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Modern Biology Holt Rinehart Winston Holt Rinehart and Winston Staff Download

The document contains various educational resources and chapter tests related to Modern Biology, published by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. It includes links to download additional biology ebooks and provides assessment questions covering topics such as the science of life, chemistry of life, and biochemistry. The tests feature multiple-choice questions, fill-in-the-blank statements, and open-ended questions designed to evaluate understanding of biological concepts.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
19 views82 pages

Modern Biology Holt Rinehart Winston Holt Rinehart and Winston Staff Download

The document contains various educational resources and chapter tests related to Modern Biology, published by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. It includes links to download additional biology ebooks and provides assessment questions covering topics such as the science of life, chemistry of life, and biochemistry. The tests feature multiple-choice questions, fill-in-the-blank statements, and open-ended questions designed to evaluate understanding of biological concepts.

Uploaded by

orosesdvora
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Modern Biology ®

Chapter Tests
with Answer Key
General and Advanced
Name Class Date

Assessment

Chapter Test B
The Science of Life
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.

______ 1. metabolism a. structure made of tissues


b. produces greatly magnified images of
______ 2. magnification
surface details
______ 3. cell c. increase of an object’s apparent size

______ 4. reproduction d. production of offspring


e. produces a greatly magnified image of
______ 5. resolution internal detail
______ 6. TEM f. sum of all chemical processes of an
organism
______ 7. organ g. capability of showing clear details
______ 8. SEM h. smallest unit of life that can carry out
all life’s processes

Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space
provided.

9. A scientist collects data to test a(n) .

10. Growth in living things occurs by cell and cell

11. A disadvantage of a(n) microscope is that living


specimens cannot be examined.

12. is the increase in an object’s apparent size, whereas

is the ability to show details clearly in an image.

13. are those that are


produced by the relationship between two base units or between two
derived units.

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 5 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

The Science of Life, Chapter Test B continued

In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.

______14. To maintain their internal organization, all living things must have a
constant supply of
a. oxygen. c. water.
b. carbon dioxide. d. energy.

______15. Reproduction involves the transfer of genetic information from


a. genes to DNA.
b. parents to offspring.
c. offspring to parents.
d. unicellular organisms to multicellular organisms.

______16. The stable internal environment maintained by living things is called


a. homeostasis. c. adaptation.
b. differentiation. d. interdependence.

______ 17. The most important driving force in evolution is


a. natural selection. c. autotrophy.
b. heterotrophy. d. asexual reproduction.

______18. The scientific process that involves using the five senses is
a. inference. c. modeling.
b. analyzing. d. observation.

______19. Data that are quantitative are always


a. described in words.
b. represented by numbers.
c. duplicated for verification.
d. the most accurate kind of data.

______20. A hypothesis is a statement that


a. is always true. c. is the same as a theory.
b. is usually true. d. can be tested.

______21. A broad and comprehensive statement of what is believed to be true


is a(n)
a. model. c. prediction.
b. theory. d. inference.

______22. The safety symbol for eye safety is a picture of


a. a hand. c. an electrical plug.
b. a flame. d. goggles.

______23. Two parents are required for the type of reproduction known as
a. asexual reproduction. c. sexual reproduction.
b. binary fission. d. cell differentiation.

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 6 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

The Science of Life, Chapter Test B continued

Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
24. List three major themes of biology.

25. List seven major characteristics of life.

26. Would a field biologist who studies the ecology of a bird species necessarily
use the same scientific methods as a laboratory biologist who studies how a
virus infects cells? Why or why not?

27. Why is it important for scientists to communicate about their work, and what
are two common ways that they do so?

28. Why do scientists use SI (Système International d’Unités) rather than the
system of measurement adopted for use in their own country?

29. Which step in the scientific methods does the chart below represent?

Apparent
index case

KEY
Confirmed case
Person died
Person left community

Day 1 Day 2 Day 3 Day 4


4 cases 6 cases 7 cases 12 cases

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 7 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

The Science of Life, Chapter Test B continued

Follow the directions given below.


30. A microbiologist tested the rate of reproduction (called growth) of a bacterial
species in two kinds of bacterial food (called media). The data were organized
on the graph below. Analyze the data, and answer questions a–e.

Medium A
Bacterial growth

Medium B

0 12 24 36 48 76
Time (in hours)

a. At what time was the growth rate equal for the bacteria in both media?

b. Which medium produced the most rapid growth initially?

c. Which medium produced the most growth overall?

d. What does the descending part of the curves represent? What may have
caused this effect?

e. What can you predict about the results of a similar experiment run for one
week?

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 8 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Assessment

Chapter Test B
Chemistry of Life
Write the correct letter in the blank before each numbered term.

______ 1. covalent bond a. involves transferred electrons

______ 2. atom b. loss of an electron


c. substance that cannot be broken
______ 3. reduction
down
______ 4. compound d. involves shared electrons

______ 5. molecule e. a substance composed of two or


more elements
______ 6. ionic bond
f. gain of an electron
______ 7. oxidation g. simplest part of an element
______ 8. element h. simplest part of a substance that
can exist in a free state

Write the letter of the most correct answer in the blank.

______ 9. Elements tend to undergo chemical reactions that


their stability.
a. increase c. do not change
b. decrease d. disrupt

______10. Sodium chloride (table salt) is an example of a compound formed by


a. hydrogen bonding. c. ionic bonding.
b. covalent bonding. d. electromagnetic bonding.

______11. When pure water dissociates, it forms equal numbers of


a. hydroxide ions and sodium ions.
b. hydronium ions and water ions.
c. hydroxide ions and water ions.
d. hydroxide ions and hydronium ions.

______12. Matter can change from a solid to a liquid by the addition of energy,
which makes the particles in the matter
a. move faster. c. dissociate.
b. move slower. d. increase their specific heat.

______13. Charged particles that move around an atom’s nucleus are


a. electrons. c. ions.
b. protons. d. neutrons.

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 13 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Chemistry of Life, Chapter Test B continued

______14. Chemical bonds are broken, atoms are rearranged, and new bonds are
formed during
a. changes of state.
b. chemical reactions.
c. the addition of energy to an element.
d. measurement of pH of a solution.

______15. Atoms with filled orbitals in the outermost energy levels tend to
a. participate in chemical reactions.
b. not participate in chemical reactions.
c. participate only in redox reactions.
d. dissociate in water.

______16. In an ionic bond,


a. two ions of opposite charge are held together by electrical attraction.
b. two uncharged atoms share one or more pairs of electrons.
c. molecules of water are broken into hydroxide ions and hydronium
ions.
d. both atoms involved in the bond become negatively charged.

______ 17. Which of the following represents the correct order of states of matter
from that having the slowest moving particles to that having the fastest
moving particles?
a. gas, liquid, solid c. solid, gas, liquid
b. liquid, solid, gas d. solid, liquid, gas

______18. An attachment between atoms that results from the atoms sharing one
or more pairs of electrons is a(n)
a. ionic bond. c. reduction reaction.
b. covalent bond. d. oxidation reaction.

______19. A redox reaction


a. involves the transfer of electrons between atoms.
b. occurs between atoms with filled orbitals in the outer energy levels.
c. results in a net gain of electrons for the reactants.
d. does not involve transfer of energy.

______20. The amount of energy needed to start a chemical reaction is the


reaction’s
a. mechanical energy. c. free energy.
b. chemical energy. d. activation energy.

______21. A substance that neutralizes small amounts of acids or bases added


to a solution is a(n)
a. alkaline substance. c. catalyst.
b. solvent. d. buffer.

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 14 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Chemistry of Life, Chapter Test B continued

______22. A chemical reaction that can proceed forward or backward is


represented by a
a. double arrow. c. plus sign.
b. single arrow. d. subscript.

______23. All compounds contain at least


a. one element. c. two elements.
b. one ionic bond. d. two ionic bonds.

Answer the questions in the space provided.

24. Why is it necessary for oxidation and reduction reactions to occur as paired
reactions?

25. What is the role of enzymes in chemical reactions occurring in living things?

26. Describe the relationship between the solute, the solvent, and the concentration
of a solution.

27. List two characteristics of acids and two characteristics of bases.

28. What is the pH scale, and what does its range of values mean?

29. What is the atomic mass and the atomic number of an atom that has
6 protons, 8 neutrons, and 6 electrons?

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 15 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Chemistry of Life, Chapter Test B continued

Follow the directions given below.


30. The graph below depicts the rate of enzyme activity in relation to pH for two
enzymes, pepsin and trypsin. Both enzymes break down molecules in food
taken into the human body, but the enzymes act in series. Pepsin breaks some
bonds in very large molecules. Trypsin acts on the fragments produced by the
action of pepsin, breaking them into smaller units. Answer the questions
based on the graph.
Rate of enzyme activity

Pepsin Trypsin

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
pH

a. The liquid in the stomach has a pH of about 2. Which of the two enzymes
would be active in the stomach?

b. The liquid in the small intestine has a pH of about 8. Which of the two
enzymes would be active in the small intestine?

c. What must happen to the liquid as it passes from the stomach to the small
intestine for digestion to occur normally?

d. Consider the data on pH and enzyme activity shown in the graph. Do


enzymes typically function only at a specific pH, or can they function
at a range of pH values?

e. Can pepsin and trypsin function in the same environment? Why or why not?

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 16 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Assessment

Chapter Test B
Biochemistry
Write the correct letter in the blank before each numbered term.
______ 1. nucleotide a. forms large molecules from smaller
ones
______ 2. hydrolysis
b. fatty acid linked to alcohol chain
______ 3. steroid c. monomer of many polysaccharides
______ 4. amino acid d. component of many lipids
e. monomer of nucleic acids
______ 5. condensation reaction
f. lipid not composed of fatty acids
______ 6. glucose g. monomer of proteins
______ 7. wax h. breaks large molecules into smaller
ones
______ 8. fatty acid i. influences the characteristics of
molecules
______ 9. functional group

In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement.

______10. The presence of four electrons in the outermost energy level of a


carbon atom enables
a. carbon atoms to form four covalent bonds with atoms of other
elements.
b. carbon atoms to form covalent bonds with other carbon atoms.
c. carbon atoms to form double bonds with other atoms.
d. All of the above

______11. The breakdown of polymers into monomers occurs through a process


known as
a. hydrolysis. c. dissociation.
b. condensation. d. removal of a functional group.

______12. Organic molecules that catalyze reactions in living systems are


a. phospholipids. c. polysaccharides.
b. enzymes. d. steroids.

______13. Lipids are good energy-storage molecules because


a. they can absorb a large amount of energy while maintaining a
constant temperature.
b. they have many carbon-hydrogen bonds.
c. they are composed of many simple sugars.
d. they cannot be broken down by enzymes.
Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.
Modern Biology 21 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Biochemistry, Chapter Test B continued

______14. A compound found in living things that supplies the energy in one
of its chemical bonds directly to cells is
a. phosphate. c. ATP.
b. RNA. d. alcohol.

______15. Enzymes lower activation energy by


a. linking to the substrate and weakening bonds within the substrate.
b. becoming chemically changed and reacting with the substrate.
c. changing the temperature and pH of the substrate’s environment.
d. linking to the substrate permanently, creating a very large molecule.

______16. A compound that is stored as glycogen in animals and as starch in


plants is
a. alcohol. b. cellulose. c. glucose. d. phosphate.

______ 17. The three molecules shown below are


a. phosphates. b. isomers. c. not organic. d. steroids.

