NEET (Pre-Medical) Unacademy Major Test Series

Course: 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3

Time: 3 Hours Test Date: 20 April 2025 Maximum Marks: 720

Name of Candidate (In Capitals):________________________________________________________________________________________

ijh{kkFkhZ dk uke (cM+s v{kjksa es)a :_____________________________________________________________________________________
Roll Number (In figures):_______________________________________________In words:________________________________________
vuqØekad (vadks esa):__________________________________________________'kCnksa esa:_____________________________________
Test Centre (In Capitals):_______________________________________________________________________________________________
ijh{kk dsUnz (cM+s v{kjksa esa):________________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________ _______________________
ijh{kkFkhZ ds gLrk{kj:_________________________________________ijh{kd ds gLrk{kj:_______________________________________

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
egRoiw.kZ funs’Z k (Important Instructions):
1. mŸkj iqfLrdk ij dsoy uhys@dkys ckWy ikWbaV isu ls lkbM& 1 rFkk 1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1 and
lkbM& 2 ij fooj.k lko/kkuh ls HkjsA Side-2 carefully with blue/black ballpoint pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration and the Test Booklet contains
2. Ikjh{kk 3 ?kaVs dh vof/k dh gSA VsLV cqdysV esa HkkSfrdh] jlk;u 'kkL= ,oa tho
180 multiple-choice questions (four options with a single
foKku ¼çk.khfoKku o ouLifrfoKku½ ls 180 cgqfodfYi; iz'u ¼,d lgh mŸkj ds correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany
lkFk pkj fodYi½ gSA HkkSfrdh] jlk;u foKku esa 45-45 ,oa tho foKku esa 90 iz’u & Zoology). 45-45 questions in Physics & Chemistry and
uhps fn;s x;s fooj.k ds vuqlkj esa foHkkftr gS% 90 questions in Biology, subject are divided as per details
given below:
(1) Hkkx A - HkkSfrdh esa 45 iz’u gksx
a s ¼iz’u la[;k - 1 ls 45½ lHkh iz’u djuk (1) Part A Physics shall consist of 45 (Forty-five) Questions
vfuok;Z gSA in each subject (Questions Nos- 1 to 45). All questions are
(2) Hkkx B - jlk;u 'kkL= esa 45 iz’u gksx a s ¼iz’u la[;k - 46 ls 90½ lHkh iz’u compulsory.
djuk vfuok;Z gSA (2) Part B - Chemistry shall consist of 45 (Forty-five)
Questions in each subject (Questions Nos- 46 to 90).
(3) Hkkx C - tho foKku ¼çk.khfoKku o ouLifrfoKku½ esa 90 iz’u gksx a s
All questions are compulsory.
¼iz’u la[;k - 91 ls 180½ lHkh iz’u djuk vfuok;Z gSA (3) Part C - Biology (Botany & Zoology Combined) shall
3. izR;sd iz’u 4 vad dk gSA izR;sd lgh mŸkj ds fy, mEehnokj dks 4 vad feysx a Asa consist of 90 (Ninety) Questions in each subject (Questions
Nos- 91 to 180). All questions are compulsory.
izR;sd xyr izfrfØ;k ds fy, dqy vadksa esa ls ,d vad dkVk tk,xkA vf/kdre 3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the
vad 720 gSaA candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will deducted from the total scores. The maximum are 720.
4. fooj.k fy[kus rFkk mŸkj i=d ij mŸkj Hkjus ds fy, dsoy uhys@dkys ckWy ikWbaV
4. Use Blue/Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars on
isu dk mi;ksx djsAa these page/marking responses on the Answer Sheet. Use of
5. mEehnokj dks ;g lqfuf’pr djuk pkfg, fd mŸkj i=d eqM+k gqvk ugha gSaA mŸkj white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer
Sheet.
iqfLrdk ij fdlh Hkh izdkj dksbZ fu’kku u yxk,aA ijh{kk iqfLrdk@mŸkj i=d esa 5. The candidate should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not
fufnZ"V LFkku dks NksM+dj viuk jksy uEcj dgha vkSj u fy[ksAa folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do
6. mŸkj i=d esa lq/kkj ds fy, lQsn rjy ¼okbVuj½ dk iz;ksx djus dh vuqefr ugha not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified
space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
gSA 6. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the
7. izR;sd mEehnokj dks dgs tkus ij viuk izos’k&i= fujh{kd dks fn[kkuk gksxkA Answer Sheet.
7. Each candidate must show on-demand his/her Admit card to
8. dksbZ Hkh vH;FkhZ dsUnz v/kh{kd ;k fujh{kd dh fo’ks"k vuqefr ds fcuk viuk LFkku the Invigilator.
ugha NksM+x s kA 8. No candidate, without special permission of the centre
Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
9. mEehnokj dks viuh mŸkj iqfLrdk M~;wVh ij ekStwn fujh{kd dks lkSai s fcuk ijh{kk
9. The candidate should not leave the Examination Hall without
gkWy ls ckgj ugha tkuk gSA mifLFkfr i= ij 2 ckj gLRkk{kj fd;s tk,xsAa ftu handing over their Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty and
ekeyksa esa mEehnokj us nwljh ckj mifLFkfr i=d ij gLrk{kj ugha fd;k gS mUgsa sign (with time) the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases, where a
candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time,
vuqfpr lk/ku ekeys ds :i esa fuiVk tk;sxkA will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet
10. bysDVªkWfud@eSuqvy dSYdqysVj dk mi;ksx izfrcaf/kr gSA and dealt with as an Unfair Means case.
11. mEehnokj ifj{kk d{k@gkWy esa muds vkpj.k ds laca/k esa ijh{kk ds lHkh fu;eksa vkSj 10. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
11. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of
fofue;ksa }kjk ’kkflr gSaA vuqfpr lk/kuksa ds lHkh ekeyksa dks bl ijh{kk ds fu;eksa the examination with regard to their conduct in the
vkSj fofue;ksa ds vuqlkj fuiVk;k tk;sxkA Examination Room/Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt
with as per the Rules and Regulation of this examination.
12. fdlh Hkh ifjfLFkfr esa VsLV oqdySV vkSj mŸkj i=d dk dksbZ Hkh fgLlk vyx ugha
12. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be
fd;k tk,xkA detached under any circumstances.
13. vH;FkhZ lgh VsLV cqdySV dksM] tSlk fd VsLV cqdySV@mŸkj i=d esa fn;k x;k gS] 13. The candidate will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as
given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance
dks mifLFkfr i=d esa fy[ksAa Sheet.
(Hindi + English)
 TEST SYLLABUS

Unacademy Major Test Series

Course: 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3

20 April 2025

Physics - Full Syllabus

Chemistry - Full Syllabus

Biology - Full Syllabus

,d oLrq dks osx =  + ls iz{ksfir fd;k
=  +
tkrk gSA oLrq dk mMM~;udky gksxkA {kSfrt rFkk
Å/okZ/kj v{k ekus rFkk xq:Roh; Roj.k gS

   

   
 

,d dkj nwjh dk ok¡ Hkkx rFkk nwjh dk

ok¡ Hkkx dh pky ls r; djrh gSA

lEiw.kZ ;k=k ds nkSjku dkj dh vkSlr pky gksxh &

,d canj jLlh ij uhps dh rjQ fQlyrk gSA jLlh

dh Hkatu lkeF;Z canj ds Hkkj dk ok¡ Hkkx gSA canj

U;wure fdl Roj.k ls uhps dh rjQ fQlys rkfd

jLlh VwVs ugha &

æO;eku dk ,d xqVdk fu;r osx ls  dks.k ds

vkur ry ij uhps dh vksj fQlyrk gSA ?k"kZ.k xq.kkad
 
 gSA lEidZ cy dk ifjek.k gksxk
   
   
,d fuf'pr lajf{kr cy {ks= esa oLrq dh
fLFkfrt ÅtkZ nh x;h gS] rc ml ij
yxus okyk cy gksxk &
           
  +  +    +  + 
           

           
−  −  +  −  −  + 
           

           
−  −  −  −  −  − 
           

           
 + −   + − 
           

,d fi.M ij mlds osx dks + + −

+ −
−
cuk, j[kus ds fy, ,d cy + − dk;Zjr + +
gS rc nh xbZ 'kfDr gksxh\

nks d.k çR;sd dk æO;eku gS] {kSfrt o`r esa leku

dks.kh; pky ls xfr dj jgs gSaA ;fn nksuksa jfLl;ksa
dh yEckbZ leku gS] rc bu jfLl;ksa esa rukoksa dk

vuqikr gksxk &

 f=T;k dh ,dleku pdrh ¼dsUæ ½ ls fp=kuqlkj
,d NksVh pdrh gVk;h tkrh gSA 'ks"k Hkkx dk æO;eku
dsæ gksxk

dsUnz ls nwjh ij

dsUnz ls nwjh ij

dsUnz ls nwjh ij

dsUnz ls nwjh ij

ewy fcanq ds lkis{k ,d cy + − dk cy + −

vk?kw.kZ  gSA ;fn cy ml d.k ij dk;Z djrk gS 

ftldk fLFkfr lfn'k + + gS] rks  dk eku

gksxkA + + 

+ − − + − + − − + −

− + − + + − + − + +

nzO;eku rFkk  Hkqtk okyh ,d oxkZdkj IysV ds


fdlh ,d dksus ls xqtjus okyh rFkk IysV ds ry ds
yacor~ v{k ds ifjr% oxkZdkj IysV dk tM+Ro vk?kw.kZ
gksxk
,d felkby dks iyk;u osx ls de osx ls iz{ksfir
fd;k tkrk gSA bldh xfrt rFkk fLFkfrt ÅtkZvksa
dk ;ksx gS
/kukRed
_.kkRed
'kwU;
blds izkjfEHkd osx ij fuHkZj djrs gq, /kukRed
;k _.kkRed gks ldrk gS

o nzO;eku ds nks xksys nwjh ij j[ks x;s

gSA fcUnq 'kwU; rhozrk fcanq gS] rc cjkcj gS

LVhy dh ,d NksVh xksyh fXyljhu ls Hkjs ,d yEcs

csyu esa fxjrh gSA xksyh ds LFkkukUrj.k ds fy, fuEu

esa ls dkSulk osx le; lgh fu:i.k djrk gS

cQZ dk ,d ?ku vkaf'kd :i ls ikuh rFkk vkaf'kd
:i ls dSjksflu rsy esa rSjrk gSA ikuh esa Mwcs cQZ ds
vk;ru rFkk dSjksflu rsy esa Mwcs cQZ ds vk;ru dk
vuqikr gS dSjksflu rsy dk fof'k"V xq:Ro
cQZ ds fof'k"V xq:Ro

yEckbZ dk ,d rkj –<+ vk/kkj ls yVdk gqvk gSA

tc ,oa ds æO;eku yVdk, tkrs gS rks
yackbZ Øe'k% ,oa gks tkrh gS rks dk eku
gksxk &
+ +

,d Å"ekxfrdh fudk; dks bldh okLrfod voLFkk

ls fdlh e/;eorhZ voLFkk rd ,d js[kh; çØe
ls xqtkjk tkrk gSA rRi'pkr ,d lenkch; çØe ds
vUrxZr blds vk;ru dks ls rd ?kVk;k tkrk
gS] rc xSl }kjk esa fd;k x;k dk;Z
gksxk&
 fn, x, rkieku ij dksbZ nks fHkUu
,dyijekf.od xSl dk ;fn nzO;eku leku gks] rks
mudh dqy vkarfjd ÅtkZ Hkh leku gksxhA
nh xbZ ek=k ds fy, vkn'kZ xSl ds fy,
mldh vkarfjd ÅtkZ dsoy rki ij fuHkZj djrh gSA
dFku rFkk dFku nksuks lgh gSaA
dFku rFkk dFku nksuks xyr gSaA
dFku lgh gS rFkk dFku xyr gSA
dFku xyr gS rFkk dFku lgh gSA

;fn vkSj rFkk esa =qfV;k¡ Øe'k%

vkSj gSa] ;fn ehVj vkSj ehVj gks
rks esa vf/kdre çfr'kr =qfV Kkr dhft,A

,d LØwxst dh o`Ùkh; Ldsy ij foHkktu gSa vkSj

bldh fip feeh gSA tc tcM+ksa ds chp dksbZ ekih tk
jgh oLrq ugha gksrh gS] rks o`Ùkh; Ldsy dk 'kwU; vk/kkj
js[kk ls Hkkx uhps fn[kkbZ nsrk gSA blds ckn ,d rkj
dk O;kl bl LØw xst ls ekik tkrk gSA ik;k x;k fd
js[kh; iSekus ij Hkkx Li"V :i ls fn[kkbZ ns jgs gSa
tcfd o`Ùkh; Ldsy ds Hkkx vk/kkj js[kk ls esy [kkrs
gSaA rkj dk O;kl D;k gS\

,d d.k ek/; fLFkfr ls ljy vkorZ xfr djuk izkjEHk

djrk gSA bldk vk;ke gS rFkk dqy ÅtkZ gSA
fdlh ,d {k.k ij bldh xfrt ÅtkZ gSA bl
{k.k ij bldk foLFkkiu gS
,d Lofj=] ds ruko ds lkFk [khaps x,
yackbZ ds lksuksehVj rkj ds lkFk vuqukn dj jgk gSA
tc rkj esa ruko dks cny dj dj fn;k tkrk
gS] rks fn;s x;s Lofj= ds lkFk çfr lsdaM foLian
mRiUu djrk gSA Lofj= dh vko`fÙk gksxh

nks le:i /kkrq ds xksys ,oa ek=d vkos'k

ls vkosf'kr fd;s x;s gSaA ;fn budks ,d&nwljs ds
lEidZ esa ykdj vyx dj iqu% mlh nwjh ij j[k fn;k
tk;s rks nksuksa voLFkkvksa esa cy dk vuqikr gksxk&

;fn vkos'k dks oksYV ls oksYV rd Rofjr

fd;k tk;s vkSj xfrt ÅtkZ esa o`f) twy
gks rks dk eku gS &

f}/kqzo ds dkj.k v{kh; nwjh ij fo|qr {ks= ,oa

HkwE/; js[kh; nwjh ij gS rks vkSj esa lacU/k

gksxk&

yksgk] rk¡ck rFkk ,sY;wfefu;e ds leku f=T;k ds

xksykdkj pkydksa dh /kkfjrk,¡ Øe'k% rFkk
gSa rks&
fp=kuqlkj pkj leku IysVksa dk {ks=Qy rFkk buds
e/; dh nwjh gks] rks fcUnqvksa o ds e/; rqY;
/kkfjrk Kkr djks \

