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Territorial Army Practice Test Paper SET-3

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Territorial Previous Year Paper

Official Practice Test
Army Paper SET-3

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PRELIMINARY INTERVIEW BOARD

TERRITORIAL ARMY COMMISSION : PRACTICE TEST PAPER - 3
PAPER–1: REASONING & ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS A1
Max Time : 2 Hours (Please Read The Instructions Carefully) Max Marks : 100
Roll No……………………….. INSTRUCTIONS

1. Paper 1 has two parts: Part I & Part II

(a) Part I : Reasoning (50 marks)
(b) Part II: Elementary Mathematics (50 marks)
2. Each section carries 50 objectives type of questions.
3. There will be four possible answers to every question. Candidates are required to fill correct answer in the OMR sheet

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with Black ball pen.

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4. For each correct answer, 1 mark will be granted and 0.33 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.
5. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer and 0.33 mark will be deducted.
There will be no penalty for questions left unanswered.
6.

7.
rough work. m
Candidates should not mark in the question paper. They can use blank pages provided in the question paper for

To be eligible to qualify, a candidate must obtain minimum 40% marks each in Part I & II separately and a minimum
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of 50% aggregate in total.
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PART–1 : REASONING

Direction In each of the following question a number of series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative
or

that will continue the same pattern.

Q1. 4, 7, 12, 19, 28, ?
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(a) 30 (b) 36 (c) 39 (d) 49

Q2. 4, 9 , ? , 39
9 20 86
ter

(a) 17 (b) 19 (c) 20 (d) 29

40 42 45 53

Direction In each of the following questions, various terms of an alphabet series are given with one missing term as shown
by (?) choose the missing term out of the given alternatives.
w.

Q3. B, D, F, I, L, P, ?
(a) R (b) S (c) T (d) U
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Q4. BZA, DYC, FXE, ?, JVI ?

(a) HUG (b) HWG (c) UHG (d) WHG

Q5. m _ nm _ n _ an _ a _ ma _
(a) aamnan (b) ammanm (c) aammnn (d) amammn

Q6. Q1F, S2E, U6D, W21C, ?

(a) Y44B (b) Y66B (c) Y88B (d) Z88B

Direction Choose the correct alternative which shows the same relationship.

Q7. Mountain Valley :: Genius : ?

(a) Brain (b) Idiot (c) Think (d) Intelligence

Q8. House : Garbage :: Ore : ?

(a) Rubbish (b) Gangue (c) Sand (d) Dregs

Q9. Ottawa: Canada :: Canberra : ?

(a) Argentina (b) Switzerland (c) Sri Lanka (d) Australia

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Direction Choose the correct alternative which shows the same group relationship.

Q10. Rice: Wheat: Maize : ?

(a) Jowar–Bajra (b) Tobacco (c) Jute (d) Cotton

Q11. Necklace : Ring : Bangle : ?

(a) Belt (b) Ornaments (c) Bracelet (d) Jewellery

Direction Choose the odd one out.

Q12. Find the odd one out.

(a) Eye (b) Ear (c) Nose (d) Brain

Q13. Find the odd one out.

(a) Almirah (b) Rack (c) Safe (d) Cupboard

Directions: In each of the following questions, certain pairs of words are given, out of which the words in all pairs except
one, bear a certain common relationship. Choose the pair in which the words are differently related

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Q14. (a) Tree : Stem (b)Face : Eye (c) Chair: Sofa (d) Plant : Flower

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Q15. (a) Class: Students (b) Sentence : Words (c) Tree: Forest (d) Hour : Minutes

Q16. If in a certain language, MIRACLE is coded as NKUEHRL, then how is GAMBLE coded in that language?
(a) JDOCMF (b) CLEMNK (c) HCPFQK (d) AELGMN

(a) A (b) T (c) U

m
Q17. If BE QUICK is coded as ZC OSGAI, then the code of the last letter of the third word in the sentence I LOVE MY COUNTRY
is
(d) W
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Q18. If wall’ is called window’, ‘window’ is called ‘door’, ‘door’ is called ‘floor’, ‘floor’ is called ‘roof and roof is called ventilator’,
what will a person stand on?
(a) Window (b) Wall (c) Floor (d) Roof
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Q19. If air is called ‘green’, ‘green’ is called ‘blue’, ‘blue’ s called ‘sky’, ‘sky’ is called yellow’, yellow’ is called is water and
water’ is called ‘pink’, then what is the colour of clear sky?
(a) Blue (b) Sky (c) Yellow (d) Water
or

Q20. Introducing a man, a woman said, “He is the only son of my mother’s mother.” How is the woman related to the man?
(a) Mother (b) Aunt (c) Sister (d) Niece
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Q21. Pointing to a lady on the platform, Manju said, “She is the sister of the father of my mother’s son.” Who is the lady to
Manju?
(a) Mother (b) Sister (c) Aunt (d) Niece
ter

Q22. A, P, R, X, S and Z are sitting in a row. S and Z are in the centre, and A and P are at the ends. R is sitting on the left of A.
Then who is sitting on the right of P?
(a) A (b) S (c) X (d) Z

Q23. Daksh is taller than Manick but not as tall as Rohan. Somesh is shorter than Daksh but taller than Farhan. Who among
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them is the shortest?

(a) Daksh (b) Manick (c) Farhan (d) Cannot be determined

Q24. A villager went to meet his uncle in another village situated 5 km away in the North–east direction of his own village.
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From there he came to meet his father–in–law living in a village situated 4 km in the south of his uncle’s village. How far
away and in which direction is he now?
(a) 3 km in the North (b) 3 km in the East (c) 4 km in the East (d) 4 km in the West

Q25. Pinky walks a distance of 600 m towards East, turns left and moves 500 m, then turns left and walks 600 m and then turns
left again and moves 500 m and halts. At what distance (in m) is she from the starting point?
(a) 0 (b) 600 (c) 500 (d) 2200

Q26. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Thief, Criminal and Police?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Q27. Which of the following diagrams indicates best relation between Pigeon, Bird and Dog?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

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Q28. In the given figure, which letter represents those Actors who are also Dancers, Singers as well as Violinists?

Singers

L R Violinists
P Q U
O S TN

K
Actors
(a) S (b) Q (c) P (d) U

Q29. In a row of boys, A is fifteenth from the left and B is fourth from the right. There are three boys between A and B. C is just
left of A. What is C’s position from the right?
(a) 9th (b) 10th (c) 12th (d) 13th

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Q30. Forty boys are standing in a row facing the North. Amit is eleventh from the left and Deepak is thirty first from the right
end of the row. How far will Shreya, who is third to the right of Amit in the row, be from Deepak?