CH2OH CH2OH
CH2OH
H C O OH O H HO C O H

C H C C C H C
OH H H OH C OH H
HO C C H OH C C H C C OH
CH2OH
H OH OH H H OH

______18. In a triple bond, pair(s) of electrons are shared


between two atoms.
a. one b. two c. three d. four

______19. Amino acids become linked together by peptide bonds during


reactions.
a. condensation b. redox c. oxidation d. hydrolysis

______20. Without enzymes, the chemical reactions in your body would


a. happen too fast.
b. occur at much the same rate as they do with enzymes.
c. require a different pH.
d. occur too slowly to support life processes.

______21. Carbon atoms can bond together to form all the following EXCEPT
structures.
a. ring c. straight chain
b. inorganic d. branched chain

______22. ATP contains ________ phosphate groups.


a. one b. two c. three d. four

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 22 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Biochemistry, Chapter Test B continued

______23. Which atoms are involved in a peptide bond?


a. C, H, N, and O c. N and O
b. C and O d. C, H, and O

______24. Energy is released when the bond between _______ in ATP are broken.
a. carbon atoms c. phosphate groups
b. ribose and adenine d. two ATP molecules

Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
25. How does a condensation reaction differ from a hydrolysis reaction?

26. What are the structural differences between monosaccharides, disaccharides,


and polysaccharides?

27. Living things contain many different proteins of vastly different shapes and
functions. What determines the shape and thus the function of a particular
protein?

28. How does the structure of phospholipids, linear molecules with a polar end
and a nonpolar end, relate to their function in the cell membrane?

29. In the diagram of the molecule below, draw in lines as necessary to indicate
the presence of any double bonds.
H H

H C H H C H
C C
H H H H
C C C C C C
C C
H H H H
H C H
H
H

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 23 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Biochemistry, Chapter Test B continued

Follow the directions given below.


30. The diagrams below illustrate a variety of chemical structures. Write the
correct name from the following list in the blank below each diagram.
Not every name will be used.
alcohol fatty acid
dipeptide nucleotide
disaccharide polysaccharide
enzyme/substrate complex water

CH2OH
CH2OH
H C O H H
O
C H C C
OH H H OH C
O H H
HO C C C C
CH2OH O
OH H
H OH

a c

O OH
C

H C H
H CH3
H C H

H C H H N C C N C C OH

H C H H H O H H O

H C H
d
H C H

H C H

H C H

H C H

H C H

H C H

H C H

H C H

H C H

H C H

b e

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 24 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Assessment

Chapter Test B
Cell Structure and Function
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.

______ 1. mitochondrion a. stores DNA and synthesizes RNA

______ 2. endoplasmic reticulum b. digests molecules, old organelles,


and foreign substances
______ 3. plasma membrane c. site of protein synthesis
______ 4. ribosome d. processes and packages sub-
stances produced by the cell
______ 5. cell e. prepares proteins for export and
______ 6. Golgi apparatus synthesizes steroids
f. regulates movement of substances
______ 7. nucleus into and out of cell
______ 8. lysosome g. transfers energy to ATP
h. the basic unit of life

In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.

______ 9. The maximum size to which a cell may grow is limited mainly by the
cell’s
a. shape. c. function.
b. surface area. d. internal organization.

______10. The discovery of cells is linked most directly with


a. early investigations of causes of diseases.
b. observations of large, unicellular organisms.
c. the development of the microscope.
d. efforts to reproduce organisms in the laboratory.

______11. Which of the following are components of the plasma membrane that
have a significant role in its functioning?
a. lipids c. carbohydrates
b. proteins d. All of the above

______12. In which of the following types of cells would you expect to find a
large number of mitochondria?
a. bone c. muscle
b. skin d. blood

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 29 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Cell Structure and Function, Chapter Test B continued

______13. Microfilaments and microtubules


a. contain digestive enzymes.
b. function in cell structure and movement.
c. are sites of protein synthesis.
d. are sites of photosynthesis.

______14. Which of the following is the correct order of structures in living


things, from the simplest to the most complex?
a. cells, tissues, organs, organ systems
b. cells, organs, tissues, organ systems
c. cells, organs, organ systems, tissues
d. organ systems, organs, tissues, cells

______15. Short, hairlike organelles that can move and may cover a unicellular
organism or line the respiratory tract are called
a. chromatin strands. c. cilia.
b. flagella d. spindle fibers.

______16. Name two functions of the proteins embedded in the plasma


membrane.
a. They transport substances across the membrane and aid in
protein synthesis.
b. They store wastes and form the outer layer of the membrane.
c. They serve as attachment sites for molecules in the extracellular
fluid and transport substances across the membrane.
d. They aid in cell movement and serve as attachment sites for mole-
cules in the extracellular fluid.

______ 17. Which of the following membrane proteins are integral proteins?
a. cell-surface markers c. transport proteins
b. receptor proteins d. All of the above

______18. Which of the following statements is true?


a. Colonial organisms are multicellular.
b. Colonial organisms are unicellular.
c. Colonial organisms have specialized tissues.
d. The cells of colonial organisms are genetically different from each
other.

______19. Which scientist determined that cells come only from other cells?
a. van Leeuwenhoek c. Schwann
b. Schleiden d. Virchow

______20. Which of the following helps plant cells remain rigid?


a. plasma membrane c. chloroplast
b. nucleus d. central vacuole

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 30 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Cell Structure and Function, Chapter Test B continued

Refer to the figure below, which shows the packaging and


distribution of proteins inside the cell, to answer questions 21–23.

A B

Cell membrane C

______21. The structures labeled A are


a. vesicles. c. ribosomes.
b. lysosomes. d. chloroplasts.

______22. The structure labeled B is


a. the endoplasmic reticulum. c. a mitochondrion.
b. a Golgi apparatus. d. the nucleus.

______23. The structure labeled C is a(n)


a. mitochondrion. c. ribosome.
b. endoplasmic reticulum. d. vesicle.

Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.

24. What are the three parts of the cell theory?

25. Name two different kinds of animal cells, and describe how their shape is
related to their function.

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 31 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Cell Structure and Function, Chapter Test B continued

26. Describe two differences between prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells.

Refer to the diagram below to answer question 27.

27. The diagram depicts a plant cell. Write the names of structures a–e in the blanks.
c

b d

e
a

f. Which of these structures are found in plants but not in animals?

28. What are the major roles of the nucleus, and what parts of the nucleus carry
out these roles?

29. What is a colonial organism, and what does it have in common with a multi-
cellular organism?

30. Where in the cell do the following steps of energy conversion occur?

a. Glucose taken into the cell

b. Glucose boken down to yield ATP

c. ATP used for cellular activities

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 32 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Assessment

Chapter Test B
Homeostasis and Cell Transport
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.

______ 1. plasmolysis a. relatively low solute concentration


b. membrane-bound organelle
______ 2. vesicle
c. uptake of large particles
______ 3. hypertonic
d. shrinking of cells
______ 4. concentration gradient e. uptake of solutes or fluids
f. bursting of cells
______ 5. cytolysis
g. concentration difference across space
______ 6. hypotonic
h. relatively high solute concentration
______ 7. phagocytosis

______ 8. pinocytosis

In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.

______ 9. The process of diffusion requires


a. a cell membrane.
b. an aqueous solution.
c. a difference in the concentration of molecules throughout a space.
d. All of the above

______10. If the molecular concentration of a substance is the same throughout


a space, the substance
a. has a large concentration gradient.
b. is in equilibrium.
c. will undergo diffusion.
d. will undergo osmosis.

______11. A type of transport in which water moves across a membrane and


down its concentration gradient is
a. simple diffusion. c. diffusion through ion channels.
b. facilitated diffusion. d. osmosis.

______12. Net movement of water across a cell membrane occurs


a. from a hypotonic solution to a hypertonic solution.
b. from a hypertonic solution to a hypotonic solution.
c. from an isotonic solution to another isotonic solution.
d. through gated water channels.
Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.
Modern Biology 37 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Homeostasis and Cell Transport, Chapter Test B continued

______13. All forms of passive transport depend on


a. energy from the cell in the form of ATP.
b. the kinetic energy of molecules.
c. ion channels.
d. carrier proteins.

______14. Sodium-potassium pumps


a. move Na ions and K ions into cells.
b. move Na ions and K ions out of cells.
c. move Na ions out of cells and K ions into cells.
d. move Na ions into cells and K ions out of cells.

______15. Which of the following processes is


illustrated in the diagram at right?
a. the action of the
sodium-potassium pump Exterior of cell
Cytosol
b. pinocytosis
c. endocytosis
d. exocytosis

______16. A structure that can move excess water


out of unicellular organisms is a
a. carrier protein.
b. contractile vacuole.
c. ion channel.
d. cell membrane pump.

______ 17. Most of the time, the environment that plant cells live in is
a. isotonic. c. hypotonic.
b. hypertonic. d. None of the above

______18. Plasmolysis of a human red blood cell would occur if the cell were
a. in an isotonic solution. c. in a hypotonic solution.
b. in a hypertonic solution. d. None of the above

______19. The diffusion of ions across the membrane is influenced by which of


the following?
a. the electrical charge of the ion
b. only the concentration gradient of the ion
c. the number of enzymes in the cell membrane
d. Both (a) and (c)

______20. Ion channels may open or close in response to


a. stretching of the membrane.
b. a change in electrical charge.
c. the binding of a molecule to the ion channel.
d. All of the above

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 38 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Homeostasis and Cell Transport, Chapter Test B continued

______21. Without sodium-potassium pumps, cells


a. might lose sodium.
b. might not be able to transmit electrical impulses.
c. would shrivel up.
d. Both (a) and (b)

______22. When a cell uses energy to transport a particle through the cell
membrane to an area of higher concentration, the cell is using
a. diffusion. c. osmosis.
b. active transport. d. facilitated diffusion.

Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
23. Describe how different kinds of cells react to hypertonic solutions.

24. Name three types of passive transport and three types of active transport.

25. Describe what would happen to the molecules in a drop of ink dropped into a
beaker of water. What is this process called?

26. What is the fundamental difference between carrier proteins that participate
in facilitated diffusion and carrier proteins that function as pumps?

27. How do ions cross the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane?

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 39 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Homeostasis and Cell Transport, Chapter Test B continued

28. Describe the action of the sodium-potassium pump.

29. Contrast endocytosis with exocytosis.

Follow the directions given below.


30. The diagrams below illustrate cells carrying out different types of transport
across their cell membranes. Identify each process by writing the correct
term in the blank below each diagram. Then answer the question.

Bacterium Cl
O2

CO2

a b c

K Glucose

Na

d e f

g. Which of the above processes are active-transport processes?

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 40 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Assessment

Chapter Test B
Photosynthesis
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.

______ 1. carotenoids a. adds phosphate group to ADP

______ 2. ATP synthase b. absorb violet, blue, and red light


c. component colors of white light
______ 3. photosystem
d. series of linked chemical reactions
______ 4. G3P e. three-carbon molecule in Calvin cycle

______ 5. RuBP f. reflect yellow and orange


g. five-carbon molecule in Calvin cycle
______ 6. visible spectrum
h. cluster of pigment molecules
______ 7. chlorophylls

______ 8. biochemical pathway

Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space provided.
9. The is the most
common pathway of carbon dioxide fixation.

10. Plants use three-carbon molecules produced during stage 2 of

to make organic compounds.

11. Light-absorbing are located in the membranes of

12. High-energy electrons move along the thylakoid membrane from

photosystem to photosystem .