 

fp= esa yxs lkjs cYc ,d tSls gSA buesa ls dkSulk ls

cYc vf/kd rhozrk ds lkFk tysxk &

flQZ cYc flQZ cYc

cYc vkSj cYc vkSj

fp= esa n'kkZ;h xbZ cSVjh dk fo-ok-cy gksxk&

rFkk nks ladsUæh; o`Ÿkh; pkyd gS budk dsUæ

gS] fp=kuqlkj buesa /kkjk rFkk çokfgr gks jgh
gSA ;fn bldh f=T;k dk vuqikr gS ,ao ij
,ao ds dkj.k pqEcdh; ¶yDl ?kuRo dk vuqikr
gks rks dk eku gksxk &
fp= esa n'kkZ;h xbZ fn'kk esa bafxr cká pqEcdh; {ks=
ds çHkko esa fuez esa ls dkSulk /kkjkokgh ywi lkE;koLFkk
esa ugha gS &

fdlh pqEcd ds /kqzoksa dks nks Hkkxksa esa rksM+dj

vyx&vyx ugha fd;k tk ldrkA

pq E cd dks nks leku Hkkxksa esa rks M + us ij]

pq E cdh; vk?kw.kZ ?kVdj vk/kk gks tk;s xkA
bu dFkuks a es a
dFku ,oa dFku nksuksa xyr gSA

dFku xyr gS ijarq dFku lgh gSA

dFku ,oa dFku nksuksa lgh gSA

dFku lgh gS ijarq dFku xyr gSA

yEck dksbZ /kkrq dk pkyd vius fdlh fljs ds

ifjr ds dks.kh; osx ls m/okZ/kj ry esa
?kw.kZu dj jgk gSA ;fn i`Foh ds pqEcdh; {ks= ds {kSfrt
?kVd dk eku gS rks pkyd ds nks fljksa
ds chp mRiUu fo|qr okgd cy gS &
 

 
,d /kkjk nks ?kVdksa ls cuh gS] ,d ?kVd
vkSj ,d ?kVd tks
= 
=  fn;k x;k gS rc xeZ rkj
,ehVj dk ikB~;kad gksxk

+ +

,d lekarj IysV la/kkfj= ¼fp=½] f=T;k

dh nks o`Ÿkkdkj IysVksa ls cuk gS vkSj bldh /kkfjrk
gSA la/kkfj= dks
dh ¼dks.kh;½ vko`fŸk ds fdlh L=ksr ls tksM+k x;k gSA
foLFkkiu /kkjk dk eku D;k gS yxHkx

   
   

tc çdk'k dh ,do.khZ; fdj.k viorZukad okys

ek/;e ls viorZukad okys ek/;e esa tkrh gS
] rks

pky xquk c<+ tkrh gS

pky xquk de gks tkrh gS

vko`fŸk xquk de gks tkrh gS

rjaxnS/kZ~; xquk c<+ tkrh gS

fdlh ek/;e ls fuokZr~ esa iw.kZ vkUrfjd ijkorZu ds
fy, ØkfUrd dks.k gS] rks ek/;e esa çdk'k dk
osx gS&

Mk;IVj {kerk okys ySal dks Mk;IVj {kerk

okys ySal ds lkFk laidZ esa j[kk x;k gS budk ;qXe
fdldh rjg O;ogkj djsxk &
,d vfHklkjh ySal ftldh Qksdl nwjh gS
,d vilkjh ySal ftldh Qksdl nwjh gS
,d vfHklkjh ySal ftldh Qksdl nwjh gS
,d vfHklkjh ySal ftldh Qksdl nwjh gS

fdlh la;qä lw{en'khZ dh vko/kZu {kerk gSA ;fn

;g lw{en'khZ vfUre çfrfcEc fudV fcUnq ij
cukrk gS] rks vfHk–';d ysal dh vko/kZu {kerk Kkr
dhft;sA

;ax ds ç;ksx esa] ,d js[kk&fNæ dks uhys fQYVj ls

rFkk nwljs ¼js[kkfNæ½ dks ihys fQYVj ls <dk x;k gS]
rks O;frdj.k çfr:i
uhyk gksxk ihyk gksxk
gjk gksxk ugha cusxk

fuEu esa ls dkSu ls fp= esa laf/k Mk;ksM i'p vfHkufr

esa gS &
rdZ }kj rFkk dh lR;rk lkj.kh fp= esa çnf'kZr
gS&

tc dk fuxZr ladsr ds fuos'k ls la;ksftr fd;k

tkrk gS] rks ifj.kkeh ladsr fdl rdZ }kj ds rqY;
gS&

dksbZ ugha

ml Mk;ksM ds çdkj dk uke fyf[k, ftlds

vfHky{kf.kd fp= rFkk esa n'kkZ;s x;s gSa &

lkSj lsy rFkk thuj Mk;ksM

lkSj lsy rFkk QksVks Mk;ksM
lkSj lsy rFkk
thuj Mk;ksM rFkk lkSj lsy
 ÅtkZ okys nks QksV‚u dk;Z Qyu
okyh /kkrq dh lrg ij vkifrr gksrs gSa rks
mRlftZr bysDVª‚u dh xfrt ÅtkZ
gS
mRlftZr bysDVª‚u dh xfrt ÅtkZ gS
mRlftZr bysDVª‚u dh xfrt ÅtkZ ls
ds chp gksrh gS
bysDVª‚u mRltZu ugha gksxkA

bysDVª‚u lw{en'khZ esa mi;ksx fd, tkus okys bysDVª‚uksa

dks ds oksYVst }kjk Rofjr fd;k tkrk gSA
;fn oksYVst dks rd c<+k fn;k tk, rks
bysDVª‚uksa ls tqM+h Mh&cz‚Xyh rjaxnS/kZ~; gksxh
xquk c<+ tkrk gS

xquk ?kV tkrk gS

xquk ?kV tkrk gS

xquk c<+ tkrk gS

ds ,d ukfHkd ds /khes U;wVª‚u }kjk fo[kaMu ls

ÅtkZ mRiUu gksrh gSA ;fn ,d ukfHkfd;
fj,DVj ls 'kfä çkIr gks jgh gS] rks fo[kaMu
dh nj D;k gksxh\
 Hkkx-B: jlk;u 'kkL= PART-B: CHEMISTRY

46. vk/kqfud vkorZ lkj.kh ds vuqlkj dkSulk rRo] vU; 46. The element that does not belong to the

rRoksa ds leku vkorZ ls lacaf/kr ugha gSA same period of the remaining elements

(modern periodic table) is:

(1) iSysfM;e (2) bfjfM;e
(1) Palladium (2) Iridium
(3) v‚fLe;e (4) IySfVue (3) Osmium (4) Platinum

47. lwph&I dks lwph&II ls lqesfyr djsaA 47. Match List-I with List-II.

lwph&I lwph&II List-I List-II

(A) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F– (I) vk;uu (A) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F– (I) Ionisation

Enthalpy
,UFkSYih
(B) B < C < O < N (II) Metallic character
(B) B < C < O < N (II) /kkfRod xq.k
(C) B < Al < Mg < K (III) Electronegativity
(C) B < Al < Mg < K (III) fo|qr_.krk
(D) Si < P < S < Cl (IV) Ionic radii
(D) Si < P < S < Cl (IV) vk;fud f=T;k

uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mÙkj pqusa% Choose the correct answer from the

options given below:

(1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

48. vkf.od d{kd fl)kar ds vuqlkj] fuEufyf[kr esa ls 48. According to molecular orbital theory,

the species among the following that

dkSu lh çtkfr vfLrRo esa ugha gS%
does not exist is:

(1) He2− (2) He2+ (3) O22− (4) Be2 (1) He2− (2) He2+ (3) O22− (4) Be2

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 14

 49. 3-esfFky isaV&4&bZuukbfVªy esa σ vkSj π ca/kksa dh 49. Total number of σ & π bonds in 3-methyl

dqy la[;k gSA pent-4-enenitrile

(1) 15, 3 (2) 16, 3 (1) 15, 3 (2) 16, 3

(3) 15, 1 (4) 16, 1 (3) 15, 1 (4) 16, 1

50. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk ukWu&csatsukWbM ,sjksesfVd 50. Which of the following is an example of

;kSfxd dk mnkgj.k gSA non-benzenoid aromatic compound.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

NH2 NH2
O O
(3) (4) (3) (4)

51. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk lewg lfØ;.k lewg gSA 51. Which of the following set of groups is

+ activating group.
(1) –CH3, NH3 , –Cl
+
(1) –CH3, NH3 , –Cl
(2) –Cl, –NH2, –OCH3
(2) –Cl, –NH2, –OCH3
(3) –Cl, –OH, –NH–COCH3
(3) –Cl, –OH, –NH–COCH3
(4) –NHCOCH3, –C2H5, –OCH3
(4) –NHCOCH3, –C2H5, –OCH3

52. 18 g ty esa 2g inkFkZ A feykdj ,d foy;u cuk;k 52. A solution is prepared by adding 2g of a

tkrk gSA rks foy;u esa ty dk Hkkj izfr’kr Kkr substance A to 18 g of water. Calculate

dhft, & mass percent of water ?

(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 80 (4) 90 (1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 80 (4) 90

Space for Rough Work

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 15

 53. ,d xSlh; gkbMªksdkcZu ds iw.kZ ngu ij CO2(g) rFkk 53. A gaseous hydrocarbon on complete
combustion produces equal volume of
H2O(g) dk leku vk;ru ¼leku ifjfLFkfr esa½ es
CO2(g) and H2O(g) under identical
curk gSA gkbMªksdkcZu dk ewykuqikrh lw= gksxk& conditions. Empirical formula of the
(1) CH (2) CH2 hydrocarbon is-
(1) CH (2) CH2
(3) CH3 (4) CH4
(3) CH3 (4) CH4

54. lgh dFku dk pquko dhft,& 54. Select the correct statement
(1) vfHkfØ;k vkxs c<+us ij 'kwU; dksfV vfHkfØ;k dh (1) Rate of zero-order reaction decrease
linearly as reaction occurs.
nj js[kh; :i ls ?kVrh gSA
(2) Rate of first-order reaction is
(2) izFke dksfV vfHkfØ;k dh nj vfHkdkjd dh
independent of concentration of
lkUnzrk ls Lora= gksrh gS
reactant.
(3) izFke&dksfV vfHkfØ;k esa t1/2 ∝ [A]o (3) For first order reaction, t1/2 ∝ [A]o
(4) 'kwU; dksfV vfHkfØ;k t1/2 ∝ [A]o (4) For zero order reaction, t1/2 ∝ [A]o

55. fuEufyf[kr esa ls jS[kh; T;kfefr n'kkZus okys 55. The number of molecules/ions that show
v.kqvksa@vk;uksa dh la[;k gS% linear geometry among the following is:
SO2, BeCl2, CO2, N , NO2, F2O, XeF2,
−
3
SO2, BeCl2, CO2, N3− , NO2, F2O, XeF2,

NO2+ , I3− , O3 NO2+ , I3− , O3

(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 3 (1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 3

56. dFku A : f}/kqzo&f}/kqzo ijLijfØ;k,a ,dek= 56. Assertion A : Dipole-dipole interactions

xSj&lgla;kstd ijLijfØ;k,a gSa] ftlds are the only non-covalent interactions,
ifj.kkeLo:i gkbMªkstu ca/k dk fuekZ.k gksrk gSA resulting in hydrogen bond formation.
dkj.k R : ¶yksjhu lcls vf/kd fo|qr _.kkRed rRo Reason R : Fluorine is the most

gS vkSj HF esa gkbMªkt

s u ca/k lefer gksrs gSaA electronegative element and hydrogen
bonds in HF are symmetrical.
(1) A vlR; gS ysfdu R lR; gSA
(1) A is false but R is true.
(2) A vkSj R nksuksa lR; gSa vkSj R] A dk lgh
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the
Li"Vhdj.k gSA
correct explanation of A.
(3) A lR; gS ysfdu R vlR; gSA
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A vkSj R nksuksa lR; gSa vkSj R] A dk lgh (4) Both A and R are true and R is not the
Li"Vhdj.k ugha gSA correct explanation of A.

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 16

 57. lcls izcy vipk;d gS% 57. The most powerful reducing agent is:

(1) H3PO3 (2) H3PO4 (1) H3PO3 (2) H3PO4

(3) H4P2O7 (4) H4P2O6
(3) H4P2O7 (4) H4P2O6

58. fuEu eas ls dkSu {kkjh; ek/;e esa vf/kd rsth ls 58. Which will undergo deprotonation most

foizksVkWuhd`r gksxk% readily in basic medium.

O O
(1) (1)

O O O O

(2) (2)
OCH3 OCH3

O O O O
(3) (3)

O O O O

(4) H3CO (4) H3CO OCH3

OCH3

59. dFku I : ,YdkWgy (R–O–H) esa ,flfVy DyksjkbM 59. Statement I : In alcohol (R–O–H) bond

cleavage of O & H takes place on reacting

ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k djus ij O rFkk H dk ca/k fo?kVu
with acetyl chloride.
gksrk gSA Statement II : Alcohol can act as both

dFku II : vYdksgy ukfHkdLusgh vkSj {kkj nksuksa ds nucleophile and base.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II

:i esa dk;Z dj ldrk gSA
are correct.
(1) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lgh gSaA (2) Both Statement I and Statement II

are incorrect.
(2) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa xyr gSaA
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement
(3) dFku I lgh gS ysfdu dFku II xyr gSA II is incorrect.

(4) Statement I is incorrect but

(4) dFku I xyr gS ysfdu dFku II lgh gSA
Statement II is correct.

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 17

 60. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl vfHkfØ;k mRikn ds fy, 60. The kjeldahl's method of nitrogen
ukbVªkstu vkdyu dh tsYMky fof/k foQy gks tkrh estimation fails for which of the following
gS\ reaction products ?
NO2
NO2
(1) H2/Pd
(1) H2/Pd

CN
LiAlH4 CN
(2) LiAlH4
(2)

HNO3 +
(3) H2SO4 HNO3 +
(3) H2SO4
LiAlH4
(4) CH3–CONH2 LiAlH4
(4) CH3–CONH2

61. 3p-d{kd esa mifLFkr bysDVªkWu ds fy, fuEu esa ls 61. Which of the following option is incorrect
dkSulk fodYi xyr gksxk& for electron present in 3p-orbital ?
(1) n = 3 (2) l = 1 (1) n = 3 (2) l = 1
(3) m = +1 (4) m = +2 (3) m = +1 (4) m = +2

62. nks nqcZy vEyks HA rFkk HB ds fo;kstu fLFkjkad 62. Dissociation constants for two weak

Øe’k% 10–3 M rFkk 10–5 M gSA acids HA and HB are 10–3 M and 10–5 M.
then :-
(1) HA, HB dh rqyuk es nqcZy vEy gSA
(1) HA is weaker acid than HB
(2) AΘ, BΘ dh rqyuk esa izcy {kkj gSA
(2) AΘ is stronger base than BΘ
(3) BΘ , AΘ dh rqyuk es izcy {kkj gS (3) BΘ is stronger base than AΘ
(4) HA rFkk HB dh vEyh; lke/;Zrk leku gSA (4) Acidic strength of HA and HB is equal.

