ACOUSTICS 24.

Sound sources that are coming from different instruments are

called
1. A vibration in an elastic medium to which the sense of hearing is uncorrelated
responsive.
Sound 25. If a sound receiver receives two sound waves, one directly from the
source and the other from simple reflection (with short delay), the
2. Pertaining to signals, equipment or devices that involve sound waves are considered as
frequencies within the human hearing range. correlated
Audio
26. If a sound receiver receives two sound waves, one directly from the
3. Method of expressing amplitude of complex non-periodic signal source and the other from a long relay deflection, the sound waves
such as speech. are considered
Volume uncorrelated

4. In measuring intelligibility of sound, the number of recorded 27. The sound at a particular point consist of a direct wave and a
syllables as a percentage of number transmitted is termed as the reflection with the same amplitude (P) but has been delayed by 1
articulation efficiency ms. If the sound frequency is 1kHz, calculate the pressure
amplitude in terms of P at this point.
5. Generally used as the measure of the amplitude of the sound wave. 2P
Sound pressure

6. A simple sound whose instantaneous waveform is that of a sine

wave. 28. Calculate the total signal pressure level when two vocalists sing at
Pure tone
the same pressure level of 1x10^-3 Pa each.
1.41x10^-3 Pa.
7. Sound reduction index is also called
transmission loss

8. Ability of sound to inhibit the perception of another sound

Masking 29. Frequency range of audible signal is
30. 20Hz-20kHz.
9. If the pressure component of the sound wave is in the form of a
sine wave, its associated velocity component would take a 31. What is the normal audible range of the human ear?
cosine wave 20 Hz to 20kHz.

10. In acoustics, the amplitude of the pressure component is a function 32. Audible sound that can be detected by human ear ranges from
of the ______ of the medium. 16Hz to 16kHz.
young’s modulus
33. Very low frequency or very low amplitude sounds.
11. In acoustics, the volume velocity of the component is a function of Subaudible
the _____ of the material.
Density 34. Very high frequency sounds or very high amplitude sounds
Superaudible
12. Complex number equal to the ratio of complex pressure amplitude
to the complex amplitude of the volume velocity 35. Signals having frequencies below the range of human hearing
acoustic impedance Infrasonic

13. Acoustic energy flowing per unit area and per unit time 36. Signals with frequencies above the range of human hearing
acoustic intensity Ultrasonic

14. What is the approximate acoustic impedance for a wave in air at 37. The wavelength of a 20Hz sound propagating in air at 25degC is
20deg Celsius? 17.4m
416kg/m2s
38. The increase in level for uncorrelated sound sources of equal
15. What is the speed of sound in water having a density of 1000 amplitudes is proportional to the
kg/m^3 and a Young’s modulus of 2.3x10^9N/m^2
1517m/s square root of the number of sound sources,

39. The sound intensity is

inversely proportional to the square of the distance.

16. Calculate the wavelength of sound wave in sea water whose 40. As sound propagates from the source, its intensity follows an
frequency is 100 kHz at 25 degrees C? inverse square law.
1.52cm
41. Measure of sound intensity in comparison to another sound
17. If the wavelength of sound is 3.5cm in sea water, calculate its intensity.
frequency. 43kHz Decibel*

18. What is the speed of sound in air at 25deg C? 42. A measure of the power density of a sound wave propagating in a
347m/s particular direction
SIL

43. Is a measure of the total power radiated in all directions by a

19. The velocity of sound in dry air medium is 331.45 m/s. Calculate source of sound.
the new velocity if there is an increase of temperature equal to 10 SWL
degrees centigrade.
337.52 m/s 44. It is also known as sound power level.
PWL
20. Speed of sound is 1000ft/s, what frequency has a wavelength of 24
inches? 45. Acoustic impedance is _____ the sound pressure.
500 Hz. directly proportional to the square of

21. What do you call of the several sound sources which are related to 46. If the distance between the listener and the source is tripled,
each other? intensity is reduced to
Correlated sound sources 1/9