13. The oxygen produced in photosynthesis comes from

In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.

______14. What product of the light reactions of photosynthesis is released and


does not participate further in photosynthesis?
a. ATP c. H2O
b. NADPH d. O2
Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.
Modern Biology 45 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Photosynthesis, Chapter Test B continued

______15. Where does the energy required for the Calvin cycle originate?
a. ATP and NADPH produced by the light reactions
b. O2 produced by the light reactions
c. the sun’s heat
d. chlorophyll in the leaf cells

______16. Protons are moved into the thylakoid using energy from
a. ATP. c. electrons in the transport chain.
b. NADPH. d. the sun’s heat.

______ 17. At the end of the photosystem I transport chain, electrons


a. combine with NADP to form NADPH.
b. combine with ADP to form ATP.
c. are ejected out of the membrane, into the stroma.
d. enter photosystem II.

______18. Carbon atoms are fixed into organic compounds in


a. the Calvin cycle. c. electron transport chains.
b. the light reactions. d. photosystems I and II.

______19. To produce the same amount of carbohydrate, C4 plants lose less


a. ATP than C3 plants. c. water than C3 plants.
b. carbon dioxide than C3 plants. d. RuBP than C3 plants.

______20. Which of the following environmental factors will cause a rapid


decline in the photosynthesis rate if the factor rises above a certain
level?
a. light intensity c. carbon dioxide
b. temperature d. oxygen

Refer to the figure below to answer questions 21 and 22.

______21. In the diagram of a chloroplast, the light reactions would occur in area
a. a. c. c.
b. b. d. d.

______22. In the diagram of a a


chloroplast, the
reactions of the
Calvin cycle would
occur in area
a. a
b. b.
c. c. b
d. d.
d

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 46 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Photosynthesis, Chapter Test B continued

______23. Accessory pigments differ from chlorophyll a in that they


a. absorb all wavelengths of light.
b. absorb only yellow and orange light.
c. are not directly involved in the light reactions of photosynthesis.
d. have no function in photosynthesis.

Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
24. Describe the internal structure and the external structure of a chloroplast.

25. What happens to the components of water molecules that are split during the
light reactions of photosynthesis?

26. How is ATP formed in photosynthesis?

27. What is the fate of most of the G3P molecules in the fourth step of the Calvin
cycle? What happens to the remaining G3P molecules?

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 47 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Photosynthesis, Chapter Test B continued

28. How do CAM plants differ from C3 and C4 plants? How does this difference
allow CAM plants to exist in hot, dry conditions?

29. Photosynthesis is said to be “saturated” at a certain level of CO2. What does


this mean?

Follow the directions given below.


30. The diagram below illustrates the site of the light reactions in the thylakoid
membrane. Identify the primary electron acceptors, photosystem I, photo-
system II, and the electron transport chains by writing the correct term in
each blank. Then answer the question.

a b

Light Light
NADPH

NADP

c f

g. What structure that is found in the thylakoid membrane and is important


to chemiosmosis is not shown in the diagram?

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 48 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Assessment

Chapter Test B
Cellular Respiration
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.

______ 1. citric acid a. first pathway of cellular respiration


b. glycolysis and anaerobic pathways
______ 2. kilocalorie
c. product of acetyl CoA and
______ 3. glycolysis oxaloacetic acid
______ 4. aerobic respiration d. location of glycolysis
e. electron acceptor
______ 5. cell membrane
f. location of electron transport chain
______ 6. cytosol in prokaryotes
g. unit of energy
______ 7. NAD
h. cellular respiration in the presence
______ 8. fermentation of oxygen

In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.

______ 9. In aerobic respiration, glucose molecules are converted into acetyl


CoA molecules when they enter
a. the Krebs cycle. c. glycolysis.
b. the electron transport chain. d. the Calvin cycle.

______10. Yeast cells produce alcohol and carbon dioxide in the process of
a. lactic acid fermentation. c. aerobic respiration.
b. alcoholic fermentation. d. cytosol respiration.

______11. In cellular respiration, glycolysis immediately precedes the


a. Krebs cycle. c. electron transport chain.
b. Calvin cycle. d. light reactions.

______12. In cellular respiration, more energy is transferred in ________ than in


any other step.
a. glycolysis c. the Krebs cycle
b. lactic acid fermentation d. the electron transport chain

______13. ________ donate electrons to the electron transport chain.


a. ATP and NADH c. ATP and NAD
b. FADH2 and NADH d. NAD and ATP

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 53 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Cellular Respiration, Chapter Test B continued

______14. The breakdown of organic compounds to produce ATP is known as


a. cellular respiration.
b. lactic acid fermentation.
c. alcoholic fermentation.
d. photosynthesis.

______15. Glycolysis begins with glucose and produces


a. G3P.
b. lactic acid.
c. acetyl CoA.
d. pyruvic acid.

______16. An important molecule generated by both lactic acid fermentation and


alcoholic fermentation is
a. ATP.
b. NADH.
c. CO2.
d. NAD.

______ 17. In the first step of aerobic respiration, pyruvic acid from glycolysis
produces CO2, NADH, H, and
a. citric acid.
b. acetyl CoA.
c. oxaloacetic acid.
d. lactic acid.

______18. The electron transport chain is driven by two products of the Krebs
cycle—
a. oxaloacetic acid and citric acid.
b. H2O and CO2.
c. NADH and FADH2.
d. acetyl CoA and ATP.

______19. What happens to electrons as they are transported along the electron
transport chain?
a. They lose energy.
b. They gain energy.
c. They are pumped into the space between the inner and outer mito-
chondrial membranes.
d. They combine with O2 and protons to form water.

______20. The energy efficiency of cellular respiration is approximately


a. 2 percent.
b. 39 percent.
c. 66 percent.
d. 100 percent.

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 54 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Cellular Respiration, Chapter Test B continued

Refer to the diagram of mitochondrion below to answer questions 21 and 22.

______21. In the diagram, the reactions of the Krebs cycle would occur in area
a. a. c. c.
b. b. d. d.

______22. In the diagram, the electron transport chain is located in area


a. a. c. c.
b. b. d. d.

c d
b
a

______23. In alcoholic fermentation, ethyl alcohol is produced from


a. NAD. c. lactic acid.
b. NADH. d. pyruvic acid.

Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
24. The fourth step of glycolysis yields four ATP molecules, but the net yield from
glycolysis is only two ATP molecules. Explain this discrepancy.

25. Under what conditions would cells in your body undergo lactic acid
fermentation?

26. Glycolysis produces only 2% of the energy that would be produced if an equal
quantity of glucose were completely oxidized. What has happened to the
remaining energy in the glucose?

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 55 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Cellular Respiration, Chapter Test B continued

27. Explain the role of oxaloacetic acid with respect to the cyclical nature of
Krebs cycle.

28. What happens to electrons that accumulate at the end of the electron
transport chain?

29. Where in the mitochondrion do protons accumulate, and what is the source
of the protons?

Follow the directions given below.


30. The diagram below depicts the pathways of cellular respiration. Rectangles
denote substances involved in cellular respiration and ovals denote processes.
Identify the processes by writing the correct term in each blank.

Glucose

a 2 ATP

No O2 O2
Pyruvic acid

b c

Acetyl CoA 2 ATP

Lactic acid Ethyl alcohol

NADH, FADH2

e 34 ATP

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 56 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Assessment

Chapter Test B
Cell Reproduction
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.

______ 1. mitotic spindle a. the period during which DNA is copied


b. the first phase of interphase
______ 2. prophase
c. the phase of mitosis during which
______ 3. asexual reproduction chromosomes move to opposite poles
______ 4. S phase d. the time between cell divisions
e. equally divides chromatids between
______ 5. interphase offspring cells
______ 6. G1 phase f. equally divides an animal cell into
two offspring cells
______ 7. cleavage furrow
g. the first phase of mitosish.
______ 8. anaphase h. the production of offspring from one
parent

Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space provided.
Questions 9–11 refer to the sequence below.
G1 S G2 M C

9. The sequence above represents the

10. The S in the sequence represents the phase in which

occurs.

11. Phases G1, S, and G2 in the sequence above are collectively called

12. Spindle fibers made of help to move the

chromosomes apart during mitosis.

13. A disease caused by uncontrolled cell division is .

14. In the first stage of binary fission, the DNA is .

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 61 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Cell Reproduction, Chapter Test B continued

In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.

______15. If an organism has 12 chromosomes in each body cell, how many chro-
mosomes would you expect to find in the organism’s gametes?
a. 4 c. 10
b. 6 d. 12

______16. During which phase of meiosis do tetrads form?


a. prophase I c. metaphase II
b. telophase I d. anaphase II

______ 17. The division of the cytoplasm of a eukaryotic cell is called


a. mitosis. c. cytokinesis.
b. binary fission. d. cytoplasmic streaming.

______18. Which of the following events occurs during synapsis?


a. replication of the DNA c. division of the cytoplasm
b. appearance of spindle fibers d. pairing of homologues

______19. During mitosis and meiosis, kinetochore fibers are thought to


a. control cytokinesis. c. move chromosomes.
b. make centromeres. d. join chromatids.

______20. Histones are proteins that


a. are found only in prokaryotic cells.
b. aid in the packing of DNA in eukaryotic cells.
c. aid in controlling the activity of regions of DNA.
d. All of the above

______21. Spermatogenesis results in


a. four haploid cells.
b. one haploid cell and three polar bodies.
c. four diploid cells.
d. two sperm cells and two polar bodies.

______22. Each offspring cell produced by binary fission contains


a. half the chromosomes of the original cell.
b. twice as many chromosomes as the original cell had.
c. an identical copy of the original cell’s chromosome.
d. an independent assortment of the original cell’s chromosomes.

______23. Crossing-over results in genetic recombination by


a. reducing the original cell’s chromosome number by half.
b. randomly separating the maternal and paternal chromosomes.
c. mixing half the maternal chromosomes with half the paternal
chromosomes.
d. permitting the exchange of genetic material between maternal and
paternal chromosomes.
Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.
Modern Biology 62 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Cell Reproduction, Chapter Test B continued

______24. What structure not found in animal cells forms along the midline of a
dividing plant cell?
a. cleavage furrow c. cell plate
b. chloroplast d. kinetochore

Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
25. Describe how you could determine if a dividing cell is a prokaryote or a
eukaryote. What structures would you look for?

26. List two ways that meiosis differs from mitosis.

27. In the space below, draw a diagram of the cell cycle. Label and briefly
describe the events that take place during each phase of the cell cycle.

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 63 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Cell Reproduction, Chapter Test B continued

28. How do the products of spermatogenesis and oogenesis differ?

29. What is independent assortment, and how does it affect the genetic makeup
of offspring cells?

Follow the directions given below.


30. The diagrams below depict phases of the cell cycle. Identify the phases by
writing the correct term in each blank. Indicate the correct sequence of the
phases by writing a number next to the name of the phase. Then answer the
question.

a b c

d e f

g. What type of cell division is depicted above? Justify your answer.

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 64 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Assessment

Chapter Test B
Fundamentals of Genetics
Write the correct letter in the blank before each numbered term.

______ 1. homozygous dominant a. a segment of DNA that controls a


particular hereditary trait
______ 2. genotype
b. a cross involving one pair of
______ 3. monohybrid cross contrasting traits
c. an alternative form of a gene
______ 4. heredity d. an organism having two different
alleles for a trait
______ 5. allele e. the genetic makeup of an organism
______ 6. heterozygote f. a contrasting form of a hereditary
characteristic
______ 7. trait g. having two similar, dominant alleles
for a trait
______ 8. gene h. the transmission of characteristics
from parents of offspring

In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.