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(a) 2nd (b) 3rd (c) 4th (d) 5th

Q31. Standing on a platform, Amit told Sunits that Aligarh was more than ten kilometres but less than fifteen kilometres from
there. Sunita knew that it was more than twelve but less than fourteen kilometres from there. If both of them were correct,

(b) 12 km
m
which of the following could be the distance of Aligarh from the platform?
(a) 11 km (c) 13 km (d) 14 km

Q32. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a week day. Next day he forwarded it to the table of the
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senior clerk, who was on leave that day. The senior clerk next day evening put up the application to the desk officer. Desk
officer studied the application and disposed of the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day was the application
received by the inward clerk?
(a) Monday (b) Tuesday (c) Wednesday (d) Earlier week’s Saturday
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Q33. If ÷ means ×, × means +, + means – and – means ÷, find the value of 16 × 3 + 5 – 2 ÷ 4.

(a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 19 (d) None of these
or

Q34. If × means –,+ means ÷, – means × and ÷ means +, then 15 – 2 + 900 + 90 × 100 =?
(a) 190 (b) 180 (c) 90 (d) None of these

Q35. If P denotes ‘multiplied by’, T denotes ‘subtracted from’, M denotes ‘added to’ and B denotes ‘divided by’, then 28 B 7 P
rit

8T6M4=?
3
(a) – (b) 30 (c) 32 (d) 34
2
Q36. Find the missing term.
ter

6 11 25
8 6 16
12 5 ?
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(a) 18 (b) 16 (c) 12 (d) 10

Q37. Find the missing term.

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1 3 7
5 12 14
25 ? 28
125 192 56

(a) 64 (b) 56 (c) 48 (d) 40

Q38. Find the missing term.

4C 2B 3A
28A ? 45B
7C 5A 15B

(a) 10C (b) 12C (c) 13C (d) 7C

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Q39. Find the missing character in the following figure.

? 8

216 27

125 64

(a) 4 (b) 305 (c) 343 (d) 729

Q40. Find the missing character in the following figure.

93 27 79 38 67 16

63 37 42

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3 4 ?

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(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 9

Q41. Find the missing character in the following figure.

49
36
26 64 81
9
21 25 64
25
? 144
m
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25 16 36
(a) 19 (b) 23 (c) 25 (d) 31
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Direction Consider the given statements to be true and decide which of the given conclusion/assumptions can definitely be
drawn from the given statement
or

Q42. Statements All pens are roads. All roads are houses.
Conclusions: I All houses are pens.
II. Some houses are pens.
(a) if only conclusion I follows; (b) if only conclusion II follows;
rit

(c) if neither conclusion I nor II follows; (d) if both conclusions I and II follow.

Q43. Statements All good athletes win. All good athletes eat well.
Conclusions : I. All those who eat well are good athletes.
ter

II. All those who win eat well.

(a) if only conclusion I follows; (b) if only conclusion II follows;
(c) if neither conclusion I nor II follows; (d) if both conclusions I and II follow.

Q44. Statements: All birds are tall. Some tall are hens.
w.

Conclusion : I. Some birds are hens.

II. Some hens are tall.
(a) if only conclusion I follows; (b) if only conclusion II follows;
(c) if neither conclusion I nor II follows; (d) if both conclusions I and II follow.
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Direction Each of the problems, contains four figures marked as (A), (B), (C), (D) and answer figures marked as (a), (b), (c) and
(d). Select a figure from amongst the answer figures which will continue in the same series as given in the problem figure.

Q45. Find out the next figure

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Q46. Find out the next figure

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

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Direction Each of the following problems, contains 4 figures marked (a), (b), (c), (d). Find the odd figure.

Q47.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Q48.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Q49. How many triangles are there puzzles .

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(a) 16 (b) 18 (c) 14 (d) 15

Q50. How many maximum squares are in the following figure?

m
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(a) 18 (b) 19 (c) 25 (d) 27

.
or
rit
ter
w.
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PART–II : ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS

Q51. Find the value of x if 140√x + 315 = 1015

(a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 35 (d) 40

Q52. The value of ( √2 1– 2 + )

1 + √2 + 2 is ;
√2 + 2
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) √2 (d) None of these

Q53. The sum of factors of 1520 except the unity is

(a) 3720 (b) 3721 (c) 3190 (d) 3719

Q54. If a* b* c = (a + 2) (b + 3) = then the value of (6* 15* 3) is

c+1
(a) 6 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) can't the overhead

Q55. Lieutenant Kalia when arranged all his 1500 soldiers in such a way that the number of soldiers in a line were the same as

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there were the number of lines. So he was left with 56 soldiers, who were not a part of this arrangement . The number of
lines in this arrangement is:

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(a) 44 (b) 36 (c) 38 (d) None of these

Q56. √289 ÷ √x = 1 then the value of x is

5
(a) 17 (b) 34 (c) 235

Q57.
25
xa a+b
( ) ( ) ( )
xb
×
xb b+c
xc
×
35
xc c+a
xa
m (d) 7225
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(a) 1 (b) –1 (c) 0 (d) 2
1 1 1
Q58. If x + y + z = 0 then the value of (x + y + z)3 is
3 3 3

(a) 27 (b) 27xyz (c) 81 (d) (xyz)3

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1 –1
Q59. If x= 2 3 + 2 3 then the value of 2x3 is:
(a) 6x + 5 (b) 5x + 6 (c) 6x – 5 (d) 5x – 6
or

Q60. log cot 1° + log cot 2° + –––– log cot 89°

(a) 0 (b) –1 (c) 1 (d) 2

Q61. If 3n =27 then 3n–2.

rit

(a) 3 (b) 1 (c) 1 (d) 9

2 9
1
Q62. If sin θ – cos θ = then the value of sin θ + cos θ .
2
ter

(a) √7 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) –1

2
Q63. tan (x + y) tan (x – y) = 1 then the value of tan x.
(a) 1 (b) 1 (c) 1 (d) √3
2 √3
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Q64. The perimeters of two similar triangles ∆ABC and ∆PQR are 36 cm. and 24cm. respectively. If PQ = 10 cm. then AB is:
(a) 10cm. (b) 15cm. (c) 20cm. (d) 25cm.