63. ,d ik= es HI(g) dk uewuk 2 atm nkc ij fy;k 63. A sample of HI(g) is placed in a flask at 2

tkrk gSA lkE;koLFkk ij] ;fn HI(g) dk vkf’kd nkc atm. At equilibrium, partial pressure of
HI(g) is 0.4 atm. Calculate KP for the
0.4 atm gks rks vfHkfØ;k ds fy, KP Kkr dhft,&
reaction :-
2HI(g)  H2(g) + I2(g)
2HI(g)  H2(g) + I2(g)
(1) 1.6 (2) 4 (1) 1.6 (2) 4
(3) 1 (4) dkSbZ ugha (3) 1 (4) None

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 18

 64. dFku-I : mR—"V xSlksa dk DoFkukad cgqr mPp gksrk 64. Statement-I : Noble gases have very high

boiling points.
gSA
Statement-II: Noble gases are

dFku-II: mR—"V xSlsa ,dijek.kqd xSlsa gksrh gSaA os monoatomic gases. They are held

together by strong dispersion forces.

etcwr ifj{ksi.k cyksa }kjk ,d lkFk ca/ks jgrs gSaA bl Because of this they are liquefied at very

low temperature. Hence, they have very

otg ls os cgqr de rkieku ij nzfor gks tkrs gSaA
high boiling points.
blfy,] muds DoFkukad cgqr vf/kd gksrs gSaA In the light of the above statements.
choose the correct answer from the
mi;qZä dFkuksa ds çdk'k esa] uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa
options given below:
ls lgh mÙkj pqusa% (1) Statement I is false but Statement II
is true.
(1) dFku I vlR; gS ysfdu dFku II lR; gSA
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II

(2) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lR; gSaA are true.

(3) Statement I is true but Statement II

(3) dFku I lR; gS ysfdu dFku II vlR; gSA is false.

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II

(4) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa vlR; gSaA
are false.

65. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ;kSfxd izfrpqacdh; gS] 65. Which of the following complex is

diamagnetic ?
(1) [CoF6]3– (2) [Co(C2O4)3]3–
(1) [CoF6]3– (2) [Co(C2O4)3]3–
(3) [Fe(CN)6] 3–
(4) [MnCl6] 3–
(3) [Fe(CN)6]3– (4) [MnCl6]3–

66. ,slk dkSulk fyxSaM gS ftldk lkeF;Z H2O ls izcy 66. Which ligand is stronger field ligand than

gS] fdarq EDTA4– ls nqcZy gSA H2O but weaker than EDTA4–?

(1) NCS– (2) NH3 (1) NCS– (2) NH3

(3) en (4) C2O42–

(3) en (4) C2O42–

Space for Rough Work

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 19

 67. fuEufyf[kr ;kSfxd ds fy, bysDVªkWuLusgh çfrLFkkiu 67. Decreasing order of reactivity towards
ds çfr fØ;k'khyrk dk ?kVrk Øe gS%& electrophilic substitution for the
Cl following compound is:-
Cl
(a) (b)
OCH3 (a) (b)
NH3 CCl3 OCH3
NH3 CCl3
(c) (d)
(c) (d)

(e)
NO2 (e)
NO2
(1) c > a > b > d > e
(1) c > a > b > d > e
(2) c > b > a > d > e
(2) c > b > a > d > e
(3) b > c > d > a > e
(3) b > c > d > a > e
(4) a > b > c > d > e
(4) a > b > c > d > e

68. uhps fn, x, vfHkfØ;k vuqØe esa lgh A] B vkSj C 68. Identify correct A, B and C in the reaction

dh igpku djsaA sequence given below.

NO2 O NO2 O
CH3–C–Cl KMnO4/KOH
+ A B CH3–C–Cl KMnO4/KOH
AlCl3 ∆ + A B
AlCl3 ∆
CH3–Cl

CH3–Cl
B
B

(1) (1)
NO2 NO2 NO2
NO2 NO2 NO2

A= ,B= ,C=
A= ,B= ,C=
COCH3 COOK COOCH3
COCH3 COOK COOCH3

(2) (2)
O
O
COCH3 COOK O–C–CH3
COCH3 COOK O–C–CH3
A= ,B= ,C=
A= ,B= ,C=

Space for Rough Work

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 20

 (3) (3)

O O
COOCH3 COOCH3
C COOK C COOK
A= CH3 , B = ,C= A= CH3 , B = ,C=

(4) (4)

NO2 NO2 NO2 NO2 NO2 NO2

A= ,B= ,C= A= ,B= ,C=

COCH3 COOK COOCH3 COCH3 COOK COOCH3

69. gSykstu ijh{k.k ds nkSjku] lksfM;e lay;u vdZ dks 69. During halogen test, sodium fusion

extract is boiled with concentrated HNO3

lkaæ HNO3 ds lkFk mckyk tkrk gS%
to:
(1) vfHkfØ;k'khy lksfM;e dks gVkus ds fy,A
(1) Remove unreacted sodium.

(2) lksfM;e ds lkbukbM ;k lYQkbM dks fo?kfVr (2) Decompose cyanide or sulphide of

sodium.
djus ds fy,A

(3) Extract halogen form organic

(3) dkcZfud ;kSfxd ls gSykstu fudkyus ds fy,A

compound.

(4) vdZ dk pH cuk, j[kus ds fy,A

(4) Maintain the pH of extract.

Space for Rough Work

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 21

 70. vEy A rFkk {kkj B dks vuqekfir fd;k tkrk gS dkWye 70. Acid A and base B are Titrated. Match the
II es fn, x, rqY;kadh fcUnq ds pH dks dkWye I es pH of solution at equivalence point in
fn, x, A rFkk B ls lqesfyr dhft,& column II for different A and B given in
column I.
dkWye I dkWye II
(i) A→HCl (p) pH > 7 Column I Column II
B→NaOH (i) A→HCl (p) pH > 7
(ii) A→CH3COOH (q) pH < 7 B→NaOH
B→NaOH (ii) A→CH3COOH (q) pH < 7
(iii) A→HCN (r) pH = 7 B→NaOH
B→KOH (iii) A→HCN (r) pH = 7
(iv) A→H2SO4 (s) Data B→KOH
B→NH4OH Insufficient (iv) A→H2SO4 (s) Data
B→NH4OH Insufficient
(1) (i)-r ; (ii)-p ; (iii)-s ; (iv)-q (1) (i)-r ; (ii)-p ; (iii)-s ; (iv)-q
(2) (i)-r ; (ii)-q ; (iii)-q ; (iv)-p (2) (i)-r ; (ii)-q ; (iii)-q ; (iv)-p
(3) (i)-r ; (ii)-p ; (iii)-p ; (iv)-q (3) (i)-r ; (ii)-p ; (iii)-p ; (iv)-q
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha (4) None of these

71. ,d yo.k AB2 (v.kqHkkj = 50 g. mol–1) dh ty esa 71. Solubility of a salt AB2 (Mw = 50 g. mol–1)
foys;rk 5 × 10–4 g.L–1 gSA AB2 ds lar`Ir foy;u is 5 × 10–4 g.L–1. Calculate [B–] in saturated
solution of AB2 ?
es [B–] Kkr dhft,&
(1) 1 × 10–5 M
(1) 1 × 10–5 M
(2) 2 × 10–5 M
(2) 2 × 10–5 M (3) 4 × 10–15 M
(3) 4 × 10–15 M (4) 5 × 10–5 M
(4) 5 × 10–5 M

72. Consider the given reaction sequence :-

72. fn, x, vfHkfØ;k Øe ij fopkj dhft,

A B A B

C D C D

lgh fodYi dk pquko dhft, Select the correction option :-

(1) ∆H = ∆H + ∆H + ∆H
°
1
°
2
°
3
°
4 (1) ∆H°1 = ∆H2° + ∆H3° + ∆H°4
(2) ∆H°1 = ∆H2° + ∆H°3 – ∆H°4 (2) ∆H°1 = ∆H2° + ∆H°3 – ∆H°4
(3) ∆H°1 =∆H2° – ∆H3° – ∆H°4 (3) ∆H°1 =∆H2° – ∆H3° – ∆H°4
(4) ∆H°1 = –∆H2° + ∆H°3 – ∆H°4
(4) ∆H°1 = –∆H2° + ∆H°3 – ∆H°4

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 22

 73. dksckYV (II) DyksjkbM ds xqykch jax ds tyh; foy;u 73. An aqueous pink solution of cobalt(II)
chloride changes to deep blue on
esa vkf/kD; esa HCl feykus ls ;g xgjs uhys jax dk
addition of excess of HCl. This is because
gks tkrk gSA ,slk blfy, gksrk gS D;ksafd
___.
(a) [Co(H2O)6] dk [CoCl6] esa ifjorZu gksrk gSA
2+ 4–
(a) [Co(H2O)6]2+ is transformed into

(b) [Co(H2O)6]2+ dk [CoCl4]2– esa ifjorZu gksrk gSA [CoCl6] 4–

(b) [Co(H2O)6]2+ is transformed into

(c) prq"Qydh; ladqyksa dk fØLVy {ks= foikVu
[CoCl4]2–
v"VQydh; ladqyksa dh rqyuk esa de gksrk gSA (c) Tetrahedral complexes have smaller
(d) prq"Qydh; ladqyksa dk fØLVy {ks= foikVu crystal field splitting than octahedral

v"VQydh; ladqyksa dh rqyuk esa vf/kd gksrk complexes.

(d) Tetrahedral complexes have larger
gSA
crystal field splitting than octahedral
(1) dsoy b
complex.
(2) dsoy b & c (1) Only b
(2) Only b & c
(3) dsoy b & d
(3) Only b & d
(4) dsoy a & c
(4) Only a & c

74. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ls dFku lgh gS\ 74. Which of the following statements are
correct?
dFku 1: Mn3+ vkSj Co3+ vk;u tyh; foy;u esa
Statement 1: Mn3+ and Co3+ ions are the
lcls 'kfDr'kkyh vkWDlhdkjd gksrs gSA strongest oxidizing agents in aqueous

dFku 2: Ti2+, V2+ vkSj Cr2+ izcy vipk;d gksrs gS solutions.

Statement 2: Ti2+, V2+ and Cr2+ are strong
vkSj os ruq vEy ls gkbMªkstu eqDr djsaxsA
reducing agents and will liberate
dFku 3: FeX3 ,ao CoF3 ds vykok 3d J`a[kyk esa] hydrogen from a dilute acid.

Mn ds ckn dksbZ Hkh /kkrq VªkbZgy

S kbM ugha cukrh Statement 3: In 3d series, beyond Mn no
metal has a trihalide except FeX3, and
(1) dsoy 2 rFkk 3
CoF3.
(2) dsoy 1 rFkk 3 (1) Only 2 & 3
(2) Only 1 & 3
(3) dsoy 1 rFkk 2
(3) Only 1 & 2
(4) lHkh dFku lgh gSA (4) All statements are correct

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 23

 75. {kkjh; ek/;e esa KMnO4 vkWDlhdkjd ds :i esa dk;Z 75. KMnO4 acts as an oxidising agent in

djrk gSA tc {kkjh; KMnO4 dh vfHkfØ;k KI ls alkaline medium. When alkaline KMnO4 is

djk;h tkrh gS rks vk;ksMkbM vk;u fdlesa vkWDlhd`r treated with Kl, iodide ion is oxidised
gksrk gSA to_________.
(1) I2 (2) IO–
(1) I2 (2) IO–
(3) IO3− (4) IO4−
(3) IO3− (4) IO4−

76. fuEufyf[kr vfHkfØ;k esa çkIr çeq[k mRikn gS%& 76. The major product obtained in the
following reaction is:-
O OH
O OH
LiAlH2
LiAlH2
CH3 (excess)
CH3 (excess)
NO2 O
NO2 O
OH
OH

(1)
CH3 (1)
CH3
NH2 OH
NH2 OH
OH
OH

(2) CH3 (2) CH3

NH2 OH
NH2 OH

OH OH

(3) CH3 (3) CH3

NO2 OH NO2 OH

O OH O OH

(4) CH3 (4) CH3

NH2 OH NH2 OH

Space for Rough Work

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 24

 77. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh lk;ukscat
s hu ls 77. Which of the following is not a correct
csathy,sehu cukus dh lgh fof/k ugha gS\ method of the preparation of benzylamine

(1) LiAlH4 form cyanobenzane ?

