BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH

TRƯỜNG ĐẠI HỌC VINH VÀO LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN

NĂM HỌC 2023-2024
Môn thi chuyên: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 13 trang)

SECTION A: LISTENING (30 points)

Task 1. For questions 1-5, you will hear people talking in five different situations. Listen and choose the
correct answer A, B, or C. Write your answers in the numbered spaces provided.
Question 1. You hear part of an interview with a pop singer. How does she feel about what happened?
A. Embarrassed by her mistake.
B. Angry with her tour manager.
C. Confused about what happened.
Question 2. You hear two people talking about a water-sports centre. What does the man say about the centre?
A. It should pay more attention to safety.
B. It should offer activities for small children.
C. It should provide all the equipment needed.
Question 3. You hear a professional tennis player talking about her career. What annoys her most about
interviews?
A. Their belief that she leads a glamorous life.
B. Their assumption that she’s motivated by money.
C. Their tendency to disturb her while she’s travelling.
Question 4. You hear two people talking about watching films on the Internet. What do they agree about?
A. The advantages of buying films online.
B. The usefulness of reading film reviews.
C. The pleasure of watching films at home.
Question 5. You hear two students talking about a holiday abroad. What do they agree about?
A. Foreign travel is harmful to the environment.
B. It is becoming more expensive to travel abroad.
C. Holidays are more enjoyable if you go abroad.
Task 2. For questions 6-13, listen and choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D. Write your answers in the
numbered spaces provided.
Conversation 1. Listen to part of a conversation between two students on campus.
Question 6. What is the main topic of this conversation?
A. The man’s graduation B. The couple’s engagement
C. The man’s smoking D. The man’s stress
Question 7. What does the woman suggest?
A. The man should rethink their plans. B. The man should see a doctor.
C. The man should see a psychiatrist. D. The man should concentrate on his studies.
Question 8. What does the man promise to do?
A. Get a patch to help him stop smoking. B. Stop smoking immediately on his own.
C. Smoke less than usual for the next month. D. Think about the woman’s suggestions.
Question 9. How does the man feel about the woman’s decision?
A. Patient B. Surprised
C. Worried D. Irritated
Conversation 2. Listen to part of a conversation between two students in a college dormitory.
Question 10. When will the cafeteria close?
A. At six o’clock B. At six thirty
C. Over the weekend D. On Monday
Question 11. What does Bill want John to do?
A. Bill wants John to study with him in the dormitory.
B. Bill wants John to go home with him for the weekend.

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 C. Bill wants John to let him know if he orders a pizza.
D. Bill wants John to find out what is being served in the cafeteria.
Question 12. Why is John studying?
A. He has a test that night. B. He plans to go home for the weekend.
C. He has not studied during the semester. D. He is helping his friend.
Question 13. What will Bill most probably do now?
A. Continue studying. B. Go to the cafeteria.
C. Cook dinner at home. D. Eat pizza.
Task 3. For questions 14-20, listen and complete the summary. Write ONE WORD ONLY. Write your
answers in the numbered spaces provided.
Preparing and Giving a Presentation
Initial thoughts
Most important consideration: your (14)
Three points to bear in mind:
● What they need to know
● How (15) they will be
● How big the audience will be
Structure
● Start with information that makes the audience pay attention
● Continue with details (facts, (16) , experiences, etc.)
● End with next steps
Design
● The presentation needs to be (17)
● Vary content by using a mix of words and graphics
Presenting
● Look at the audience, be (18) and energetic
● Voice - vary speed and tone
● Occasionally add silence to make the audience (19) your points
● Do not use weak verbs for greater impact (e.g. appears, seems)
Questions and Interruptions
● When asked a question, first of all you should repeat it
● Minimise interruptions by (20) them

SECTION B: LANGUAGE ELEMENTS (60 points)

PART 1. PHONETICS (7.5 points)
For questions 1-3, choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from that of the others. Write your answers in the numbered spaces provided.
Questio A. jolly B. supply C. army D. crystal
n 1.
Questio A. mutual B. enthusiasm C. rumour D. student
n 2.
Questio A. chaos B. chore C. each D. launch
n 3.
For questions 4-5, choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose primary stress is different from
that of the others. Write your answers in the numbered spaces provided.
Questio A. circumstance B. various C. amusing D. purposeful
n 4.
Questio A. oceanic B. legendary C. intonation D. energetic
n 5.