______ 9. Offspring of the P generation are called the


a. F1 generation. c. P1 generation.
b. F2 generation. d. offspring generation.

______10. The law of segregation states that alleles separate during


a. self-pollination. c. cross-pollination.
b. formation of gametes. d. crossing-over.

______11. An organism that is homozygous for flower color could NOT have the
genotype
a. Qq. c. qq.
b. QQ. d. QQRR.

______12. A cross in which two traits are tracked is a


a. self-pollinated cross. c. monohybrid cross.
b. test cross. d. dihybrid cross.

______13. A heterozygous individual would have the following genotype:


a. pp c. Zz
b. YY d. None of these

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 69 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Fundamentals of Genetics, Chapter Test B continued

______14. In a monohybrid cross between a homozygous dominant parent and a


homozygous recessive parent, one would predict the offspring to be
a. 3:4 homozygous dominant. c. 1:4 homozygous recessive.
b. 2:4 heterozygous. d. all heterozygous.

______15. In a monohybrid cross between two heterozygous parents, one would


expect the offspring to be
a. 1 pp : 3 PP. c. 1 PP : 2 Pp : 1 pp.
b. 3 Pp : 1 pp. d. all Pp.

______16. In guinea pigs, black fur is dominant. A black guinea pig is crossed
with a white guinea pig. If the litter contains a white offspring, the
genotype of the black-haired parent is probably
a. homozygous dominant. c. homozygous recessive.
b. heterozygous. d. None of the above.

______ 17. Segregation of alleles occurs during


a. mitosis. c. fertilization.
b. meiosis. d. pollination.

______18. If two parents with dominant phenotypes produce an offspring with a


recessive phenotype, then probably
a. both parents are heterozygous. c. both parents are homozygous.
b. one parent is heterozygous. d. one parent is homozygous.

______19. A trait occurring in 400 offspring out of a total of 1,600 offspring has a
probability of
a. 0.04. b. 0.25. c. 0.50. d. 0.75.

______20. Suppose you have found a new species of plant. Some of the plants
have yellow flowers, and some have red flowers. You cross a red-
flowering plant with a yellow-flowering plant. All of the offspring
have orange flowers. Suggest a possible genotype for the offspring.
a. RR b. Rr c. RR d. rr

Refer to the diagram at right to answer questions 21 and 22.

______21. The diagram represents a Punnett GI Gi gI gi


square of a GI
a. dihybrid cross.
b. monohybrid cross. Gi X
c. homozygous  homozygous cross.
d. dominant  recessive cross. gI

______22. The genotype of the cell labeled X is gi


a. GGII. c. ggii.
b. GgIi. d. GGIi.

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 70 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Fundamentals of Genetics, Chapter Test B continued

Answer the questions in the space provided.


23. List the steps in Mendel’s experiments on pea plants. Include the
P generation, F1 generation, and F2 generation.

24. In the space below, write the equation for probability.

25. Distinguish between codominance and incomplete dominance. Give an


example of each type of inheritance.

26. Purple flowers are completely dominant in pea plants. How can you
determine the genotype of a purple-flowering pea plant? Draw a Punnett
square for each of the possible genotypes.

27. In tomatoes, red fruit color is dominant over yellow fruit color. Predict the
genotypic ratio of offspring produced by crossing a homozygous dominant
parent with a homozygous recessive parent. Draw a Punnett square to
illustrate your prediction.

28. In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant over green seeds. Predict the
genotypic ratio of offspring produced by crossing two parents heterozygous
for this trait. Draw a Punnett square to illustrate your prediction.

29. In step 1 of his experiments, how did Mendel ensure that each variety of
garden pea was true-breeding for a particular trait?

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 71 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Fundamentals of Genetics, Chapter Test B continued

Follow the directions given below.


30. The Punnet square below illustrates a prediction of color and texture in garden
peas. Refer to the Punnett square as you answer the following questions.

QT Qt qT qt

QT QQTT QQTt QqTT

Qt QQTt QQtt QqTt Q = green


q = yellow
T = smooth
qT QqTT QqTt qqTT t = wrinkled

qt QqTt Qqtt qqTt

a. Does the Punnett square represent a monohybrid cross or a dihybrid cross?


How do you know?

b. List the genotypes of the parents.

c. Complete the Punnett square. Then list all the genotypes predicted by the
Punnett square.

d. Give the genotypic ratio predicted by the Punnett square for the cross.

e. Give the phenotypic ratio predicted by the Punnett square for the cross.

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 72 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Assessment

Chapter Test B
DNA, RNA, and Protein Synthesis
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.

______ 1. anticodon a. site of translation


b. repeating subunits of DNA and RNA
______ 2. codon
c. group of three sequential bases of mRNA
______ 3. deoxyribose
d. substitutes for thymine in RNA
______ 4. double helix e. links together amino acids in a protein
f. identifies the specific amino acid for tRNA
______ 5. nucleotides
g. sugar found in DNA
______ 6. peptide bond
h. spiral shape of DNA
______ 7. ribosome

______ 8. uracil

Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space
provided.

9. The information contained in a molecule of mRNA is used to make proteins

during the process of .

10. Nucleotide sequences of tRNA that are complementary to codons on mRNA

are called .

11. Nucleotides that make up RNA contain the nitrogen bases adenine, guanine,

cytosine, or .

12. Avery’s experiments demonstrated that DNA is the

13. Transcription begins when an enzyme called

binds to the beginning of a gene on a region of

DNA called a promoter.

14. The instructions for building a protein are written as a series of three-

nucleotide sequences called .

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 77 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

DNA, RNA, and Protein Synthesis, Chapter Test B continued

In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.

______15. Which of the following bonds to one specific type of amino acid?
a. mRNA c. rRNA
b. tRNA d. DNA

______16. New mRNA is made through the process of


a. duplication. c. translation.
b. transcription. d. crystallography.

______ 17. Complementary base pairing links


a. amino acids. c. phosphate groups.
b. nitrogenous bases. d. proteins.

______18. Damaged DNA is usually repaired by


a. purines. c. enzymes.
b. nucleotides. d. ribosomes.

______19. During replication, the two strands of DNA separate at a point called a
a. helicase. c. replication fork.
b. ribosome. d. mutation.

______20. A section of one DNA strand has the sequence ACCGAGGTT. What is
the sequence of an mRNA transcribed from this section of DNA?
a. ACCGAGGUU c. TGGCTCCAA
b. ACCGAGGTT d. UGGCUCCAA
Refer to the figure at right to answer questions 21–22.

______21. In the nucleic acid shown , the X

structure labeled X represents


a(n)
a. nitrogenous base.
b. deoxyribose molecule.
c. amino acid.
d. phosphate group.

______22. Which type bond will form at the Y

point labeled Y?
a. peptide bond
b. covalent bond
c. hydrogen bond
d. nitrogen bond

______23. Which type of molecule is shown in the diagram


at right?
a. tRNA c. stop codon
b. mRNA d. methionine

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 78 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

DNA, RNA, and Protein Synthesis, Chapter Test B continued

Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
24. Describe the differences between transcription and translation.

25. Compare the structure of DNA with the structure of RNA.

26. Explain the significance of the start codon and the stop codons.

27. Describe the structure and function of three different types of RNA.

28. List the steps of DNA replication.

29. Why did Hershey and Chase use radioactive elements in their experiments?

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 79 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

DNA, RNA, and Protein Synthesis, Chapter Test B continued

Follow the directions given below.


30. The data in the table below show the amount of each type of nucleotide by
percentage found in samples of DNA taken from the organisms listed. Refer
to the table as you answer the following questions.

Distribution (in percent) of Nitrogen-Containing Bases in Various Organisms


Organism G A C T

Mold 15.2 34.3 14.9 35.1


Plant 19.7 41.2 19.5 42.1
Mollusk 17.4 32.3 17.9 34.7
Reptile 12.9 35.6 13.2 35.7
Mammal 14.6 39.5 13.8 37.6

a. List the terms that the abbreviations G, C, A, and T refer to.

b. Describe the pairing behavior of nitrogen-containing bases in DNA and RNA.

c. Do the data support the base-pairing rules? Why or why not?

d. Do the data support the near-universality of the genetic code? Explain your
answer.

e. What percentage of uracil would you expect to find in an mRNA molecule


isolated from the mollusk referred to in the table? Explain your answer.

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 80 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Assessment

Chapter Test B
Gene Expression
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase. a. prevents uncontrolled cell division

______ 1. oncogene b. substance that increases the risk


of cancer
______ 2. mutation c. noncoding control sequence in a eukaryotic
gene
______ 3. euchromatin
d. gene that causes cancer
______ 4. tumor-suppressor gene e. development of an organism’s form
______ 5. enhancer f. regulates development during
morphogenesis
______ 6. morphogenesis
g. changes in a cell’s DNA
______ 7. homeotic gene h. uncoiled form of DNA

______ 8. carcinogen

Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space provided.

9. Transcription begins when an enzyme called

binds to the beginning of a gene on a region of

DNA called a promoter.

10. Because of its position on the operon, the is able


to control RNA polymerase’s access to the structural genes.

11. The lac operon is switched off when a protein called a(n)

is bound to the operator.

12. In eukaryotic gene regulation, proteins called

help arrange RNA polymerases in the correct

position on the promoter.

13. In eukaryotes, long segments of nucleotides with no coding information

are called .

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 85 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Gene Expression, Chapter Test B continued

In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.

______14. The spread of cancer cells beyond their original site is called
a. gene expression. c. metastasis.
b. morphogenesis. d. cell differentiation.
______15. Pre-mRNA is a form of RNA that contains
a. euchromatin.
b. prokaryotic transcription factors.
c. introns and exons.
d. only exons.
______16. Operons have been identified in
a. prokaryotes only. c. archaebacteria only.
b. eukaryotes only. d. both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
______ 17. Liver cells differ from muscle cells in the same organism because of
a. different chromosomes. c. crossing-over.
b. morphogenesis. d. cell differentiation.
______18. Active transcription in eukaryotes occurs within
a. an operon. b. an operator. c. euchromatin. d. an enhancer.
______19. The activation of a gene that results in the formation of a protein is called
a. translation. c. enhancement.
b. gene expression. d. gene repression.
______20. An operon consists of
a. a group of operators.
b. a group of structural genes.
c. an operator, a promoter, and structural genes.
d. lactose, polymerase, and operators.

Refer to the diagram below to answer questions 21 and 22.

______21. The structure labeled X in the diagram is called


a. a repressor protein. c. a promoter.
b. lactose. d. RNA polymerase.
______22. The diagram shows an operon that is
a. turned on. b. translated. c. repressed. d. turned off.

structural genes

X
Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.
Modern Biology 86 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Gene Expression, Chapter Test B continued

______23. Normal genes that control a cell’s growth and differentiation are called
a. tumor-suppressor genes.
b. oncogenes.
c. proto-oncogenes.
d. growth factors.

Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
24. How is it beneficial for cells to be able to control gene expression?

25. Describe the process shown in the diagram below.

Is this cell prokaryotic or eukaryotic?

What do the structures labeled A and B represent?

NUCLEUS

B A B A B
A

B B B

CYTOPLASM

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 87 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Gene Expression, Chapter Test B continued

26. List three ways cancer cells differ from normal cells.

27. Describe how mutations in proto-oncogenes or tumor-suppressor genes could


lead to cancer.