(1) LiAlH4
(2) Sn + HCl
(2) Sn + HCl
(3) (I) SnCl2 + HCl (II) H3O+
(3) (I) SnCl2 + HCl (II) H3O+
(4) H2/Ni (4) H2/Ni

78. fuEufyf[kr vfHkfØ;k dk vafre çeq[k mRikn gS:- 78. The final major product of the following
reaction is:-
CH3 (I) NaNO2 + HCl
at 5°C CH3 (I) NaNO2 + HCl
(II) HBF4 at 5°C
(III) NaNO2/Cu (II) HBF4
NH2 heat (III) NaNO2/Cu
NH2 heat
CH3 NO2 CH3 NO2
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
F CH3
F CH3
CH3 CH3
F F
(3) (4) (3) (4)

NO2 F NO2 F

79. 298 K rki ij] yksgs ij tax yxus es& 79. At 298 K, for rusting of iron-
4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) → 2Fe2O3(s) 4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) → 2Fe2O3(s)
lgh fodYi gS& Correct option is-
(1) ∆Ssys > O (1) ∆Ssys > O
(2) ∆H > O (2) ∆H > O
(3) ∆Stotal > O (3) ∆Stotal > O
(4) ∆G > O (4) ∆G > O

80. fuEu esa ls dkSulh vfHkfØ;k v|krq foLFkkiu jsMkWDl 80. Which of the following is a non-metal
vfHkfØ;k gS& displacement redox reaction ?
∆
(1) Cr2O3 + 2Al 
→ Al2O3 + 2Cr ∆
(1) Cr2O3 + 2Al → Al2O3 + 2Cr
(2) 2Na + 2H2O 
→ 2NaOH + H2 (2) 2Na + 2H2O 
→ 2NaOH + H2
(3) 2H2O + 2F2 
→ 4HF + O2 (3) 2H2O + 2F2 
→ 4HF + O2
(4) (2) vkSj (3) nksuksa (4) (2) and (3) both

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 25

 81. AgNO3 ds tyh; foy;u es 1F vkos’k izokfgr fd;k 81. 1F charge is passed through aqueous

tkrk gSA rks dSFkksM ij mRikfnr Ag ds solution of AgNO3. The number of g-

xzke&ijek.kqvksa dh la[;k gksxh& atoms of Ag deposited at cathode are-

(1) 108 (2) 1 (1) 108 (2) 1

(3) 54 (4) 0.5 (3) 54 (4) 0.5

82. dkWye I esa fn, x, ;kSfxdksa@rRoksa dks dkWye II esa 82. Match the compounds/elements given in

fn, x, mi;ksxksa ls lqesfyr dhft,A Column I with uses given in Column II.

dkWye I dkWye II Column I Column II

(;kSfxd/rRo) (mi;ksx) (Compound/ element) (Use)

(i) ySaFksukW;M vkWDlkbM (a) vk;ju feJ/kkrq dk (i) Lanthanoid oxide (a) Production of Iron

mRiknu alloy

(ii) ySaFksukW;M (b) Vsyhfotu LØhu (ii) Lanthanoid (b) Television screen

(iii) fe'k /kkrq (c) isVªksfy;e dk Hkatu (iii) Misch metal (c) Petroleum cracking

(iv) eSxuhf'k;e vk/kfjr (d) ySaFksukW;M /kkrq (iv) Magnesium (d) Lanthanoid metal

feJ/kkrq ftldk + vk;ju based alloy is + iron

vo;o gSA constituent of

(v) tgka ySaFksukW;Mksa ds (e) canwd dh xksfy;kW (v) Mixed oxides of (e) Bullets

fefJr vkWDlkbMksa dk (f) X-fdj.k ijns ij lanthanoids are (f) In X-ray screen

mi;ksx djrs gSA employed

(1) (i)→(c), (ii)→(d), (iii)→(b), (iv)→(e), (v)→(a) (1) (i)→(c), (ii)→(d), (iii)→(b), (iv)→(e), (v)→(a)

(2) (i)→(b), (ii)→(a), (iii)→(d), (iv)→(e), (v)→(c) (2) (i)→(b), (ii)→(a), (iii)→(d), (iv)→(e), (v)→(c)

(3) (i)→(d), (ii)→(a), (iii)→(b), (iv)→(e), (v)→(f) (3) (i)→(d), (ii)→(a), (iii)→(b), (iv)→(e), (v)→(f)

(4) (i)→(b), (ii)→(d), (iii)→(a), (iv)→(e), (v)→(c) (4) (i)→(b), (ii)→(d), (iii)→(a), (iv)→(e), (v)→(c)

Space for Rough Work

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 26

 83. AlCl₃ ds tyh; foy;u dks lksfM;e gkbMªkWDlkbM 83. Aqueous solution of AlCl₃, on treatment

ds lkFk mipkfjr djus ij lQsn ftysfVul vo{ksi with sodium hydroxide, gives a white

X curk gS] tks vf/kd ek=k esa lksfM;e gkbMªkWDlkbM gelatinous precipitate X which is soluble

in excess of sodium hydroxide to form Y.

esa ?kqydj Y cukrk gSA X vkSj Y Øe'k% D;k gS:
X and Y respectively are:
(1) Al₂O₃ vkSj Al(OH)₃
(1) Al₂O₃ and Al(OH)₃
(2) Al₂O₃ vkSj NaAlO₂
(2) Al₂O₃ and NaAlO₂
(3) Al(OH)₃ vkSj Al₂O₃
(3) Al(OH)₃ and Al₂O₃
(4) Al(OH)₃ vkSj NaAlO₂ (4) Al(OH)₃ and NaAlO₂

84. I⁻ vk;uksa dh tkap ds fy, fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk 84. Which of the following statements is/are

dFku lgh gS? correct for the test of I⁻ ions?

(a) Addition of MnO₂ to the iodide salt

(a) vk;ksMkbM yo.k esa MnO₂ feykus ls cSaxuh ok"iksa
intensifies the evolution of violet
dh mRifRr rhoz gks tkrh gSA
vapours.
(b) vk;ksMhu ok"i LVkpZ isij dks uhyk dj nsrh gSA
(b) Iodine vapours turn starch paper
(c) vEyhd`r lksfM;e dkcksZusV ds fu"dk"kZ.k esa
blue.

vk;ksMkbM yo.k dks AgNO₃ ds lkFk feykus ij (c) Acidified sodium carbonate extract of

ihyk vo{ksi curk gSA iodide salt forms yellow precipitate

fodYi: with AgNO₃.

Options:
(1) dsoy a
(1) a only
(2) dsoy b vkSj c
(2) b and c only
(3) a, b vkSj c
(3) a, b and c

(4) dsoy a, vkSj c (4) only a and c

Space for Rough Work

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 27

 85. fuEufyf[kr esa ls xyr dFku gS: 85. The incorrect statement among the

following is :
(1) α&D&Xywdkst vkSj β&D&Xywdkst ,uksej gSaA
(1) α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose are
(2) Xywdkst dk isUVk ,lhVsV gkbMª‚fDly ,sehu ds anomers.

lkFk vfHkfØ;k ugha djrk gSA (2) The penta acetate of glucose does not

react with hydroxyl amine.

(3) lsY;wykst ,d lh/kh J`a[kyk okyk i‚yhlSdsjkbM
(3) Cellulose is a straight chain
gS tks dsoy β&D&Xywdkst bdkb;ksa ls cuk gksrk polysaccharide made up of only β-D-

gSA glucose units.

(4) α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose are

(4) α&D&Xywdkst vkSj β&D Xywdkst izfrfcac:i gSaA
enantiomers.

86. xyr dFku gS%& 86. Incorrect statement is:-

(1) fQuksy dks lkUæ HNO3 ds lkFk mipkfjr djus (1) Picric acid formed in poor yield when

ij de ek=k es fifØd vEy curk gSA phenol is treated with conc. HNO3

(2) fQuksy&2, 4&MkblYQksfud ,flM dks lkUæ (2) Phenol-2,4-disulphonic acid is

HNO3 ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k djds vPNh mit treated with conc. HNO3 to get picric

okyk fifØd ,flM çkIr fd;k tkrk gSA acid with good yield.

(3) tc fQuksy dks ruq HNO3 ds lkFk mipkfjr (3) o-nitrophenol formed as major

fd;k tkrk gS rks eq[; mRikn ds :i esa product when phenol is treated with

o&ukbVªkWfQukWy curk gS dil. HNO3

(4) o&ukbVªkWfQukWy vkSj p&ukbVªkWfQukWy dks Hkki (4) o-nitrophenol & p-nitrophenol can be

vklou }kjk vyx fd;k tk ldrk gS D;ksafd separated by steam distillation

nksuksa Hkki ok"i'khy gSaA
because both are steam volatile.

Space for Rough Work

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 28

 (1) KCN (1) KCN
(2) H3O+/heat (2) H3O+/heat
87. CH2–Cl P, 87. CH2–Cl P,
(3) NaOH+CaO (3) NaOH+CaO

P gS : P is:
CH3 CH3

(1) (2) (1) (2)

CH2–OH CH2–CH3 CH2–OH CH2–CH3

(3) (4) (3) (4)

88. vfHkfØ;k A→B esa vfHkdkjd dh lkUnzrk 40 feuV 88. Molar concentration of reactant in
reaction A→B decreases by 80% in 40
es 80% de gks tkrh gSA vfHkfØ;k dk nj fu;rkad
minutes. Rate constant of the reaction is
0.1 M min–1 gS vfHkdkjd dh izkjfEHkd lkUnzrk Kkr
0.1 M min–1. Calculate initial
dhft,&
concentration of reactant ?
(1) 5 M (2) 20 M
(1) 5 M (2) 20 M
(3) 10 M (4) 0.5 M
(3) 10 M (4) 0.5 M

89. nks le&eksyy foy;uks A rFkk B es Øe’k% foys; X 89. Two equimolal aqueous solutions A and
B contains solute X and Y respectively. If
rFkk Y mifLFkr gSA ;fn foy;u A dk DoFkukad leku
solution A boils at higher temperature
nkc ij B ls vf/kd gks rks foys; X rFkk Y ds okW.V
than solution B at same pressure then
gkWQ xq.kkadks dk lgh laca/k gSA correct relation between vant-Haff
(1) ix > 1 and iy < 1 factor(i) of X and Y is :-

(2) ix > 1 and iy = 1 (1) ix > 1 and iy < 1

(2) ix > 1 and iy = 1
(3) ix = 1 and iy < 1
(3) ix = 1 and iy < 1
(4) mijksDr lHkh fodYi laHkao gSA
(4) All of the above are possible

90. 298 K rki ij] fuEu es ls fdl foy;u dh eksyj 90. At 298 K, which of the following aqueous

pkydrk vf/kdre gksxh& solution has maximum molar

conductivity ?
(1) 0.1 M HCl (2) 0.1 M NaCl
(1) 0.1 M HCl (2) 0.1 M NaCl
(3) 0.01 M HCl (4) 0.01 M KCl
(3) 0.01 M HCl (4) 0.01 M KCl

Space for Rough Work

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 29

 Hkkx-C: tho foKku PART-C: BIOLOGY

91. /kku vkSj xsga w¡ ijkxd.k viuh thou {kerk fudyus 91. Pollen grains of rice and wheat lose their
ds _____feuV ckn [kks nsrs gSA viability in _____ minutes of their release:
(1) 30 (2) 10 (3) 60 (4) 90 (1) 30 (2) 10 (3) 60 (4) 90

92. lHkh tho/kkfj;ksa esa 'olu dk mHk; (Common) iFk 92. The pathway of respiration common in all
__X__ gS ; mijksDr iSjkxzkQ esa X dks igpkfu, ,oa living organisms is __X__ ; Identify X in the
lgh mÙkj pqfu, - above paragraph and select the correct
(1) Xykbdksfyfll answer.
(2) ETS (1) Glycolysis
(3) ØsCl pØ (2) ETS
(3) Krebs' cycle
(4) vkWDlhMsfVo fMdkcksfZ Dlys'ku
(4) Oxidative decarboxylation

93. nh gqbZ vfHkfØ;k esa A ,oa B dh igpku dhft, ,oa 93. Identify the A and B in the given reaction
lgh fodYi pqfu,A and select the correct option.

A B A B
(1) bFksukWy, ,flVyfMgkbM (1) Ethanol, Acetaldehyde
(2) bFksukWy, QkeZyfMgkbM (2) Ethanol, Formaldehyde
(3) ,flVyfMgkbM, bFksukWy (3) Acetaldehyde, Ethanol
(4) Pyruvate Alcohol
(4) ik;:osV ,Ydksgy
dehydrogenase decarboxylase
MhgkbMªksftust MhdkcksfZ Dlyst

94. fuEufyf[kr esa dkSu ls dkjd çdk'k la'ys"k.k dks 94. Which of the following factors effects
çHkkfor djrs gSa - photosynthesis -
(1) ifRr;ksa dh la[;k] vkdkj] mez vkSj muds (1) number, size, age and orientation of
leaves
vfHkfoU;kl
(2) mesophyll cells and chloroplasts
(2) ehlksfQy vkSj DyksjksIykLV
(3) internal CO2 concentration and
(3) vkUrfjd dkcZuMkbZ vkWDlkbM lkUærk vkSj amount of chlorophyll
DyksjksfQy dh ek=k (4) All of these
(4) mijksDr lHkh
95. Which of the following is correct option :
95. fuEufyf[kr esa dkSu fodYi lR; gS :
(1) Auxin help to initiate rooting in stem
(1) vkfDlu rus dh dfVax esa tM+ QwVus esa lgk;rk
cutting
djrh gSA (2) ABA promotes seeds germination
(2) ABA cht vadqj.k dks çsfjr djrk gSA (3) Ethylene promoted root hair
(3) bFkkbZyhu ewy jkseksa ds fuekZ.k dks çksRlkfgr djrh formation
gSA (4) Both (1) and (3)
(4) (1) vkSj (3) nksuksa
96. ABA fdlds fojks/kd dh rjg dk;Z djrk gS : 96. ABA acts antagonistic to :
(1) Ethylene (2) Cytokinin
(1) ,Fkkbyhu (2) lkbVksdkbfuu
(3) Gibberellic acid (4) IAA
(3) ftCcsjsfyd vEy (4) IAA
97. U;qfDyvksVkbM esa Q‚LQsV rFkk 'kdZjk ds gkbMªksfDly 97. In nucleotide, the bond between the
lewg ds e/; dkSulk ca/k gksrk gS: phosphate and hydroxyl group of sugar is:
(1) Q‚LQksMkb,LVj ca/k (1) Phosphodiester bond
(2) Q‚LQks,LVj ca/k (2) Phosphoester bond
(3) XykbdkslkbfMd ca/k (3) Glycosidic bond
(4) isIVkbM ca/k (4) Peptide bond

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 30

 98. dkSulk ,atkbe mlds dk;Z ls esy ugh djrk : 98. Which enzyme is not matched correctly
dkWye-A dkWye-B with its function :
Column-A Column-B
(1) VSd iksyhejst dNTPs dk cgqyhdj.k
(1) Taq polymerase Polymerisation of
(2) dkbVhust thok.kq dksf'kdk ds y;u dNTPs
}kjk DNA çkIr djuk (2) Chitinase Obtaining DNA by
lysis of bacterial cell
(3) ,DlksU;wfDy;st DNA ds fdukjksa ls
(3) Exonucleases Remove nucleotides
U;wfDy;ksVkbMl dks gVkuk from the ends of DNA
(4) DNA ykbxst DNA ds [k.M+ksa dks tksM+uk (4) DNA ligase Joining of DNA
fragments

99. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lgksidkfjrk dk lcls vPNk 99. Which of the following shows the best
example of mutualism?
mnkgj.k n'kkZrk gS\
(1) Fig and Blastophaga wasp
(1) vathj vkSj CykLVksQkxk rrS;k (2) Ophrys and bees
(2) vks¶jht vkSj e/kqefD[k;k¡ (3) Acacia and ants
(3) ccwy vkSj phafV;k¡ (4) Orchid and Mango
(4) vkWfdZM+ ,oa vke
100. Assertion: If lactose is present in
100. dFku : ;fn ckgjh ekè;e esa ySDVkst mifLFkr gks rc
surrounding medium an enzyme called
chVk&xSyDs VksflMst uked ,atkbe dks bZ-dksykbZ }kjk beta-galactosidase is synthesised by E.
la'ysf"kr fd;k tkrk gS, bldk mi;ksx ySDVkst ds coli, it is used to catalyse the hydrolysis
ty vi?kVu esa fd;k tkrk gSA of lactose.
dkj.k : ;g mikip;, dkf;Zdh ;k i;kZoj.kh; fLFkfr;ka gS Reason: It is the metabolic, physiological or
tks thu dh vfHkO;fDr dks fu;af=r djrh gSA environmental conditions that regulate the
expression of genes.
(1) A vkSj R nksuksa lR; gS vkSj R, A dk lgh
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the
Li"Vhdj.k gSA
correct explanation of A.
(2) A vkSj R nksuksa lR; gS ysfdu R, A dh lgh (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
O;k[;k ugha gSA correct explanation of A.
(3) A lgh gS ysfdu R xyr gSA (3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A vkSj R nksuksa xyr gSA (4) Both A and R are false.