Q65. By selling 9 articles for a rupee, a man incurred a loss of 4% to make a gain of 44% the number of articles to be sold for a
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rupee is:
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 5

Q66. An arc of a circle of radius 42 cm subtends an angle s of 15° at the centre. The length of the arc is [Take = 22 ]
7
(a) 11cm. (b) 12cm. (c) 44 cm. (d) 88 cm.
5 5
Q67. If x= 2 + √3 then the value of √x + 1 is
√x
(a) √6 (b) 2√6 (c) 6 (d) √3
√2
Q68. A can do a piece of work is 6 days , B is 10 days and c is 15 days together they can complete the work in:
(a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 3

Q69. Vinod purchased a Maruti van for ` 1,96,000 and rate of depreciation is 14 2 %. The value of van after 2 years.
7
(a) `1,44,000 (b) `1,40,000 (c) `1,68,000 (d) `1,70,000

Q70. In a school 10% of the number of boys are same in the number as 1 th of the number of girls. What is the ratio of boys to
4
girls in that school?
(a) 3 : 2 (b) 5 : 2 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 4 : 3

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√3 – √2 √3 + √2
then the value of a + b
2 2
Q71. If a = b=
√3 + √2 √3 – √2 b a
(a) 970 (b) 1030 (c) 930 (d) 900

Q72. From a point within an equilateral triangle perpendiculars, drawn to the three sides are 6cm, 7cm, and 8cm. respectively
the length of the side of the triangle is
14√3
(a) 7cm. (b) 10.5cm. (c) 14√3 cm. (d)
3
Q73. Let ∆ABC ~ ∆DEF and then areas be, respectively 64 cm2 and 121cm2. If EF = 15.4 cm. find BC.
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 11.2

Q74. In ∆ABC, AB = 6√3 cm. AC = 12cm. BC = 6cm. then find ∠B

(a) 120° (b) 60° (c) 90° (d) 45°

Q75. ∆ABC is an equilateral ∆ of side 2a. Find each of its altitude.

(a) 3a (b) a (c) 4a (d) √3 a

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Q76. An aeroplane leaves an airport and flies due north at a speed of 1000 km per hour. At the same time another aeroplane
leaves the same airport and flies due went at a speed of 1200 km per hour. How far apart will be the two planes after 1 1

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hours. 2
(a) 300km (b) 410km (c) 300√61 km (d) 500km

Q77. Find the values of y for which the distance between the points P (2, –3) and Q (10, y) is 10 units.
(a) (0, 2) (b) (2, 3)

m (c) (4, 6) (d) (3,–9)

Q78. If the points A (6,1) B (8,2), C (9,4) and D (p,3) are the vertices of a parallelogram taken in order, find the value of p.
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
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Q79. In a right ∆ABC right angled at B if tan A = 1 value of 2 sin A cos A
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) –1 (d) 2

Q80. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from two points at a distance of 4m and 9m from the base of power and in the
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same straight line with it are complementary. Height of tower is

(a) 8m. (b) 10m. (c) 6m. (d) None of these
or

Q81. A tangent PQ at a point P of a circle of radius 5cm meets a line through the centre O at a point Q so that OQ = 12cm. length
PQ is
(a) 12cm. (b) 13cm. (c) 8.5cm. (d) √119 cm.
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Q82. The wheels of a car are of diameter 80cm. each. How many complete revolutions does each wheel make in 10 minutes
when the car is travelling at a speed of 66km/h.?
(a) 4375 (b) 4300 (c) 4200. (d) 4500
ter

Q83. If the perimeter and the area of a circle arc numerically equal, then the radius of the circle is
(a) 2units (b) π units (c) 4units (d) 7units

Q84. A chord of a circle of radius 15 cm subtends deals an angle 60° at the centre find the area of corresponding minor segment
of the circle. (use π = 3.14 and √3 = 1.73)
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(a) 20cm2 (b) 15cm2 (c) 24.44cm2 (d) 30cm2

Q85. A metallic sphere of radius 4.2cm. is melted and recast into the shape of a cylinder of radius 6cm. Find the height of the
cylinder.
(a) 2.5cm. (b) 2.6cm. (c) 2.744cm. (d) 2.8cm.
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Q86. A hemipherical tank full of water is emptied by a pipe at the rate of 3 liters. per second. How many time will it take to
empty half the tank if it is 3m in diameter?(Take π = 22 )
(a) 16.5min. (b) 16min. 7 (c) 17min. (d) 18min.

Q87. A drinking glass is in the shape of a frustum of cone of height 14cm. The diameters of its two circular ends are 4cm and
2cm. Find the capacity of the glass.
(a) 300cm3 (b) 200cm3 (c) 308cm3 (d) 400cm3

Q88. A die is thrown once. Find the probability of getting a prime number.
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 2
2
Q89. The diagonal of a square A is (a + b). The diagonal of a square whose area is twice the area of square A.
(a) 2(a + b) (b) 2(a + b)2 (c) √2(a + b) (d) √2(a – b)

Q90. A man spends 40% of his monthly on food and one third of the remaining on transport. If he saves `4500 per month, which
is half money after spending an food and transport, his monthly salary is
(a) `11250 (b) `22500 (c) `25000 (d) `45000

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Q91. The selling price of 12 articles is equal to the cost price of 15 articles. The gain percent is
(a) 25% (b) 80% (c) 6 2 % (d) 20%
3
Q92. In 45 litre of phenol water the ratio of phenol to water is 2:23. The amount of water that should be added to it to make the
ratio 3:37 is
(a) 5L. (b) 2L. (c) 4L. (d) 3L.

Q93. ABCD is a trapezium such that AB = CD, AD || BC AD = 7cm and BC = 11cm. If area of trapezium ABCD is 54sq.cm. then
value of CD is
(a) √29cm. (b) 2√10cm. (c) √21cm. (d) None of these

Q94. If P = 4xy then find the value of P + 2x + P + 2y

x+y P – 2x P + 2y
(a) 4 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 6

Q95. In the given figure, AB is diameter of the circle, C lie on the semicircle. ∠ABC = 65° and ∠CAD=45° find ∠DCA = ?
D C

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45°

m
°
65

A B
(a) 45° (b) 25° (c) 20° (d) None of there
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Q96. If x2 + y2 + z2 + 2 = 2(y – x) then find the value of x3 + y3 + z3 :
(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 1

Q97. Find the greatest number that will divide 148, 246 and 623 leaving remainders 4,6 and 11 respectively.
(a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 14 (d) 15
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Q98. Tea costing ` 136 a kilogram is mixed with tea costing ` 141 a kilogram in the ratio 2:3. The cost of one kilorgram of the
mixture is
or

(a) `138 (b) `138.50 (c) `139 (d) `139.50

Q99. A copper wire when bent in the form of square, encloses a region having area 121cm2. If the same wire is bent in the form
of a circle, then the area of the region enclosed by the wire will be (Take π = 22 )
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(a) 154cm2 (b) 143cm2 (c) 132cm2 (d) 121cm2

Q100. A train cross a telegraph post in 8seconds and a bridge 200m. long in 24 seconds. What is the length of the train?
(a) 100m. (b) 120m. (c) 140m. (d) 160m.
ter
w.
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PART–I : REASONING
ANSWER PRACTICE TEST PAPER - 3

