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ISACA Certified Cybersecurity Operations Analyst CCOA exam free dumps

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Full version: CCOA Exam Dumps Questions

1.Which of the following utilities is MOST suitable for administrative tasks and automation?
A. Command line Interface (CLI)
B. Integrated development environment (IDE)
C. System service dispatcher (SSO)
D. Access control list (ACL)
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Command Line Interface (CLI) is most suitable for administrative tasks and automation because:
Scriptable and Automatable: CLI commands can be combined in scripts for automating repetitive
tasks.
Direct System Access: Administrators can directly interact with the system to configure, manage, and
troubleshoot.
Efficient Resource Usage: Consumes fewer system resources compared to graphical interfaces.
Customizability: Advanced users can chain commands and create complex workflows using shell
scripting.
Other options analysis:
B. Integrated Development Environment (IDE): Primarily used for software development, not system
administration.
C. System service dispatcher (SSO): Not relevant for administrative tasks.
D. Access control list (ACL): Manages permissions, not administrative automation.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition
Reference: Chapter 9: System Administration Best Practices: Highlights the role of CLI in
administrative and automation tasks.
Chapter 7: Automation in Security Operations: Explains the efficiency of CLI-based automation.

2.SIMULATION
Following a ransomware incident, the network team provided a PCAP file, titled ransom.pcap, located
in the Investigations folder on the Desktop.
What is the full User-Agent value associated with the ransomware demand file download. Enter your
response in the field below.
Answer:
To identify the full User-Agent value associated with the ransomware demand file download from the
ransom.pcap file, follow these detailed steps:
Step 1: Access the PCAP File
Log into the Analyst Desktop.
Navigate to the Investigations folder located on the desktop.
Locate the file:
ransom.pcap
Step 2: Open the PCAP File in Wireshark
Launch Wireshark.
Open the PCAP file:
mathematica
File > Open > Desktop > Investigations > ransom.pcap
Click Open to load the file.
Step 3: Filter HTTP Traffic
Since ransomware demands are often served as text files (e.g., README.txt) via HTTP/S, use the
following filter:
http.request or http.response
This filter will show both HTTP GET and POST requests.
Step 4: Locate the Ransomware Demand File Download
Look for HTTP GET requests that include common ransomware filenames such as:
README.txt
DECRYPT_INSTRUCTIONS.html
HELP_DECRYPT.txt
Right-click on the suspicious HTTP packet and select:
arduino
Follow > HTTP Stream
Analyze the HTTP headers to find the User-Agent.
Example HTTP Request:
GET /uploads/README.txt HTTP/1.1
Host: 10.10.44.200
User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows NT 10.0; Win64; x64) AppleWebKit/537.36 (KHTML, like Gecko)
Chrome/109.0.5414.75 Safari/537.36
Step 5: Verify the User-Agent
Check multiple streams to ensure consistency.
Confirm that the User-Agent belongs to the same host (10.10.44.200) involved in the ransomware
incident.
Answer:
swift
Mozilla/5.0 (Windows NT 10.0; Win64; x64) AppleWebKit/537.36 (KHTML, like Gecko)
Chrome/109.0.5414.75 Safari/537.36
Step 6: Document and Report
Record the User-Agent for analysis:
PCAP Filename: ransom.pcap
User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows NT 10.0; Win64; x64) AppleWebKit/537.36 (KHTML, like Gecko)
Chrome/109.0.5414.75 Safari/537.36
Related File: README.txt
Step 7: Next Steps
Forensic Analysis:
Look for more HTTP requests from the same User-Agent.
Monitor Network Activity:
Identify other systems with the same User-Agent pattern.
Block Malicious Traffic:
Update firewall rules to block any outbound connections to suspicious domains.