101. nks lgyXu thu n'kkZrs gSa : 101. Two linked genes show :
(1) 100% iqu;kst
Z u (1) 100% recombination
(2) > 50% iqu;kstZ u (2) > 50% recombination
(3) 50% iqu;kst
Z u (3) 50% recombination

(4) < 50% iqu;kst Z u (4) < 50% recombination

102. ekuo thukse ifj;kstuk esa vuqØfer vafre xq.klw= 102. The last chromosome sequenced in
Fkk : Human Genome Project was :

(1) xq.klw= 6 (1) Chromosome 6

(2) Chromosome 1
(2) xq.klw= 1
(3) Chromosome 22
(3) xq.klw= 22
(4) Chromosome 14
(4) xq.klw= 14

103. Hkkjr ds ikl nqfu;k dh dsoy 2.4% Hkwfe gS ysfdu 103. India has only 2.4% of the world's land
oSf'od çtkfr fofo/krk esa bldh fgLlsnkjh gS & area but its share of the global species
diversity is -
(1) 1.8% (2) 3.1% (3) 5.1% (4) 8.1%
(1) 1.8% (2) 3.1% (3) 5.1% (4) 8.1%

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 31

 104. uhps nks dFku fn, x, gSaA 104. Given below are two statements.
Statement I : Eastern ghats have a greater
dFku I: if'peh ?kkV dh rqyuk esa iwohZ ?kkV esa mHk;pj amphibian species diversity than Western
çtkfr;ksa dh fofo/krk vf/kd gSA ghats.
dFku II: lHkh çtkfr;ksa esa ls 70 çfr'kr ls vf/kd Statement II : More than 70 per cent of
all the species recorded are animals,
esa ,bZ tkuoj ntZ fd, x, gSa] tcfd ikS/kksa esa dqy while plants comprise not more than 22%
22% ls vf/kd ugha gSaA of total.
In the light of the above statement,
mijksä dFku ds vkyksd esa uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa choose the correct answer from the
ls lgh mÙkj pquAsa options given below.
(1) Statement I is incorrect, but
(1) dFku I xyr gS] ysfdu dFku II lgh gSA statement II is correct.
(2) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lgh gSaA (2) Both statement I and statement II are
correct.
(3) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa xyr gSaA
(3) Both statement I and statement II are
(4) dFku I lgh gS] ysfdu dFku II xyr gSA incorrect.
(4) Statement I is correct, but statement
II is incorrect.

105. 'kSoky esa fo[k.Mu vkSj Liksj ds fuekZ.k ls tuu gksrk 105. In algae reproduction by fragmentation
gS % and different types spore is a :
(1) vySafxd tuu (1) Asexual reproduction
(2) dkf;d tuu (2) Vegetative reproduction
(3) ySafxd tuu (3) Sexual reproduction
(4) (1) and (2) Both
(4) nksuksa (1) vkSj (2)
106. dsfYou pØ ds vuqØfed pj.k gS % 106. The sequential stages of Calvin cycle are:
(1) Carboxylation, Reduction and Regeneration
(1) dkcksDZ lhfydj.k, vip;u rFkk iqu:n~Hkou
(2) Carboxylation, Regeneration and Reduction
(2) dkcksDZ lhfydj.k, iqu:n~Hkou rFkk vip;u
(3) Reduction, Carboxylation and Regeneration
(3) vip;u, dkcksDZ lhfydj.k rFkk iqu:n~Hkou
(4) Regeneration, Reduction and Carboxylation
(4) iqu:n~Hkou, vip;u rFkk dkcksDZ lhfydj.k
107. 6-furfuryl amino purine, 2, 4-dichlorophenoxy
107. 6-Qj¶;qjkby ,sfeuks I;qfju, 2, 4-MkbZDyksjksfQuksDlh
acetic acid and indole-3 acetic acid are
,flfVd ,flM vkSj buMksy-3 ,flfVd ,flM çk;%
examples respectively for :-
fdlds mnkgj.k gS :-
(1) Synthetic auxin, kinetin and natural
(1) Ñf=e vkWfDtu] dkbusfVu vkSj çkÑfrd
auxin.
vkWfDtuA (2) Gibberellin, natural auxin and kinetin.
(2) ftCcsjsfyau] çkÑfrd vkfDtu vkSj dkbusfVuA (3) Natural auxin, kinetin and synthetic
(3) çkÑfrd vkWfDtu] dkbusfVu vkSj Ñf=e auxin.
vkWfDtuA (4) Kinetin, synthetic auxin and natural
(4) dkbusfVu] Ñf=e vkWfDtu] çkÑfrd vkWfDtuA auxin.

108. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dFku lgh ugha gS\ 108. Which of the following statements is not
(1) taxy esa tSoHkkj dk fijkfeM mYVk gksrk gSA correct?
(2) leqæ esa la[;kvksa dk fijkfeM lh/kk gksrk gSA (1) Pyramid of biomass in forest is inverted.
(3) ÅtkZ dk fijkfeM lnSo lh/kk jgrk gSA (2) Pyramid of numbers in ocean is upright.
(4) leqæ esa tSoHkkj dk fijkfeM mYVk gksrk gSA (3) Pyramid of energy is always upright.
(4) Pyramid of biomass in sea is inverted.
109. czk;ksQkbV dh eq[; ikni dk; dks _______ dgrs 109. The main plant body of Bryophytes are
gS vkSj bldh xqf.krk _______ gksrh gS Øe'k %& called as _____and their ploidy is _______
(1) chtk.kqn~fHkn] f}xqf.kr respectively –
(2) ;qXedksn~fHkn] vxqf.kr (1) Sporophyte, Diploid
(2) Gametophyte, Haploid
(3) ;qXedksn~fHkn] f}xqf.kr
(3) Gametophyte, Diploid
(4) chtk.kqn~fHkn] vxqf.kr (4) Sporophyte, Haploid

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 32

 110. tM+ rFkk ruk ds 'kh"kZ ij ik;s tkus okyh yxkrkj 110. Constantly dividing cell both at root apex
foHkkftr gksus okyh dksf'kdk ...... dks fu:fir djrh gS: and shoot apex is represent the ...... :-

(1) foHkkT;ksrd o`f) voLFkk (1) Meristematic phase of growth

(2) Elongation phase of growth
(2) nh?khZdj.k o`f) voLFkk
(3) Maturation phase of growth
(3) ifjiDou o`f) voLFkk
(4) All of these
(4) mijksDr lHkh

111. tc ,d laogu iwy esa tkbye o ¶yks;e fHkUu 111. When xylem and phloem within a vascular
bundle are arranged in an alternate
f=T;kvksa ij ,d ,dkUrj Øe esa O;ofLFkr gksrs gSa] rks manner on different radii, the
_______ dgykrs gS rFkk _______ esa ik;s tkrs gSa: arrangement is called ____ and present
(1) la;qDr] ruk (2) vjh; rFkk tM+s in_______
(1) Conjoint, Stem (2) Radial, Roots
(3) vjh;] i.kZ (4) la;qDr] tM+s
(3) Radial, Leaf (4) Conjoint, Roots

112. ,d lkekU; ekuo uj ds fdrus çfr'kr ;qXedksa esa Y- 112. What percentage of sperms in a normal
xq.klw= ik;k tkrk gS? human male contain Y-chromosome?
(1) 0% (2) 25% (3) 50% (4) 100% (1) 0% (2) 25% (3) 50% (4) 100%

113. flfVªd vEy dk vPNk mRiknd dkSulk gS\ 113. A good producer of citric acid is:
(1)lSdsjksekblht (2) ,Lijftyl (1) Saccharomyces (2) Aspergillus
(3) L;wMkseksukl (4) DyksLVªhfM;e (3) Pseudomonas (4) Clostridium

114. Qh;ksQkblh ds lnL;ksa esa ;qXed rFkk twLiksj dk 114. In member of Phaeophyceae their
vkdkj Øe'k% gksrk gS? gametes and zoospore are respectively
(1) uk'kikrh ,oa lqbZ dh rjg which shapes?
(1) Pear, needle
(2) lqbZ ,oa uk'kikrh dh rjg
(2) Needle, pear
(3) uk'kikrh ,oa uk'kikrh dh rjg
(3) Pear, pear
(4) xksykdkj ,oa uk'kikrh dh rjg
(4) Spherical, pear

115. ,xkj ,d çdkj dk jlk;u gS] ;g fdl 'kSoky ls 115. Agar a type of chemical are obtained from
which algae and their uses respectively?
çkIr fd;k tkrk gSA vkSj bldk mi;ksx D;k gS?
(1) Gelidium, For grow microbes
(1) ftysfM;e] lw{etho ds lao/kZu esAa
(2) Gracilaria, Preparation of ice-cream
(2) xzsflysfj;k] vkblØhe cukus esAa
(3) Gelidium, preparation of jellies
(3) ftysfM;e] tsyh cukus esA
(4) All of these
(4) mijksä lHkhA
116. Mutation can result in:–
116. mRifjorZu dk ifj.kke gks ldrk gS :– (1) Loss of phenotype
(1) y{k.kç:i dh gkfu (2) Gain of phenotype
(2) y{k.kç:i dh izkfIr
(3) No effect on phenotype
(3) y{k.kç:i ij dksbZ izHkko ugh
(4) mijksDr lHkh (4) All of the above
117. ekuo ylhdk.kq esa Mh-,u-,- ds VqdM+s ds fuos'ku ds 117. Which of the following is commonly used

fy, fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk laokgd lkekU;r% as a vector for introducing a DNA
fragment in human lymphocytes?
iz;qDr fd;k tkrk gS ?
(1) disarmed Retrovirus
(1) fMlvkeZM jsVªksokbjl ¼i'p fo"kk.kq½
(2) Ti plasmid
(2) Ti IykfTeM
(3)  Qkt (3)  phage
(4) pBR 322
(4) pBR 322

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 33

 118. nh xbZ vfHkO;fä es]a Nt+1 = Nt + [(B + I} - (D + E)], 118. In the given expression, Nt+1 = Nt + [(B + I} -
v{kj 'N' dk vFkZ gS :- D ], th h b t ‘N” t n f :-
(1) tUenj (1) Natality
(2) e`R;q nj (2) Mortality
(3) ?kuRo (3) Density
(4) Number of individual
(4) O;fä dh la[;k
119. LFkyh; ikfjfLFkfrdh ra= esa çeq[k mRiknd gSa :& 119. In a terrestrial ecosystem, the major
producers are :-
(1) ikniIyod (2) tarqIyod
(1) Phytoplanktons (2) Zooplanktons
(3) dk"Bh; ikni (4) eNfy;k¡
(3) Woody plants (4) Fishes
120. Match the following Column-I with Column-
120. fuEufyf[kr dkWye-I dks dkWye-II ls lqesfyr djsa
II and choose the correct option.
rFkk lgh fodYi dk p;u djsa –
Column–I Column–II
dkWye-I dkWye-II
a. Compositae (i)
a. dEiksflVh (i) 

b. Gramineae (ii) 
b. xzsfeuh (ii) 
c. Malvaceae (iii)
c. ekyoslh (iii)
d. Cruciferae (iv)
d. ØwlhQsjh (iv)

a b c d
a b c d
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
121. Assertion (A): RNA is not the predominant
121. dFku (A): RNA izeq[k vkuqoaf'kd inkFkZ ugha gSA
genetic material.
dkj.k (R): RNA vfLFkj gS, rhoz xfr ls mRifjofrZr Reason (R): RNA being unstable, mutates
gksrk gSA at faster rate.
(1) (A) vkSj (R) nksuksa lR; gS vkSj (R), (A) dk lgh (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
Li"Vhdj.k gSA the correct explanation of the (A).
(2) (A) vkSj (R) nksuksa lgh gS (R), (A) dk lgh (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
Li"Vhdj.k ugha gSA not the correct explanation of the (A).
(3) (A) lgh gS ysfdu (R) xyr gSA (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) vkSj (R) nksuksa xyr gSA (4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

122. uhps tsy bysDVªksQksjsfll fof/k }kjk DNA ds [k.Mksa 122. Given below are four statements pertaining
to separation of DNA fragments using gel
dks i`Fkd djus ds lEcU/k esa pkj dFku fn;s x;s gSa]
electrophoresis. Identify the incorrect
vlR; dFku dks igpkfu;s % statement.
(1) DNA _.kvkosf'kr v.kq gS blfy, bls tsy esa (1) DNA is negatively charged molecule
dSFkksM okys fljs ij Hkkfjr fd;k tkrk gSA and so it is loaded on gel towards the
(2) DNA ds VqdM+s tsy dh lrg ij xeu djrs gSa] cathode terminal
ftudh lkUærk DNA dh xfr dks çHkkfor ugha (2) DNA fragments travel along the
surface of the gel whose
djrh gSA
concentration does not affect
(3) DNA [k.M ftruk T;knk NksVk gksxk ;g mruh
movement of DNA.
gh vf/kd nwjh r; djsxkA (3) Smaller the size of DNA fragment
(4) 'kq) DNA dks UV fofdj.k dh jks'kuh esa lh/ks larger is the distance it travels
ugha ns[kk tk ldrk gSA through it.
(4) Pure DNA can not be visualized
directly by exposing UV radiation.