1. (c) 39 12. (d) Brain

Explanation: Explanation: All except Brain are sense organs.
The pattern is +3, + 5, +7,+ 9, ..... So, missing term =
28 + 11 = 39 13. (b) Rack
Explanation: All except Rack can be closed.
2. (b) 19
42
Explanation: 14. (c) Chair: Sofa
The sequence in the numerators is + 5,+ 10, + 20, and
Explanation: In all other pairs, second is a part of the
that in the denominators is + 11, + 22, + 44,..... So, the
first.
numerator of the missing fraction should 910) i.e. 19 and
the denominator should be ( be (20+22) Le. 42. Thus, the

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missing term is 19 15. (c) Tree: Forest
42 Explanation: In all other pairs, second is a unit of the

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3. (c) T first.
Explanation:
16. (c) HCPFQK
T

4.
B +2

(b) HWG
D +2
F +3
I +3
L +4
P +4

m Explanation: The first, second, third, fourth, fifth, sixth

and seventh letters in the word are moved one, two, three,
four, five, six and seven steps forward respectively to
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obtain the corresponding letters of the code.
Explanation:
+2 +2 +2 H +2 17. (d) W
Ist Letter : B D F J
Explanation: Each letter in the given message is moved
W
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–1 –1 –1 –1 two steps backward to obtain the corresponding letter of

IInd Letter : Z T X V
the code.
+2 +2 +2 G +2
IIIrd Letter : A C E I The last letter of the third word in the given sentence is
or

Y, which shall be coded as W

5. (c) aammnn
Explanation: The series is man/man/man/man/man. 18. (d) Roof
rit

Thus, the pattern ‘man’ is repeated. Explanation: A person will stand on the floor and floor’ is
called roof. So, a person will stand on the roof.
6. (c) Y88B
ter

Explanation: 19. (b) Sky

Explanation: The colour of clear sky is ‘blue’ and as given,
+2 +2 +2 +2 Y
Ist Letter : Q S U W ‘blue’ is called ‘sky’. So, the colour of clear sky is ‘sky’.

88
w.

IInd Letter : 1 ×1 +1 2 ×2 +2 6 ×3 +3 21 ×4 +4 20. (d) Niece

B Explanation: Mother’s mother– Maternal grandmother;

–1 –1 –1 –1 –1
IIIrd Letter : F E D 11 C Maternal grandmother’s only son– Maternal uncle. So,
the man is woman’s maternal uncle i.e. the woman is
ww

7. (b) Idiot man’s niece.

Explanation: The words in each pair are antonyms of
each other. 21. (c) Aunt
Explanation: Manju’s mother’s son–Manju’s brother,
8. (b) Gangue Manju’s brother’s father– Manju’s father; Manju’s
father’s sister– Manju’s aunt.
Explanation: The waste of the house is called garbage.
Similarly, the impurities in the ore are called gangue.
22. (c) X
9. (d) Australia Explanation: R is on the left of A i.e. R. A.
Explanation: Ottawa is the capital of Canada and A and P are at the ends i.e. P,_ ,_ ,_ , R, A.
Canberra is the capital of Australia. S and Z are at the centre i.e. P,_ , S, Z, R, A.
Thus, the arrangement in the row is: P, X, S, Z, R, A.
10. (a) Jowar–Bajra
Clearly, X is on the right of P.
Explanation: All are food crops.
23. (d) Cannot be determined
11. (c) Bracelet
Explanation: In terms of heights, we have:
Explanation: All are items of jewellery

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Rohan > Daksh> Manick, Daksh > Somesh > Farhan. 28. (b) Q
Thus, the whole sequence may be: Explanation: Letter Q represents those Actors who are
(i) Rohan > Daksh> Manick> Somesh > Farhan; or also Dancers, Singers as well as violinists.

(ii) Rohan > Daksh > Somesh > Manick > Farhan; or
29. (a) 9th
(iii) Rohan > Daksh> Somesh > Farhan > Manick.
Explanation: Number of boys the row = (15+4+3) = 22.
Thus, either Manick or Farhan may be the shortest. So,
C is just left of A. So, C is 14th from the left end. Number
the given information is insufficient.
of boys to the right of C = (22 – 14) = 8

24. (b) 3 km in the East So, C is 9th from the right end of the row.

Explanation: The villager moves from his village at O to

30. (c) 4th
his uncle’s village at A and thereafter to his father–in–
law’s village at B. Fig. Explanation: Number of boys to the left of Deepak = (40
– 31) = 9.
Clearly, ∆OBA is right–angled at B.

n
So, Deepak is 10th from the left end. Shreya is third to the
So, OA2 = OB2+ AB2
right of Amit. So, Shreya is 14th from the left end.

y.i
⇒OB2 = OA2 – AB2
Clearly, Shreya is fourth to the right of Deepak.
⇒ OB = √(25 – 16) km =(√9 )km = 2 km.
Thus, B is 3 km to the east of his initial position O.
A

m31. (c) 13 km
Explanation: Clearly, according to Sunita, the distance
was more than 12 km but less than 14 km, which is 13
m
5k

4km
lar
km.

32. (c) Wednesday

O B
Explanation: Desk officer received the application on
ia

Friday. Clearly, the application was forwarded to the

25. (a) 0 table of the senior clerk on Thursday. So, the application
Explanation: Pinky is 0M far from the starting point. was received by the inward clerk on Wednesday.
or

600M
33. (a) 9
Explanation: Using the correct symbols, we have:
rit

500M 500M
5
Given expression = 16 + 3 – 5 ÷ 2 × 4 = 16 +3 – × 4
2
= 19 – 10 = 9
Starting point 600M
ter

34. (d) None of these

26. (a) Explanation: Using the correct symbols, we have:

Explanation: Given expression = 15 × 2 + 900 ÷ 90 – 100 = 30

w.

+ 10 – 100 = – 60.
Thief
35. (b) 30
ww

Explanation: Using the correct symbols, we have:

Given expression = 28 ÷ 7 × 8 – 6 + 4
Police = 4 × 8 – 6 + 4 = 32 – 6 + 4 = 36 – 6 = 30.
Criminal

27. (a) 36. (b) 16

Explanation: Pigeon is a bird and dog is an animal. Explanation: In the first row, 11 × 2 + (6 ÷ 2) = 25.
In the second row, 6 × 2 + (8 ÷ 2) = 16.
Pigeon ∴ In the third row, missing number = 5 × 2 + (12 ÷ 2)
Dog = 10 + 6 = 16.

37. (c) 48
Explanation: The sequence in first column is × 5 .
Bird Thus, 1 × 5 = 5, 5 × 5 = 25, 25 × 5 = 125.
The sequence in third column is × 2. Thus, 7 × 2 = 14,
14 × 2 = 28, 28 × 2 = 56.