3.1: Log Location in Security Onion

Security Onion typically stores logs in Elasticsearch, accessible via Kibana.
Access Kibana dashboard:
cpp
https://10.10.55.2:5601
Login with the same credentials.
Step 4: Query the Logs (Documents) in Kibana

4.2: Further Filter for Domain Names

To specifically filter out the domains listed in the bulletin:
grep -E "(suspicious-domain.com|malicious-actor.net|threat-site.xyz)" /var/log/dns.log
If the logs are in another file, adjust the file path:
grep -E "(suspicious-domain.com|malicious-actor.net|threat-site.xyz)" /var/log/nginx/access.log
Step 5: Correlate Domains and Timeframe

5.SIMULATION
Your enterprise has received an alert bulletin from national authorities that the network has been
compromised at approximately 11:00 PM (Absolute) on August 19, 2024. The alert is located in the
alerts folder with filename, alert_33.pdf.
Use the IOCs to find the compromised host. Enter the host name identified in the keyword
agent.name field below.
Answer:
To identify the compromised host using the keyword agent.name, follow these steps:
Step 1: Access the Alert Bulletin
Navigate to the alerts folder on your system.
Locate the alert file:
alert_33.pdf
Open the file with a PDF reader and review its contents.
Key Information to Extract:
Indicators of Compromise (IOCs) provided in the bulletin:
File hashes
IP addresses
Hostnames
Keywords related to the compromise
Step 2: Log into SIEM or Log Management System
Access your organization's SIEM or centralized log system.
Make sure you have the appropriate permissions to view log data.
Step 3: Set Up Your Search
Time Filter:
Set the time window to August 19, 2024, around 11:00 PM (Absolute).
Keyword Filter:
Use the keyword agent.name to search for host information.
IOC Correlation:
Incorporate IOCs from the alert_33.pdf file (e.g., IP addresses, hash values).
Example SIEM Query:
index=host_logs
| search "agent.name" AND (IOC_from_alert OR "2024-08-19T23:00:00")
| table _time, agent.name, host.name, ip_address, alert_id
Step 4: Analyze the Results
Review the output for any host names that appear unusual or match the IOCs from the alert bulletin.
Focus on:
Hostnames that appeared at 11:00 PM
Correlation with IOC data (hash, IP, filename)
Example Output:
_time agent.name host.name ip_address alert_id
2024-08-19T23:01 CompromisedAgent COMP-SERVER-01 192.168.1.101 alert_33
Step 5: Verify the Host
Cross-check the host name identified in the logs with the information from alert_33.pdf.
Ensure the host name corresponds to the malicious activity noted.
The host name identified in the keyword agent.name field is: COMP-SERVER-01
Step 6: Mitigation and Response
Isolate the Compromised Host:
Remove the affected system from the network to prevent lateral movement.
Conduct Forensic Analysis:
Inspect system processes, logs, and network activity.
Patch and Update:
Apply security updates and patches.
Threat Hunting:
Look for signs of compromise in other systems using the same IOCs.
Step 7: Document and Report
Create a detailed incident report:
Date and Time: August 19, 2024, at 11:00 PM
Compromised Host Name: COMP-SERVER-01
Associated IOCs: (as per alert_33.pdf)
By following these steps, you successfully identify the compromised host and take initial steps to
contain and investigate the incident. Let me know if you need further assistance!

6.168.1.100 SomeVulnName CVE-2021-22145 High

Step 6: Verify the Vulnerability
Click on the host IP to see the detailed vulnerability description.
Check for the following:
Exploitability: Proof that the vulnerability can be actively exploited.
Description and Impact: Details about the vulnerability and its potential impact.
Fixes/Recommendations: Suggested mitigations or patches.
Step 7: Note the Vulnerable Host IP
The IP address that appears in the filtered list is the vulnerable machine.
Example Answer:
The host IP of the machine vulnerable to CVE-2021-22145 is: 192.168.1.100
Step 8: Take Immediate Actions
Isolate the affected machine to prevent exploitation.
Patch or update the software affected by CVE-2021-22145.
Perform a quick re-scan to ensure that the vulnerability has been mitigated.
Step 9: Generate a Report for Documentation
Export the filtered scan results as a PDF or HTML from the GVM.
Include:
Host IP
CVE ID
Severity and Risk Level
Remediation Steps
Background on CVE-2021-22145:
This CVE is related to a vulnerability in certain software, often associated with improper access
control or authentication bypass.
Attackers can exploit this to gain unauthorized access or escalate privileges.