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 34

 123. oa'kkxfr dk xq.klw=h; fl)kUr fdlds }kjk çfrikfnr 123. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was
fd;k x;k ? proposed by :
(1) Sutton and Boveri
(1) lVu o cksosjh
(2) Thomas Hunt Morgan
(2) Fkksel gUV eksxZu
(3) Watson and Crick
(3) okVlu o fØd (4) Meselson and Stahl
(4) eslsylu o LFkkWy
124. In Oogamous type of sexual reproduction,
124. v.M;qXedh çdkj ds ySaxhd tuu es]a uj vkSj eknk which statements are correct regarding
;qXed ds fy;s dkSu lk dFku lR; gS: to male and female gametes:
(a) uj ;qXed NksVk vkSj pyu'khy gksrk gSA (a) male gamete is small and motile.
(b) uj ;qXed cM+k vkSj pyu'khy gksrk gSA (b) male gamete is large and motile.
(c) eknk ;qXed NksVk vkSj vpyu'khy gksrk gSA (c) female gamete is small and non motile.
(d) eknk ;qXed cM+k vkSj vpyu'khy gksrk gSA (d) female gamete is large and non-motile.
(1) (a) rFkk (c) nksuksa (2) (a) rFkk (d) nksuksa (1) both (a) and (c) (2) both (a) and (d)
(3) both (b) and (c) (4) both (b) and (d)
(3) (b) rFkk (c) nksuksa (4) (b) rFkk (d) nksuksa

125. fQyhQkeZ midj.k tks flusftZM ds ekbØksiby Hkkx 125. Filiform apparatus present at the micropylar
esa ik;k tkrk gS mldk dk;Z gS : part of the synergids functions as:
(1) ijkx ufydk dh çfof"V ds fy, ekxZn'kZd (1) Guiding agent for entry of pollen tube
(2) Guiding agent for entry of polar nuclei
(2) /kqzoh; ukfHkd ds ços'k ds fy, ekxZn'kZd
(3) Function as fertilizing agent
(3) fu"kspu ,tsV a ds :i esa dk;Z
(4) Both (2) and (3)
(4) (2) vkSj (3) nksuks

126. fuEufyf[kr esa dkSu Xykbdksfyfll esa 'kkfey ugha 126. Which one of the following is not included
gksrk gSA in glycolysis:
(1) Substrate level phosphorylation occurs
(1) fØ;kèkkj Lrj QkWLQksfjfydj.k ik;k tkrk gSA
(2) The end products are CO2 and H2O.
(2) vfUre mRikn CO2 vkSj H2O gksrk gSA
(3) ATP is formed.
(3) ATP curk gS (4) ATP is used.
(4) ATP dk mi;ksx gksrk gS
127. When the genomes of two people are cut
127. tc ,d gh izfrca/ku ,Utkbe dk mi;ksx djds nks
using the same restriction enzyme, the
O;fDr;ksa ds thukse dks dkVk tkrk gS rks izkIr [k.Mksa length and number of fragments obtained
dh yEckbZ o la[;k fHkUu gksrh gS, ;g dgykrk gS : are different, this is called:
(1) PCR (2) RFLP (1) PCR (2) RFLP
(3) EST (4) unuZ CykWfVax (3) EST (4)Northern blotting
128. DNA cgq#irk fdldk vk/kkj gS: 128. DNA polymorphism forms the basis of:
(1) vkuqoaf'kd ekufp=.k (1) Genetic mapping
(2) DNA fQax a j fizafVax (2) DNA finger printing
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(3) (1) and (2) nksuksa
(4) Translation
(4) vuqoknu

129. nh xbZ vfHkO;fä “ — R = N ” es]a 'R' dk 129. In th g v n x n“ — R = N ”,

vFkZ gS :- th ‘R’ t n f :-
(1) 'olu ds fy, ikS/ks }kjk mi;ksx dh tkus okyh (1) A part of the productivity utilized by
mRikndrk dk ,d fgLlkA the plant for respiration.
(2) çkFkfed miHkksäk }kjk 'olu ds fy, mi;ksx dh (2) A part of the productivity utilized by
tkus okyh mRikndrk dk ,d fgLlkA the primary consumer for respiration.
(3) çkFkfed ekalkgkjh }kjk 'olu ds fy, mi;ksx (3) A part of the productivity utilized by
dh tkus okyh mRikndrk dk ,d fgLlkA the primary carnivore for respiration.
(4) mijksä lHkh ekU; gSaA (4) All the above listed are valid.

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 35

 130. dSfYou pØ esa inkFkksaZ dk lgh Øe D;k gS :- 130. In Calvin cycle, what is the correct sequence
(1) ,d dhVkst 'kdZjk, 3-QkLQksfXyljsV, Vªk;kst of substances :-
QkLQsV (1) A ketose sugar, 3-phosphoglycerate,
(2) 3-C dkcZfud vEy, ,d dhVkst 'kdZjk, Vªk;kst Triose phosphate
QkLQsV (2) 3-C organic acid, A ketose sugar,
Triose phosphate
(3) Vªk;kst QkLQsV, 3-C dkcZfud vEy, ,d dhVkst
(3) Triose phosphate, 3-C organic acid, A
'kdZjk
ketose sugar
(4) jkbckst 1, 3 ckbZQkLQsV, 3-QkLQksfXyljsV, Vªk;kst
(4) Ribose 1, 3 biphosphate, 3-phosphoglycerate,
QkLQsV triose phosphate

131. nk= dksf'kdk vjDrrk gS : 131. Sickel Cell Anaemia is a :

(1) xq.kkRed fodkj (1) Qualitative disorder
(2) vfyaxh vçHkkoh fodkj (2) Autosomal Recessive disorder
(3) cgqçHkkfork n'kkZrk gSA (3) Show pleiotropism
(4) mijksDr lHkh (4) All of these

132. fuEu dk feyku dhft,: 132. Match the following:

A PCR I ekuo bfrgkl dks A PCR I Used in tracing
[kkstus esa human history
B Minisatellite II HIV dh tk¡p esa B Minisatellite II To detect HIV
C Microsatellite III thu uD'kk cukus esa C Microsatellite III Gene mapping
D SNPs IV DNA D SNPs IV DNA
fingerprinting fingerprinting
(1) A–II; B–IV; C–III; D–I (1) A–II; B–IV; C–III; D–I
(2) A–III; B–II; C–I; D–IV (2) A–III; B–II; C–I; D–IV
(3) A–I; B–IV; C–II; D–III (3) A–I; B–IV; C–II; D–III
(4) A–II; B–III; C–I; D–IV (4) A–II; B–III; C–I; D–IV
133. PCR ds lanHkZ esa lgh dFku gS: 133. Which statement is correct about PCR:
(1) DNA ds p;fur [k.M ds çoèkZu esa (1) Amplify a selective piece of DNA
(2) dSalj dh tk¡p esa (2) Detect Cancer

(3) rkilaosnh Taq Polymerase dh vko'; d rk (3) Thermosensitive Taq Polymerase is

required
(4) mijksDr lHkh
(4) All of these

134. In a bioreactor, stirrer facilitates:

134. ,d ck;ksfj,DVj esa foyksMd lgk;d gksrk gS:
(1) Even mixing
(1) le feJ.k esa
(2) Availability of O2 throughout the
(2) lEiw.kZ ck;ksfj,DVj esa vkWDlhtu dh miyCèkrk
bioreactor
(3) (1) rFkk (2) nksuksa
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) rkieku fu;eu (4) Control Temperature

135. ikni rFkk tUrqvksa esa Øe'k% thu LFkkukUrj.k gsrq dkSulh 135. Which of the following method of gene
transfer is common in plants and animals
fofèk lkekU; gS :
respectively:
(1) thu xu rFkk lw{ebatsD'ku
(1) Biolistic gene gun and micro injection
(2) oS|qr lapyu rFkk lw{ebatsD'ku
(2) Electroporation and micro injection
(3) jlk;u fofèk rFkk oS|qr lapyu
(3) Chemical mediated and
(4) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
Electroporation
(4) None of these

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 36

 136. fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku vlR; gS : 136. Which of the following statement is
(1) ;fn vLoPN ty dh BOD mPp gks rks ;g incorrect :
çnw"k.k foHko dks c<+k nsrh gSA (1) If the greater of BOD of waste water,
(2) dqN fo"keiks"kh lw{e tho okfgr ey mipkj esa more is its polluting potential.
(2) Some heterotrophic microbes are
ç;qä gksrs gSaA
used in sewage treatment.
(3) lfØf;r vkiad ok;qoh; VSad esa lfØ; dkjd
(3) Activated sludge is digested in aerobic
¼agitator½ ra= ds lkFk ifpr gksrs gSaA
tank with an agitator system.
(4) jklk;fud moZjd ekuo ds fy, vR;f/kd
(4) Chemical fertilizers are extremely
gkfudkjd gksrs gSaA
harmful for human beings.

137. vlR; feyku dk p;u djsa & 137. Find out the incorrect match?

A. CNS–'osr æO; ,oa /kwlj æO; dk cuk gksrk gSA A. CNS - made up of white matter and
grey matter.
B. ,Dl‚u – vfHkokgh çdkj ds
B. Axon - Afferent type
C. f}/kzqoh; U;wj‚u – gkbMªk esa mifLFkr
C. Bipolar neuron - found in hydra
D. foJke voLFkk K+ ions vUr%xeu mÙkjnk;h & D. Resting stage - K+ ions influx are
(1) dsoy A, B, D responsible.
(2) dsoy A, D (1) A, B, D only
(2) A, D only
(3) dsoy B, C, D
(3) B, C, D only
(4) dsoy C, D
(4) C, D only

138. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dFku lgh gSa? 138. Which of the following statements is/are
I. FkzksEckslkbV~l esa deh ls FkDds teus dh leL;k correct?
gks ldrh gSA I. A reduction in thrombocytes can lead
to clotting disorder.
II. ,d LoLFk o;Ld O;fä ds jä esa vkSlru 5
II. A healthy adult man has on an
fefy;u RBCs mm-3 gksrs gSaA average, 5 millions of RBCs mm-3 of
III. jä esa lHkh dksf'kdkvksa esa Y;wdkslkbV~l lcls blood.
çpqj ek=k esa gksrs gSaA III. Leucocytes are the most abundant of
(1) I vkSj II (2) II vkSj III all the cells in blood.
(3) I vkSj III (4) I, II vkSj III (1) I and II (2) II and III
(3) I and III (4) I, II and III

139. ATPase mifLFkr gksrk gS : 139. ATPase is located in :-

(1) ,fDVfuu esa (2) Vªksiksfuu esa (1) Actinin (2) Troponin
(3) ek;ksflu esa (4) ,fDVu esa (3) Myosin (4) Actin

140. ,M~l vkSj dSUlj mnkgj.k gS% 140. AIDS and cancer are examples of
(1) laØked fcekjh dk (1) Infectious disease
(2) vlaØked fcekjh dk (2) Non-infection disease
(3) ,M~l laØked vkSj dSUlj vlaØked fcekjh (3) AIDS infectious and cancer non
dk infectious

(4) ,M~l vlaØked vkSj dSUlj laØked fcekjh (4) AIDS non-infectious and cancer
infections
dk

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 37

 141. fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk VªkaltSfud tarqvks dk ykHk ugha 141. Which of the following is not a benefit of
gSA transgenic animals
(1) chekj;ksa ds fy, u, mipkj dk ijh{k.k (1) Investigation of new treatments for
diseases
(2) Early detection of diseases
(2) chekjh dh vkjafHkd voLFkk esa igpku
(3) Testing the safety of vaccines
(3) Vhdksa dh lqj{kk dk ijh{k.k
(4) To produce useful biological products
(4) mi;ksxh tSfod mRiknksa dk mRiknu

142. gq;wxks Mh ozht ds vuq:i mf}dkl djus okyh 142. According to Hugo deVries the variations
fofHkUurk,sa gksrh gS\ which cause evolution are ?

(1) NksVh o fn'kk foghu (1) Small and directionless

(2) Large and directionless
(2) cM+h o fn'kk foghu
(3) Large and directional
(3) cM+h o fn'kh;
(4) Small and directional
(4) NksVh o fn'kh;

143. MTP (la’kks/ku) vf/kfu;e, 2017 ds vuqlkj xHkkZoLFkk 143. According to MTP (Amendment)act, 2017
dh fpfdRldh; lekfIr Hkzw.k dh fdl vk;q ls de Medical termination of pregnancy is
rd vuqer gS? permissible fewer than what fetal age?
(1) 24 lIrkg (2) 9 lIrkg (1) 24 Weeks (2) 9 Weeks

(3) 18 lIrkg (4) 12 lIrkg (3) 18 Weeks (4) 12 Weeks

144. vfHkdFku (A): Fkk;j‚bM gkeksuZ ds la'ys"k.k vkSj lzko 144. Assertion (A): The rate of synthesis and
dh nj vlkekU; :i ls mPp Lrj rd c<+ tkrh gS] secretion of thyroid hormones is
ftlds ifj.kkeLo:i gkbijFkk;jk;fMTe uked fLFkfr increased to abnormal high levels leading
mRiUu gks tkrh gSA to a condition called hyperthyroidism.
Reason (R): It occurs due to cancer of the
dkj.k (R): ;g Fkk;j‚;M xzafFk ds dSalj ;k Fkk;j‚;M
thyroid gland or due to development of
xzafFk;ksa esa xkaBksa ds fodkl ds dkj.k gksrk gSA
nodules of the thyroid glands.
mijksä dFkuksa ds vk/kkj ij] uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa
In the light of the above statements,
ls lcls mi;qä mÙkj pqfu,:
choose the most appropriate answer
(1) (A) vkSj (R) nksuksa lgh gSa ysfdu (R), (A) dh
from the options given below:
lgh O;k[;k ugha gSA (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is
(2) (A) lgh gS ysfdu (R)lgh ugha gSA not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) lgh ugha gS ysfdu (R) lgh gSA (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) vkSj (R) nksuksa lgh gSa vkSj (R), (A) dh lgh (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
O;k[;k gSA (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
the correct explanation of (A).
145. A voLFkk xHkkZ'k;h B esa varjksfZ ir gksrh gSA ml
fodYi dk p;u dhft, tks A vkSj B dh iwfrZ lgh 145. A stage implants in uterine B. Choose the
ls djrk gSA option which correctly fill the A and B:
A B
(1) eksjksyk ¼rqrd½ ek;ksesfVª;e A B
(2) ;qXeut ,.MksesfVª;e (1) Morula Myometrium
(3) xSLVwyk ¼danqd½ ek;ksesfVª;e (2) Zygote Endometrium
(4) CykLVksflLV ,.MksesfVª;e (3) Gastrula Myometrium
¼dksjdiqVh½ (4) Blastocyst Endometrium