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46. (d)
The sequence in second column is × 4.
Explanation: Similar figure repeats in every second step.
∴ Missing number = 12 × 4 = 48 Each time a particular figure reappears, it gets laterally
inverte
38. (a) 10C
Explanation: In each row, out of the letters A, B and 47. (d)
C, each of these must appear once. In each column, the Explanation: Figure (d) consists of five line segments
product of the first and third numbers is equal to the while each one of the other figures consists of four line
second number. So, the missing number will be (2 × 5) segments.
i.e., 10 and the letter will be C.
Thus, the answer is 10C. 48. (b)
Explanation: All other figures can be rotated into each
39. (c) 343 other.
Explanation: Moving clockwise, the terms are: 23, 33, 43,

n
53, 63, 73. 49. (b) 18
Explanation: We may label the figure as shown.

y.i
40. (d) 9 The simplest triangles are
BFG, CGH, EFM, FMG. B C
Explanation: We have: 93 – (27 + 63) = 3;
GMN, GHN, HNI, LMK,
79 – (38 + 37) = 4. MNK and KNJ Le.. 10 in F H
G

41.
So, missing number 67 – (16 + 42) = 9.

(d) 31
m number.
The triangles composed of
three coniponents each are
A
E
M

K
N I

J D
lar
FAK and HKD te, 2 in L
Explanation: We have: √36 + √64 + √25 +√49 = 26; number. The triangles
composed of four components each. are BEN, CMI, GLJ
√9 +√25 + √16 + √81 = 21.
and FHK i.e., 4 in number.
So, missing number = √25 + √144 + √36 + √64 The triangles composed of eight components each are
ia

= (5 + 12 + 6 + 8) = 31. BAJ and CLD i.e., 2 in number. Thus, there are

10+2+4+2 18 triangles in the given figure
or

42. (b) if only conclusion II follows;

50. (d) 27
Explanation: Since both the premises are universal and
affirmative, the conclusion must be universal affirmative Explanation: The figure may be labelled as shown.
and should not contain the middle term. So, it follows that
rit

The simplest squares are A E F B

‘All pens are houses’. II is the converse of this conclusion EFRQ, MQYX, QRZY, RNSZ,
and so it holds. Since the term houses’ is distributed in LXWK, XYA,W. YZB,A,, Q R
M N
I without being distributed in any of the premises, so I ZSTB. SGHT, WA,VP. L X Y Z S G
ter

does not follow. A,B,UV, B, TOU and VUIJ K H

i.e., 13 in number. The squares W A1 B1 T
P V U O
43. (c) if neither conclusion I nor II follows; having two components each
Explanation: Since the middle term ‘good athletes’ is are AEYL, FBGZ, KA,JD and D J I C
B,HCI i.e., 4 in number.
w.

distributed twice in the premises, the conclusion must be

particular and should not contain the middle term. So it The squares having four components each are MRB,
follows that ‘Some of those who win, eat well’ W, QNTA,, XZUP and YSOV i.e., 4 in number. The
squares having seven components each are AFB,K,
ww

44. (b) if only conclusion II follows; EBHA,, LZID and YGCJ i.e., 4 in number. There
is only one square i.e., MNOP composed of nine
Explanation: Since the middle term ‘tall’ is not distributed components.
even once in the premises, no definite conclusion follows.
However, II is the converse of the second premise and so There is only one square i.e., ABCD composed of
it holds. seventeen components.
∴ There are 13+4+4+4+1+1 = 27 squares in the figure.
45. (d)
Explanation: The figure gets laterally inverted and the
number of arrows increases by one in each step.

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PART–II : ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS

ANSWER PRACTICE TEST PAPER - 3

51. (a) 25 54. (a) 6

Explanation: Explanation:
140 √x +315 = 1015 (a+2)(b+3)
a*b*c =
c+1
140 √x = 1015 – 315
140 √x = 700 (6+2)(15+3)
5 6*15*3 =
700 3+1
√x =
140 1
2 8 × 18
√x = 5 = =√36 = 6
4
x= 25 (squaring both sides)
55. (a) 38

n
52. (a) 2 Explanation:

y.i
Explanation: No of soldiers = 1500 – 56 = 1444

1 1 Let the number of rows = number of soldiers in 1 row = x

+ + √2 +2
√2 – 2 √2 + 2 x × x = 1444

( )
√2 + 2 + √2 – 2 + √2 +2
(√2 – 2)(√2 – 2)
m x2 = 1444
x= √1444
2 1444
lar
2√2
= + √2 +2
√2 2 –22 2 722
19 361
= 2√2 + √2 +2 19
ia

2– 4

1444 = 2×2×19×19
= 2√2 + √2 +2
or

–2
√1444 = 2 × 19
= – √2 + √2 +2 = 2 = 38
rit

53. (d) 3719 56. (d) 7225

Explanation: Explanation:
1
ter

2 1520 √289 ÷ √x =
5
2 760 √289 1
=
2 380 √x 5
2 190 √x = 5 ×√289
w.

5 95 √x = 5 × 17
19 √x = 85
x = 7225
ww

3950 = 2 × 5 × 19
4 1 1

(24+1 – 1) (51+1 – 1) (191+1 – 1)

sum of factors of 1520 = 57. (a) 1
(2 – 1) (5 – 1) (19 – 1)
Explanation:
(25 – 1) (52 – 1) (192 – 1)
=
1×4×1×8 a+ b b+c c+a

=
31 × 24 × 360
= 3720
( ) ×( ) ( )
xa
xb
xb
xc
xc
× xa
1 × 4 × 18
=(xa–b)a+b × (xb–c)b+c × (xc–a)c+a
If N= apbqcr
2–b2 2–c2 2–a2
(ap+1 – 1) (bq+1 – 1) (cr+1 – 1) =xa × xb × xc
sum of factors =
(a – 1) (b – 1) (c – 1) 2–b2+b2–c2+c2–a2
=xa
Now sum of factors (except unity) =x0 =1
= 3720 – 1 = 3719

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58. (b) 27xyz 3

–2sinθcosθ = –
1 1 1 4
Explanation: x 3 + y 3 + z 3 = 0 3
2sinθcosθ =
1 1 1 4
x 3 + y 3 = –z 3 = 0 Now (sinθ + cosθ)2 = sin2θ + cos2θ + 2sinθ cosθ
Cubing both sides 3 7
=1+ =
1 1 1 4 4
(x 3 + y 3 )3 = (–z 3 )3 √7
sin θ+ cosθ =
1 1 1 1
4
x + y + 3x 3 y 3 (x 3 + y 3 ) = –z 1
1 1 1 63. (a)
2
x + y + 3x y (–z ) = –z
3 3 3
Explanation:
1 1 1

x + y – 3x 3 y 3 z 3 = –z tan(x+y) tan(x–y) = 1
1 1 1 x+y+x–y = 1 [tanθtan(90°– θ) = 1]
x + y + z = 3x 3 y 3 z 3

n
2x = 1
cubing both sides
1
x=

y.i
(x + y + z)3 = 27xyz 2

64. (b) 15
59. (a) 5 + 6x
Explanation:
Explanation:

x=23 +2
1

Cubing both sides

–1
3
m ∆ABC & ∆PQR are similar
Perimeter of ∆ABC
Perimeter of ∆PQR
=
AB
PQ
lar
1 –1
3