PART 2. GRAMMAR (22.5 points)

For questions 1-8, choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer. Write your answers in the
numbered spaces provided.
Question 1. I’d rather you anything about this to anyone.
A. don’t reveal B. didn’t reveal C. won’t reveal D. not reveal
Question 2. Lucy didn’t audition for the show. She the notice.
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 A. didn’t have to see B. needn’t have seen
C. can’t have seen D. shouldn’t have seen
Question 3. It was serious accident that he was kept in hospital for a month.

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 A. such B. such a C. so D. so a
Question 4. Keep your ticket you have to show it to an inspector.
A. if B. in case C. unless D. although
Question 5. Take the shortcut round the church late for school.
A. in order not be B. so that not to be
C. in order that we won’t be D. so that we couldn’t
Question 6. My dad a cup of coffee in the morning when he was at my age.
A. used to drink B. is used to drink C. gets used to drinking D. used to drinking
Question 7. By the end of next week, she her project.
A. will have finished B. will finish C. is finishing D. will be finished
Question 8. I have had my laptop , so I can work on the assignment now.
A. to fix B. fixed C. fixing D. being fixed
For questions 9-15, identify seven errors in the following passage and correct
them.
Line Healthy Mind, Healthy Body
“A healthy mind lives in a healthy body” is a saying that is believed having often been used
by the ancient Greeks. Thousands of years later, the same idea still applies. According to
health experts, it’s advisable to drinking eight to ten glasses of water every day. However,
water itself is not enough; a balanced diet is essential, too.
5 A healthy body naturally is the result of doing exercise. Many people, however, do not like
gyms and object to going there for a different lessons. Some, for instance, say that aerobic
sessions are too difficult to follow while others claim that gyms are just too expensive.
Many people also claim that they have difficulty of finding time to exercise due to their
hectic lifestyle, but the truth is that everyone can make a little time every now and
after.
10 Regardless of the way people choose to exercise, it is important to remember that there’s
some point in doing it only for a short period of time.
Last but not least, having a positive attitude and doing out with negative thoughts
contribute to one’s well-being. In short, following this simple advice surely helps in having
a healthy mind and body.

PART 3. VOCABULARY (30 points)

For questions 1-6, use the word given in capitals to form a word that best completes each sentence. Write
your answers in the numbered spaces provided.
Question 1. I’ll never forget the I felt in the situation.
HUMILIATE Question 2. That was a very thing to say. HURT
Question 3. On the ISS, have to attach themselves so they don’t float around.
ASTRONOMY Question 4. ‘War and Peace’ is a novel. HISTORY
Question 5. It’s of him to lose his temper like that. He’s usually very calm. CHARACTER
Question 6. plastic floats in the sea, which chokes and kills fish and other wildlife.
DEGRADE
For questions 7-10, choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word which best completes each sentence.
Write your answers in the numbered spaces provided.
Question 7. Global warming is a serious problem in the contemporary world. Therefore, all worldwide
governments need to action to address it.
A. make B. give C. do D. take
Question 8. First, we have to find out to what the drop in car imports is related to the increase of
interest rates.
A. extent B. level C. scale D. amount
Question 9. My brother wasn’t satisfied with the he was getting, so he decided to quit his job.
A. allowance B. income C. reward D. salary
Question 10. As the hospital had been careless with its hygiene procedures, the patient found she had been
with a harmful virus.
A. suspected B. infected C. rejected D. detected
For questions 11-12, choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in

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meaning to the underlined part. Write your answers in the numbered spaces provided.
Question 11. Our chief marketing officer is always diplomatic when she deals with angry clients.

