35 MCQs on Neurological Disorders

1. 1. Which neurotransmitter is primarily excitatory and can trigger seizures if

Answer: D. Glutamate

Explanation: Glutamate is excitatory and can overstimulate neurons if not balanced by

2. 2. What type of seizure involves jerking movements and usually affects both sides of the
body?

Answer: B. Clonic

Explanation: Clonic seizures involve rhythmic jerking movements, typically bilaterally.

3. 3. What is the hallmark sign of absence seizures?

Answer: C. Staring spell

Explanation: Absence seizures often present as sudden brief staring spells, especially in
children.

4. 4. Which seizure type begins in one part of the brain and maintains awareness?

Answer: B. Simple partial

Explanation: Awareness is preserved in simple partial seizures, though symptoms may be

5. 5. What occurs during the postictal phase of a tonic-clonic seizure?

Answer: C. Recovery and confusion

Explanation: The postictal phase includes fatigue, confusion, and muscle soreness.

6. 6. Which is a danger if a tonic seizure occurs while standing?

Explanation: Sudden body stiffening can lead to dangerous falls.

7. 7. What should a nurse *never* do during a seizure?

Answer: B. Restrain the patient

Explanation: Restraining can cause injury; focus on safety and airway.

8. 8. What medication is used for emergency management of status epilepticus?

Answer: C. Diazepam

Explanation: Diazepam or Lorazepam (Benzodiazepines) are used for rapid seizure control.

9. 9. Which test detects abnormal brain activity in epilepsy?

Answer: B. EEG

Explanation: EEG measures electrical activity and helps diagnose seizure types.

10. 10. A patient experiencing auras likely has which seizure type?

Answer: B. Simple partial

Explanation: Auras often precede focal seizures.

11. 11. In GBS, symptoms typically begin in the:

Answer: C. Legs

Explanation: Weakness starts in the lower limbs and ascends.

12. 12. Which test is used to confirm GBS?

Answer: C. EMG

Explanation: EMG and nerve conduction studies detect slowed nerve signals due to
demyelination.
13. 13. Which treatment helps remove harmful antibodies in GBS?

Answer: C. Plasmapheresis

Explanation: This filters antibodies attacking the nerves.

14. 14. Trigeminal neuralgia affects which cranial nerve?

Answer: C. V

Explanation: CN V is the trigeminal nerve responsible for facial sensation.

15. 15. Which symptom is *most* characteristic of trigeminal neuralgia?

Answer: C. Unilateral facial pain

Explanation: Sudden, intense pain on one side of the face is classic.

16. 16. What can trigger pain in trigeminal neuralgia?

Answer: C. Touching the face

Explanation: Even light touch can provoke pain episodes.

17. 17. Which treatment is surgical for trigeminal neuralgia?

Answer: B. Microvascular decompression

Explanation: This surgery relieves pressure on the trigeminal nerve.

18. 18. Which advice should nurses give to a patient with trigeminal neuralgia?

Answer: C. Use cotton and lukewarm water for hygiene

Explanation: Prevent pain by using gentle hygiene strategies.

19. 19. Which neurotransmitter is deficient in Parkinson’s disease?

Explanation: Degeneration of dopaminergic neurons leads to movement issues.

20. 20. Which is a common early motor sign in Parkinson’s?

Answer: B. Tremor at rest

Explanation: “Pill-rolling” tremor is a typical early symptom.

21. 21. Parkinson’s gait is best described as:

Answer: C. Shuffling with freezing

Explanation: Freezing and small shuffling steps are common.

22. 22. Which intervention helps prevent falls in Parkinson’s patients?

Answer: C. Smooth-soled shoes

Explanation: Rubber soles can stick to the floor and cause tripping.

23. 23. Cogwheel rigidity is characterized by:

Answer: B. Jerky movements when limbs are moved

Explanation: Rigidity in a ratcheting manner.

24. 24. Which is the most common form of dementia?

Answer: B. Alzheimer’s

Explanation: Alzheimer’s accounts for most dementia cases.

25. 25. Which neurotransmitter is deficient in Alzheimer’s disease?

Answer: C. Acetylcholine

Explanation: Linked to memory and cognition deficits.

Answer: C. Beta-amyloid plaques

Explanation: These interfere with neuronal communication.

27. 27. What GCS score indicates deep coma?

Answer: A. 3

Explanation: Lowest possible score on the Glasgow Coma Scale.

28. 28. In locked-in syndrome, the patient is:

Answer: C. Aware but paralyzed

Explanation: Can blink but unable to move or speak.

29. 29. What causes persistent vegetative state?

Answer: C. Severe brain injury

Explanation: Vital signs remain, but no cognitive function.

30. 30. Which of the following is *not* a metabolic cause of altered consciousness?

Answer: D. Structural trauma

Explanation: It is a physical, not metabolic, cause.

31. 31. The brain receives what percent of cardiac output?

Answer: B. 15%

Explanation: To maintain adequate perfusion and function.

32. 32. Which scale is used to assess consciousness?

Explanation: Evaluates eye, verbal, and motor responses.

33. 33. Which of the following indicates a confused state?

Answer: C. Impaired perception and thinking

Explanation: Confusion involves altered cognitive responses.

34. 34. Which infection is commonly linked to GBS onset?

Answer: B. Campylobacter jejuni

Explanation: A GI infection by Campylobacter is a known trigger.

35. 35. What is the pathophysiology of Guillain-Barré Syndrome?

Answer: B. Myelin sheath destruction

Explanation: GBS involves immune-mediated demyelination of peripheral nerves.