(
x3 = 2 3 + 2 3
) 36
=
AB
1 –1 1 –1 24 10
x3 = 2 + 2–1 + 3 × 2 3 × 2 3
(2 3
+2 3
) 36 36×10 5
ia

AB = = 15
1 24 42
x = 2 + + 3x
3
1
2
5 65. (c) 6
or

x = + 3x
3
2
Explanation:
Multiply both sides by 2
SP of 9 articles = `1
2x3 = 5 + 6x
rit

1
SP of 1 article=
9
60. (a) 0
1 100
CP of 1 article = ×
Explanation: 25 9 100–4
ter

1 100 25
logcot1° + logcot2° + ... log89° × =
9 96 24 216
= logcot1° cot2° ...... cot88°cot89° Now gain% = 44%
log 1 =0 25 100 + 44
SP of 1 article = ×
w.

(cot1° cot2 °cot3° ...... cot89° =1) 216 100

1 36 1
61. (a) 3 25 144 1
× =
216 6 100 4 6
ww

Explanation: 3n = 27 1
So he must sell 6 articles for ` 1
3n = 33 n=3
3n–2 = 33–2 = 31 = 3 66. (a) 11
n–2=1⇒n=3 Explanation:

√7
62. (a)
4
Explanation:
1
sinθ – cosθ =
2
squaring both sides
15°
1 2
(sinθ – cosθ) = 2
() 2
1
sin2θ + cos2θ – 2sinθ cosθ =
4
1 l
1–2sinθcosθ =
4
1
–2sinθcosθ = – 1
4

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θ = 15° Time = 2 years

π π Value of van after 2 years
= 15× =
180 12
100 2
l = rθ 196000 1– (
700 )
π 6 6
l = 42 × 196000 × × = 144000
12 7 7
1 11
6 22 1
42 × × = 11 70. (b) 5 : 2
7 12
1 2
Explanation:
67. (a) √6
Let no. of boys be x
Explanation:
and no. of girls be y
x = 2 + √3
1
√x = 2 +√3 10% of x =of y
4
1 10 1
√x = 4 +2 √3 ×x= ×y

n
√2 100 4
x 1 5
1 = × 100 =

y.i
√x = 3 + 1 +2 √3 y 4 10 2
√2
1 x:y=5:2
√x = √3 2 + 12 +2 × √3 × 1
√2
1 71. (a) 970
√x =

√x =
√2
√2
√3 + 1
(√3 + 1 )2
m Explanation:

a=
√3 – √2
b=
√3 + √2
lar
√3 + √2 √3 – √2
1 √2
=
√x √3 + 1 √3 – √2 √3 + √2
ab = × =1
√3 + √2 √3 – √2
√2 √3 – 1
= ×
ia

√3 + 1 √3 – 1 a2 b2 a3 + b3
Now + 2 =
b2 a ab
√2 (√3 – 1) √2 (√3 – 1)
or

= = (a + b)3–3ab(a + b)
√3 2 – 1 3–1 =
ab
√2 (√3 – 1) (√3 – 1) 103 – 3 × 1 × 10
= = = 1
2 √2
rit

1000 – 30 = 970
1 (√3 + 1) (√3 – 1)
√x + = + √3 – √2 √3 + √2
√x √2 √2 a +b = +
√3 + √2 √3 – √2
= 2√3 = √6
ter

√2 (√3 – √2 )2 + (√3 + √2 )2
=
68. (d) 3 (√3 + √2 )(√3 – √2 )

Explanation:
= 3+2–2√6 +3+2+2√6
w.

360 3–2
5 2
= 10 = 10
1
ww

6 10 15
A B C
72. (b) 14√2

Let units of work be 30 (LCM of 6, 10 and 15) Explanation:

A
A does in 1 day = 5units
B does in 1 day = 3units F 7cm E
C does in 1 day = 2units 8cm
6cm
No. of days taken to complete the work if they do together P1
30 30 B D C
= = = 3 days
5+3+2 10
s
69. (d) 144000
Let side of ∆ is s
Explanation:
Area of ∆BOC + Area of ∆AOC + Area of ∆AOB= Area
Present price of Van = `196000 of ∆ABC
2
Rate of depreciation = 14 %= 100 % =
1 1 1
× s × 6 + × s × 7 + × s × 8 = √3 s2
7 7 2 2 2 4

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1 76. (c) 300 √61 km

= s(6 + 7 +8) = √3 s2
2 4 Explanation:
1
= × s ×21 = √3 s × s N
2 4
21 2
= × 4 =s
12 √3
42
= =s A
√3 14
s= 42 × √3 = 42√3 = 14√3
√3 √3 3 1
73. (b) 11.2
Explanation:
O
∆ABC~ ∆DEF W B

n
ar(ABC) = 64
ar(DEF) 121 Distance covered by I plane in north = 1000 × 3

y.i
2
BC2 64 = 1500km.
=
EF2 121
Distance covered by 2nd plane in north = 1200 × 3
2
BC

BC2 =
2
=
64
15.42 121

64
× 15.42
m = 1800km.

Distance between the planes after 1 1 hours.

2
lar
121 AB2 = OA2 + OB2 [Pythagoras Theorm]
(AB)2 = 15002 + 18002
64 × 15.42
BC =
121 = 2250000 + 3240000
(AB)2 = 5490000
ia

8 × 15.4
= = 11.2cm.
11 AB2 = (300 √61 km)2
or

74. (b) 60°

77. (a) 3, 9
Explanation:
Explanation:
AB = 6 √3 cm AB2 = 108
PQ = 10
rit

AB = 12cm AC2 = 144

(10 – 2)2 + (y–(–3))2 = 10
BC = 6cm. BC2 = 36
AB2 + BC2 = 108 + 36 = 144 82 + (y+3)2 = 10
ter

AB2 + BC2 = AC2 64 + (y+3)2 = 100

So ∆ABCis right angled at B (y+3)2 = 100–64
(y+3)2 = 36
w.