28. Describe the role of homeotic genes in the development of Drosophila.

29. Compare the genomes of prokaryotes with those of eukaryotes.

Follow the directions given below.


30. The list below represents steps in the regulation of the lac operon. Label the
steps in the order they occur. The first one has been done for you.

______ a. Repressor protein binds to the operator.

______ b. Lactose binds to repressor protein, releasing the protein from the
operator.

______ c. RNA polymerase blocked from transcribing structural genes.

______ d. Enzymes break down lactose.

______ e. Structural gene mRNA is translated into enzymes.


1
______ f. Lactose is introduced to bacterial cell.

______ g. RNA polymerase transcribes structural genes.

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 88 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Assessment

Chapter Test B
Inheritance Patterns and Human Genetics
Write the correct letter in the blank before each numbered term.

______ 1. translocation a. autosomal dominant gene


b. controlled by multiple alleles
______ 2. chromosome map
c. substitution, deletion, or addition
______ 3. Huntington’s disease of a single nucleotide
d. a piece of one chromosome
______ 4. linked genes breaks off and reattaches to a
nonhomologous chromosome
______ 5. sex linkage e. genes found on the same chromosome
______ 6. point mutation f. determined by crossing-over data
g. failure of homologous chromosomes
______ 7. nondisjunction to separate during meiosis
h. presence of a gene on a sex
______ 8. ABO blood group chromosome

Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space provided.

9. Nondisjunction, which gives an individual three copies of chromosome 21,

results in .

10. - mutations occur in


body cells and affect an individual but are not inherited.

11. A frameshift mutation occurs any time a mutation results in the insertion or

deletion of one or more in a gene.

12. characters show many degrees of variation


because they result from the additive effects of several

13. Many human conditions are complex because they are influenced both by the

and by .

14. In order to produce a male offspring, an egg must be fertilized by a sperm

carrying a .

15. If two genes cross over 35 percent of the time, they will be

map units apart on a chromosome map.


Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.
Modern Biology 93 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Inheritance Patterns and Human Genetics, Chapter Test B continued

In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.

______16. If two genes are closely arranged on a chromosome, they probably will
a. cross over. c. control the same trait.
b. segregate separately. d. be inherited together.

______ 17. Which of the following mutations does not affect an organism but can
be passed on to offspring?
a. somatic cell c. germ cell
b. translocation d. substitution

______18. Which of the following is a point mutation that does not result in a
frame shift?
a. addition c. deletion
b. substitution d. inversion

______19. Genetic disorders in human chromosomes can be determined by


removing a small piece of tissue from a structure that lies between the
uterus and the placenta. This procedure is called
a. amniocentesis. c. chorionic villi sampling.
b. fetoscopy. d. genetic counseling.

______20. If the parents of a child have the ABO blood group genotypes I AI B
and ii, what are the possible blood types of the child?
a. A or B c. O
b. A only d. AB

______21. A man and woman are both heterozygous for the pattern-baldness
allele, but only the man loses his hair. This is an example of a(n)
a. Y-linked trait. c. sex-influenced trait.
b. X-linked trait. d. sex-linked trait.

______22. The chromosome map below indicates that


a. X and Y cross over about 15 percent of the time.
b. X and Y cross over more frequently than X and Z do.
c. X and Z cross over about 15 percent of the time.
d. Y and Z cross over about 15 percent of the time.
X Y Z

0 10 15 25 40

______23. Which of the following genotypes is possible for a person whose ABO
blood type is B?
a. I BI B c. Both a and b
b. ii d. None of the above

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 94 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Inheritance Patterns and Human Genetics, Chapter Test B continued

Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
24. Why is hemophilia carried by females and yet rarely expressed in females?

25. Describe how linked genes are an exception to Mendel’s principle of


independent assortment.

26. Describe the difference between a chromosome mutation and a gene mutation.

27. Distinguish between multiple-allele traits and polygenic traits.

28. Use the data table below to draw a chromosome map of traits A, B, and C.
Include the number of map units between each trait in your chromosome map.

Crossing-Over Data
Trait Percentage of cross-over

A and C 5
C and B 15
A and B 20

29. Explain the difference between a sex-linked trait and a sex-influenced trait.

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 95 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Inheritance Patterns and Human Genetics, Chapter Test B continued

Follow the directions given below.


30. Complete the pedigree below based on the information given in a. You may
have to add shading and symbols to the diagram. Then follow the directions
in b and c.

a. Cystic fibrosis is caused by a single-allele recessive trait.


• A husband and wife both have parents who are heterozygous for
cystic fibrosis.
• The husband and wife are also heterozygous for the trait.
• Their son has cystic fibrosis.
• Their second child, a daughter, is normal for the trait.
• Their third child, another daughter, is a carrier of the trait.
b. Draw a key for the completed pedigree in the space below.

c. Predict the possible phenotypes of a child born to the F2 son if the son
marries a woman who does not carry the cystic-fibrosis trait.

Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.


Modern Biology 96 Chapter Test
Name Class Date

Assessment

Chapter Test B
Gene Technology
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.

______ 1. recombinant DNA a. separates DNA fragments by size and


charge
______ 2. length polymorphisms
b. ring of DNA found in bacteria
______ 3. sticky end c. rapidly copies DNA segments
______ 4. genetic engineering d. combination of DNA from different
sources
______ 5. gel electrophoresis e. variations in the DNA intervals between
______ 6. VNTRs genes
f. single-stranded part of a DNA fragment
______ 7. plasmid that has been cut by restriction enzymes
______ 8. PCR g. application of molecular genetics
h. repeating nucleotide sequences

Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space provided.

9. Recombinant DNA is made when a DNA fragment from one species is put

into the DNA of .

10. Any two fragments of DNA cut by the same restriction enzyme can pair

because their ends are .

11. Genetic engineering has benefited humans afflicted with diabetes by

developing bacteria that produce .

12. In PCR, the original DNA sample to be copied, DNA ,

free , and are mixed.

13. Scientists with the Human Genome Project discovered that there are only

about protein-coding genes in the human genome.

In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.

______14. An exact copy of a gene is called a


a. plasmid. b. donor gene. c. cloning vector. d. clone.
Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.
Modern Biology 101 Chapter Test
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“Thank you for reading us the list. The company at the banquet,
who fought at Waterloo, will be getting less and less every year.
Where is Apsley House? we have often heard of it; no doubt it is a
grand place.”
“Apsley House stands at the south-east entrance of Hyde Park, and
near it may be seen the celebrated bronze statue of Achilles, erected
in honour of the Duke of Wellington. The mansion is certainly a
splendid one, though the strong musket-proof iron gratings, which
defend the windows, are no ornament to it. Those gratings were
placed there because a rude assemblage of people once threatened
the duke, and demolished his windows. Popularity with the people is
a very uncertain possession. The bronze palisading and gates in front
are very strong. I can tell you a very curious anecdote about Apsley
House, which appeared in the newspapers, if you should like to listen
to it.”
“Oh yes! do let us hear it; we hope it is a very long one.”
“Not very long, but, as I said, very curious. As George II. was one
day riding on horseback in Hyde-park, he met an old soldier who had
fought with him in the battle of Dettingen. With this soldier he
entered into free discourse. After talking together for some time, the
King asked the old veteran what he could do for him? ‘Why, please
your Majesty,’ said the soldier, ‘my wife keeps an apple-stall on the
bit of waste ground as you enter the park, and if your Majesty would
be pleased to make us a grant of it, we might build a little shed and
improve our trade.’
“The request was a very moderate one, and was at once granted. In
a little time the old apple-woman prospered greatly, for the shed was
built, and her business surprisingly increased. The situation was a
good one for the purpose, and she carried on a very profitable trade.
“In the course of years the old soldier died, and the lord-
chancellor, who was looking around him at the time for a suitable
piece of ground whereon he might build himself a mansion, fixed his
mind on this very spot. The old woman was sadly alarmed when she
saw her poor shed pulled down, and preparations made for building
up a great house where it stood, so away she went to her son, an
attorney’s clerk, to consult with him as to what course should be
pursued. The son was shrewd enough to see at once the advantage
that might be gained by remaining quiet in the matter, so he advised
his mother to say nothing until the great mansion should be
completed. No sooner was the house finished, than the son waited on
the lord-chancellor to complain of the trespass committed on his
mother’s property, and to claim a recompense for the injury that had
been sustained.
“When the chancellor saw that the claim was undeniable, he
directly offered a few hundred pounds, by way of compensation; but
this was altogether refused; the old woman, advised by her son,
would by no means settle the affair on such easy terms. After some
deliberation, a ground-rent of four hundred pounds a-year was
demanded, and his lordship at last agreed to the terms. To this very
day, Apsley House, the mansion of the Duke of Wellington, yields a
ground-rent of four hundred pounds per year, to the descendants of
the old apple-woman.”
“There never was a more curious tale than that, however! It was
enough to make the old apple-woman wild with joy.”
“Some few years ago two gentlemen waited on the Duke of
Wellington, at Apsley House, and told him, that a friend of theirs had
died, leaving them executors to his will, in which, among other
bequests, he had left five hundred pounds to the bravest man in the
British army, and that as they considered his Grace to be the bravest
man, they had called to hand over to him a check for the money.
“The duke was much pleased at the compliment paid to him, but
declined to receive the money, as he said there were many other men
in the British army who equalled him in bravery. He was then
requested to decide on whom the money should be bestowed. This
was a difficult point; but at length he proposed it should be given to
Major-General Sir James Macdonnel, who so resolutely defended
Hougomont, the key to the British position, in the memorable battle
of Waterloo.
“The two gentlemen then called on Major-General Macdonnel,
telling him the decision of the Duke of Wellington, and tendering
him the five hundred pounds. But Sir James, in his turn, declined to
receive it, knowing, as he said, a man who, in the battle of Waterloo,
had showed himself equal to any one in bravery. The major-general
then described, that when the French troops made one of their
rushes at the gates of the farm-house, called Hougomont, in that
critical moment when victory and defeat hung evenly in the balance,
Sergeant-Major Frazer, a very powerful man, boldly assisted him to
close the gates, thereby shutting out the French, who were soon after
driven back with great slaughter. Thus was the fortune of the day
decided.
“The Duke of Wellington considered Major General Macdonnel
deserving of the money, on account of his resolute defence of
Hougomont, and Sir James considered that Sergeant-Major Frazer,
was entitled to share it with him, on account of the great service he
had rendered him on that occasion. The money was divided between
the general and the sergeant-major, and the generosity of the Duke
of Wellington and Sir James Macdonnel will not soon be forgotten.”
CHAPTER XVII.

Buonaparte.—His principal plaything.—Napoleon’s Grotto.—Buonaparte’s


gratitude to his mother.—He goes to the Military School at Paris.—Made a
lieutenant.—His first military service.—His address to the men under his
command.—His conduct to poor tradesmen.—Reproof to his generals.—The
Jaffa massacre.—Murder of the Duke d’Enghein.—Legion of honour.—
Buonaparte threatens to invade England.—French invincibles.—An instance of
generosity.—Napoleon’s bravery.—Battle of the Pyramids.—The battle of Lodi.
—Napoleon’s return from Elba.—Campaign in Russia.—Allusion to Waterloo.
—Buonaparte dies at St Helena.—The 18th of October a remarkable day.

