aorta
 b.abdominal aorta
c.coronary artery
d.popliteal artery
16. Components of atypical atherosclerotic plaques include;
a.Smooth muscle cells
b.Macrophages
c.Lipid zone
d.Fibrous cap
e.All the above
17. Which of the following are true regarding the
atherosclerosis:
a.thrombi may play a role in advanced lesion
b.Cigarette smoking in considered a primary risk
factor.
c.It is a disease of predominantly the intima
d.All of the above
18. All the following are true regarding the arteriosclerosis
except:
a.Is associated with hypertension
b.Monckeberg s arteriosclerosis involves the media
c.Monckeberg s arteriosclerosis is of little clinical
significance
d.May results in gangrene of the extremities.
19. The following does not predispose to atherosclerosis:
a.Hypertension
b.Smoking
c.Rheumatic fever
d.Obesity
20. Pathologic features of atherosclerosis include all
except:
a.fatty streaks
b.thrombus formation
c.hyaline thickening of arterial wall
d.atheromatous plaques
21. Least important risk factor for Atherosclerosis:
a.Smoking.
b.Hypertension.
c.Hyperlipidemia.
d.Obesity.
e.DM.
22. Is true about atherosclerosis:
a.Lesion develop only in ở above 40 Y
b.↑ HDL is important risk factors
c.Commonest in medium sized arteries.
d.All of the above.
e.Non of the above.
23.Risk factors in atherogenesis (development of
atheroma) include:
a.Hypertension.
b.Obesity.
c.Cigarette smoking
d.Diabetes mellitus.
24. Complications of atheroma including all the following
except:
a.Cerebral hemorrhage.
b.Angina pectoris.
 c.e- Gangrene of lower limb.
d.Aneurysm of ascending aorta.
e.Calcification of aortic wall.
25. Is true about the fibro fatty plaques:
a.Consist of core of fibrous & lipid cap.
b.Commonly seen in small arteries.
c.Leading to atrophy of the intima.
d.Slowly growing over the years.
26. All are having a role in atheroma formation except:
a.RBC's.
b.Platletes.
c.Foam cells.
d.Collagen.
e.Non of the above.
27. The size of Atherosclerotic plaques ↑↑ by:
a.Fissuring.
b.Ulceration.
c.Thrombosis.
d.Aneurismal dilatation.
28. All are increasing the risk of atheroma by their serum
levels except:
a.Cholesterol.
b.Triglycerid.
c.LDL.
d.HDL.
29. Atherosclerosis is a/an :-
a.Inflammatory disease
b.Degenerative disease
 c.Autoimmune disease
d.Embolic lesion
e.Neoplastic lesion
30. The most important risk factor for atherosclerosis in
patients under 45 years is:-
a.Smoking
b.Male sex
c.Lack of physical exercise
d.Hyperlipidemia
31. Major risk factors for the development of
atherosclerosis include all of the following lesions
except:-
a.Cigarette smoking
b.Hypocholesterolemia
c.Hypertension
d.DM
e.Male sex
32.Atherosclerosis is characterized by all except:-
a.A very common disease
b.Affects arteries and veins
c.Hypertension is a major risk factor
d.Lipid accumulated in the vessel wall
e.Thrombosis is the most important complication
33. Which of the following is not true for atherosclerosis:-
a.Common in the aorta
b.Complicated by thrombosis
c.Predispose to aneurysm
d.Hereditary predisposition
 e.Fibrinoid necrosis of media
34. The following doesn't predispose to atherosclerosis:-
a.Hypertension
b.DM
c.Rheumatic heart disease
d.High fat diet
e.Smoking
35. Pathological features of atherosclerosis include all
except:-
a.Fatty streaks
b.Atheromatous plaques
c.Hyaline thickening of arterial wall
d.Thrombus formation
e.Calcification
36. Intimal thickening in atherosclerosis is due to:-
a.Accumulation of lipids
b.Smooth muscle proliferation
c.Fibrous tissue formation
d.All of the above
e.None of the above
37. The presence of many foamy macrophages in the
arterial wall is characteristic of:-
a.Syphilitic arteritis
b.Atherosclerosis
c.Hypertension
d.All of the above
e.None of the above
38. Which of the following cells is least likely to play a role