75. (d) √3a

(y+3)2 = (±6)2
Explanation:
A y+3 = 6 y+3 = –6
ww

y=3 y = –9
2a 2a
78. (c) 7
Explanation:
B a D a C A(6,1); B(8,2);C(9,4) & D (9,3) are

vertices of paralleogram.
BD = DC = a
mid pt of BD= mid pt of AC
In ∆ABD
BD2 + AD2 = AB2
a2 + AD2 = (2a)2 ( 8+p
2
, 2+3 ) = ( 6+9 , 1+4 )
2 2 2
AD2 = 4a2 – a2 8+p = 6+9
2 2
AD = 3a
2 2

8 + p = 15
AD =√3 a
p = 15 – 8
p=7

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79. (b) 1 PQ2 = 119

Explanation: PQ2 = √119 2
B
82. (a) 4375
Explanation:
k Diameter of wheel = 80cm

radius of wheel = 80 = 40cm.

2
Circumference of wheel = 2πr
C k A
= 2 × 22 × 40 = 1760 cm.
7 7
tan A = 1 = k = BC
k AC
= 176 m.
70 (
1cm. = 1 m
100 )
Let BC = k and AC = k Distance that will be covered in 10min=

n
In ∆ABC
66 × 10 = 11km. = 11000m.

y.i
AB2 = AC2 + BC2 60
AB2 = k2 + k2 If 176m. is covered in = 1 revolution
70
AB2 = 2k2 1
= 70
AB = √2 k

sin A = BC = k = 1
AC √2 k √2
m Then 1 m. is covered in =

3570
176
70
176
125
1000
lar
So 11000 is covered in = × 11000
AC k 176 16
cos A = = = 1 2
AB √2 k √2 = 4375 revolutions
2sinAcosA= 2 × 1 × 1 =1
√2 √2 83. (a) 2 units
ia

80. (c) 6cm. Explanation:

Explanation: Area of circle = circumference of circle
or

Let AB = h meters be the height πr2 = 2πr

In ∆ABC r=2
rit

h = tan θ ... (1)

4 84. (c) 24.44cm2
In ∆ABD
Explanation:
h = tanθ (90 –θ)
ter

9 OA = OB
h = cot θ ...(2) ∠1 = ∠2 [Angles opposite to equal sides are equal]
9
60° + ∠1 + ∠2 = 180°
Multiply (1) & (2)
60° + ∠1 + ∠1 = 180°
w.

h × h = tanθ× cotθ
4 9 2 ∠1 = 120°
h2 = tanθ × 1
∠1 = 120°
60 O
36 tanθ 2
1
ww

∆AOB is an equilateral ∆
cm

h2 = 1 60°
15

36 OA = AB = OB
1 2
h2 = 36
Area of sector = 60° πr2 A B
360°
h =6
2 2
1 5
= 60° × 314 × 15 × 15
h = 6m. 360°6 100
2
81. (d) √119 = 117.75cm2
Explanation: Area of ∆ OAB = √3 s2
4
∠P = 90° 1.73 × 15 × 15
4
In ∆OPQ = 93.3125cm2
OP2 + PQ2 = OQ2 Area of minor segment = 117.75cm2 – 93.3125cm2
5 + PQ = 12
2 2 2
= 24.4375cm2 = 24.44cm2
PQ = 144 – 25
2

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85. (c) 2.744cm.

Explanation: r1 = 4 = 2cm.
2
r2 = 2 = 1cm.
2
h = 14cm.
h
4.2cm volume of glass = π(r12 + r22 + r1r2) × h
22 (22 + 12 + 2×1) × 14
7
22 × 71 × 14 = 308cm3
6cm
1 7
88. (a) 1
Volume of cylinder= volume of sphere 2
Explanation:
π 62 h = 4 π (4.2)3
3 when a die is thrown there are 6 outcomes

n
14 7
h= 4 × 42 × 42 × 42 × 1 = 2.7444cm. s= {1,2,3,4,5,6}
3 10 10 10 366

y.i
Prime numbers = 2,3,5
86. (a) 16.5min 1
P (prime number) = 3 = 1
Explanation: 62 2
3m.

m 89. (c) √2 (a+b)

Explanation:
Let side of sq. be s.
lar
√2 s = a + b

b
a+
Diameter of tank = 3m
s= a+b
√2
radius = 3 m. Area of sq A = side2
2
ia

Volume of hemispherical tank = 2 πr3 s

2
1 11
22 3
1
3 3
3
( √2 )
a + b 2 = (a + b)2
2
or

= × × × × =
Now area of new square = 2 × (a + b) = (a+b)2
2
31 7 2 1 21 2
2
side2 = (a+b)2
99 m3 = 99000 l [lm3 = 1000l]
rit

14 side = a+b
14
diagonal of new side =√2 side
half capacity = 99000 ÷ 2
14 = √2 (a+b)
ter

= 99000 l.
28 90. (b) ` 22500
If 3 4 l. is emptied is = 1sec.
7 Explanation:
1
s = 7 s. Suppose family income of man is ` x
w.

Then 1l. is emptied is =

25 25
990 expenditure food = 40% of x = 2x
7 5
1 24750
Remaining amount = x – 2x = 3x
So 99000 l. is emptied is = 7 × 99000 5 5
ww

28 25 28 7
1 1 expenditure on transport = 1 × 3x = x
3 5 5
=990seconds remaining amount = 3x – x = 2x
5 5 5
= 16.5minutes ATQ
1
1 × 2x = 4500
87. (c) 308cm3 21 5
Explanation: x = 4500 × 5 = ` 22500

4cm. 91. (b) 25%

Explanation:
SP of 12 articles = CP of 15 articles
14cm.
Let CP of 1 article = ` 1
Let CP of 15 article = ` 15
SP of 12 articles = ` 15

2cm. SP of 1 articles = 15 = 5
12 4

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94. (c) 2
gain = SP – CP = 5 – 1= 1
4 4 Explanation:
1
gain % = = 100 = 25% 4xy
4 P=
x+y
1 P = 2y
92. (d) 3 l. 2x x+y
applying componendo & dividendo
Explanation:
Total amount of mixture = 45l P + 2x = 2y + x + y = 3y + x
P – 2x 2y – x – y y–x
Amount of phenol = 2 × 45 = 3.6l
25 4xy
P=
Amount of water = 23 × 45 = 207 = 41.4l. x+y
25 5 P = 2x
Let xl. of water is added. 2y x + y

n
ATQ applying componendo & dividendo
3.6 P + 2y = 2x + x + y
= 3

y.i
41.4 + x 37 P – 2y 2x – x – y
124.2 + 3x = 133.2
P + 2y = 3x + y
3x = 133.2 – 124.2 P – 2y x–y
3x = 9
x = 3l. m Now
P + 2y + P + 2y
P – 2x P – 2y
lar
93. (b) 2√10 cm.
Explanation: 3x + x + 3x + y
y–x x–y
A 7cm D
ia

3y + x + 3x + y
y–x y–x
h
or

3y + x – 3x – y = 2y – 2x
y–x y–x
B M N C
rit

2(y – x) = 2
Area of trapezium = 54cm2 y–x
1 (AD + BC) × h = 54cm2 95. (c) 20°
ter

2
1 (AD + BC) × h = 54cm2 Explanation:
2 D C
1 (7 + 11) × h = 54
2 9
1 × 18 × h = 54
w.