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 A. strict B. outspoken C. firm D. tactful
Question 12. I’m tired of working in this thankless IT support job. I don’t want to be just a small cog in a
large machine anymore!
A. someone who is necessary but insignificant B. someone who plays a significant role
C. someone who is obedient D. someone who has no power
For questions 13-14, choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined part. Write your answers in the numbered spaces provided.
Question 13. We are now a 24/7 society where businesses and services must be open at all times.
A. a busy society B. a physical society C. an inactive society D. a working society
Question 14. After the scandal related to waste disposal at the company, questions were coming at the manager
thick and fast.
A. quickly B. mercifully C. excessively D. scarcely
For questions 15-20, choose the appropriate phrasal verb that best completes each sentence. There is one
extra phrasal verb which you do not need to use. Write your answers in the numbered spaces provided.
call off keep up blow up hit off
see off make up for put down
Question 15. The company’s poor performance was to high interest rates by the managing
director.
Question 16. The seller will the deal because he thinks the price is too low.
Question 17. I hope this award will your disappointment at not winning the first prize.
Question 18. The coach was very happy and encouraged the players to the good
work. Question 19. We have to the candles before leaving the room.
Question 20. Helen is going to the airport to some friends.

SECTION C: LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS (15 points)

For questions 1-10, choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
exchange. Write your answers in the numbered spaces provided.
Question 1. - John: “I’ve passed my final exam.” - Lucy: “ ”
A. Good luck! B. It’s nice of you to say so.
C. Congratulations! D. That’s a good idea.
Question 2. - Mary: “Let’s have a drink. What would you like?” - Anna: “ ”
A. Some coffee, please. B. It’s not good.
C. Some steak, please. D. Certainly. Here you are.
Question 3. - Student: “Could you help me to fax this report?” - Librarian: “ ”
A. Sorry, I have no idea. B. It’s very kind of you to say so.
C. What rubbish! I don’t think it’s helpful. D. Certainly, what’s the fax number?
Question 4. - Assistant: “Hello, can you put it through to Mr. John Smith?” - John Smith: “ ”
A. I’m John Smith. B. My name is John Smith.
C. John Smith is me. D. This is John Smith speaking.
Question 5. - Peter: “Shall I collect the tickets for you?” - Sam: “ ”
A. Yes. I think you shall. B. I’m afraid you shouldn’t.
C. No, you shouldn’t. D. That would be of great help.
Question 6. - Victoria: “Let’s catch up one of these days, shall we?” - David: “ ”
A. Sorry, I’m not too sporty! B. I know, it’s been exhausting.
C. Never mind. D. Yes, it’s been ages!
Question 7. - Harry: “Look! I just got an e-mail from Elise in France.” - Kate: “ ”
A. How exciting! I want to read it, too. B. Elise is a good girl.
C. Where is the email? D. I have never been to France.
Question 8. - Tom: “I thought your performance last Sunday was wonderful.” - Maya: “ ”
A. Don’t tell a lie. I thought it was terrible.
B. You must be kidding. It was not as good as I had expected.
C. I completely agree with you. It was terrific.
D. No doubt.
Question 9. - Kary: “Will you please spare me a few minutes right now?” - Laura: “ ”

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 A. No, I don’t. Because I have no time. B. Yes, but you should know that you’re so
irritating.
C. I am afraid not. But I’ll be free this evening. D. Yes, how about this evening?
Question 10. - Justin: “How you expect to be taken seriously in that outfit is beyond me.” - Selena:
“ ”
A. The venue was a perfect match, if I may say so. B. I found it quite appropriate, to be honest.
C. I reckon you have misinterpreted my proposal. D. Why do you always put yourself first?

