Chapter 1 – Test (Correct 44/70)

Question 1.
Consider the following activities:
(i) Implementing an automated test case
(ii) Performing the review of the architectural design
(iii) Checking grammar and spelling of a user manual
(iv) Planning test activities
(v) Designing a test case

Select all the activities that are part of the testing process.
(A) (i), (iv), and (v)
(B) (ii) and (v)
(C) (i), (iii), and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
==> Answer
(i) Implementing an automated test case: is the activity of deploying Test, creating automated test
scripts, preparing test data to perform automated testing.
(iv) Planning test activities: This is a testing process because it defines the testing objective and
testing methods to achieve the testing purpose.
(v) Designing a test case: the act of converting test conditions into high-level test cases, serving
Test Execution - Activities

Question 2.
You test the autopilot system for the airplanes. You want to perform the tests that
check the correctness of the communication between two modules of this system:
geolocalization module and engine controller. Which of the following would be the
best example of a test basis for designing your tests?

(A) Detailed design of the geolocalization module

(B) Architectural design
(C) Risk analysis reports
(D) Legal regulations in the field of avionics
==> Answer
 (A) Detailed design of the geolocalization module: This may provide some
information about the internal workings of the module but it does not
necessarily detail the interactions between modules.
 (B) Architectural design: This document designs the high-level system
architecture, including how modules interact and exchange data. This
information is important for understanding the expected communication flow
and designing tests to check whether it works correctly.
 (C) Risk analysis reports: These reports identify potential risks in the system
that are not related to communication between modules
 (D) Legal regulations in the field of avionics: Regarding aviation safety
and compliance regulations, communication between modules will not be
addressed.

Question 3.
Choose the correct sequence of events.
(A) A mistake results in defect, which in turn may result in a failure.
(B) A defect results in mistake, which in turn may result in a failure.
(C) A failure results in a mistake, which in turn may result in a defect.
(D) A defect results in failure, which in turn may result in a mistake.
==> Answer

 Error (also known as an mistake)—a human action that causes an incorrect

result
 Defect (bug, fault)—an imperfection or defect in a work product that involves
failure to meet requirements
 Failure—an event in which a component or system fails to perform a required
function within a specified context

Question 4.
A tester, together with a developer, architect, and test manager, participates in the
inspection of an architectural design of a component. The design was done by the
architect. During the inspection, the test manager finds an error in the design. After
the inspection, the tester creates the new, corrected version of the design. Using the
new design, the developer implements the component.

Who performed the debugging?

(A) Tester
(B) Developer
(C) Architect:
(D) Test manager
==> Answer: Architect: is the person who will analyze and find errors in his
design and then correct them, creating a precise design for the developer to
implement that component.
Question 5.
Recently, your organization outsourced the test team for conducting the performance
testing. You talk with a developer, who told you that it was a very good idea, because
now they—developers—do not need to care so much about the performance issues,
as they will be found by the test team. This is an example of

(A) Benefit of test independence, as developers may focus on other activities

(B) Benefit of test independence, as the outsourced testing team may see other and
different defects and is unbiased
(C) Drawback of test independence, as the outsourced team is isolated from the
developers
(D) Drawback of test independence, as some of the team members may lose a sense
of responsibility for quality

Question 6.
Which of the following can be the root cause of the fact that a developer
implemented an ineffective algorithm?
(A) Poor performance of the system
(B) Acceptance testing done by testers in the client’s location, not by client
(C) Developer’s lack of education in the area of algorithms and complexity
(D) Memory leaks that occurred after a long time of the software operation
==> Answer: With some complex calculations and the need for a suitable operation,
a developer who does not have much experience and knowledge will influence the
choice of algorithm.