“Now please to tell us all that you know about Buonaparte, for he
was as fond of fighting as any man.”
“That is true. The history of Buonaparte, and that of the Duke of
Wellington, would be the history of almost all great battles fought
since the French Revolution, fifty years ago; but you shall have a
sprinkling of such things as I can remember of Buonaparte. Every
soldier is pretty well acquainted with the fame of the Emperor
Napoleon.”
“They say, that he was not a Frenchman: was he?”
“He was a Corsican; but as the island of Corsica became, by law, a
French department two or three months before his birth, so he may
be called a Frenchman. Napoleon Buonaparte was one of the greatest
warriors of modern times. For many years before his death he
became Emperor of the French.”
“Great as he was, Wellington beat him! Please to tell us something
about him.”
“When a boy, his principal plaything was a brass cannon; and so
fond was he of being alone, that when he could do so, he retired to a
solitary summer-house among the rocks. The place is now called
‘Napoleon’s Grotto.’ In after-life he has been heard to say, that in
childhood he was remarkable for obstinacy, and curiosity. Others say
that he was high-spirited, quarrelsome, imperious, fond of solitude,
and a sloven in his dress. One good thing I will tell you of him. He
always spoke gratefully of the kindness of his mother. It was a saying
of his, ‘The future good or bad conduct of a child depends entirely on
his mother.’ From Brienne, where he was for a time educated, he was
sent to the Royal Military School of Paris.”
“Ay! There he would learn everything about war.”
“At sixteen years of age he was made second lieutenant in a
regiment of artillery, and seven years after he became a captain.
During the French Revolution he took the command of a battalion of
national guards; and the first military service he performed was
against his own country, Corsica.”
“That was a bad beginning, to fight against his country.”
“I shall tell you about some of the battles in which he was
afterwards engaged, but will now only give you a few anecdotes about
him. Some of them are against him, and some in his favour.”
“That is the fairest way, to let us know both sides of the question.”
“At the age of twenty-six Buonaparte assumed the command of the
army of Italy! ‘You are too young,’ said one of the directors, who
hesitated about his appointment as general. ‘In a year,’ replied
Napoleon, ‘I shall be either old or dead.’”
“He seems to have had a great deal of spirit.”
“‘Soldiers!’ said he, to the army under his command, ‘you are
hungry and naked: the Republic owes you much, but she has not the
means to pay her debts: I am come to lead you into the most fertile
plains that the sun beholds. Rich provinces, opulent towns, all shall
be at your disposal. Soldiers! with such a prospect before you, can
you fail in courage and constancy?’ This was the first address he
made to his army, and it ran like lightning from rank to rank. The
men, who before were downhearted, became animated with hope
and confidence, and the most distinguished officers of France, from
that moment, determined to follow their youthful leader, as one who
would assuredly lead them to victory and renown. Massena, Joubert,
Augereau, Serrurier, and Lannes, were among them; though their
well-tried courage and experience might have justified them in
seeking the supreme command, yet they cheerfully followed one
whom they were fully convinced, would be successful in his daring
enterprise.”
“He was just the man for the French, then, for he knew how to call
up their courage. But six-and-twenty must have been a young age for
a general?”
“When Buonaparte was in his prosperity he employed, it is said,
the same trades-people who supplied him in his former days. A
silversmith, who had given him credit, when he set out for Italy, for a
dressing-case, worth fifty pounds, was rewarded with all the business
which his recommendations could bring to him; and being clever in
his trade, he became, under the patronage of the emperor, one of the
wealthiest citizens of Paris. A little hatter, and a cobler, who had
served Buonaparte when a subaltern, might have risen in the same
manner, had their skill equalled that of the silversmith. Napoleon’s
example, however, could not persuade the good people of Paris to
wear ill-shaped hats and clumsy boots; but he, in his own person,
adhered to the last to his original connexion with these poor trades-
people.”
“That is very much to his credit, whatever might be his faults.”
“It is, and we should act honestly when speaking of the character
of an enemy. The British army and navy have furnished instances of
this kind. Courage and fidelity frequently go together, so that the
soldier or sailor, who is the first to face the cannon’s mouth, is often
the last to turn his back on a friend. Buonaparte, once apprehensive
that his generals were on the point of breaking into open mutiny,
threw himself suddenly among them, and addressing the tallest of
them in a threatening vehement tone, said, ‘You have been talking
sedition: take care lest I fulfil my duty: your five feet ten inches
would not hinder you from being shot within two hours.’”
“That was enough to make the general that he spoke to tremble.”
“One of the blackest stains on the reputation of Buonaparte, is the
massacre at Jaffa. Twelve hundred, some say nearly three thousand
Turks, a part of the garrison of the place, surrendered. These were
marched to some sand-hills, at a little distance from the town, and
there, being divided into small parties, every man was shot or
bayonetted. Not all the waters of the green ocean would ever wash
that dark blot from Napoleon’s brow.”
“Shocking! shocking! That is a black mark on his brow indeed.
There are quite enough soldiers fall in battle, but to shoot men when
the battle is over is dreadful.”
“He is no true soldier who covers the name of an enemy with the
slime of slander, but the truth must be spoken when it condemns as
well as when it approves. The murder of the Duke d’Enghein, for
murder it may properly be called, was another of the black acts of
Buonaparte. The duke was surprised in his castle, hurried off to the
citadel of Strasburgh, called up at midnight three days after, taken to
Paris, and then to the Castle of Vincennes, hastily tried, and
condemned, and afterwards shot in the ditch of the castle by
torchlight. The seizure, trial, and condemnation, were all contrary to
the laws of France.”
“Poor Duke d’Enghein!”
“Buonaparte was a man of great parts and much energy, but self
was the centre of all he did, though many of his acts appear to
manifest a love of his country. He instituted the famous legion of
honour: every Frenchman is proud of it. The decoration of the legion
of honour was given to those who performed any meritorious service,
whether in the army or out of it. A common soldier could obtain it as
well as a general. It entitles the wearer to certain precedence, and a
pension. Napoleon, when made First Consul, was much thinner than
in his after life. I have seen a picture of him, wherein he appeared to
be taller and altogether a different kind of man to what he was when
he became somewhat corpulent. Buonaparte threatened to invade
England, but the attempt was never made, though he assembled one
hundred thousand troops, and an immense flotilla of flat-bottomed
boats, to bear them across the channel. If war can be justified at one
time more than another, it is when a country is invaded. The British
spirit rose at once, so that, besides the regular troops, and militia of
the country, three hundred and fifty thousand volunteers were soon
in arms. On this occasion Sir Walter Scott wrote his song to the
Edinburgh volunteers. One of the verses runs thus:—
‘If ever breath of British gale
Shall fan the tri-colour,
Or footsteps of invader rude,
With rapine foul, and red with blood,
Pollute our happy shores—

Then farewell home, and farewell friends!


Adieu each tender tie!
Resolved, we mingle in the tide
Where charging squadrons furious ride,
To conquer or to die!’

“Sheridan said, that the first vision of Buonaparte in the morning,


was the destruction of England, and that his last prayer at night,
whether he addressed it to Jupiter, or to Mahomet, to the goddess of
battle, or the goddess of reason, was to bring about the same end.”
“It was a good thing the French gave it up. There would have been
sad work of it. Do you think they would have conquered us?”
“Conquered us! no, boys. Thousands, and tens of thousands might
have been slain, but they could never have crushed the spirit of
liberty out of British hearts. If Englishmen can fight as they do out of
their country, what would they not do in it rather than be conquered.
It was, as you say, a good thing that the invasion was given up; but, if
the French had persevered, our blue-jackets in the British Channel,
and our red-coats on the coasts, would have found them enough to
do both by water and land. The one and the other would have joined
in the chorus,
‘Rule, Britannia!
Britannia rules the waves!
Britons never shall be slaves!’

“But we are forgetting Buonaparte. He styled a part of his troops


the Invincibles; but they were no more invincible than the Spanish
Armada, which had the same name. British soldiers, under General
Abercrombie in Egypt, first defeated the French Invincibles, and
Wellington afterwards, scattered them like a flock of sheep.”
“You must tell us about the battle of Waterloo; and then we shall
hear how his Invincibles met British men.”
“I ought not to forget a proof of the generous conduct of
Buonaparte on one occasion. It was when he had taken Berlin, the
Prussian capital. The Prince of Hatzsfeld, while under his protection,
corresponded with the Prussian general, sending him an account of
the movements of the French. One of his letters being intercepted,
the prince was arrested; when his wife, thinking her husband not
guilty, gained access to the emperor, and boldly asserted his
innocence. Napoleon handed to her the prince’s letter: when she fell,
in silence and despair, on her knees. ‘Put the paper in the fire,’ said
Napoleon, ‘and there will then be no proof of guilt.’”
“Ah! that was a noble action. What a pity that he did not perform
more such actions!”
“In taking the bridge and town of Montereau, Buonaparte was seen
pointing cannon with his own hand, under the heaviest of the fire.
But though this delighted the artillery-men, they expressed great
apprehension at his personal danger. ‘My children,’ said he, still
persisting in his employment, ‘the bullet that shall kill me is not yet
cast.’”
“He was, no doubt, a very bold man, but it was very presumptuous
to talk in that way.”
“Most likely his object was to encourage his soldiers. The famous
battle of the Pyramids was one in which Buonaparte obtained much
reputation as a soldier. He had a strong frame, and could endure
much. While other generals put on light clothing, and were bathed in
perspiration, beneath the burning sun of Egypt, he wore his uniform,
as usual, buttoned up to the chin. He was the last at night to fling his
body, wrapt in his war-cloak, on the ground, and the first in the
morning to spring up from slumber. When he came within sight of
the pyramids he cried out, ‘Soldiers! from the summit of yonder
pyramids forty ages behold you!’ The rage of the battle then broke
loose.
“On came the Mamelukes, with their fiery steeds. Strong and rapid
in their movements, they raised a wild cry, and rushed on the
bristling bayonets of the French, who were drawn up in squares.
They tried to force a passage, urged their horses on, and then backed
them against their enemies. But the French would not give way. The
Mamelukes were almost mad with rage; they dashed their carbines
and pistols in the faces of the French soldiers, and, when wounded
on the ground, cut at their legs, but it was all in vain. The French
cannon and musketry mowed them down;—they fell back! The
carnage was dreadful! The battle was won by Napoleon. Cairo soon
surrendered to him, and he became the conqueror of Lower Egypt.
“The taking of the bridge of Lodi, in Italy, was one of the most
daring achievements of Buonaparte. This bridge was a wooden one;
and a battery of thirty cannon was so placed as to sweep it
completely. The whole Austrian army was drawn up behind it.
“Napoleon Buonaparte was not to be intimidated by danger, he
advanced, and a furious cannonade broke forth. Buonaparte rushed
on in the middle of the fire, and pointed two guns with his own
hands, so as to prevent the Austrians approaching the bridge to blow
it up. His soldiers were delighted at his bravery, and called him ‘The
Little Corporal.’
“Napoleon gave the word, and a column of grenadiers rushed to
the bridge, shouting ‘Vive la Republique!’ The grape-shot swept them
down terribly. They hesitated,—Buonaparte hurried to their head,
with Lannes, Berthier, and Lallemaque, and cheered them onward.
The cannon raged, a tempest of shot was around them, but they
dashed on. The artillery-men were bayonetted at their guns; the
bridge of Lodi was taken, and the Austrian army scattered in
confusion.”
“Buonaparte was a brave man, no doubt, for he seemed to delight
in war. He must have seen the death of many in his time.”
“That will hardly bear thinking of. It is said, that during his wars,
four millions of men, must have fallen.”
“Four millions of men! It is very well there are not many
Buonapartes in the world.”
“He was too fond of fighting; and after all his victories he got no
good by them. If half the world had been his, he would never have
been contented till he had obtained the other half. Ambition was the
ruin of him:—
“He saw, though visible to him alone,
Ambition, seated on a shining throne:—
‘Cut through yon glittering host,’ she loudly cries.
‘Behold me here, ordained the victor’s prize!’”