SECTION D: READING (45 points)

For questions 1-7, read the following passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D.
Until about the seventeenth century, Irish was the normal everyday language of Ireland. At that time,
though, the English who had colonised the country began to impose their own language and the Irish people
gradually accepted this, mostly for economic reasons. All official business was conducted in English and the
British economy dominated the country. This practical motivation to use English grew even stronger when
people began to leave Ireland in vast numbers in the nineteenth century. Families thought that it would be
difficult to move to an English - speaking country such as America, Australia or England if they knew nothing
but Irish.
Nowadays it is estimated that little more than one per cent of the population of the country use Irish as their
daily first language. Even in the areas of the country which are supposed to be Irish speaking, the use of the
language is decreasing. These areas, known officially as the ‘Gaeltacht’, are mainly in the remote far west of
the country and have a total population of 83,000, of whom nearly all can speak Irish, although only about
30,000 use it as their normal language of communication. All children in Ireland have to learn Irish. Until 1973
pupils had to gain a pass in Irish if they were to be awarded their school leaving certificate. This rule was very
unpopular and was dropped. Pupils still have to take Irish for these examinations but it no longer seems to
matter very much if they fail.
Most children in primary schools seem to enjoy their Irish lessons but in secondary schools the situation is
often different. As examination pressure mounts, pupils often find Irish to be boring and irrelevant, as
compared with French or German, which can at least be useful for getting a job.
The most surprising development of recent years has been the rapid rise in the number of state schools in
towns that do all their main teaching in Irish. This is not a scheme imposed by the state but one that has grown
up in response to the demands of parents. Some parents send their children to these schools for patriotic
reasons, believing them to be a defense against the country being swamped with American and English culture.
Many other parents choose these schools simply because they see them as being better than the
English-language schools. They tend to be newer and to have smaller classes and better motivated teachers.
One criticism made of these schools is that they could be distracting pupils from learning ‘more useful’
modern languages. In fact, in modern languages, as in most subjects, these schools have results which are better
than the national average. Only time will tell whether the new rise in Irish in the towns will compensate for its
decline in the Irish-speaking areas of the rural west.
Question 1. Which of the following would make a suitable title for this passage?
A. Irish - End in Sight
B. Irish - Signs of Hope in the Towns
C. Irish - A Dead Language
D. Irish - Greater Importance in the Villages
Question 2. What do we learn from this passage about Ireland at the beginning of the 17th century?
A. Many people left for America, Australia, and England.
B. English had always been the language used in business.
C. The British began to invade the country.
D. People spoke Irish as their everyday language.
Question 3. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the “Gaeltacht” according to the passage?
A. 83,000 people use Irish as their normal language of communication.
B. Almost everybody uses Irish as their first language.
C. 30,000 people do not understand the Irish language.
D. There is a fall in the number of people using Irish as their first language.
Question 4. Why are French and German often more popular than Irish in secondary schools?
A. They are the required languages to guarantee pupils’ future jobs.