22. If several sounds come from several unrelated sources, the sources
are called
uncorrelated sound sources 47. Decreasing distance by ½, intensity increases
4 times *
23. If sounds are produced from three loudspeakers which are driven
from a single source (i.e. amplifier), the speakers are considered as 48. How much is the reduction of sound intensity level (SIL) every time
correlated sound source we double the distance?
6dB
 68. In measuring loudness, using 1000-Hz sinewave as a reference, l
sone is agreed to be at what level, above the listener’s threshold of
hearing?
40dB
49. A loudspeaker radiates 100mW, what is the sound intensity level
(SIL) at a distance 1 m from the source? 69. As defined by ANSI, _____ is that attribute of auditory sensation in
99dB
terms of which sounds may be ordered on a scale extending from
low to high.
50. Doubling the pressure level will result in a _____ increase in SPL.
Pitch
6dB
70. The unit of pitch is the
Mel
51. What is the increase in sound intensity level (SIL) if the intensity if 71. Pitch of sound is dependent on
doubled? sound frequency, sound waveform, and sound pressure.
3dB
72. The apparent change in frequency or pitch because of motion is
explained by what effect?
Doppler effect
52. What is the SPL for a sound wave with 1 Pa rms pressure
amplitude? 73. _____ surfaces must be avoided since they result in undesirable
94dB focusing of sound.
Concave

74. What term describes sounds capable of being heard by the human
53. SPL can also be calculated using ear?
Sonics

75. A sound is considered as having a pitch if

54. Increase in SPL in dB, if pressure is increased 4 times, it has a periodic acoustic pressure variation with time
12dB
76. Pitch perception theory which relates directly to the frequency
55. A sound pressure (RMS)of 125ubars is equivalent to what sound analysis carried out by the basilar membrane in which different
frequency components of the input sound stimulate different
pressure level?
positions, or places on the membrane,
116dB
place theory

77. Pitch perception theory that is based on the fact that the waveform
of a sound with a strong musical pitch is periodic. This theory relies
56. The sound pressure level of 0 dB is equivalent to how many ubars? on the timing of neural firings generated in the organ of Corti
which occurs in response to vibrations of vasilar membrane.
Temporal theory

57. A loudspeaker has an effective area of 0.05m^2 and radiates 78. If a note has a fundamental frequency, fz=100Hz, what is its 5th
20mW. Calculate the sound intensity at the loudspeaker. harmonic?
0.4W/m^2 500Hz.

79. If a note has a fundamental frequency, fz=100Hz, what is its 5th

overtone?
58. Calculate the sound intensity level of the loudspeaker having a 600Hz.
sound intensity of 0.4 W/m^2?
116dB 80. The separation in pitch of frequency between two sounds.
Interval

81. The ratio of two sound frequencies separated by an interval.

59. If a sound source radiates 1 watt, what is its sound power level Frequency interval
(SWL)?
120dB 82. Interval between two tones sounded simultaneously.
Harmonic interval

83. Interval between two tones sounded successively.

60. Calculate the acoustic impedance if the sound pressure is 20uPa Melodic interval

and acoustic intensity is 84. The interval between any two frequencies that have a ratio of 2 to
1.
Octave

85. 11th octave, above 1kHz.

2048Hz

61. What are the three basic characteristics of sound? 86. Frequency 10 octaves above 30Hz.
Pitch, intensity and quality 30.72kHz

62. The sound characteristics related to a sonic time pattern is known 87. Octaves of frequency range 1 to 8 MHz.
as 3
rhythm
88. In acoustics, if the low frequency edge of a band is 10Hz, what is
63. The two main characteristics of sound waves. the high frequency edge of the band 10 octaves wide?
Pitch and loudness 10240Hz.

64. A unit of loudness for an individual listener is 89. Sound wave deformation during reproduction of amplification.
Sone Distortion

65. The unit loudness level of a tone compared to the intensity of 1000- 90. A means of correcting distortion
Hz tone. It is the apparent change in loudness discerned by a Equalization
listener.
Phon 91. Sound equalization means
boosting or reducing some frequency components to achieve a
66. A pure tone of loudness 40 phons produces a loudness sensation of desired effect.
l sone
92. A type of equalizer in which all the filter’s parameters can be
67. By definition, a pure tone 1000-Hz of loudness l sone produces a varied. Parametric equalizer.
pitch of
1000 mels 93. An equalizer which uses a bank of closely spaced fixed-frequency
band-pass filters to cover the entire audio frequency range.
Graphic equalizer.
94. The first sound heard by an observer. 122. The transmitting and receiving device in a sonar.
Direct sound Sound transceiver.

95. Time delay of reflected sound which can be considered as early 123. A sound transducer first achieved by Bell in magnetic form and
reflection. later made practical by Edison’s use of hard-coal particles.
20ms Loose-contact transducer.