“There was never a braver man than Buonaparte in the world. He


cared no more for cannon-shot than we do for snow-balls.”
“Napoleon showed a daring and invincible spirit in crossing the
Alps, and in numberless battles, but, perhaps, never did he manifest
more true courage than in throwing himself fearlessly into the arms,
as it were, of the French army, on his return from Elba, where, after
his abdication, he had been a prisoner. A battalion was sent against
him. He dismounted from his horse, and advanced alone, opening
his surtout so as to show the star of the legion of honour; and crying
out, ‘If there be among you a soldier who desires to kill his general—
his Emperor—let him do it now! Here I am!’ The whole battalion
shouted ‘Vive l’Empereur!’ and instantly joined him.”
“Why, if he had had as many lives as some people say a cat has, he
seemed to take the very way to lose them all, and yet he always
escaped.”
“A celebrated writer has said, ‘It is impossible to survey the rapid
energy of Napoleon, his alert transitions from enemy to enemy, his
fearless assaults on vastly superior numbers, his unwearied
resolution and exhaustless invention, without the highest admiration
which can attend on a master of warfare. But it is equally impossible
to suppress astonishment and indignation, in following, or rather
attempting to follow, the threads of obstinacy, duplicity, pride, and
perfidy, which during the same period complicated, without
strengthening, the tissue of his negotiations.’ It is only when we fix
our eyes on the battles and marches of his wonderful campaigns, that
we can hesitate to echo the adage: ‘Whom God hath doomed to
destruction he first deprives of reason.’”
“Well! he is dead now, and that is a good thing. If he were Emperor
of France now, we should be sure to have as much war as ever.”
“Buonaparte’s campaign in Russia was a most disastrous one, and
led the way to his abdication; but it was the battle of Waterloo that
deprived him of his throne for ever. This hurled him headlong from
the pinnacle of his glory, proclaiming, as with the voice of a mighty
trumpet, through the world, that the minion of ambition shall be
trampled in the dust, and that the splendour of temporary triumph
shall only increase the greatness of his fall. He was exiled to St.
Helena, where, after living near six years, he expired, and was
buried. His body was, however, a short time ago, removed to France,
and interred, with great splendour, in the Church of the Invalids, at
Paris.”
“Oh! more or less than man. In high or low,
Battling with nations, flying from the field!
Now making monarchs’ necks thy footstool! now,
More than thy meanest soldier, taught to yield.
An empire thou would’st crush, command, rebuild,
But govern not thy pettiest passion; nor,
However deeply in men’s spirits skilled,
Look through thine own; nor curb the lust of war;
Nor learn, that tempted Fate will leave the loftiest star.”

“The 18th of October is a remarkable day, as connected with


Napoleon Buonaparte.”
“In what way is it remarkable?”
“It was on the 18th of October that the revolution took place which
made him consul. It was on the 18th of October that he fought the
battle of Torlina, on the Berezina. It was on the 18th of October that
he fought the battle of Leipsic. It was on the 18th of October that he
arrived off St. Helena; and it was on the 18th of October that the
French ship La Belle Poole left St. Helena, with his body on board,
for France. And now, I think, that I have told you quite enough, for
the present, of Napoleon Buonaparte.
“His courage, ambition, and power,
Will long be recorded in story,
But defeat and the gloom of the grave,
Have beclouded the sun of his glory.”
CHAPTER XVIII.

Captain-general of the army.—Commander-in-chief.—Lord-high-admiral of the


navy.—Field-marshal.—General.—Lieutenant-general.—Major-general.—
Brigadier-general.—Colonel.—Lieutenant-colonel.—Major.—Adjutant.—
Sergeant-major.—Captain.—Ensign and cornet.—Sergeant and corporal.—A
round-robin.—Quarter-master.—Military saying.—Officer’s daughter.—
Officers of the navy.—Marines.—Catamaran.—Crew of a first-rate.—Royal
George.

“We want to know who are the highest officers in the army and
navy. They are generals and admirals, are they not, uncle?”
“The highest officer is the King himself—when there is a king on
the throne of England. And the virtues in his heart ought ever to
exceed in value the jewels of his crown. He is captain-general of all
the forces of Great Britain, the head of all rank, power, and authority.
Under him come the commander-in-chief, at the head of the army,
and the lord-high-admiral at the head of the navy; but generally the
office of lord-high-admiral is filled by commissioners, under the
name of the lords of the admiralty.”
“What is a field-marshal? Wellington is called a field-marshal.”
“Yes, he is a field-marshal, and when an army is in the field, a
field-marshal is the highest officer among them, he takes the
command of them all.”
“Is there any other field-marshal in the army besides the Duke of
Wellington?”
“Oh yes! several. The King of Hanover, the Duke of Cambridge,
and the King of the Belgians, are all field-marshals in the British
army; and there is another too, Prince Albert.”
“And what is the next rank to a field-marshal?”
“A general. There are many of these in the army, for though every
field-marshal is a general, every general is not a field-marshal. A
general is a chief officer in the army, to whom the command of
soldiers has been entrusted by the sovereign or the senate of a
country. The commander-in-chief, of course, ranks first. If a general
have not a martial genius, a sound judgment, and a healthy
constitution, united with intrepidity, self-possession, business-like
habits, and goodness of heart, he is not equal to the duties of his
station. A young general will lack experience and prudence, and an
old general will hardly be sufficiently energetic and active. The next
in rank to a general is a lieutenant-general, and then come the
major-general and the brigadier-general.”
“What a sight it would be to see all the Field-marshals and
generals and colonels together!”
“It would indeed, especially to a soldier. A colonel is the
commander of a regiment, whether of horse, foot, dragoons, or
artillery, and a lieutenant-colonel is next in rank. They should be
men of talent and resolution, for their duties are very important, and
good officers often make good soldiers. Next to the lieutenant-
colonel come the major, adjutant, and sergeant-major. The drum and
fife-majors are at the head of the drummers and fifers, and instruct
others in their duty.”
“You have not told us what a captain is, and surely he comes before
the drummers and fifers, though he does not make half the noise that
they do?”
“A captain is a commander either of a troop of horse, or of a
company of foot or artillery. In marching or fighting, at the head of
his company, he is much looked up to by his men. If he be not every
inch a soldier, it is soon found out by the men under his command. It
is his business both to march and fight at the head of his company.”
“The lieutenant comes next to the captain?”
“He does. The name lieutenant is French, lieu-tenant—holding the
place of another. After the lieutenant come the ensign and cornet:
the former carries the standard in a company of foot, and the latter
in a troop of horse. An ensign is the lowest commissioned officer in a
company of foot; after him come the sergeant and corporal.
Buonaparte was called by his soldiers, ‘The Little Corporal.’ There
are other posts of authority beside what I have mentioned, for the
discharge of particular duties. Every officer is as liable to punishment
if he break the articles of war, as a common soldier is; and then, if a
superior officer act improperly to the officers beneath him, they
sometimes send him a round-robbin.”
“Oh, what is a round-robbin? Do tell us.”
“A Frenchman told me that the name came from ‘ruban rond,’
which means a round riband. When officers wish to send a
remonstrance in writing to one above them, instead of writing their
names one under the other, they write them in a round form, so that
no one can tell who signed the paper first. It is a kind of honourable
agreement into which they enter among themselves, every one taking
an equal share in the transaction. But round-robins are not often to
be seen. I should have told you, that a quarter-master is an officer
whose duty it is to see after the quarters of the soldiers, together with
their food, clothing, fuel, and ammunition. A quarter-master-general
is a considerable officer; and is required to know well the country
where he is, having to mark the marches and encampments of the
army.”
“You have made us understand the different ranks very well.”
“That being the case, I must give you another of my military
sayings. A private should be proud of his general good character. A
staff-officer should lean on nothing but his merit. The major part of
a captain’s duty is the care of his company. A quarter-master should
do the whole of his duty, and the highest officer in the army should
remember that he is but a man.”
“Capital! capital! We shall not forget that, you may depend upon
it.”
“It sometimes happens that good soldiers are obliged to take up
with very bad quarters. Officers themselves are, at times, very
slenderly provided for—in such cases, and indeed in all others, a
good temper, and a good stock of patience, are excellent things. I will
give you an instance of the good temper, steadiness, and fortitude of
an officer’s daughter, Miss Elizabeth Smith, when deprived of
common comforts. This young lady had taught herself, with little
assistance, the French, Italian, Spanish, German, Latin, Greek and
Hebrew languages, and somewhat of the Arabic and Persic:—she was
the daughter of Captain Smith; and her mother gives the following
account:—We had spent three happy weeks at the hospitable
mansion of Lord Kingston, from whence we set off on horseback for
our quarters, which were about twenty miles distant. During the last
ten miles of the journey it rained most heavily, and without ceasing.
We arrived at the barracks dripping wet; our luggage was not come,
and, owing to the negligence of the quarter-master, there was not
even a bed to rest on. The whole furniture of our apartments
consisted of a piece of a cart-wheel for a fender; a bit of iron,
probably from the same vehicle, for a poker; a dirty deal table, and
three wooden-bottom chairs. It was the first time we had joined the
regiment; and I was standing at the fire, meditating on our forlorn
state, and perhaps dwelling too much on the comforts we had lost,
when I was roused from my reverie by my daughter Elizabeth,
exclaiming, ‘Oh! what a blessing!’ ‘Blessing!’ I replied, ‘there seems
none left.’ ‘Indeed there is, my dear mother, for see, here is a little
cupboard.’ I dried my tears, and endeavoured to learn fortitude from
my daughter.”
“Very good! That young lady had a very happy temper, or she
would not have been so pleased with only a cupboard.”
“I have told you of the ranks of the officers of the army only. The
officers of the navy are divided into flag-officers; captains who
command post-ships; commanders who command sloops;
lieutenants, and sub-lieutenants. But I had better tell you how
officers rank with one another in the army and navy.”
Navy. Army.

The Admiral-in-chief ranks the same as Field-marshal.