Question 7.
Select the right relation between quality assurance, quality control, and testing.
(A) Testing is a synonym of quality assurance, which is a part of quality control.
(B) Testing is a form of quality control, which is a part of quality assurance.
(C) Quality control is a form of quality assurance, which is a synonym for testing.
(D) Quality control is a synonym of quality assurance, which is a part of testing.
==> Answer:
 Quality assurance (QA): includes all activities that ensure a product or service
meets quality standards. It includes preventative measures, process
improvements and continuous monitoring.
 Quality control (QC): focuses on detecting and correcting defects before the
product or service reaches the customer. It involves activities such as
inspection, measurement and conformity checking.
 Testing: specific techniques used in both QA and QC to evaluate whether a
product or service meets predetermined requirements. It can involve many
different types of testing such as functional, performance or security testing.
Question 8.
Testers may test the software more efficient than developers, because:
(A) Testers may have programming skills.
(B) Testers usually do not have programming skills.
(C) Developers’ responsibility is to write code, not to test it.
(D) Developers have the emotional attitude to their code.
==> Answer
 Developers prioritize writing and deploying code
 Testers spend time and skill on finding and documenting software issues. This
separation allows testers to approach the software with fewer biases and a
fresher perspective, potentially leading to more effective testing.

Question 9.
You test the online reservation system for a hotel chain. Consider the following
Artifact:

ID 003. Normal reservation.

Precondition: user exists in the database.
1. Choose “make a reservation.”
2. Fill up the form with the valid data.
3. Click “submit.” The site should redirect the user into the payment page.
4. Perform the payment with the valid card. The system should go back to the
reservation site and show a message with payment confirmation and that
the reservation is done correctly.
5. Log out.
Postcondition: a new record in the Orders database; user bank account balance
decreased by the amount of payment.

This artifact is an example of:

(A) Test suite
(B) Low-level test case
(C) Test condition
(D) High-level test case

Question 10.
In which moment of a project’s life cycle should the test planning occur?
(A) At the beginning. All further activities should be done according to that plan.
(B) It is a continuous activity, as feedback from different test activities may impact
the plans and force us to change them.
(C) During the test analysis phase, because planning is an analytical activity.
(D) In sequential models, planning should occur through the whole project’s life
cycle, while in the iterative models, planning should be generally avoided.
Question 11.
To overcome the pesticide paradox, we should:
(A) Use test techniques to derive a finite number of test cases for a potentially
infinite number of combinations of input values.
(B) Start testing activities as early as possible.
(C) Align the test strategy to the context.
(D) Review and update tests on a regular basis.

Question 12.
Choose the correct sentence about defects, failures, and errors.

(A) A failure is caused by one or more errors, which are caused by one or more
defects.
(B) Code review can reveal a failure.
(C) Executing a defect in code during testing may result in actual result being equal
to the expected result.
(D) A root cause of every failure is one or more human errors.

Question 13.
Consider the following criterion: “there are no failures with high severity.” What
type of a criterion can it be?

(A) Entry criterion for the “test design” phase

(B) Entry criterion for the “test implementation” phase
(C) Exit criterion for the “test execution” phase
(D) Exit criterion for the “test completion” phase

Question 14.
Traceability between test cases and risk items can allow the testers to:

(A) Perform the impact analysis in terms of the effort needed to change the test cases
in case a functional requirement is changed.
(B) Calculate statement and decision coverage achieved by the executed tests.
(C) Calculate the risk level by analyzing the test results for each test case.
(D) Implement effective monitoring in terms of calculating the residual risk.

Question 15.
Which of the following is not a typical tester’s task according to Foundation Level
Syllabus?
(A) Preparing test data
(B) Automating the tests
(C) Supporting the selection of test tools
(D) Reviewing and contributing to test plans

Question 16.
A source to determine expected results to compare with the actual results of the
system under test is called:
(A) Comparator
(B) Test oracle
(C) Test specification
(D) Test basis

Question 17.
What is the direct consequence of communicating defects by a tester to other team
members in an unconstructive way?
(A) Decreasing the team effectiveness
(B) Conflict in the team
(C) Increasing the team effectiveness
(D) Losing a sense of responsibility for quality

Question 18.
Analyzing defects in order to propose preventive actions so that this defect’s
reoccurrence can be avoided is a process that is called:
(A) Root cause analysis
(B) Debugging
(C) Review
(D) Dynamic testing

Question 19.
Evaluating testability of the test basis and test items takes place during which phase
of the testing process?
(A) Test design
(B) Test planning, monitoring, and control
(C) Test analysis
(D) Test implementation

Question 20.
Choose a good example of why testing is necessary.
(A) It allows software development process to be aligned with the testing process.
(B) It fixes defects detected in software.
(C) It allows to detect and prevent from contradictions in the requirements.
(D) It allows to manage better the testing process.