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 B. They are nowhere near boring as compared to the Irish language.
C. They enable pupils to get access to employment opportunities.
D. They help avoid psychological burden of examination on pupils.
Question 5. The government introduced schools where teaching was done in Irish because
A. they can ensure more feasible study records.
B. they can live up to parents’ expectations.
C. they can nurture pupils’ patriotism.
D. they employ more highly qualified teachers.
Question 6. The word “swamped” in paragraph 4 is CLOSEST in meaning to .
A. overwhelmed B. associated C. familiarized D. unrelated
Question 7. Some people have criticised these Irish language schools because
A. they act as a hindrance to pupils’ acquisition of modern languages.
B. they pose a challenge to schools’ modern language teaching.
C. they achieve only slightly better than average education results.
D. they tend to minimise the teaching of any useful subjects.
For questions 8-13, read the following passage and complete the tasks given.
Television and Sport
When the medium becomes the stadium
A. The relationship between television and sports is not widely thought of as problematic. For many people,
television is a simple medium through which sports can be played, replayed, slowed down, and of course
conveniently transmitted live to homes across the planet. What is often overlooked, however, is how television
networks have reshaped the very foundations of an industry that they claim only to document. Major television
stations immediately seized the revenue-generating prospects of televising sports and this has changed
everything, from how they are played to who has a chance to watch them.
B. Before television, for example, live matches could only be viewed in person. For the majority of fans, who
were unable to afford tickets to the top-flight matches, or to travel the long distances required to see them, the
only option was to attend a local game instead, where the stakes were much lower. As a result, thriving social
networks and sporting communities formed around the efforts of teams in the third and fourth divisions and
below. With the advent of live TV, however, premier matches suddenly became affordable and accessible to
hundreds of millions of new viewers. This shift in viewing patterns vacuumed out the support base of local
clubs, many of which ultimately folded.
C. For those on the more prosperous side of this shift in viewing behaviour, however, the financial rewards are
substantial. Television assisted in derailing long-held concerns in many sports about whether athletes should
remain amateurs or ‘go pro’, and replaced this system with a new paradigm where nearly all athletes are free to
pursue stardom and to make money from their sporting prowess. For the last few decades, top-level sports men
and women have signed lucrative endorsement deals and sponsorship contracts, turning many into
multi-millionaires and also allowing them to focus full-time on what really drives them. That they can do all
this without harming their prospects at the Olympic Games and other major competitions is a significant benefit
for these athletes.
Questions 8-10. The reading passage has three paragraphs A - C. Choose the correct heading from the list
below for each paragraph. There are two headings that you do not need to use. Write the correct number, i-
v, in the numbered spaces provided.
List of Headings
i. TV appeal influences sports’ success
ii. More money-making opportunities
iii. Lower-level teams lose out
iv. Tickets to top matches too expensive
v. A common misperception
Question 8. Paragraph A
Question 9. Paragraph B
Question 10. Paragraph C
Questions 11-13: Do the following statements agree with the information given in the passage? Write:
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information

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 NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
Question 11. The average sports fan travelled a long way to watch matches before live television broadcasts.
Question 12. Television has reduced the significance of an athlete’s amateur status.
Question 13. The best athletes are now more interested in financial success rather than sporting achievement.
For questions 14-23, read the following passage and fill in each blank with ONE WORD. Write your
answers in the numbered spaces provided.
A new message appeared high on the side of an old high-rise building in the centre of Alaska. The message
read “Looking for love again”.
(14) street-level below, chalkboards were fixed to the walls for people to (15) down
memories of the building’s past and dreams for its future. The deserted tower block was the Polaris Building,
(16) an appealing apartment complex, then a hotel, (17) had successful
shops and restaurants, but now a space that had been empty for more than a decade. This eye-catching project
was focusing (18) a forgotten place and asking how we could make it something useful again. It
provided a way for citizens to influence its future and almost (19) wanted the building repaired
and restored, (20) than demolished. Ideas for its new life ranged from creating a theatre and
performing arts school, or developing a recreational centre, including a roller rink, (21) creating a
huge, highly economical greenhouse to produce cheaper local food. Everyone wanted to recreate (22)
dynamic space of the past – a focal point for the local community. Today, the building is still for
sale. What will it be in the (23) ?
For questions 24-30, read the following passage. Seven sentences have been removed. Choose from the
sentences A-H the one which fits each gap. There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use. Write
your answers in the numbered spaces provided.
$150,000 for a pet dog, just like your last
one Snuppy: the first cloned dog in the
world
A Californian dog-lover has agreed to pay $150,000 to have her dead pit bull recreated in the world’s first
commercial pet cloning project. (24) . South Korean scientists will now use the tissue to attempt to
create an exact replica of the pet.
(25) . The work will be carried out by a team of Seoul National University (SNU) scientists
under the direction of Professor Lee Byeong-chun, a key member of the research team headed by disgraced
stem cell scientist Hwang Woo-suk. (26) . But the SNU team was successful in creating the
world’s first dog clone, an Afghan hound named “Snuppy”.
Bernann McKunney is the American woman who really misses her dead dog. (27) . Specific
breeds of pit bull are banned or restricted in several countries including the UK, New Zealand and Canada, but
not in the USA.
Cho Seong-ryul, RNL’s marketing director, said the company’s success rate for producing dogs by cloning
was high with around one out of every four surrogate mother dogs producing cloned puppies. (28)