96. an incident sound with an intensity of 16mW/m^2 reflects a wall 124. A transducer with a coil that surrounds some portion of a magnetic
with an absorption coefficient of 0.9. Determine the intensity of the circuit. The reluctance of the magnetic circuit is varied by the
reflected wave. 1.6mW/m^2 motion of a moving iron.
Moving-iron transducer.

125. Sound transducer whose generated potential is due to the

97. Unit of sound absorption oscillation of the coil within a uniform magnetic field.
Sabine Moving-coil transducer.

98. The average absorption of a person is 126. A special type of electrostatic microphone which holds polarization
4.7 sabines indefinitely without continued application of a polarizing potential.
Electrets microphone.
99. Persistence of sound in an enclosed space, as a result of multiple
reflections or scattering after the sound source has stopped. 127. Sound transducer whose output potential is generated through the
100. Reverberation flexing of crystalline elements as it is acted by sound waves.
Piezoelectric
101. The time elapsed for the sound to die away in an enclosed room.
reverberation time (reverberation) 128. What property of a crystalline material is used in a crystal
microphone?
102. The time considered to have a reverberation effect. The piezoelectric effect
One millionth
129. An electroacoustic transducer that radiates acoustic power into the
103. the perceptible repetition of sound due to multiple reflection of air. The acoustic waveform is equivalent to the electrical input
sound waves between the walls of a room is called waveform.
echo. Loudspeaker.

104. A room in which the walls, floor, and ceiling can absorb very little 130. Loudspeaker low frequencies response will be maximum if
sound, resulting in echoes. positioned in a room at the
Reverberation chamber. corner.

105. Room whose boundaries absorb effectively all incident sound. 131. Most loudspeakers today are of
Anechoic room. moving-coil type.

106. Resonant acoustic device consisting of air cavity connected to a 132. The intensity characteristic of sound.
larger space by a relatively small opening or neck. Loudness
Helmholtz resonator.

107. Sound reverberation is dependent on. BROADCASTING

Listener position and room dimension 133. FM broadcast receivers in the 88 MHz to 108MHz have an
intermediate frequency (IF) nominally at
108. The distance between the sound source and the listener wherein 10.7MHz *
the direct sound level is equal to the reverberant field.
Critical distance 134. The AM broadcast band in the Philippines is
535kHz to 1605kHz*
109. Most people commonly receive an increase in sound level of
6 to 10 dB. 135. If the final amplifier output power of a TV broadcast station is
4kW,the antenna transmission loss is 400 watts, and the antenna
110. In a typical hi-fi system in a living room, which sound wave is the power gain is 10, the effective radiated power is
most dominant? 35kW.
Reverberant field
111. A room which causes the sound to die away very quickly. 136. What type of emission used in video part of television
Dead room transmission?
A5*
112. A room which causes the sound to die away very slowly.
Live room 137. What is the purpose of the blanking pulses in a television receiver?
Cuts off the cathode ray tube beam during retrace *
113. An electronic device used to produce special sound effects when it
is held against the throat of the user 138. How wide a frequency band must the IF amplifier of an FM
Sonovox broadcast receiver pass?
150kC*
114. A temperature sensing device whose heat-absorbing properties are
enhanced by subjecting it to acoustic vibrations. 139. What is the frequency swing of an FM broadcast transmitter
Sonic thermocouple modulated 80 percent?
60kC*
115. An enclosure, usually a box or a can, for modifying the acoustic
qualities of sound 140. What is the function of quartz crystal in a radio transmitter?
sound chamber. To stabilize the frequency of the transmitting system*

116. A transducer used for the purpose of picking up acoustic vibrations 141. To cut off dangerous voltages when the cabinet of a transmitter is
for detection or measurement applications. opened, what device is used?
Sound probe Interlock switch*