in atheroma development:-
a.Monocytes
b.Platelets
c.Polymorph nuclear leukocytes
d.Smooth muscle cells
e.Lipid laden macrophages
39. The most important complication of atherosclerosis is:-
a.Thrombus formation
b.Ulceration
c.Dystrophic calcification
d.Aneurysmal dilatation
e.Hemorrhage
40.Atherosclerosis Affects
a.Arteries
b.Veins
c.Cardiac Chambers
d.All Of The Above
41. Atherosclerosis Is A
a.Inflammatory Disease
b.Degenerative Disease
c.Autoimmune Disease
d.None Of The Above
42. The Most Important Risk Factor For Atherosclerosis In
Patients Under 45 Years Is:
a.Male Sex
b.Smoking
c.Lack Of Physical Exercise
 d.Hyperlipidaemia
43. Atherosclerosis Is Characterised By All Except:
a.Affects Arteries And Veins
b.Thrombosis Is The Most Important Complication
c.A Very Common Disease
d.Hypertension Is A Major Risk Factor
e.Lipid Accumulates In The Vessel Wall
44. The Following Does Not Predispose To Atherosclerosis:
a.Hypertension
b.Diabetes Mellitus
c.Rheumatic Heart Disease
d.High Fat Diet
e.Smoking
45. Pathological Features Of Atherosclerosis Include All
Except:
a.Fatty Streaks
b.Atheromatous Plaques
c.Hyaline Thickening Of The Arterial Wall
d.Thrombus Formation
e.Calcification
46. Intimal Thickening In Atherosclerosis Is Due To:
a.Accumulation Of Lipids
b.Smooth Muscle Proliferation
c.Fibrous Tissue Formation
d.All Of The Above
47. The Presence Of Many Foamy Macrophages In The
Arterial Wall Is Characteristic Of:
a.Syphilitic Arteritis
 b.Hypertension
c.Atherosclerosis
d.All Of The Above
e.None Of The Above
48. The Most Important Complication Of Atherosclerosis Is:
a.Thrombus Formation
b.Dystrophic Calcification
c.Haemorrhage
d.Ulceration
e.Aneurysmal Dilation
 Aneurysms
1. The most common site of atherosclerotic aneurysm is
a.Arch of aorta
b.Thoracic aorta
c.Supra-renal abdominal aorta
d.Infra-renal abdominal aorta
2. The most common cause of dissecting hematoma is
a.Cystic medial necrosis
b.Trauma during cardiac catheterization
c.Systemic hypertension
d.Marfan syndrome
3. The commonest type of aneurysm is
a.Congenital
b.Syphilitic
c.Atheromatous
d.Dissecting
e.Mycotic
4. The most common cause of abdominal aortic aneurysm
is
a.Trauma
b.Atherosclerosis
c.Syphilis
d.Hypertension
5. Aneurysm of aortic arch are most commonly caused by
a.Atherosclerosis
b.Tuberculosis
c.Syphilis
d.Congenital defects
 e.Fungal infection
6. Aneurysm associated with generalized atherosclerosis
are found mostly in
a.Circle of Willis
b.Abdominal aorta
c.Arch of aorta
d.Renal arteries
e.Ascending aorta
7. Dissecting aneurysm of the aorta are most
characteristically associated with
a.Cystic medial necrosis
b.Fibrous dysplasia
c.Cystic fibrosis
d.Senile elastosis
8. An aneurysm of abdominal aorta is
a.Usually end result of syphilitic aortitis
b.Usually end result of atherosclerosis
c.Called berry aneurysm
d.Frequent complication of poly arteritis nodosa
9. True aneurysms may be due to all the following except:
a.trauma
a.syphilis
b.atherosclerosis
c.myxomatous degeneration of the media
10. The most frequent and significant effect of an aneurysm
of the ascending aorta:
a.rupture
b.pressure on the trachea
 c.erosion of the sternum
d.aortic valvular regurgitation
11. Congenital intracranial aneurysm in the form of:
a.Berry.
b.Fusiform.
c.Saccular.
d.Cylindrical
12. In aortic dissection:
a.True Aneurysm.
b.Marked dilatation
c.Usually started in abdominal aorta.
d.Internal hemorrhage.
13. Aortic dissection is associated with:
a.Intimal tear.
b.Progress proximally or distally.
c.Double barrel aorta.
d.Sever back pain.
e.All of the above.
14. Most fatal complication of aortic dissection:
a.Obstruction of major aortic branches.
b.Transverse myelitis.
c.Massive internal hemorrhage.
d.Disruption of aortic valve.