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 38

 146. dFku I: LFkyh; vuqdwyu ds fy, de vkfo"k 146. Statement I: Terrestrial adaptation
ukbVªkstuh; vif'k"V tSls ;wfj;k vkSj ;wfjd vEy dk necessitated the production of lesser
toxic nitrogenous waste like urea & uric
mRiknu ty laj{k.k ds fy, vko';d gksrk gSA
acid for conservation of water
dFku II: veksfu;k lcls vfèkd vkfo"k gS vkSj blds Statement II: Ammonia is the most toxic
fu"dklu ds fy, vf/kd ty dh vko';drk gksrh form and require large amount of water
gSA for its elimination
(1) dFku I lgh gSA (1) Statement I is correct
(2) Both statements are correct
(2) nksuksa dFku lgh gSA
(3) Both statements are incorrect
(3) nksuksa dFku xyr gSA
(4) Statement II is correct
(4) dFku II lgh gSA

147. lkekU; 'kkjhfjd fLFkfr esa çR;sd 100 ml vkWDlhtu 147. Each 100 ml of deoxygenated blood
jfgr jDr dwfidk dks ______ml CO2 igq¡pkrk gSA deliver ______ml of CO2 to the alveoli
(1) 4 ml (2) 2 ml under normal physiological condition.
(3) 3 ml (4) 5 ml (1) 4 ml (2) 2 ml (3) 3 ml (4) 5 ml

148. vdkcZfud ;kSfxd tSls lYQsV, Q‚LQsV vkfn fdlesa 148. The inorganic compounds like sulphate,
phosphate, etc., are found in
ik, tkrs gS?
(1) acid soluble pool
(1) vEy foys; iwy esAa
(2) acid insoluble fraction
(2) vEy vfoys; va'k esAa
(3) both acid soluble pool and acid
(3) vEy foys; iwy o vEy vfoys; va'k nksuksa esAa
insoluble fraction
(4) dksf'kdh; iwy esa vuqifLFkr gksrs gSA
(4) not found in cellular pool

149. ekuo 'kjhj eas vkerkSj ij l?ku vfu;fer la;ksth 149. Where is dense irregular connective tissue
commonly found in the human body?
Ård dgk¡ ik;k tkrk gS\ (1) In tendons, connecting muscles to
bones.
(1) daMjk es]a isf'k;ksa dks vfLFk;ksa ls tksM+uk
(2) In ligaments, connecting bones to
(2) Lék;q es]a vfLFk;ksa dks vU; vfLFk;ksa ls tksM+uk other bones.
(3) In the skin, providing resistance to
(3) Ropk es]a ruko ds fy, izfrjks/k iznku djuk
stress.
(4) isf'k;ksa es]a laf/k;ksa dks xÌh iznku djuk (4) In the muscles, providing cushioning
to joints.
150. uhps fn,s x,s y{k.kksa dk dkSulk ,d ;qXe d‚MsVZ 150. Which of the following set of characters
tUrqvksa dh thou pØ dh voLFkk esa vko';d :i ls is definitely found at some stage in the

ik;k tkrk gSA life cycle of a chordate.

(1) Mammary gland, hairs, gill cleft.
(1) Lru xzafFk] jkse] Dykse njkjsA
(2) Notochord, vertebral column, gill
(2) u‚VksdksMZ+] d'ks:d n.M] Dykse njkjs
cleft.
(3) u‚VksdksMZ ] Dykse njkjs ] i`"Bh; ufydkdkj
(3) Notochord, gill cleft, dorsal tubular
raf=dk ra=
nervous system.
(4) i`"Bh; ufydkdkj raf=dk ra=] d'ks:d naM]
(4) Dorsal tubular nervous system,
'kYd vertebral column, scales.

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 39

 151. vlR; dFku dks pqfu,: 151. Select the incorrect statement:
(1) Hkkjr esa Mk;Ýe vfèkd yksdfç; xHkZfujksèkd fofèk (1) Diaphragms are very popular method

gSA of contraception in India.

(2) eYVhyksM&375 ,d Cu ;qDr IUD gSA (2) Multiload-375 is Cu releasing IUD

(3) Saheli is once a week pill
(3) lgsyh lIrkg esa ,d ckj okyh xksyh gSA
(4) MTP is a type of induced abortion.
(4) MTP ,d çdkj ls çsfjr xHkZikr gSA

152. d`f=e o`Dd }kjk ;wfj;k dk fu"dklu fd;k tkrk gS 152. Urea can be removed by artificial kidney

vkSj bl çfØ;k esa 'kkfey gSA and process involved is

(1) fMLVhys'ku (1) Distillation

(2) Crystallisation
(2) fØLVsykbts'ku
(3) Haemodialysis
(3) gheksMk;ysfll
(4) Endoscopy
(4) ,.MksLdkWih

153. lwph-I dks lwph-II ls feyku djsAa 153. Match the List-I with List-II.
lwph-I lwph-II List-I List-II
A vxz egkf'kjk I v‚Dlhtu jfgr A Superior I Carries
jä dks QsQM+ksa Vena Cava deoxygenated
rd igqapkrh gS blood to

B i'p egkf'kjk II QsQM+ksa ls lungs

B Inferior Vena II Carries
v‚Dlhtu ;qä
Cava oxygenated
jä ys tkrh gS
blood from
C Qq¶Qqlh; /keuh III 'kjhj ds fupys
lungs
fgLlksa ls
C Pulmonary III Brings
v‚Dlhtu jfgr Artery deoxygenated
jä dks nk,a blood from
vkfyan esa ykrh lower parts
gS of body to
D Qq¶Qqlh; IV 'kjhj ds Åijh right atrium
f'kjk fgLlksa ls D Pulmonary IV Brings
v‚Dlhtu jfgr Vein deoxygenated
jä dks blood from
nk,a vkfyan esa upper parts

ykrh gS of body into

right atrium.
Choose the correct answer from the
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa lgh mÙkj pqusA
options given below.
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

(4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II (4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 40

 154. dFku (A): mikfLFky eNfy;ksa dks Mwcusa ls cpus ds 154. Assertion (A) : Cartilaginous fishes have

fy, yxkrkj rSjuk gksrk gSA to swim constantly to avoid sinking.

dkj.k (R): ok;qdks"k dh vuqifLFkfr ds dkj.kA Reason (R): Due to the absence of Air

(1) (A) rFkk (R) nksuksa lR; gSa vkSj (R), (A) dk lgh bladder.

O;k[;k gSA (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is

(2) (A) rFkk (R) nksuksa lR; gSa ysfdu (R), (A) dk the correct explanation of the (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
lgh O;k[;k ugha gSaA
not the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) (A) lR; gS ysfdu (R) vlR; gSaA
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) vkSj (R) nksuksa vlR; gSaA
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

155. uhps nks dFku fn, x, gS ,d dks dFku (A) rFkk 155. Given below are two statements: one is

nwljs dks dkj.k (R) ds :i esa fpfUgr fd;k x;k gS: labelled as Assertion A and the other is

dFku (A): la;ksth Årdksa dk Hkj.k inkFkZ labelled as Reason R:

i‚yhisIVkbM~l vkSj blds O;qRiUuksa ls cuk gksrk gSA Assertion A: Ground substance of
connective tissues is composed of
dkj.k (R): la;ksth Ård 'kjhj ds vU; vaxksa @
polypeptides and its derivatives.
Årdksa dks tksM+us vkSj lgkjk nsus dk dk;Z djrs gSA
Reason R: Connective tissues perform the
mijksä dFkuksa ds vk/kkj ij uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa
function of linking and supporting other
ls lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,: tissues and organs of the body.
(1) dFku (A) lgh gS] ijUrq dkj.k (R) xyr gSA In the light of the above statements,
(2) dFku (A) xyr gS] ijUrq dkj.k (R) lgh gSA choose the correct answer from the

(3) nksuksa dFku (A) rFkk dkj.k (R) lgh gS] rFkk options given below:
(1) A is true but R is false.
dkj.k (R)] dFku (A) dk lgh Li"Vhdj.k gSA
(2) A is false but R is true.
(4) nksuksa dFku (A) rFkk dkj.k (R) lgh gS] rFkk
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the
dkj.k (R)] dFku (A) dk lgh Li"Vhdj.k ugha correct explanation of A.
gSA (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A.
156. dkSu ls nks lewg fHkUu vehuks vEy ds e/; isIVkbM 156. Which of the two groups of following
ca/k esa Hkkx ysrs gS? involved in peptide bond between
different amino acids?

(1) 2 o 3
(2) 1 o 3 (1) 2 and 3
(3) 1 o 4 (2) 1 and 3

(4) 2 o 4 (3) 1 and 4

(4) 2 and 4

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 41

 157. LrEHk-I dk LrEHk-II ds lkFk feyku dhft, rFkk lgh 157. Match column-I with column-II and
fodYi dk p;u dhft,A choose the correct option:
LrEHk-I LrEHk-II Column-I Column-II
a. L=h esa gkeksu
Z (i) dkWysLVªe@[khl a Hormones are i Colostrum
produced in
dsoy lxHkZrk
women only
dh fLFkfr es ga ha
during
mRikfnr gksrs gSa pregnancy
b. xHkZ mR{ksi.k (ii) hCG, hPL vkSj
b Foetal ejection ii hCG, hPL and
çfrorZ fjySfDlu reflex relaxin
c. jtksfuo`fÙk (iii) çlo c Menopause iii Parturition
d. Lruiku (iv) L=h esa vkrZo d Lactation iv Menstrual cycles
pØ 50 o"kZ ds ceases around
yxHkx cUn gks 50 years of age
tkrk gSA in female
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (1) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

158. fuEufyf[kr esa dkSu lk dFku lgt izfrj{kk ds fy, 158. Which of the following statement is
vlR; gS: incorrect for innate immunity:
(1) Act as barriers
(1) jks/k dh rjg dk;Z djrs gS
(2) Can phagocytose pathogens
(2) jksxtud dk Hk{k.k dj ldrs gSa izfrtu
irrespective of antigenic specificity
fof’k"Vrk ds cxSj
(3) Is characterized by memory
(3) bldh fo’ks"krk Le`fr ds }kjk gksrh gS
(4) Is present at the time of birth
(4) ;s tUe ds le; ls gksrh gSa
159. Bio-piracy means
159. ck;ks&ikbjslh dk vFkZ gS
(1) Use of bio-patents
(1) ck;ks&isVsUV dk mi;ksx
(2) Thefts of plants and animals
(2) ikS/kksa vkSj tarqvksa dh pksjh
(3) Stealing of bio-resources
(3) tSo lalk/kuksa dh pksjh
(4) Exploitation of bio-resources without
(4) vkKk ds fcuk tSo lalk/kuksa dk nq:i;ksx] authentic permission

160. uhps n'kkZ;s x;s fp= ds fy, lgh dFku dk p;u 160. Choose the statements which is/are
dhft, correct for diagram shown below.

(i) le:i vax vfHklkfjr fodkl ds mnkgj.k gSA (i) Analogous organs are the example of
convergent evolution.
(ii) letkrrk vilkfjr fodkl ij vk/kkfjr gSA
(ii) Homology is based upon divergent
(iii) letkr vax 'kkjhfjdh :i ls leku ugh gksrsA evolution
(iv) le:i vax leku iwoZt dks bafxr ugh djrs (iii) Homologous organs are not
anatomically similar
(1) i, ii, iv (2) dsoy iii (iv) Analogous organ do not indicate
(3) dsoy ii (4) iii] iv common ancestry
(1) i, ii, iv (2) iii only
(3) ii only (4) iii, iv

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 42

 161. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dk;Z ,YMksLVsjksu }kjk fd;k 161. Which of the following functions are
tkrk gS? performed by aldosterone?
(i) K+ vkSj QkWLQsV vk;u dk mRltZu (i) Excretion of K+ and Phosphate ions.
(ii) Xykbdksftuksykbfll (ii) Glycogenolysis
(iii) Anti-inflammatory reactions
(iii) çfr’kksFk çfrfØ;k,a
(iv) Regulation of water and electrolyte
(iv) ty vkSj bysDVªksykbV larqyu dk fu;eu
balance
(v) o`Dd ufydkvksa ls ty vkSj Na+ ds iqu%
(v) Stimulates reabsorption of Na+ and
vo'kks"k.k dks mÙksftr djrk gS
water form renal tubules.
(1) (i), (ii) vkSj (iii)
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(2) (i), (iv) vkSj (v) (2) (i), (iv) and (v)
(3) (iii) vkSj (iv) (3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) vkSj (v) (4) (ii) and (v)

162. csflyl FkwfjfUt,afll ls fdl thu dks vyx fd;k 162. Which gene isolated from Bacillus
x;k gS tks eDdk Nsnd dhV dh vkcknh dks fu;af=r thuringiensis has been known to control
djus ds fy, tkuk tkrk gS\ the insect population of corn borer?
(1) HLA- thu (1) HLA-gene
(2) Cry I Ab-thu (2) Cry I Ab-gene

(3) Cry I Ac-thu (3) Cry I Ac-gene

(4) Cry II Ab-gene
(4) Cry II Ab-thu

163. d‚ye-I ds jksxksa dk d‚ye-II esa buds y{k.kksa ls 163. Match diseases in column-I with their
feyku dhft,A lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,A symptoms in column-II. Choose the
correct option.
d‚ye-I d‚ye-II Column-I Column-II
A U;qeksfu;k i mPp Toj] detksjh] a Pneumonia i High fever, weakness,
vkek'k; esa ihM+k] Hkw[k stomach pain, loss of
u yxuk o dCt appetite and
b vehfc,fll ii uklh; ladqyrk vkSj constipation
vkL=ko] [kk¡lh] daB b Amoebiasis ii Nasal congestion and

nkg vkSj fljnnZ discharge, cough, sore

throat and headache
c lkekU; tqdke iii 'olu esa dfBukbZ]
c Common iii Difficulty in respiration,
Toj] fBBqju] [kk¡lh]
cold fever, chills, cough,
fljnnZ vkSj xaHkhj
headache and cyanosis
ekeyksa esa uhfyek
in severe cases
¼lkbuksfll½ gksuk d Typhoid iv Constipation,
d VkbQ‚bM iv dCt] mnj ihM+k] ØSEi abdominal pain,
¼tdM+u½ vkSj jä ds cramps and blood
FkDds okyk ey clots in stool
(1) a→(i), b→(ii), c→(iii), d→(vi) (1) a→(i), b→(ii), c→(iii), d→(vi)
(2) a→(iv), b→(iii), c→(ii), d→(i) (2) a→(iv), b→(iii), c→(ii), d→(i)
(3) a→(iii), b→(iv), c→(ii), d→(i) (3) a→(iii), b→(iv), c→(ii), d→(i)
(4) a→(ii), b→(i), c→(iv), d→(iii) (4) a→(ii), b→(i), c→(iv), d→(iii)

