TEST-1

1. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Hard outer layer of pollen is called intine. (b) Sporogenous tissus is haploid.
(b) Endothecium produces the microspores.(d) Tapetum nourishes the developing
pollen.
2. "In Western countries a large number of product in the form of tablets and are available in
market. Pollen consumption claimed to increase the of athelete." The words to fill blanks in
sequential order are:
(a) Pistil, syrup, power (b) Stamen, food, sexual urge
(b) Carpel, yoghurt, libido (d) Pollen, syrup, performance
3. In flowering plants Meiosis takes place in:
(a) Meiocyte(b) Microspore (c) Zygote (d) Megaspore
4. At the time of dispersal pollen grains are:
(a) An immature male sporophyte (b) A mature male gametophyte
(b) Partially developed male gametophyte (d) None of the above
5. Microsporogenesis is referred as:
(a) Formation of megaspore (b) Development of pollen after pollination
(b) Formation of microspore (d) Development of female gametophyte
6. The anther wall consists of four wall layers where:
(a) Endothecium lies inner to middle layers
(b) Tapetum lies just inner to endothecium
(c) Tapetum lies next to epidermis
(d) Middle layers lie between endothecium and tapetum
7. Mature male gametophyte is made up of:
(a) One cell (b) Two cells. (c) Three cells (d) Four cells
8. Pollen grains are able to withstand extremes of temperature, strong acids and alkali and
desiccation because their exine is composed of:
(a) Pecto-cellulose b. suberin(c) Sporopollenin d. Callose
9. In a pollen grain, larger cell is:
(a) Generative cell(b) Male gamete (c) Vegetative cell (d) All of these
10. Development and formation of pollen grains in anther is started with:
(a) Microsporogenesis (b) Megasporogenesis (c) Formation of pollen sac (d) None of
these
11. Tapetum is a part of:
(a) Male gametophyte (c) Anther wall (b) Female gametophyte (d) Ovary wall
12. The function of tapetum is:
(a) Support (b) Mechanical (c) Protective (d) Nutritive
13. Male gametophyte is developed from:
(a) Microspore(b) Megaspore (c) Integuments(d) Nucellus
14. How many pollen grains are formed from 20 microspore mother cells by meiosis ?
(a) 80(b) 40 (c) 20 (d) 10
15. How many meiotic divisions are necessary to produce 200 pollen grains ?
(a) 100(b) 25 (c) 50 (d) 20
16. Germ pore is the region where the sporopollenin is:
 (a) Thick (b) Thin(c) Thick or absent (d) Absent
17. How many microspore mother cells will give rise to 256 microspores after reduction
division?
(a) 512 (b) 128 (c) 64 (d) 96
18. Meiosis can be observed in:
(a) Spore mother cells (b) Microspores(c) Megaspores (d) All of these
19. Angiosperms generally many cell stage ? shed their pollen at how
(a) One(b) Two (c) Three(d) Four
20. In angiosperm, archesporium gives rise to:
(a) Wall of sporangium(b) Both wall of sporangium and sporogenous cells (c) Wall of
anther
(d) Tapetum and sporogenous cells
21. In flowering plants, the male gametes are formed by:
(a) Generative cell(b) Megaspores(c) Vegetative cell(d) Tube cells
22. Anther of angiosperm is generally composed of:
(a) One sporangium b) Two sporangium(c) Three sporangium (d) Four sporangium
23. In flowering plants, a mature 'male gametophyte is derived from a 'pollen mother cell' by:
(a) A single meiotic division (b) One meiotic and two mitotic divisions
(b) Two meiotic and two mitotic divisions (d) None of the above
24. The tapetum of angiosperm anther is:
(a) Mostly haploid(b) Mostly polyploidy(c) Mostly aneuploidy(d) None of these
25. An orthotropous ovule is one, in which micropyle and chalaza are:
(a) At right angles to funicle (b) Parallel to the funicle
(b) In straight line of funicle (d) Antiparallel to each other
26. The normal type of embryo sac formation is:
(a) Bisporic (b) Monosporic (c) Tetrasporic (d) None of these
27. Egg apparatus comprises of:
(a) Egg (b) Egg and synergids
(b) Egg and antipodal cell (d) Egg and polar nuclei
28. An embryo sac of a typical angiosperm consist of:
(a) Egg, synergids and antipodal cell only (b) Egg, synergids, polar nuclei and antipodal
cell
(b) Egg, synergids, central cell and polar nuclei only (d) Egg, synergids and secondary cell
only
29. The point where funicle attach with ovule is known as:
(a) Funicle (b) Hilum (c) Integument(d) Nucellus
30. A mature typical embryo sac has:
(a) Seven cells and seven nuclei (b) Seven nuclei and eight cells
(b) Eight cells and eight nuclei (d) Seven cells and eight nuclei