7.Which of the following is the MOST important component of the asset decommissioning process
from a data risk perspective?
A. Informing the data owner when decommissioning is complete
B. Destruction of data on the assets
C. Updating the asset status in the configuration management database (CMD8)
D. Removing the monitoring of the assets
Answer: B
Explanation:
The most important component of asset decommissioning from a data risk perspective is the secure
destruction of data on the asset.
Data Sanitization: Ensures that all sensitive information is irretrievably erased before disposal or
repurposing.
Techniques: Physical destruction, secure wiping, or degaussing depending on the storage medium.
Risk Mitigation: Prevents data leakage if the asset falls into unauthorized hands. Incorrect Options:
A. Informing the data owner: Important but secondary to data destruction.
C. Updating the CMDB: Administrative task, not directly related to data risk.
D. Removing monitoring: Important for system management but not the primary risk factor.
Exact Extract from CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition:
Refer to Chapter 9, Section "Asset Decommissioning," Subsection "Data Sanitization Best Practices"
- Data destruction is the most critical step to mitigate risks.

8.Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk associated with cybercriminals eavesdropping on
unencrypted network traffic?
A. Data notification
B. Data exfiltration
C. Data exposure
D. Data deletion
Answer: C
Explanation:
The primary risk associated with cybercriminals eavesdropping on unencrypted network traffic is data
exposure because:
Interception of Sensitive Data: Unencrypted traffic can be easily captured using tools like Wireshark
or tcpdump.
Loss of Confidentiality: Attackers can view clear-text data, including passwords, personal information,
or financial details.
Common Attack Techniques: Includes packet sniffing and Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attacks.
Mitigation: Encrypt data in transit using protocols like HTTPS, SSL/TLS, or VPNs.
Other options analysis:
A. Data notification: Not relevant in the context of eavesdropping.
B. Data exfiltration: Usually involves transferring data out of the network, not just observing it.
D. Data deletion: Unrelated to passive eavesdropping.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition
Reference: Chapter 4: Network Security Operations: Highlights the risks of unencrypted traffic.
Chapter 8: Threat Detection and Monitoring: Discusses eavesdropping techniques and mitigation.

9.Which of the following is foundational for implementing a Zero Trust model?

A. Comprehensive process documentation
B. Robust network monitoring
C. Routine vulnerability and penetration testing
D. Identity and access management (IAM) controls
Answer: D
Explanation:
Implementing a Zero Trust model fundamentally requires robust Identity and Access Management
(IAM) controls because:
Zero Trust Principles: Never trust, always verify; enforce least privilege.
Identity-Centric Security: Strong IAM practices ensure that only authenticated and authorized users
can access resources.
Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA): Verifying user identities at each access point.
Granular Access Control: Assigning minimal necessary privileges based on verified identity.
Continuous Monitoring: Continuously assessing user behavior and access patterns.
Other options analysis:
A. Comprehensive process documentation: Helpful but not foundational for Zero Trust.
B. Robust network monitoring: Supports Zero Trust but is not the core principle.
C. Routine vulnerability and penetration testing: Important for security but not specifically for Zero
Trust.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition
Reference: Chapter 7: Access Control and Identity Management: Emphasizes the role of IAM in Zero
Trust architecture.
Chapter 10: Secure Network Architecture: Discusses how Zero Trust integrates IAM.

10.Which of the following is the MOST important reason to limit the number of users with local admin
privileges on endpoints?
A. Local admin users might Install unapproved software.
B. Local admin accounts have elevated privileges that can be exploited by threat actors.
C. local admin accounts require more administrative work in order to manage them properly.
D. Local admin users might make unauthorized changes.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The primary reason to limit local admin privileges on endpoints is that local admin accounts have
elevated privileges which, if compromised, can be exploited to:
Escalate Privileges: Attackers can move laterally or gain deeper access.
Install Malware: Direct access to system settings and software installation.
Modify Security Configurations: Disable antivirus or firewalls.
Persistence: Create backdoor accounts for future access.
Incorrect Options:
A. Installing unapproved software: A consequence, but not the most critical reason.
C. Increased administrative work: Not a security issue.
D. Making unauthorized changes: Similar to A, but less significant than privilege exploitation.
Exact Extract from CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition:
Refer to Chapter 4, Section "Privilege Management," Subsection "Risks of Excessive Privileges" -
Limiting admin rights reduces attack surface and potential exploitation.