Question 21.
Why are the validation activities examples of a positive role of testing?
(A) They help to detect defects in the early phases of the software life cycle.
(B) They help to prevent ambiguities in requirements.
(C) They help to reduce the risk of logic or calculation errors within the code and
test cases, because they enforce testers to work closely with developers.
(D) They help to ensure that the system meets the client’s expectations.

Question 22.
A support in setting up adequate configuration management of testware for traceability is the
responsibility of which project role?
(A) Tester
(B) Test automation engineer
(C) Developer
(D) Test manager

Question 23.
Confirmation by examination and through provision of objective evidence that
specified requirements have been fulfilled is called:
(A) Validation
(B) Debugging
(C) Verification
(D) Root cause analysis

Question 24.
A tester performed a code analysis and noticed that the cyclomatic complexity of a
certain component is very high. This information was passed to developers, and they
refactored this code, making it more readable and more testable. This example shows
a benefit from what?
(A) Dynamic testing
(B) Static technique
(C) Test management
(D) Using formal test technique

Question 25.
Which of the following is not an example of a test objective?
(A) Correcting the defect found
(B) Preventing from defect occurrence
(C) Gaining confidence about the system quality
(D) Providing to stakeholders an information about system quality

Question 26.
Choose the factor influencing the test effort and related to the product characteristics.
(A) Time pressure
(B) Requirements for usability
(C) Maturity of the organization
(D) Skills of the people involved

Question 27.
In order to implement effective monitoring and control, it is critical to:
(A) Establish traceability between the test basis and the various test work products.
(B) Understand where we are at any time in the project.
(C) Provide the basis for relating testing work products to stakeholders in terms that
they can understand.
(D) Evaluate the test coverage against requirements.

Question 28.
After test execution, it turned out that one test is implemented incorrectly. This test
returned to the implementation phase. During the re-implementation, it turned out
that it is not only incorrectly implemented, but also incorrectly designed. It turned
back to the design phase, where it was corrected, and then implemented and
executed once again.

What can we say about this situation from the testing process point of view?

(A) This situation is impossible, because the wrong design should be detected in the
implementation phase, not in the execution phase, as the implementation phase
precedes the execution phase.
(B) This situation is impossible, because we cannot go back from execution phase to
earlier phases, as the phases in the testing process follow the sequential order.
(C) This situation is possible, because prior to designing the test first time, we had to
perform the analysis phase so that we were able to derive this test from the test
basis.
(D) This situation is possible, because the process phases are not sequential and we
can go back from one phase to another.

Question 29.
Pareto rule says that a small number of causes are responsible for the major part of
the effects. This rule is a basis of which testing principle?
(A) Defect clustering
(B) Early testing
(C) Pesticide paradox
(D) Exhaustive testing is impossible

Question 30.
The results of a test planning for a certain project may be documented in:
(A) Test strategy
(B) Test policy
(C) Integration level test plan
(D) Test report

Question 31.
Which of the following best describes the test basis?
(A) Information used as the basis for achieving specific test objective
(B) Information used as the basis for test monitoring and control
(C) Information used as the basis for the oracle when determining the expected result
(D) Information used as the basis for test analysis and design

Question 32.
Typically, the person responsible for fixing the defect in the artifact under test is:
(A) Artifact’s author
(B) Tester
(C) Debugger
(D) Client

Question 33.
The quality of the specification, size of the product, and complexity of the product
domain are the factors that affect:
(A) Skills of the team members
(B) Tools used by the testers
(C) Test effort
(D) Stability of the organization

Question 34.
Which of the following is an example of a benefit from independent testing?
(A) Isolation from the development team.
(B) Unbiasness of the testers.
(C) Independent testers can work from a different location.
(D) It is cheaper than testing in a situation, where there are no independent testers.
Question 35.
Choose the best example of a failure that results from the following root cause: ‘”a
low quality of a functional requirement specification.”
(A) Functional requirement specification cannot be a subject to a review process.
(B) A bank system incorrectly calculates interest rate.
(C) System response time is too long when more than 100 users are logged to the
system at the same time.
(D) The requirement id number does not follow the numbering rules accepted and
used in the organization.