117. Used as the sensing element of sound-pressure. 142. Transmitter maintained only for transmitting the regular programs
Diaphragm of broadcast stations in case of failure of the main transmitter is the
auxiliary transmitter.
118. A sound pressure transducer whose sensing diaphragm is used as
one electrode of a capacitor. 143. The frequency tolerance allowed in international broadcast
Condenser microphone. stations is
±2kHz*
119. Carbon microphones use.
Variable resistance. 144. Auxiliary transmitter of a regular broadcast station must be tested
at least
120. Ribbon microphone is an example of _____ microphone. once each week*
pressure-gradient
145. What do you call of the device which is used to derive a standard
121. An underwater acoustic pressure sensor, that is actually a sound- frequency of 10 kilocycles from a standard-frequency oscillator
to-electricity transducer. operating on 100 kilocycles?
Hydrophone Multivibrator*
 171. The expression “negative temperature coefficient” as applied to a
146. What is the oscillator frequency of an FM station using two quartz crystal means
doublers, one tripler, and a quadrupler, whose center frequency is that the frequency of the crystal varies indirectly with the
105.6MHz? temperature*
2.2MHz*
172. the video signal transmitted on a TV program employs
147. The field intensity of the antenna of a broadcast station is normally amplitude modulation*
measured in
microvolts per meter* 173. The sound transmitted on a TV program employs
frequency modulation*
148. The radio wave propagated from high frequency broadcast station
which reaches more than 4000km is called 174. In broadcast studios, a zero VU indicates how much percent
sky wave* modulation?
100*
149. What is the purpose of station call sign?
Identification of station* 175. This amplifier is used to isolate oscillator from power amplifiers.
Buffer amplifier*
150. What is the crystal frequency in a transmitter having three doubler
stages and output frequency of 8000kHz? 176. A power line filter for rejecting RF interference has
1000kHz* RF bypass capacitors in shunt across the power line*

151. Why should a transmitter be tuned initially at reduced power? 177. In a broadcast station, the audio peak limiters are used to
To prevent damage to components* prevent the modulation percentage of the transmitter to be
exceeded*
152. What is the purpose of putting crystal oscillator in a constant
temperature oven? 178. What is the local oscillator frequency in commercial AM broadcast
To stabilize the oscillator frequency* if it is equal to 455 kHz?
955 to 2055 kHz.
153. A crystal oscillator is used to generate the carrier wave in
transmitter because it 179. Listing of the date and time of events, programs, equipments, tests,
has good frequency stability* malfunctions and corrections in communications system
Log
154. Too much loading of an oscillator may result in
poor frequency stability* 180. What is the purpose of an indirectly-heated cathode in a cathode
ray tube?
155. In a frequency modulated receiver, the function of the Beam production
discriminator is to
separate audio signal from the IF* 181. Which of the following is not a low-impedance microphone?
Crystal
156. In broadcast transmitters, modulation in the oscillator stage is
rarely used because 182. Facsimile permits remote duplications of which of the following
it is liable to cause frequency instability* items?
Map, Pictures, Printed Page
157. The stability of transmitter frequency is best maintained by
using crystal oscillator as frequency operator* 183. A measure of how well the receiver can respond to very weak
signals.
158. The emission symbol for television broadcast is Sensitivity
A5*
184. The FM broadcast band is from
159. To maintain a stable frequency, crystal in the oscillator stage are 88 to 108kHz.
enclosed in crystal ovens*
185. The type of emission used by standard AM radio broadcast.
160. A system of telecommunication set-up for the transmission of A3
speech, or in some cases other sounds is
telephony* 186. The standard AM radio broadcast belongs to which frequency
band?
161. The type of emission for FM stereo (multiplex) broadcasting is MF
F8E*
187. What is the allowable frequency deviation of a commercial FM
162. The width of a television broadcast channel is broadcast band?
6MHz* 75kHz

163. The spare radio equipment is normally termed as 188. The final amplifier of either FM or AM transmitter is operated as
auxiliary equipment* Class C

164. The function of a quartz crystal in a radio transmitter is 189. Standard AM broadcasting use _____ for greater and efficient
to keep the transmitter on its assigned frequency within the coverage.
allowed frequency tolerance* vertical polarized wave antenna

165. In FM transmitter the amplitude of the antenna current 190. Receiver sensitivity means
remains essentially constant during the process of the ability of picking up weak signal.
modulation*
191. The main function of the RF amplifier in a superheterodyne
166. The squelch circuit in a radio communication receiver is used receiver is to
to reduce inherent noise developed in the receiver during the improve the rejection of the image frequency.
absence of signal frequency*
192. Local oscillator of a broadcast receiver always tunes to a frequency
167. A _____ is essentially a frequency stabilizer. It serves as a voltage _____ than the incoming frequency in order _____.
amplifier stage to isolate the crystal oscillator from the radio Higher --- to allow adequate frequency coverage without
frequency amplifier circuit. switching
buffer amplifier
193. Which of the following is the first component of any MATV system
168. Undesired oscillations developed in a radio frequency amplifier to receive broadcast signals?
circuit as some frequency higher than the normal operating Antenna
frequency.
Parasitic oscillation* 194. It is the most common technique where apartment houses, hotels,
schools, condominiums, and multi-unit buildings distribute TV and
169. _____ is used to load a transmitter for testing purposes without FM signals to a number of receivers, using a single head-end.
radiation. CCTV
Dummy antenna*
195. Interlacing is used in television to
170. The expression “positive temperature coefficient” as applied to a avoid flicker.
quartz crystal means
that the frequency of the crystal varies directly with the 196. A mechanism or device which enables the TV camera to move in
temperature* lateral and tilting motion
Pan/tilt device
 224. Commercial load for radio shall not exceed _____ for one hour
197. Which of the following is a solid state imaging device? program in Metro Manila.
Charge couple device 15 minutes