Admirals of the red, white or blue ranks the same as Generals.
Vice-admirals ranks the same as Lieutenant-
generals.
Rear-admirals ranks the same as Major-generals.
Commodores ranks the same as Brigadier-
generals.
Captains of post ships, three years after commission ranks
Colonels.
the same as
All captains of post ships ranks the same as Lieutenant-
colonels.
Captains not taking post ranks the same as Majors.
Lieutenants ranks the same as Captains.
“But there are lower ranks than these: midshipmen on board ship,
and sergeants and corporals among soldiers?”
“Yes, there are. The officers in a ship under a lieutenant are, the
sub-lieutenant, master, second master, gunner, boatswain,
carpenter, master’s-mate, and midshipman. And the officers in the
army under the captain, as I have already told you, are, the
lieutenant, ensign, sergeant and corporal. If you can remember all I
have said, it will be a proof that you are not deficient in memory.”
“What do you mean by the admiral of the red?”
“An admiral who carries a red flag. I have said something of
admirals’ flags before, but will be a little more particular now. Flag-
officers are of three ranks: admirals, vice-admirals, and rear-
admirals; and each rank is divided into three squadrons,
distinguished by different coloured flags; so that there are, besides
the admiral of the fleet, the commander-in-chief, admirals of the red,
of the white, and of the blue; vice-admirals of the red, of the white,
and of the blue, and rear-admirals of the red, of the white, and of the
blue.”
“But if three sorts of admirals carry a red flag, how do you know
one from another?”
“By the situation of the flag. The admiral of the fleet carries an
Union Flag at the main-top-gallant-mast head, so that you may
always know his ship. Then, other admirals carry their flags, let the
colour be what it may, also at the main-top-gallant-mast head. The
vice-admirals carry theirs at the fore-top-gallant-mast head, and the
rear-admiral carries his at the mizen-top-gallant-mast head.”
“Oh, oh, that is it! Then we know at last what is the meaning of ‘the
red flag at the fore.’”
“Yes, that must be now pretty plain to you. The marines are a very
efficient part of the British force; they are not to be out-done either
in courage or patriotism. For some time in my younger days I
belonged to them, and it was then that I picked up what knowledge
of nautical tactics I possess. Had not a handful of British marines
stood in the breaches made by the soldiers of Buonaparte in the
garrison of St. Jean D’Acre in the year 1799, and thereby called up a
spirit of determination in the Turkish troops, the place must have
surrendered. As it was, it held out, baffled Buonaparte with his
bravest and his best, and rendered the repulse of the French, and the
bravery of Sir Sidney Smith famous in history.”
“What have the marines to do?”
“They are trained to fight either on shore or on board ships; and
oftentimes they make sad havoc among the enemy from the poop
and the round-top. When a ship is boarded by an enemy, they sweep
the decks with their muskets, or keep back the boarders with their
bayonets. I knew some famous fellows among them, who were well
acquainted with all the duties of a soldier and a seaman, and would
run a boat through the water as if it were a catamaran.”
“What is a catamaran, uncle?”
“A catamaran is a species of boat used by the native Indians on the
coast of Coromandel. It consists of only one plank, five feet long and
two wide, on which the intrepid Indian kneels, and by means of a
paddle propels himself along through the most terrific surf, bidding
defiance to the warring of the elements and the overwhelming seas,
which often hurl him from his perilous position, but which he as
quickly and dexterously regains; and thus these amphibious beings
afford communication with ships in distress, when no other boat
could possibly live.”
“How many marines are there on board a large ship? one of the
biggest ships that sails on the sea?”
“I will just run over a list of the crew of a first-rate, and then you
will hear all about it. This is the list.
Captain 1
Lieutenants 8
Master 1
Chaplain 1
Surgeon 1
Purser 1
Second Master 1
Assistant Surgeons 3
Gunner 1
Boatswain 1
Carpenter 1
Mate 1
Midshipmen 23
Master’s Assistants 6
Schoolmaster 1
Clerk 1
Master-at-arms 1
Ship’s Corporals 2
Captain’s Coxswain 1
Launch ditto 1
Quarter-Masters 12
Gunner’s Mates 5
Boatswain’s Mates 8
Captains of Forecastle 3
Captain of Hold 1
Ship’s Cook 1
Sailmaker 1
Ropemaker 1
Carpenter’s Mates 2
Caulker 1
Armourer 1
Captains of Maintop 3
Captains of Foretop 3
Captains of Mast 3
Captains of After-guard 3
Yeoman of Signals 1
Coxswain of Pinnace 1
Sailmaker’s Mate 1
Caulker’s Mate 1
Armourer’s Mates 2
Cooper 1
Volunteers 12
Gunner’s Crew 25
Carpenter’s ditto 18
Sailmaker’s ditto 2
Cooper’s ditto 2
Yeoman of Store-room 1
Able Seamen
478
Ordinary ditto
Cook’s Mate 1
Barber 1
Purser’s Steward 1
Captain’s ditto 1
Captain’s Cook 1
Ward-room ditto 1
Ward-room Steward 1
Steward’s Mate 1
Landsman 1
Boys 31
Captain of Marines 1
Lieutenants 3
Sergeants 4
Corporals 4
Drummers 2
Privates 146

Total 850
“Eight hundred and fifty in one ship!”
“Yes, boys; and there were, perhaps, a thousand people on board
the Royal George when she went down at Spithead.”
“Dreadful! dreadful! How did it happen?”
“I will tell you, as well as I can. The ships in the royal navy are
sheathed with copper. The Royal George, the flag-ship of Admiral
Kempenfeldt, a first-rate, of a hundred and eight guns, had just
returned from a cruise, and required some repairs in her sheathing
and water-pipe. To do these repairs it was necessary to run her heavy
furniture to one side, and tilt her up, or to give her what shipwrights
call the parliament-heel. When the ship was in this position, with her
crew, and at least three hundred women on board,—for the vessel
was crowded with friends to welcome home the crew,—when the ship
was in this position a sudden squall, it is thought, came on,—though
I fear one of the lieutenants was sadly in fault,—and over she tipped;
down went the Royal George, with the admiral, officers, crew, and all
that were aboard!”
“What a terrible accident!”
“It was indeed a very terrible one! Seamen are usually very steady
in storms and dangers, but the crew of the Royal George foundered
without warning. You shall have an instance of the resolution of
seamen in a storm. The following relation is given by a young officer.
“‘The dead-lights were shipped, our hatches were battened down,
and eight men stationed to the relieving tackles in the gun-room. At
this period the sea was tremendously heavy, the ship rolling her
quarter-deck bulwarks under, although going at the rate of twelve
and a half knots per hour; the wind howled most dreadfully, and,
altogether, it was a most dismal sight to behold our ship’s company
shivering with cold and rain, not able to procure any refreshment,
the sea having soon washed out the galley fire; and it was impossible
to get at the spirit-room to splice the mainbrace; altogether it was
truly miserable.
“‘About three P. M. the fore-sail, although furled, was blown away
from the yard, and shortly afterwards the larboard main-top-sail
sheet went, and the sail flapped furiously against the top-mast and
main-mast head. At this critical juncture the spirit of the British
seaman was evinced; for, unless the sail was cut away, the main-mast
must be lost, and, as a necessary consequence, the vessel herself
would have a bad chance, if broached to the wind. It was a moment
of terrible suspense and anxiety to all hands, not one of whom could
stand or move on deck without holding on by the lifelines, passed
fore and aft; and even thus, two men had been washed overboard,
who were standing near the main-mast, and, strange to relate, the
next sea washed them in again, the bight of the fore-sheet having
caught them; but one had his neck terribly cut.
“‘In this extremity the captain had too much feeling and humanity
to order any men aloft, as it was deemed impossible for them to
succeed, and that their lives must be inevitably sacrificed in making
the attempt; however, the gunner, Mr. Collier, who had served as
chief gunner’s mate of the Shannon, in her splendid action with the
Chesapeake, and two seamen, whose names deserve to be handed
down to posterity, immediately volunteered their services. It was a
moment of extreme dread and anxiety, to behold these gallant
fellows mounting the shrouds at a period when the sea broke over
our lower yard-arms, and every roll of the ship threatened to consign
them to eternity. Each man on deck felt as if his own life were at
stake: when one of them, William Murray, the captain of the main-
top, laid out and cut away the larboard earing, while the gunner,
assisted by the other, whose name I regret at this distant period I
cannot bring to memory, severed the remaining top-sail sheet from
the main-yard: the sail rent asunder with a terrible crash, which was
heard far above the howling of the wind. The safety of the vessel thus
assured, what a joyous moment for these brave and daring fellows, as
they descended to receive the heartfelt cheers and gratulations of
their officers and shipmates, as fine a crew as ever trod a vessel’s
deck: it was a scene not to be soon forgotten, and calculated to
inspire confidence in the resources of British seamanship, and
courage under the most trying circumstances.’”
CHAPTER XIX.

Regimental bands.—Drum.—Trumpet.—Bugle.—Kettle-drum of the life-guards.


—Kettle-drum of the royal artillery.—Qualities in British soldiers.—The Rhine!
The Rhine!—Love of country.—Cowardice.—Death of Admiral Byng.—Native
cavalry in India.—Daring intrepidity of a seaman.—Preparations for an
engagement.—Battle of the Nile.—Superstitious seamen.—Saragossa.—
Missolonghi.

“You may never have heard, boys, the tread of a thousand men, all
putting down their feet to the ground at the same moment? There is
something arresting and awful in it—it goes to the heart at once.
Whether marching on the hard ground or on the soft green sod, in
either case there is no other sound like it, that I know of in the world.
The earth seems to shake beneath it.”
“Ay, when a whole regiment march together they must make a fine
tramping.”
“It is not so much the noise they make, as it is the particular sound
that I allude to; a lone, dull, heavy, and ponderous tread. A soldier
distinguishes it from every other sound in an instant. Some
regiments have excellent bands; but trumpets, bugles, drums and
fifes, are the prevailing musical instruments in the army. The spirit-
stirring voice of the trumpet, the stormy music of the rattling drum,
and the blast of the mellow bugle, sound grateful in a soldier’s ears.
The kettle-drums of the life-guards are silver, presented by King
William IV.”
“Of silver! Why, what a deal of money they must be worth!”
“The kettle-drum belonging to the royal regiment of artillery would
surprise you. It is mounted on a very superb waggon, richly gilt,
whereon is a seat for the drum-major-general, and it is drawn by
four, and sometimes by six, richly caparisoned white horses.”
“They must look very grand indeed. Can you tell us why drummers
and fifers wear such odd dresses? Their coats and jackets are very
different to what are worn by other soldiers.”
“I have heard that these odd dresses were originally intended to
prevent military musicians from playing in public houses, as they
used to do when they wore plain clothes.”
“Oh! oh! If they went into public houses to play now, every one
would know them directly.”
“The qualities in British soldiers that recommend themselves to
all, may be said to be cleanliness, order, obedience, fidelity, and
invincible courage; to which, among the officers, may be added
enterprize, and that quality so susceptible of injury and disgrace, and
so emulous of reputation, called honour. The love of country is
strong in almost every bosom, from the recruit to the commanding
officer. The Egyptians idolize the Nile, and the Hindoos worship the
Ganges, but their reverence and affection for their native rivers is
hardly greater than what is felt by the Germans for the Rhine. When
the armies of Austria and Prussia came in view of the Rhine, after
beating back the invader of their country Napoleon Buonaparte, they
fell down on their knees, and shouted, as with the voice of one man,
‘The Rhine! the Rhine!’ Englishmen love their country as much as
the Germans love the Rhine!”
“Every one ought to love his country.”
“Ay, boys! while you can pronounce her name, so long as your
hearts throb, and the ruddy drops run through your veins, love your
country!”
“Whether we are soldiers or not, we ought to do that.”
“Very true; and I hope you will find means to serve her without
unscabbarding a sword in her cause. True courage is not confined to
the army and navy; though cowardice is one of the blackest marks
that can be set on the brow of a soldier or a sailor. Admiral Byng was
shot at Portsmouth, suspected of cowardice, though he had given
many proofs of determined courage. The second regiment of native
cavalry fled before the Affghan horse, in the affair of Parwun Durra,
in Kohistan, changing, as it were, a triumph into a scene of
humiliation. The government of India could not brook this dishonour
without visiting it with its heaviest displeasure. Lord Auckland
directed that the dastardly troops and officers should be disgraced,
by obliterating the number of their regiment from the roll of the
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