Question 36.
Which of the following is the best example of a quality assurance activity not related
to the quality control?
(A) Defining requirement engineering process in a way that ensures the requirements are
defined at the proper level of detail
(B) Measuring the product to give information about its quality, so that managers
can undertake conscious decisions about the product and project
(C) Conducting the inspection for an architectural design to detect as many architectural defects
as possible
(D) Raising a defect report through the defect management system

Question 37.
A tester raised a bug in the program that calculates the mean value of a set of
variables: when the input set of variables is empty, the software crashes. Developer
found that this is caused by the division by 0 in the instruction:

meanValue := SumOfVariables / NumberOfVariables

He changed this instruction into the following code:
IF (NumberOfVariables> 0) THEN
meanValue := SumOfVariables / NumberOfVariables
ELSE
meanValue := 0

The developer’s activity in this scenario is:

(A) Inspection
(B) Debugging
(C) Testing
(D) Code review

Question 38.
In computability theory, the halting problem is the problem of determining, whether
the program will finish or continue to run forever for a given input. In 1936 Alan
Turing proved that a general algorithm to solve the halting problem for all possible
program-input pairs cannot exist. This is a formal proof of which of the Seven
Testing Principles?
(A) Absence-of-errors fallacy.
(B) Exhaustive testing is impossible.
(C) Testing shows presence of defects.
(D) Pesticide paradox.

Question 39.
Choose the correct sentence about the developer’s and the tester’s mindsets.

(A) They are different, because a tester’s primary goal is to raise bugs, and a
developer’s primary task is to debug and fix them.
(B) They are different, because a developer’s primary goal is to design and build a
product and a tester’s primary task is to verify its quality.
(C) They are the same, because the primary goal for both of them is to care about the
highest possible product quality.
(D) They are the same, because tester and developer are just the project roles and
any person can fulfill both these roles.

Question 40.
Testing is a constructive activity, but it may be perceived as a destructive one. What
is the reason of this phenomenon?
(A) Testing is an expensive process and may be perceived as the one that does not
bring any added value.
(B) Identifying failures during testing may be perceived as a criticism against the
product or developers.
(C) Independent testers may be perceived as a “bottleneck” in the testing process.
(D) Testers who do not have programming skills may be perceived as the useless
team members.

Question 41.
In which phase of the test process are entry and exit criteria defined?
(A) Test planning, monitoring, and control
(B) Test analysis
(C) Test design
(D) Test implementation

Question 42.
Which of the following statements describe a valid test objective?
a) To prove that there are no unfixed defects in the system under test
b) To prove that there will be no failures after the implementation of the system into production
c) To reduce the risk level of the test object and to build confidence in the quality level
d) To verify that there are no untested combinations of inputs

Question 43.
Which of the following options shows an example of test activities that contribute to success?
a) Having testers involved during various software development lifecycle (SDLC) activities will
help to detect defects in work products
b) Testers try not to disturb the developers while coding, so that the developers write better
code
c) Testers collaborating with end users help to improve the quality of defect reports during
component integration and system testing
d) Certified testers will design much better test cases than non-certified testers

Question 44.
You have been assigned as a tester to a team producing a new system incrementally. You have
noticed that no changes have been made to the existing regression test cases for several
iterations and no new regression defects were identified. Your manager is happy, but you are
not. Which testing principle explains your skepticism?
a) Tests wear out
b) Absence-of-errors fallacy
c) Defects cluster together
d) Exhaustive testing is impossible

Question 45.
You work in a team that develops a mobile application for food ordering. In the current iteration
the team decided to implement the payment functionality.
Which of the following activities is a part of test analysis?
a) Estimating that testing the integration with the payment service will take 8 person-days
b) Deciding that the team should test if it is possible to properly share payment between many
users
c) Using boundary value analysis (BVA) to derive the test data for the test cases that check
the correct payment processing for the minimum allowed amount to be paid
d) Analyzing the discrepancy between the actual result and expected result after executing a
test case that checks the process of payment with a credit card, and reporting a defect

Question 46.
Which TWO of the following tasks belong MAINLY to a testing role?
a) Configure test environments
b) Maintain the product backlog
c) Design solutions to new requirements
d) Create the test plan
e) Report on achieved coverage
Select TWO options.