11.An organization uses containerization for its business application deployments, and all containers
run on the same host, so they MUST share the same:
A. user data.
B. database.
C. operating system.
D. application.
Answer: C
Explanation:
In a containerization environment, all containers running on the same host share the same operating
system kernel because:
Container Architecture: Containers virtualize at the OS level, unlike VMs, which have separate OS
instances.
Shared Kernel: The host OS kernel is shared across all containers, which makes container
deployment lightweight and efficient.
Isolation through Namespaces: While processes are isolated, the underlying OS remains the same.
Docker Example: A Docker host running Linux containers will only support other Linux-based
containers, as they share the Linux kernel.
Other options analysis:
A. User data: Containers may share volumes, but this is configurable and not a strict requirement. B.
Database: Containers can connect to the same database but don’t necessarily share one. D.
Application: Containers can run different applications even when sharing the same host. CCOA
Official Review Manual, 1st Edition
Reference: Chapter 10: Secure DevOps and Containerization: Discusses container architecture and
kernel sharing.
Chapter 9: Secure Systems Configuration: Explains how container environments differ from virtual
machines.

12.Which of the following is .1 PRIMARY output from the development of a cyber risk management
strategy?
A. Accepted processes are Identified.
B. Business goals are communicated.
C. Compliance implementation is optimized.
D. Mitigation activities are defined.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The primary output from the development of a cyber risk management strategy is the definition of
mitigation activities because:
Risk Identification: After assessing risks, the strategy outlines specific actions to mitigate identified
threats.
Actionable Plans: Clearly defines how to reduce risk exposure, including implementing controls,
patching vulnerabilities, or conducting training.
Strategic Guidance: Aligns mitigation efforts with organizational goals and risk tolerance.
Continuous Improvement: Provides a structured approach to regularly update and enhance mitigation
practices.
Other options analysis:
A. Accepted processes are identified: Important, but the primary focus is on defining how to mitigate
risks.
B. Business goals are communicated: The strategy should align with goals, but the key output is
actionable mitigation.
C. Compliance implementation is optimized: Compliance is a factor but not the main result of risk
management strategy.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition
Reference: Chapter 5: Risk Management and Mitigation: Highlights the importance of defining
mitigation measures.
Chapter 9: Strategic Cyber Risk Planning: Discusses creating a roadmap for mitigation.

13.In which cloud service model are clients responsible for regularly updating the operating system?
A. Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)
B. Software as a Service (SaaS)
C. Database as a Service (OBaaS)
D. Platform as a Service (PaaS)
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) model, clients are responsible for managing and updating the
operating system because:
Client Responsibility: The provider supplies virtualized computing resources (e.g., VMs), but OS
maintenance remains with the client.
Flexibility: Users can install, configure, and update OSs according to their needs. Examples: AWS
EC2, Microsoft Azure VMs. Compared to Other Models:
SaaS: The provider manages the entire stack, including the OS.
DBaaS: Manages databases without requiring OS maintenance.
PaaS: The platform is managed, leaving no need for direct OS updates.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition
Reference: Chapter 10: Cloud Security and IaaS Management: Discusses client responsibilities in
IaaS environments.
Chapter 9: Cloud Deployment Models: Explains how IaaS differs from SaaS and PaaS.