31. The formation of embryo sac is called:
(a) Megasporogenesis (b) Megagametogenesis (c) Microgametogenesis (d)
Microsporogenesis
32. In which of the following pairs both are haploid structures:
(a) Egg cells and antipodal cells
(b) Antipodal cells and primary endosperm nucleus
 (c) Nucellus and synergids (d) Synergids and megaspore mother cells
33. Embryo sac is:
(a) Megasporangium (b) Megaspore (c) Female gametophyte (d) Both (a) and (b)
34. Filiform apparatus is found in: (a) Synergids (b) Antipodal cell (c) Central cell(d) None of
these
35. Choose the correct statement for micropyle :
(a) It allows pollen tube to penetrate in the ovule a the time of fertilization
(b) Germination of pollen grains are under control of
(c) It is a pore in pollen grain
(d) Growth of pollen tube is directed by it
36. The haploid cell which divides by mitosis to form embryo sac is:
(a) Megaspore mother cell (b) Microspore mother cell
(b) Megaspore (d) Both (b) and (c)
37. In angiosperms embryo sac is usually developed from:
(a) Megaspore mother cell (b) Microspore mother cell (c) Microspore (d) Integument
38. The primary endosperm nucleus in typical embryo sac is:
(a) Haploid (b) Diploid(c) Triploid(d) Tetraploid
39. Number of integuments in the ovule of angiosperms is generally:
(a) One(b) Two( (c) Three(d) Four
40. The stalk of the ovule is called:
(a) Pedicle(b) Funicle c) Hilum(d) Style
41. The most exceptional feature of zoophilous flowers is:
(a) Scented, having nectar and most colourful
(b) Scented, having nectar but inconspicuous
(c) Presence of only perianth
(d) Without colour
42. Advantage of cleisotogamy is:
(a) Higher genetic variability (b) More vigorous offsprings (c) No dependence on
pollinators (d) Vivipary
43. The transfer of pollen grain from the stamen to the stigma of the same flower is:
(a) Autogamy(b) Allogamy (c) Geitonogamy (d) Xenogamy
44. Which of the following options is correct?
(a) Pollination gives the guarantee of the promotion of post-pollination events that lead
to fertilization.
(b) The events "from pollen deposition on stigma until pollen tubes enter the ovule" are
together referred to as pollen-pistil interaction.
(c) Pollen-pistil interaction is a dynamic process involving pollen recognition followed by
only promotion (not rejection) of the pollen.
(d) Pistil has no ability to recognize the pollen, whether right or wrong type.
45. Pollination characteristically occurs in:
(a) Only angiosperms (b) Angiosperms and gymnosperms
(b) Pteridophytes and bryophytes (d) All of the above
46. Self-pollination means:
(a) Occurrence of male and female sex organs in the same flower
(b) Germination of pollens within the anther
 (c) Transference of pollens from anther to the stigma within the same flower
(d) Transference of pollens from one flower to another on the same plant
47. When pollen grains of a flower pollinate the stigma of another flower of the same plant, it is
called:
(a) Geitonogamy (b) Autogamy (c) Xenogamy (d) None of these
48. Go through the following statements:
L. Flowers are bisexual and homogamous maturing anther and stigma of a flowers at the
same time.
II. Mechanical devices bringing anthers and stigma close together in a bisexual
chasmogamous flower.
III. Cleistogamy (bisexual flowers remain closed).
IV. Anther and stigma of an intersexual flower mature in bud condition.
The above contrivances favour:
(a) Allogamy(b) Autogamy(c) Xenogamy(d) Cross pollination
49. In which type of flowers, stigma is rough and sticky ?
(a) Insect pollinated(b) Wind pollinated (c) Water pollinated (d) All of these
50. Fragrant flowers with for: nectar are adapted usually
(a) Anemophily (b) Hydrophily (c) Entomophily (d) Ornithophily
51. Anemophilous flower have:
(a) Small, smooth stigma (b) Large feathery stigma (c) Coloured flower (d) All of the
above
52. Anemophilous pollination is mainly observed in:
(a) Gramineae(b) Solanaceae (c) Papilionaceae (d) All of these
53. Refer the given characteristics of some flowers:
Light and non-sticky pollen grains. II. Exserted stigmas and anthers.
III. Large, often feathery stigmas.
IV. Flowers colourless, odourless and nectarless. Above features are the characteristics of:
(a) Anemophily (b) Hydrophily(c) Entomophily (d) Zoophily
54. Contrivances for self-pollination are:
(a) Anemophily (b) Hydrophily(c) Entomophily (d) Zoophily
55. Pollination in Vallisneria and Hydrilla is:
(a) Hydrophilous (b) Ornithophilous (c) Entomophilous (d) None of these