198. What class of TV camera lens used to cover short distances? 225. Commercial load for radio shall not exceed _____ for a one hour
Wide angle program outside Metro Manila.
17 minutes
199. What class of TV camera lens used to cover long distances?
Telephoto 226. Program interruption for the airing of commercial in Metro Manila
shall not exceed _____ breaks every program hour.
200. What is the chroma subcarrier signal frequency for color 6
television?
3.8MHz 227. Program interruption for the airing of commercial outside Metro
Manila shall not exceed _____ breaks in every program hour.
201. The aspect ratio of HDTV is 6
16/9
228. The colors found around the perimeter of the color triangle are
202. Television has a lot of features in common with said to be
motion picture. Saturated

203. The major component of the TV signal waveform is the 229. What is the phase difference between the I and Q color signal
Video carriers?
90 degrees
204. For NTSC TV system, the image is scanned from
top to bottom and left to right 230. The carrier transmitted 1.25MHz above the bottom frequency in a
United States TV Channel is the
205. What is the horizontal synchronous/blanking pulse rate? picture carrier
15.75 Hz
231. ______ is the most effective filter for separating luminance and
206. What is the vertical blanking pulse rate? chrominance frequency components.
60Hz. Comb

207. The pulses riding on the vertical blanking pulse. 232. The chrominance processing circuits can be deactivated when
Equalizing (sync) pulses and serrated vertical sync pulses. monochrome broadcasts are received by the
color killer
208. Television camera pickup tube is called
vidicon, image orthicon, plumbicon 233. What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for blanking?
75%
209. The television picture tube magnetic fields can be used for
beam focusing and beam deflection 234. What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for black?
70%
210. Indicate which voltages are not found in the output of a normal
monochrome receiver video detector. 235. What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for white?
Sweep 0%

211. Video modulation for television is 236. One should first perform ______ before a convergence setup is
both amplitude modulation and vestigial sideband performed.
Degaussing
212. What is the maximum frequency deviation for audio modulation in
TV transmission? 237. For Metro Manila, the classification of primetime blocks for FM
25kHz shall be
6:00AM to 8:00PM
213. The video carrier and the audio carrier are separated by
4.5MHz. 238. For provincial stations, the classification of primetime blocks for
FM radio shall be
214. In a practical image scanned at the NTSC rate, the spectrum will 6:00AM to 8:00PM
include components clustered at the fundamentals and harmonics
of 239. All airtime classifications shall be submitted to and subject for
15.75Hz. approval by the
KBP-SA
215. Brightness of an image is known as
Luminance 240. What is the frequency tolerance of an FM Radio Broadcast station?
±2000Hz
216. The colors at the vertices of the color triangle are referred to as
Primary 241. The minimum frequency separation between frequency of AM
broadcasting station
217. A newscast is a distinct unit of a program with a minimum news 36kHz
content of _____ excluding intro, extro, headline and commercial
load. 242. If there are too harmonics, one should check the
1 minute coupling, tuning of circuits, shielding

218. In accordance with existing provision of law and the KBP rules and 243. In transmitter amplifier design, an even-order harmonics can be
regulations, all stations shall actively promote the growth and the prevented or reduced by
development of Filipino music by playing ____ every clock hour. using a push-pull amplifier.
4 OPM
244. The vertical and horizontal pulses are separated at the
219. KBP radio code mandates that station must provide a minimum of sync separator.
_____ of news per day from 5:00 in the morning to 10:00 in the
evening. 245. The reason why buffer stage is included in a transmitter is to
45 minutes present a constant load to the oscillator stage

220. What are the three separate signals derived from a matrix in a 246. Where is the operating position of a radio station?
color TV transmitter? At the control point
Y,I, and Q.
247. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during
221. Range of a VHF television transmitter. vertical blanking
54-98MHz
248. The alignment of the three color guns to a common point is known
222. Range of a UHF television transmitter as
470-890MHz Convergence