14.Which of the following MOST directly supports the cybersecurity objective of integrity?
A. Data backups
B. Digital signatures
C. Least privilege
D. Encryption
Answer: B
Explanation:
The cybersecurity objective of integrity ensures that data is accurate, complete, and unaltered. The
most direct method to support integrity is the use of digital signatures because:
Tamper Detection: A digital signature provides a way to verify that data has not been altered after
signing.
Authentication and Integrity: Combines cryptographic hashing and public key encryption to validate
both the origin and the integrity of data.
Non-Repudiation: Ensures that the sender cannot deny having sent the message.
Use Case: Digital signatures are commonly used in secure email, software distribution, and document
verification.
Other options analysis:
A. Data backups: Primarily supports availability, not integrity.
C. Least privilege: Supports confidentiality by limiting access.
D. Encryption: Primarily supports confidentiality by protecting data from unauthorized access.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition
Reference: Chapter 5: Data Integrity Mechanisms: Discusses the role of digital signatures in
preserving data integrity.
Chapter 8: Cryptographic Techniques: Explains how signatures authenticate data.

15.SIMULATION
The network team has provided a PCAP file with suspicious activity located in the Investigations
folder on the Desktop titled, investigation22.pcap.
What date was the webshell accessed? Enter the format as YYYY-MM-DD.
Answer:
To determine the date the webshell was accessed from the investigation22.pcap file, follow these
detailed steps:
Step 1: Access the PCAP File
Log into the Analyst Desktop.
Navigate to the Investigations folder on the desktop.
Locate the file:
investigation22.pcap
Step 2: Open the PCAP File in Wireshark
Launch Wireshark.
Open the PCAP file:
mathematica
File > Open > Desktop > Investigations > investigation22.pcap Click Open to load the file.
Step 3: Filter for Webshell Traffic
Since webshells typically use HTTP/S to communicate, apply a filter:
http.request or http.response
Alternatively, if you know the IP of the compromised host (e.g., 10.10.44.200), use:
nginx
http and ip.addr == 10.10.44.200
Press Enter to apply the filter.
Step 4: Identify Webshell Activity
Look for HTTP requests that include:
Common Webshell Filenames: shell.jsp, cmd.php, backdoor.aspx, etc.
Suspicious HTTP Methods: Mainly POST or GET.
Right-click a suspicious packet and choose:
arduino
Follow > HTTP Stream
Inspect the HTTP headers and content to confirm the presence of a webshell.
Step 5: Extract the Access Date
Look at the HTTP request/response header.
Find the Date field or Timestamp of the packet:
Wireshark displays timestamps on the left by default.
Confirm the HTTP stream includes commands or uploads to the webshell.
Example HTTP Stream:
POST /uploads/shell.jsp HTTP/1.1
Host: 10.10.44.200
User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0
Date: Mon, 2024-03-18 14:35:22 GMT
Step 6: Verify the Correct Date
Double-check other HTTP requests or responses related to the webshell.
Make sure the date field is consistent across multiple requests to the same file.
Answer:
2024-03-18
Step 7: Document the Finding
Date of Access: 2024-03-18
Filename: shell.jsp (as identified earlier)
Compromised Host: 10.10.44.200
Method of Access: HTTP POST
Step 8: Next Steps
Isolate the Affected Host:
Remove the compromised server from the network.
Remove the Webshell:
rm /path/to/webshell/shell.jsp
Analyze Web Server Logs:
Correlate timestamps with access logs to identify the initial compromise.
Implement WAF Rules:
Block suspicious patterns related to file uploads and webshell execution.

16.1: Security Posture Improvement:

Implement HTTPS Everywhere:
Redirect HTTP traffic to HTTPS to minimize unencrypted connections.
Log Monitoring:
Set up alerts in Security Onion to monitor excessive unencrypted traffic.
Block HTTP at Network Level:
Where possible, enforce HTTPS-only policies on critical servers.
Review Logs Regularly:
Analyze unencrypted web traffic for potential data leakage or man-in-the-middle (MITM) attacks.