15. The most common site of atherosclerotic aneurysm is
a.Arch of aorta
b.Thoracic aorta
c.Supra-renal abdominal aorta
d.Infra-renal abdominal aorta
16. The most common cause of dissecting hematoma is
a.Cystic medial necrosis
b.Trauma during cardiac catheterization
c.Systemic hypertension
d.Marfan syndrome
17. The most common cause of abdominal aortic aneurysm
is
a.Trauma
b.Atherosclerosis
c.Syphilis
d.Hypertension
e.Cystic medial sclerosis
18. Aneurysm of aortic arch are most commonly caused by
a.Atherosclerosis
b.Tuberculosis
c.Syphilis
d.Congenital defects
e.Fungal infection
19. Aneurysm associated with generalized atherosclerosis
are found mostly in
a.Circle of Willis
b.Abdominal aorta
c.Arch of aorta
d.Renal arteries
e.Ascending aorta
20. An aneurysm of abdominal aorta is
a.Usually end result of syphilitic aortitis
 b.Usually end result of atherosclerosis
c.Called berry aneurysm
d.Frequent complication of poly arteritis nodosa
21. The commonest type of aneurysm is:
a.Congenital
b.Syphilitic
c.Atheromatous
d.Dissecting
e.Mycotic
 Vasculitidis & varicose veins
1. Cigarette smoking is most associated with:
a.Giant cell arteritis.
b.Polyarteritis nodosa
c.Thromboangitis oblitrans
d.Nonspecific arteritis.
2. Which of the following are characteristic of Polyarteritis
nodosa:
a.High incidence with hepatitis B
b.Fibrinoid necrosis
c.Both A and B
d.Neither A nor B
3. With regard to Giant cell arteritis:
a.Blindness is an important complication
b.Cigarette smoking is linked as cause
c.Most common in the legs
d.Give rise to pulmonary embolism
4. Polyarteritis nodosa is due to:-
a.Bacterial infection
b.Unknown cause
c.Fungal infection
d.Immune-mediated reaction
5. The most important pathologic feature of PAN is:-
a.Hyalinosis
b.Elastosis
c.Fibrinoid necrosis
d.Endotheliosis
 e.Fibrosis
6. All the followings are true about polyarteritis nodosa
except:-
a.Complicated by aneurysm
b.Contain central fibrinoid necrosis
c.Granulation tissue & fibrosis present around lesion
d.Single nodule
e.Reddish grey in color
7. Which of the following diseases is directly related to
smoking:-
a.Buerger's disease
b.Raynaud's disease
c.Dissecting aneurysm
d.Varicocele
e.Monckeberg's sclerosis
8. Buerger's disease affects:-
a.Medium-sized arteries
b.Small arteries
c.Veins
d.All of the above
e.None of the above
9. All are characters of Buerger's disease except:-
a.Often causes thrombosis in tibial arteries
b.Is associated with cigarette smoking
c.Usually affects those older than 60 years
d.Has an increased incidence in male individuals
e.Causes ischemia with intermittent claudication
10. In thromboangitis obliterans:-
 a.Smoking is not a predisposing factor
b.Accompanied by intraluminal thrombosis in vessel
wall
c.Occurs in large sized arteries mainly
d.Complicated with sudden death
11. Buerger's disease is not characterized by:-
a.Thrombosis
b.Organization
c.Recanalization
d.Ulceration
e.Progressive ischemic changes
12. The commonest artery affected by giant cell arteritis
is:-
a.Pulmonary arteries
b.Renal arteries
c.Coronary arteriesd
d.Temporal arteries
e.Cerebral arteries.
13. Buerger's disease affects:
a.Medium-sized arteries
b.Veins
c.Small arteries
d.All of the above
e.None of the above
14. Buerger's disease is NOT characterized by:
a.Thrombosis
b.Organization
c.Recanalization
 d.Ulceration
e.Progressive ischemic changes
15. The following is NOT true for thromboangitis obliterans:
a.Occurs exclusively in men
b.More common in heavy smokers
c.Affects mainly the vessels of upper limbs
d.Involves the vessels in a segmental pattern
e.Cold aggravates the condition
16. Polyarteritis nodosa is due to:
a.Infection
b.Autoimmune reaction
c.Unknown cause
d.Immune-mediated reaction
17. The most important pathologic feature of polyarteritis
nodosa is:
a.Hyalinosis
b.Fibrinoid necrosis
c.Elastosis
d.Fibrosis
e.Endotheliosis
18.The most important complication of varicose veins is:
a.Oedema
b.Hemorrhage
c.Thrombosis and embolism
d.Trophic skin changes
e.Infection