Question 47.
Which of the following skills (i-v) are the MOST important skills of a tester?
i. Having domain knowledge
ii. Creating a product vision
iii. Being a good team player
iv. Planning and organizing the work of the team
v. Critical thinking
a) ii and iv are important
b) i, iii and v are important
c) i, ii and v are important
d) iii and iv are important

Question 48.
How is the whole team approach present in the interactions between testers and business
representatives?
a) Business representatives decide on test automation approaches
b) Testers help business representatives to define test strategy
c) Business representatives are not part of the whole team approach
d) Testers help business representatives to create suitable acceptance tests

Question 49.
Which test activity does a data preparation tool support?
a) Test monitoring and control
b) Test analysis and design
c) Test implementation and execution
d) Test completion

Question 50.
Which of the following is an example of why testing is necessary?
a) Dynamic testing increases quality by causing test objects to fail in ways that could never be
achieved by the users
b) Static testing is used by developers to identify failures in their program code earlier than
can be achieved through dynamic testing
c) Static analysis provides evidence to customers that the elements of the system that provide
no outputs are fit for release
d) Reviews increase the quality of requirements specifications and lead to fewer changes
being needed in derived work products
Question 51.
Which of the following statements about quality assurance (QA) and/or quality control (QC) is
correct?
a) QA is performed as part of testing
b) St Testing is performed as part of QC (static testing)
c) Testing is another term for QC
d) Testing is performed as part of QA

Question 52.
One of the ‘principles of testing’ states that exhaustive testing is impossible. Which of the
following
is an example of addressing this principle in practice?
a) Creating test cases that cover every possible specified output
b) Documenting all possible test input variations and prioritizing these based on importance
c) Starting testing as early as possible with reviews and other static testing approaches
d) Using equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis to generate test cases

Question 53.
Which test activity involves working with test data requirements, test conditions, test
environment
requirements and test cases?
a) Test design
b) Test execution
c) Test analysis
d) Test implementation

Question 54.
Which of the following is MOST likely to impact how testing is performed for a given test object?
a) The average level of experience of the organization’s marketing team
b) The knowledge of users that a new system is being developed for them
c) The number of years’ experience of the members of the test team
d) The end user’s organizational structure for a commercial music streaming application

Question 55.
Which of the following statements is a CORRECT example of the value of traceability?
a) Traceability between the mitigated risks and passing test cases provides a means of
determining the level of residual risk
b) Traceability between user requirements and test execution results provides a means of
measuring project progress against business goals
c) Traceability between testers and failing test cases provides a means of determining the skill
level of the testers
d) Traceability between the identified risks and written test conditions provides a means of
determining which risks are worth testing

Question 56.
Which of the following is MOST likely to be an example of a tester using a generic skill when
testing?
a) The tester’s deep knowledge of a variety of computer games meant that they got on well
with one of the developers who was also into gaming
b) The tester was a former pilot and was better able to understand the acceptance criteria for
the helicopter control system
c) The tester previously worked as a programmer and used their skills in this area to better
communicate with the business analysts
d) The tester was very careful not to make mistakes when they methodically generated test
cases prior to starting their exploratory testing session

Question 57.
Which of the following is an advantage of the whole-team approach?
a) It allows team members to take on any role at any time
b) It only needs a single team to support the complete development project
c) It embeds business representatives alongside developers in the same team
d) It generates a team synergy that benefits the entire project

Question 58.
Which of the following is a typical test objective?
a) Validating that documented requirements are met
b) Causing failures and identifying defects
c) Initiating errors and identifying root causes
d) Verifying the test object meets user expectations

Question 59.
Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between testing and
debugging?
a) Testing causes failures while debugging fixes failures
b) Testing is a negative activity while debugging is a positive activity
c) Testing determines that defects exist while debugging removes defects
d) Testing finds the cause of defects while debugging fixes the cause of defects
Select ONE option.