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 43

 164. fuEu dFkuks dks if<+, 164. Read the following statements :
(a) çFke vdksf'kdh; thou dh mRifr 3mya iwoZ gqbZ (a) The first non-cellular forms of life

(b) çFke dksf'kdh; thou dh mRifÙk 2000 mya could have originated 3mya.
(b) first cellular form of life did not
ls iwoZ laHko ugh FkhA
possibly originate till about 2000 mya.
(c) pkyZ~l MkfoZu us ;g fu"d"kZ fudkyk dh orZeku (c) Charles Drawin concluded that
Lo:i ,d:irk n'kkZrk gS uk dsoy vkil esa existing living forms share similarity
cfYd fefy;u o"kZ iwoZ ik;s tkus okys iwoZtks ds to varying degrees not only among
lkFk themselves but also with life forms
that existed millions of years ago.
(d) MkfoZu ds vuqlkj mi;qDrrk dk mYys[k çtuu
(d) The fitness, according to Darwin
ds fy, mi;qDrrk ls gh gSA refers ultimately and only to
fdrus dFku lR; gSA reproductive fitness.
(1) 4 (2) 1 How many statements are correct
(3) 2 (4) 3 (1) 4 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3

165. Lruh; vaMk.kq dk nwljk ifjiDou foHkktu : 165. The second maturation division of the
(1) xzkfQ;u iqVd esa gh çFke ifjiDou foHkktu ds mammalian ovum occurs :
ckn gksrk gSA (1) In the Graafian follicle following the
(2) vaMksRlxZ ds FkksM+s ls gh le; ds ckn] vaMk.kq ds first maturation division
(2) Shortly after ovulation before the
QSyksfi;u ufydk esa ços'k djus ls igys gh gks
ovum makes entry into the Fallopian
tkrk gSA
tube
(3) rc rd ugha gksrk tc rd fd mlesa dksbZ 'kqØk.kq
(3) Until after the ovum has been
ços'k ugha dj tkrkA
penetrated by a sperm
(4) rc rd ugha gksrk tc rd fd 'kqØk.kq dk dsUæd
(4) Until the nucleus of the sperm has
vaMk.kq ds dsUæd ls lesfdr ugha gks tkrkA fused with that of the ovum

166. LrEHk I o LrEHk II ds e/; lgh lqesfyr gSA 166. Match correctly between Column I and
LrEHk–I LrEHk–II Column II.

(A) dksystu (I) Xywdkst LFkkukarj.k Column-I Column-II

(A) Collagen (I) Glucose
(B) fVªIlhu (II) dqN jlk;u tSls
transport
xa/k] Lokn ds fy, o (B) Trypsin (II) Binding with some
gkeksuZ ls tqM+rk gSA chemical, like for
(C) bUlqfyu (III) gkeksuZ smell taste and
(D) ,UVhcksMh (IV) ,atkbe hormones
(C) Insulin (III) Hormones
(E) xzkgh (V) varjdksf’kdh; Hkj.k
(D) Antibody (IV) Enzyme
inkFkZ (E) Receptor (V) Intercellular
(F) GLUT–4 (VI) laØked rRo ls ground substance
yM+rk gSA (F) GLUT-4 (VI) Fight infectious
(1) A–V, B–IV, C–III, D–VI, E–II, F–I agents
(1) A-V, B-IV, C-III, D-VI, E-II, F-I
(2) A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–V, E–VI, F–I
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-V, E-VI, F-I
(3) A–VI, B–II, C–I, D–V, E–IV, F–III
(3) A-VI, B-II, C-I, D-V, E-IV, F-III
(4) A–I, B–IV, C–III, D–VI, E–II, F–V
(4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-VI, E-II, F-V

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 44

 167. fuEu esa ls csesy ;qXe dks Nk¡fV, & 167. Pick the odd pair out -
(1) vjh; lefefr & ,dkbuksMesV Z k (1) Radial symmetry - Echinodermata
(2) [kaMhHkou mifLFkr & eksyLdk (2) Segmentation present - Mollusca
(3) dwV çxqgh & ,LdsyfeUFkht (3) Pseudocoelomate - Aschelminthes
(4) Cellular level – Porifera
(4) dksf'kdh; Lrj & i‚jhQsjk
168. Given below are two statements:
168. uhps nks dFku fn, x, gSa: Statement I: The alimentary canal of frog
dFku-I: es<a d dh vkgkj uky NksVh gksrh gS D;ksfa d is short as frogs are carnivores.
Statement II: Cells, tissues, organs and
es<a d ekalkgkjh gksrs gSaA
organ systems split up the work in a way
dFku-II: dksf'kdk,¡] Ård] vax vkSj vax ra= dk;Z that exhibits division of labour and
dks bl rjg ls foHkkftr djrh gSa tks Je foHkktu contribute to the survival of the body as
a whole.
dks çnf'kZr djrk gS vkSj iwjs 'kjhj ds vfLrRo esa In the light of the above statements,
;ksxnku nsrk gSA choose the most appropriate answer
from the options given below:
mi;qZä dFkuksa ds vk/kkj es]a uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa (1) Both statement I and Statement II are
ls lcls mi;qä mÙkj pqusa: correct.
(2) Both statement I and Statement II are
(1) dFku-I rFkk dFku-II nksuksa lgh gSA incorrect.
(2) dFku-I rFkk dFku-II nksuksa xyr gSA (3) Statement I is correct but Statement
II is incorrect.
(3) dFku-I lgh gS] ijUrq dFku-II xyr gSA
(4) Statement I is incorrect but
(4) dFku-I xyr gS] ijUrq dFku-II lgh gSA Statement II is correct

169. esfyaxusUV eysfj;k fdlds dkj.k gksrk gS% 169. malignant malaria is caused by
(1)IykTeksfM;e okboDl (1) Plasmodium vivax
(2) IykTeksfM;e eysfj;k (2) Plasmodium malaria
(3) IykTeksfM;e QSYlhisje (3) Plasmodium falciparum

(4) lHkh (4) All of these

170. uhps nh x;h lwph esa fdrus tUrq tyh; gS \ 170. How many animals in the list given below
Ldksfy;ksMksu, dryk, dSesyhv‚u, dkoZl, are aquatic ?

fiUdV‚Mk Scoliodon, Catla, Chameleon, Corvus,

Pinctada
(1) nks (2) rhu
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) pkj (4) ik¡p
(3) Four (4) Five

171. d‚djksp ds laca/k esa lwph-I dks lwph-II ls lqesfyr djsAa 171. Match List-I with List-II w.r.t. cockroach.
lwph-I lwph-II List-I List-II
A LDysjkbV I vxz ia[k A Sclerite I Forewings
B VsfXeuk II 10th [kaM B Tegmina II 10th segment
C Gizzard III Exoskeleton
C fxtkMZ III cká dadky
plate
IysV D Anal cerci IV Proventriculus
D xqnk ywe IV çksofsa Vªdqyl
Choose the correct answer from the
uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mÙkj pqusa options given below:
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 45

 172. uhps fn;k x;k fp= ,takbe }kjk lcLVªsV dk mRikn 172. The figure given below shows the

esa :ikarj.k n’kkZrk gSA A, B, C o D ds :i esa conversion of a substate into product by an

enzyme. In which one of the four options
ukekafdr vfHkfØ;k ds ?kVd ds pkj fodYi (A–D)
(A–D) the components of reaction labelled
esa ls dkSu lk lgh igpkuk x;k gS?
as A, B, C and D are identified correctly?

A B C D
(1) Potential Transition Activation Activation
A B C D energy state energy energy
(1) foHko ÅtkZ Økafrd ,atkbe ds lkFk ,atkbe ds with without
voLFkk lfØ;.k ÅtkZ fcuk lfØ;.k enzyme enzyme
ÅtkZ (2) Transition Potential Activation Activation
(2) Økafrd foHko ,atkbe ds fcuk ,atkbe ds state energy energy energy
voLFkk ÅtkZ lfØ;.k ÅtkZ lkFk lfØ;.k without with
ÅtkZ enzyme enzyme
(3) foHko ÅtkZ Økafrd ,atkbe ds lkFk ,atkbe ds (3) Potential Transion Activation Activation
voLFkk lfØ;.k ÅtkZ fcuk lfØ;.k energy state energy energy
ÅtkZ with without
(4) ,atkbe ds Økafrd ,atkbe ds fcuk foHko ÅtkZ enzyme enzyme
lkFk voLFkk lfØ;.k ÅtkZ (4) Activation Tranistion Activation Potential
lfØ;.k energy with state energy energy
ÅtkZ enzyme without
enzyme

173. ekuoksa es]a çFke v/kZlw=h foHkkotu ds ckn uj tuu 173. In humans, at the end of the first meiotic

dksf'kdk,a fdlds :i esa foHksfnr gks tkrh gSa\ division, the male germ cells differentiate

(1) ç'kqØk.kq into the :

(2) 'kqØk.kqtu (1) Spermatids

(3) çkFkfed ç'kqØk.kqtu (2) Spermatogonia

(4) f}rh;d ç'kqØk.kqtu (3) Primary spermatocytes

(4) Secondary spermatocytes

174. ekuo iwoZtksa esa efLr"d dk lkbt 1000cc ls T;knk
174. Among the human ancestors the brain
fdldk Fkk size was more than 1000cc in
(1) gkseks uh,aMjFkSyafs ll (1) Homo neanderthalensis
(2) gkseks bjSDVl (2) Homo erectus
(3) jkekfiFksdl (3) Ramapithecus
(4) gkseks gSfcfyl (4) Homo habilis

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 46

 175. dFku I: lqne vkcqZn izpjq ksn~Hkoh dksf’kdkvksa dk iqat gS 175. Statement I: Benign tumors are the a
mass of proliferating cells called
tks uonzO;h; dksf’kdk;sa dgykrh gSA
neoplastic or tumor cells.
dFku II: ijkcSxuh tSls vuk;uhdkjh fofdj.k DNA Statement II: Non-ionising radiation like
U.V. cause DNA damage leading to
dks {kfr igq¡pkrs gS] ftlls uon`O;;h :ikUrj.k gksrk
neoplastic transformation.
gSA (1) Both statement I and Statement II are

(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement
(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA
II is incorrect
(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but
Statement II is correct
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA
(4) Both statement I and Statement II are
correct

176. ehlkslkse dk fuekZ.k dksf'kdk esa IykTek f>Yyh ds 176. Mesosomes are formed by the extensions
foLrkj ls gksrk gSA of plasma membrane into the cell.
eslkslkse ds dk;ksZa dk p;u djsa vkSj lgh mÙkj pquAsa Select the functions of mesosomes and

(a) 'olu ysus choose the correct answer.

(a) Respiration
(b) çksVhu vkSj LVkpZ la'ys"k.k
(b) Protein and starch synthesis
(c) dksf'kdk fHkfÙk dk fuekZ.k
(c) Cell wall formation
(d) Mh,u, çfr—fr
(d) DNA replication
(1) (b) vkSj (d) (2) (a) vkSj (b)
(1) (b) and (d) (2) (a) and (b)
(3) (a), (c) vkSj (d) (4) (b) vkSj (c)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (b) and (c)

177. uhps fn, x, dksM esa ls lgh dFku pquAsa 177. Choose the correct statements from the
I- 'ysMsu dk v/;;u fofHkUu çdkj ds ikni codes given below.
dksf'kdkvksa vkSj Årdksa ij vk/kkfjr FksA I. Schleiden studies were based on

II- viw.kZ dksf'kdk lajpuk Lora= thou lqfuf'pr different kinds of plant cells and
tissues.
ugha djrh gSA
II. An incomplete cell structure does not
III- ikni Årdksa dh dksf'kdk,a vDlj thonzO; rUrq
ensure independent living.
uked dksf'kdknzO;h iqyksa ds ek/;e ls ,d nwljs III. Cells of plant tissues are often
ls tqM+h gksrh gSaA connected with one another through
IV- euq"; ds xky dh dksf'kdkvksa esa dksf'kdk fHkfÙk cytoplasmic bridges called
plasmodesmata.
ugha gksrh gSA
IV. Human cheek cells do not possess a
dksM~l cell wall.
(1) II vkSj III Codes
(2) I vkSj II (1) II and III
(3) I] III vkSj IV (2) I and II
(3) I, III and IV
(4) I] II] III vkSj IV
(4) I, II, III and IV

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 47

 178. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdldh ckgjh f>Yyh esa iksfju 178. Porin protein in outer membrane are
çksVhu ik;k tkrk gS : present in following:
(1) E-R- rFkk G-B- (1) E.R. and G.B.
(2) rkjddk; rFkk E.R. (2) Centrosome and E.R.
(3) Mitochondria and Chloroplast
(3) lw=df.kdk rFkk gfjryod
(4) Plastid and Lysosome
(4) yod rFkk ykblkslkse

179. ,d dkf;d dksf'kdk esa ftlus vius dksf'kdk&pØ dh 179. A somatic cell that has just completed
vHkh&vHkh S&çkoLFkk iwjh dh gS] mlh Lih'kht ds the S-phase of its cell cycle, as compared
to gamete of the same species, has
;qXed dh rqyuk esa
(1) Same number of chromosomes but
(1) xq.klw=ksa dh la[;k leku gksrh gS ysfdu DNA
twice the amount of DNA
dh ek=k nqxquh gksrh gSA
(2) Twice the number of chromosomes
(2) xq.klw=ksa dh la[;k nqxquh gksrh gS vkSj DNA dh
and four times the amount of DNA
ek=k pkj xquk vf/kd gksrh gSA (3) Four time the number of
(3) xq.klw=ksa dh la[;k pkj xquk vf/kd gksrh gS vkSj chromosomes and twice the amount
DNA dh ek=k nqxquh gksrh gSA of DNA
(4) xq.klw=ksa dh la[;k nqxquh gksrh gS vkSj DNA dh (4) Twice the number of chromosomes
ek=k Hkh nqxquh gksrh gS and twice the amount of DNA

180. v/kZlw=h foHkktu dh ?kVukvksa dks lgh Øe esa 180. Arrange the following events of meiosis in
O;ofLFkr dhft, correct sequence
(A) Økflax vksoj ¼thu fofue;½ (A) Crossing over
(B) flusfIll ¼lwR;qZXeu½ (B) Synapsis

(C) dk,TesVk dk var (C) Terminalisation of chiasmata

(D) Disappearance of nucleolus
(D) dsfædk dk v–'; gksuk
(1) (B), (A), (C), (D)
(1) (B), (A), (C), (D)
(2) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(2) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(3) (B), (C), (D), (A)
(3) (B), (C), (D), (A)
(4) (B), (A), (D), (C)
(4) (B), (A), (D), (C)

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 48