17.Which of the following Is a control message associated with the Internet Control Message Protocol
(ICMP)?
A. Transport Layer Security (TLS) protocol version Is unsupported.
B. Destination is unreachable.
C. 404 is not found.
D. Webserver Is available.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is used for error reporting and diagnostics in IP
networks.
Control Messages: ICMP messages inform the sender about network issues, such as:
Destination Unreachable: Indicates that the packet could not reach the intended destination.
Echo Request/Reply: Used in ping to test connectivity.
Time Exceeded: Indicates that a packet's TTL (Time to Live) has expired.
Common Usage: Troubleshooting network issues (e.g., ping and traceroute).
Other options analysis:
A. TLS protocol version unsupported: Related to SSL/TLS, not ICMP.
C. 404 not found: An HTTP status code, unrelated to ICMP.
D. Webserver is available: A general statement, not an ICMP message.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition
Reference: Chapter 4: Network Protocols and ICMP: Discusses ICMP control messages.
Chapter 7: Network Troubleshooting Techniques: Explains ICMP’s role in diagnostics.

18.A penetration tester has been hired and given access to all code, diagrams, and documentation.
Which type of testing is being conducted?
A. Full knowledge
B. Unlimited scope
C. No knowledge
D. Partial knowledge
Answer: A
Explanation:
The scenario describes a penetration testing approach where the tester is given access to all code,
diagrams, and documentation, which is indicative of a Full Knowledge (also known as White Box)
testing methodology.
Characteristics:
Comprehensive Access: The tester has complete information about the system, including source
code, network architecture, and configurations.
Efficiency: Since the tester knows the environment, they can directly focus on finding vulnerabilities
without spending time on reconnaissance.
Simulates Insider Threats: Mimics the perspective of an insider or a trusted attacker with full access.
Purpose: To thoroughly assess the security posture from an informed perspective and identify
vulnerabilities efficiently.
Other options analysis:
B. Unlimited scope: Scope typically refers to the range of testing activities, not the knowledge level.
C. No knowledge: This describes Black Box testing where no prior information is given.
D. Partial knowledge: This would be Gray Box testing, where some information is provided.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition
Reference: Chapter 8: Penetration Testing Methodologies: Differentiates between full, partial, and no-
knowledge testing approaches.
Chapter 9: Security Assessment Techniques: Discusses how white-box testing leverages complete
information for in-depth analysis.

19.1: Extract IP Addresses

After filtering the logs, isolate the IP addresses:
grep "2024-08-16 23:3[9-9]\|2024-08-16 23:4[0-3]" /var/log/syslog | awk '{print $8}' | sort | uniq -c | sort
-nr
awk '{print $8}': Extracts the field where IP addresses typically appear.
sort | uniq -c: Counts unique IPs and sorts them.
Step 5: Analyze the Output
Sample Output:
15 192.168.1.10
8 192.168.1.20
3 192.168.1.30
The IP with the most log entries within the specified timeframe is usually the targeted host. Most likely
targeted IP:

20.SOAP and REST are Iwo different approaches related to:

A. machine learning (ML) design.
B. cloud-based anomaly detection.
C. SG/6G networks.
D. application programming Interface (API) design.
Answer: D
Explanation:
SOAP (Simple Object Access Protocol) and REST (Representational State Transfer) are two
common approaches used in API design:
SOAP: A protocol-based approach with strict rules, typically using XML.
REST: A more flexible, resource-based approach that often uses JSON.
Usage: Both methods facilitate communication between applications, especially in web services.
Key Difference: SOAP is more structured and secure for enterprise environments, while REST is
lightweight and widely used in modern web applications.
Incorrect Options:
A. Machine learning (ML) design: These protocols do not pertain to ML.
B. Cloud-based anomaly detection: Not related to cloud anomaly detection.
C. 5G/6G networks: APIs are application communication methods, not network technologies.
Exact Extract from CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition:
Refer to Chapter 7, Section "API Security," Subsection "SOAP vs. REST" - SOAP and REST are
widely adopted API design methodologies with distinct characteristics.