Question 60.
The ‘absence-of-defects fallacy’ is one of the principles of testing. Which of the following is an
example of addressing this principle in practice?
a) Explaining that it is not possible for testing to show the absence of defects
b) Supporting the end users to perform acceptance testing
c) Ensuring that no implementation defects remain in the delivered system
d) Modifying tests that cause no failures to ensure few defects remain

Question 61.
Which of the following test activities are MOST likely to involve the application of boundary
value analysis and equivalence partitioning?
a) Test implementation
b) Test design
c) Test execution
d) Test monitoring
e) Test analysis
Select TWO options.

Question 62.
Given the following testware:
1. Coverage items
2. Change requests
3. Test execution schedule
4. Prioritized test conditions

And the following test activities

A. Test analysis
B. Test design
C. Test implementation
D. Test completion

Which of the following BEST shows the testware produced by the activities?
a) 1B, 2D, 3C, 4A
b) 1B, 2D, 3A, 4C
c) 1D, 2C, 3A, 4B
d) 1D, 2C, 3B, 4A

Question 63.
Which of the following statements about the different testing roles is MOST likely to be
CORRECT?
a) In Agile software development, the test management role is the primary responsibility of the
team, while the testing role is primarily the responsibility of a single individual from outside
the team
b) The testing role is primarily responsible for test monitoring and control, while the test
management role is primarily responsible for test planning and test completion
c) In Agile software development, test management activities that span multiple teams are
handled by a test manager outside the team, while some test management tasks are
handled by the team itself
d) The test management role is primarily responsible for test analysis and test design, while
the testing role is primarily responsible for test implementation and execution

Question 64.
Which of the following is an advantage of the whole-team approach?
a) Teams with no testers
b) Improved team dynamics
c) Specialist team members
d) Larger team sizes

Question 65.
Which of the following statements about the independence of testing is CORRECT?
a) Independent testers will find defects due to their different technical perspective from
developers, but their independence may lead to an adversarial relationship with the
developers
b) Developers’ familiarity with their own code means they only find a few defects in it, however
their shared software background with testers means these defects would also be found by
the testers
c) Independent testing requires testers who are outside the developer’s team and ideally from
outside the organization, however these testers find it difficult to understand the application
domain
d) Testers from outside the developer’s team are more independent than testers from within
the team, but the testers from within the team are more likely to be blamed for delays in
product release

Question 66.
Which of the following activities in the test process makes the MOST use of test progress
reports?
a) Test design
b) Test completion
c) Test analysis
d) Test planning

Question 67.
A designer documents a design for a user interface that does not suitably address disabled
users because the designer is tired. The programmer implements the user interface in line with
the design but as they are working under severe time pressure, they do not include suitable
exception handling in their program code for bonus calculations. When the operational system is
used, complaints are made by some disabled users about the interface and the company is
subsequently fined by the relevant regulatory authority. No one notices that bonus calculations
are sometimes incorrect.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a) The miscalculation of bonuses is a defect that occasionally occurs
b) The fine received for failing to address some disabled users is a failure
c) The programmer working under severe time pressure is a root cause
d) The design of the user interface includes a designer error

Question 68.
High-level test conditions are being used by testers to generate test cases and execute tests.
Even
though the test conditions remain the same, the test cases are varied each time. Which of the
following ‘principles of testing’ is being addressed through the variation of test cases?
a) Tests wear out
b) Absence-of-defects fallacy
c) Early testing saves time and money
d) Defects cluster together

Question 69.
Given the following test tasks:
1. Derive test cases from test conditions
2. Identify reusable testware
3. Organize test cases into test procedures
4. Evaluate test basis and test object
And the following test activities:
A. Test analysis
B. Test design
C. Test implementation
D. Test completion
Which of the following BEST matches the tasks with the activities?
a) 1B, 2A, 3D, 4C
b) 1B, 2D, 3C, 4A
c) 1C, 2A, 3B, 4D
d) 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B

Question 70.
Given the following testware:
i. Test completion report
ii. Data held in a database used for test inputs and expected results
iii. The list of elements needed to build the test environment
iv. Documented sequences of test cases in execution order
v. Test cases
Which of the following BEST shows the testware produced as a result of performing test
implementation?
a) ii, iv
b) iii, v
c) i, ii, v
d) i, iii, iv