. The scientists and Mrs. McKunney are hoping that at least one of these will develop into a healthy puppy.
(29) . “But it won’t be the last. Cloning is fast becoming an industry”. (30) . RNL
Bio plans eventually to focus on cloning not only pets, but also special dogs like those trained to sniff out
bombs.
A. She is thought to have become especially attached to it after the pit bull saved her life when another dog
attacked her
B. The latter achieved notoriety last year when his well-publicised breakthroughs in cloning human stem cells
were discovered to be fake
C. Increasing demand means the cost for cloning a dog may come down to less than $50,000
D. The dog, named Booger, died a year and a half ago but his owner kept part of the dog’s ear in cold storage
E. “If successful, this will mark the first time that a dog has been cloned in a commercial contract,” Cho said
F. In this case, cells have been extracted from Booger’s ear tissue and inserted into the eggs of living dogs
G. Nevertheless, some people are worried that human cloning is an inevitable development
H. RNL Bio, based in Seoul, said it is already working on the order.

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 SECTION E: WRITING (50 points)
Task 1. For questions 1-10, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one,
using the word given. Do not change the word given.
Question 1. Mary didn’t ring us last night because she knew we were going out. WOULD
◻ Mary us last night if she hadn’t known we were going out.
Question 2. There wasn’t a single ticket left for the concert, so we couldn’t go. SOLD OUT
◻ All the tickets , so we couldn’t go.
Question 3. Shortly after Sue and Brian met, he announced they were getting married. SOONER
◻ No he announced they were getting married.
Question 4. Everyone apart from John thought that Lisa would get the job. PERSON
◻ John was not expect Lisa to get the job.
Question 5. Sharon will finish her exams. Then she will have more free time. FINISHED
◻ Once , she will have more free time.
Question 6. This course will take us six months to complete. BEEN
◻ In six months’ time, this course .
Question 7. The boss was annoyed because his secretary came to work late. OBJECTED
◻ The boss to work late.
Question 8. They have been building their dream home for the past 10 years. UNDER
◻ Their dream home for the past 10 years.
Question 9. Experts believe that the landslides were caused by recent floods. RESULTED
◻ The landslides are recent floods.
Question 10. In the class, Ken is much better than all other students at Chemistry. HEAD
◻ In the class, Ken stands all other students at
Chemistry. Task 2. For questions 11-20, complete the letter by writing the sentences using the given
words. You should change the form of the words and add punctuation if necessary.
Dear University of Plymouth,
Question 11. I / write / thank / International Scholarship.
◻
Question 12. I / happy / selected / recipient / scholarship.
◻
Question 13. I / biology student / and / plan / pursue / career / pharmacy.
◻
Question 14. I / currently / sophomore / and / plan / graduate / the / fall / 2026.
◻
Question 15. After graduation / I / going / attend / pharmacy school / earn / pharmaceutical degree.
◻
Question 16. Thanks / your / offer / I / step / closer / that / goal.
◻
Question 17. By / award / me / scholarship / you / lighten / financial burden.
◻
Question 18. This / allow / me / focus / more / learning.
◻
Question 19. Your / generosity / inspired / help / others / and / give back / community.
◻
Question 20. I / hope / one day / I / able / help / students / achieve / goals / as / you / helped / me.
◻
Sincerely,
James Gordon
Task 3. Write an essay about the following topic:
Many people assume that in the process of decision-making, students need to ask parents and teachers for
advice instead of relying on themselves.
To what extent do you agree or disagree?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge and experience.
Write at least 200 words.
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