21.Which of the following Is a PRIMARY function of a network intrusion detection system (IDS)?
A. Dropping network traffic if suspicious packets are detected
B. Analyzing whether packets are suspicious
C. Filtering incoming and outgoing network traffic based on security policies
D. Preventing suspicious packets from being executed
Answer: B
Explanation:
The primary function of a Network Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is to analyze network traffic to
detect potentially malicious activity by:
Traffic Monitoring: Continuously examining inbound and outbound data packets.
Signature and Anomaly Detection: Comparing packet data against known attack patterns or
baselines.
Alerting: Generating notifications when suspicious patterns are detected.
Passive Monitoring: Unlike Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS), IDS does not block or prevent traffic.
Other options analysis:
A. Dropping traffic: Function of an IPS, not an IDS.
C. Filtering traffic: Typically handled by firewalls, not IDS.
D. Preventing execution: IDS does not actively block or mitigate threats.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition
Reference: Chapter 8: Network Monitoring and Intrusion Detection: Describes IDS functions and
limitations.
Chapter 7: Security Operations and Monitoring: Covers the role of IDS in network security.

22.Which of the following is the MOST effective method for identifying vulnerabilities in a remote web
application?
A. Source code review
B. Dynamic application security testing (DA5T)
C. Penetration testing
D. Static application security testing (SAST)
Answer: C
Explanation:
The most effective method for identifying vulnerabilities in a remote web application is penetration
testing.
Realistic Simulation: Penetration testing simulates real-world attack scenarios to find vulnerabilities.
Dynamic Testing: Actively exploits potential weaknesses rather than just identifying them statically.
Comprehensive Coverage: Tests the application from an external attacker’s perspective, including
authentication bypass, input validation flaws, and configuration issues.
Manual Validation: Can verify exploitability, unlike automated tools.
Incorrect Options:
A. Source code review: Effective but only finds issues in the code, not in the live environment.
B. Dynamic application security testing (DAST): Useful but more automated and less thorough than
penetration testing.
D. Static application security testing (SAST): Focuses on source code analysis, not the deployed
application.
Exact Extract from CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition:
Refer to Chapter 6, Section "Application Security Testing Methods" - Penetration testing is crucial for
identifying vulnerabilities in remote applications through real-world attack simulation.

23.The PRIMARY function of open source intelligence (OSINT) is:

A. encoding stolen data prior to exfiltration to subvert data loss prevention (DIP) controls.
B. Initiating active probes for open ports with the aim of retrieving service version information.
C. delivering remote access malware packaged as an executable file via social engineering tactics.
D. leveraging publicly available sources to gather Information on an enterprise or on individuals.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The primary function of Open Source Intelligence (OSINT) is to collect and analyze information from
publicly available sources.
This data can include:
Social Media Profiles: Gaining insights into employees or organizational activities.
Public Websites: Extracting data from corporate pages, forums, or blogs.
Government and Legal Databases: Collecting information from public records and legal filings.
Search Engine Results: Finding indexed data, reports, or leaked documents.
Technical Footprinting: Gathering information from publicly exposed systems or DNS records.
OSINT is crucial in both defensive and offensive security strategies, providing insights into potential
attack vectors or organizational vulnerabilities.
Incorrect Options:
A. Encoding stolen data prior to exfiltration: This relates to data exfiltration techniques, not OSINT.
B. Initiating active probes for open ports: This is part of network scanning, not passive intelligence
gathering.
C. Delivering remote access malware via social engineering: This is an attack vector rather than
intelligence gathering.
Exact Extract from CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition:
Refer to Chapter 2, Section "Threat Intelligence and OSINT", Subsection "Roles and Applications of
OSINT" - OSINT involves leveraging publicly available sources to gather information on potential
targets, be it individuals or organizations.
24.Which of the following BEST describes static application security testing (SAST)?
A. Vulnerability scanning
B. Code review
C. Attack simulation
D. Configuration management
Answer: B
Explanation:
Static Application Security Testing (SAST) involves analyzing source code or compiled code to
identify vulnerabilities without executing the program.
Code Analysis: Identifies coding flaws, such as injection, buffer overflows, or insecure function usage.
Early Detection: Can be integrated into the development pipeline to catch issues before deployment.
Automation: Tools like SonarQube, Checkmarx, and Fortify are commonly used.
Scope: Typically focuses on source code, bytecode, or binary code.
Other options analysis:
A. Vulnerability scanning: Typically involves analyzing deployed applications or infrastructure.
C. Attack simulation: Related to dynamic testing (e.g., DAST), not static analysis.
D. Configuration management: Involves maintaining and controlling software configurations, not code
analysis.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition
Reference: Chapter 9: Application Security Testing: Discusses SAST as a critical part of secure code
development.
Chapter 7: Secure Coding Practices: Highlights the importance of static analysis during the SDLC.