223. What is the approximate bandwidth occupied by the chrominance 249. Lack of raster is an indication of no
video signal for color TV? high voltage
1.8MHz
250. The sound and video signals are separated at the _____ of the TV
receiver.
 video detector 278. CCIR standards for the internal exchange of programmes on film
for television used.
251. What is emission A3F? Rec.256-6
TV
279. CCIR transmission standards for FM sound broadcasting at VHF.
252. The presence of color bars is an indication that there is a problem Rec. 450.1
in the ______ circuit.
reactor 280. ISO Rec. 23 in 1976 is the standard for recorded characteristics for
253. Type of emission produced when a frequency modulated magnetic sound records on full cost 16mm.
transmitter is modulated by a TV signal. camera usage of 35mm motion picture film.
F3F
281. The output of the vertical amplifier, applied to the yoke in a TV
254. What is emission F3F? receiver, consists of a
Television sawtooth current.

255. Cause of slow rising white “hum bars” in the television. 282. Which of the class station below is a regional channel?
Bad filter Class III-B

256. An odd number of lines per frame form part of every one of the 283. International broadcasting (short wave) uses frequency between
world’s TV systems. This is ______ in accordance with international agreements.
done to assist interlace 5950 and 26100 kHz

257. Adjusting the _____ may eliminate color confetti. 284. The permissible power in kW of stations II-A during nighttime is
color killer 0.25-50.

258. Video signal amplitude determine the picture quality called 285. The television frequency which are now allocated to the land
Contrast mobile services
806 and 192MHz
259. Part of broadcast day from midnight to local sunrise.
Experimental 286. The HV anode supply for the picture tube of a TV receiver is
generated in the
260. Part of broadcast day from local sunset to local sunrise. horizontal output stage.
Nighttime
287. Numerical frequency band designation of Channel 9.
261. What causes snow in television? 186-192 MHz.
Random noise in the signal.
288. Cable TV systems originate from
262. The function of the serrations in the composite video waveform is Pennsylvania
to
help horizontal synchronization 289. A term applied to third and higher order products, which can
greatly degrade the performance of the system.
263. Vestigial sideband is known as _____ type of emission. Composite triple beat.
C3F
290. A station similar to a translator station in terms of equipment and
264. Which of the following filters block FM radio band for TV channels service area, but is permitted to originate programming from
(2 to 13)? virtually any source.
Band-reject filter LPTV.

265. The width of the vertical sync pulse in the United States TV system 291. Indicate the following signals is not transmitted in color TV:
is R
3H
292. The shadow mask in a color picture tube is used to
266. Indicate which of the following frequencies will not be found in the ensure that each beam hits only its own dots.
output of a normal TV receiver tuner:
4.5MHz 293. Three stations are licensed to eligible education entities for the
distribution of program material to students enrolled in
267. When were UHF channels (14-83) of television added? instructional curricula.
1952 ITFS.

268. When was colored TV standards established in the United States? 294. ITFS means
1953 Instructional Television Fixed Service.

269. What synchronizes the horizontal line of the TV picture tube? 295. MDS means
HAFC Multipoint Distribution Service

270. Type of filter used in TV receivers that separates the chroma signal 296. Direct broadcast satellite based allocation.
from the colorplexed video signal but leaves intact the Y- 12.2-12.7GHz for downlink and 17.3-17.8GHz for uplink.
component.
Comb filter 297. What is the channel number of an FM station with 88.1MHz
carrier?
271. What is the first-letter symbol for emission of unmodulated 201
carrier?
N 298. If an FM station has an effective radiated power of 100kW then it is
under what class?
272. The channel for cable TV frequency range of 5.75 to 11.75 MHz. Class C
T-1
299. The video signal amplitude determines the quality of the picture
273. The frequency range for cable TV channel T-13. otherwise known as
23.75 to 29.75MHz Contrast

274. Channel 8 frequency range allocation in cable TV. 300. The ultimate Dolby surround system is the
180-186MHz Dolby Prologic.

275. The video voltage applied to the picture tube of a television 301. What is the carrier frequency of an FM station with channel
receiver is fed in number of 300?
between grid and cathode 107.9MHz

276. The circuit that separates sync pulses from the composite video 302. In a TV receiver, the color killer
waveform is cuts off the chroma stages during monochrome reception
a clipper.

277. The _____ of a television system is a measure of its ability to

delineate picture detail.
Resolution