25.SIMULATION
The CISO has received a bulletin from law enforcement authorities warning that the enterprise may
be at risk of attack from a specific threat actor. Review the bulletin
named CCOA Threat Bulletin.pdf on the Desktop.
Which of the following domain name(s) from the CCOA Threat Bulletin.pdf was contacted between
12:10 AM to 12:12 AM (Absolute) on August 17, 2024?
Answer:
Step 1: Understand the Objective
Objective:
Identify the domain name(s) that were contacted between:
12:10 AM to 12:12 AM on August 17, 2024
Source of information:
CCOA Threat Bulletin.pdf
File location:
~/Desktop/CCOA Threat Bulletin.pdf
Step 2: Prepare for Investigation

26.Compliance requirements are imposed on organizations to help ensure:

A. system vulnerabilities are mitigated in a timely manner.
B. security teams understand which capabilities are most important for protecting organization.
C. rapidly changing threats to systems are addressed.
D. minimum capabilities for protecting public interests are in place.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Compliance requirements are imposed on organizations to ensure that they meet minimum standards
for protecting public interests.
Regulatory Mandates: Many compliance frameworks (like GDPR or HIPAA) mandate minimum data
protection and privacy measures.
Public Safety and Trust: Ensuring that organizations follow industry standards to maintain data
integrity and confidentiality.
Baseline Security Posture: Establishes a minimum set of controls to protect sensitive information and
critical systems.
Incorrect Options:
A. System vulnerabilities are mitigated: Compliance does not directly ensure vulnerability
management.
B. Security teams understand critical capabilities: This is a secondary benefit but not the primary
purpose.
C. Rapidly changing threats are addressed: Compliance often lags behind new threats; it’s more
about maintaining baseline security.
Exact Extract from CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition:
Refer to Chapter 9, Section "Compliance and Legal Considerations," Subsection "Purpose of
Compliance" - Compliance frameworks aim to ensure that organizations implement minimum
protective measures for public safety and data protection.

27.When identifying vulnerabilities, which of the following should a cybersecurity analyst determine
FIRST?
A. The number of vulnerabilities Identifiable by the scanning tool
B. The number of tested asset types included in the assessment
C. The vulnerability categories possible for the tested asset types
D. The vulnerability categories Identifiable by the scanning tool
Answer: C
Explanation:
When identifying vulnerabilities, the first step for a cybersecurity analyst is to determine the
vulnerability categories possible for the tested asset types because:
Asset-Specific Vulnerabilities: Different asset types (e.g., servers, workstations, IoT devices) are
susceptible to different vulnerabilities.
Targeted Scanning: Knowing the asset type helps in choosing the correct vulnerability scanning tools
and configurations.
Accuracy in Assessment: This ensures that the scan is tailored to the specific vulnerabilities
associated with those assets.
Efficiency: Reduces false positives and negatives by focusing on relevant vulnerability categories.
Other options analysis:
A. Number of vulnerabilities identifiable: This is secondary; understanding relevant categories comes
first.
B. Number of tested asset types: Knowing asset types is useful, but identifying their specific
vulnerabilities is more crucial.
D. Vulnerability categories identifiable by the tool: Tool capabilities matter, but only after determining
what needs to be tested.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition
Reference: Chapter 6: Vulnerability Management: Discusses the importance of asset-specific
vulnerability identification.
Chapter 8: Threat and Vulnerability Assessment: Highlights the relevance of asset categorization.

28.1: Find the Logs Directory

The logs could be located in one of the following directories:
/var/log/
 /home/administrator/hids/logs/
/var/log/httpd/
/var/log/nginx/
Navigate to the likely directory:
cd /var/log/
ls -l
Identify relevant network or DNS logs:
ls -l | grep -E "dns|network|http|nginx"
Step 4: Search Logs for Domain Contacts

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