2 1
6
h = 54 = 6cm.
1 9
In ∆ABM & ∆DCN 45°
ww

AB = DC (given)
65

A B
∠M = ∠N (each 90°)
AM = DN
∠ACB = 90°[angle in semi circle is right angle]
∆ABM ≅ ∆DCN (RHS ≅)
∠B + ∠D = 180°(ABCD is cyclic quadritatoal)
BM = CN (CPCT)
65° + ∠D = 180°
BM + CN = 11 – 7 = 4cm.
∠D = 180° – 65°
BM = CN = 2
∠D = 115°
Now is ∆CDN
In ∆ADC
DN2 + CN2 = DC2 [ Pythagoras Theorem]
45° + 115° + ∠DCA = 180° (sum of angles of ∆ is 180°)
62 + 22 = DC2
160° + ∠DCA = 180°
36 + 4 = DC2
∠DCA = 180° – 160° = 20°
DC2 = 40
DC2 = (2√10)2
DC = 2√10 cm.

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96. (c) 0
Explanation:
99. (a) 154 cm2
x2 + y2 + z2 = 2(y –x)
Explanation:
x2 + y2 + z2 +2 – 2y + 2x = 0
(x2 + 2x + 1) + (y2 – 2y + 1) + z2 = 0
(x + 1)2 + (y – 1)2 + z2 = 0
(x + 1)2 = 0 (y – 1)2 = 0 z2 = 0
r
x+1=0 y–1=0 z=0
x = –1 y= 1
x + y + z = (–1)3 + 13 + 03
3 3 3

= –1 + 1 = 0 s

n
97. (a) 12 Area of square = 121 cm2

Explanation: side2 =(11 cm)2

y.i
148 – 4 = 144 side = 11 cm

246 – 6 = 240 Perimeter of square = 4×11 = 44 cm

Circumference of circle= Perimeter of square
623 – 11 = 612
[Note: remainders are subtracted]
Now find HCF of 144, 240 and 612
m 2πr = 44

2× 22 ×r = 44
lar
7
2 144 2 240 2 612 22 1 1
r = 44 × × 7
2 72 2 120 2 306 21 22 1
r =7
2 36 2 60 3 153
Area of circle = πr2
ia

2 18 2 30 3 51 1
= 22
3 9 3 15 17 ×7 ×7 = 154 cm2
71
or

3 5
100. (a) 100m.

144 = 2×2×2×2×3×3 Explanation:

rit

Let the length of the train be l

240 = 2×2×2×2×3×5
A.T.Q
612 = 2×2×3×3×17
l = l+200
ter

HCF = 2×2×3 = 12 8 24
24l = 8[l+200]
12 is the greatest number that will divide 148, 246 and
623 leaving remainders 4, 6 & 11 respectively. 24l = 8l + 1600
w.

16l = 1600
98. (c) `139
Explanation: l = 1600 = 100
16
ww

cost of 2 kg tea = 2 ×136 = `272

l = 100m
cost of 3 kg tea = 141×3 = `423
cost of 5 kg tea = `272+`423 = `695

Now 1 kg mixture is sold = 695 =`139

5

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PRELIMINARY INTERVIEW BOARD

TERRITORIAL ARMY COMMISSION : PRACTICE TEST PAPER - 3
PAPER–1: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE & ENGLISH A1
Max Time : 2 Hours (Please Read The Instructions Carefully) Max Marks : 100
Roll No……………………….. INSTRUCTIONS

1. Paper 2 has two parts: Part I & Part II

(a) Part I : General Knowledge (50 marks)
(b) Part II: English (50 marks)
2. Each section carries 50 objectives type of questions.
3. There will be four possible answers to every question. Candidates are required to fill correct answer in the OMR sheet

n
with Black ball pen only.

y.i
4. For each correct answer, 1 mark will be granted and 0.5 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.
5. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer and 0.5 mark will be deducted. There
will be no penalty for questions left unanswered.
6.
m
Candidates should not mark in the question paper. They can use blank pages provided in the question paper for
rough work.
lar
7. To be eligible to qualify, a candidate must obtain minimum 40% marks each in Section I & II separately and a
minimum of 50% aggregate in total.

PART–1 : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

ia

Q1. An oscilloscope is an instrument which allows us to see waves produced by

(a) Visible light (b) X-rays (c) Sound (d) Gamma rays
or

Q2. No matter how far you stand from a mirror, your image appears erect. The mirror is likely to be
(a) either plane or convex (b) plane only (c) concave (d) convex only

Q3. Two layers of a cloth of equal thickness provide warmer covering than a single layer of cloth with double the thickness.
rit

Why?
(a) Because of the air encapsulated between two layers (b) Since effective thickness of two layers is more
(c) Fabric of the cloth plays the role (d) Weaving of the cloth plays the role
ter

Q4. Magnetic, electrostatic and gravitational forces come under the category of
(a) non-contact forces (b) contact forces (c) frictional forces (d) non-frictional

Q5. The atomic theory of matter was first proposed by

(a) John Dalton (b) Rutherford (c) J.J. Thomson (d) Niels Bohr
w.

Q6. Which one among the following fuels is used in gas welding?
(a) LPG (b) Ethylene (c) Methane (d) Acetylene
ww

Q7. Electricity is produced through dry cell from

(a) chemical energy (b) thermal energy (c) mechanical energy (d) nuclear energy

Q8. Iron sheet kept in moist air covered with rust. Rust is
(a) an element (b) a compound
(c) a mixture of iron and dust (d) a mixture of iron, oxygen and water

Q9. Which one of the following hormones is essential for the uptake of glucose by cells in the human body?
(a) GH (b) TSH (c) Insulin (d) Cortisol

Q10. ‘Altitude sickness’ is caused at high altitude due to

(a) high partial pressure of oxygen (b) low partial pressure of oxygen
(c) low level of haemoglobin to (d) high partial pressure of carbon dioxide

Q11. The HIV virus weakens the immunity of a person because it destroys
(a) mast cells (b) platelets (c) erythrocytes (d) lymphocytes

Q12. Which one of the following hormones contains peptide chain?

(a) Oxytocin (b) Corticotropin (c) Insulin (d) Cortisone

Q13. The site of Harappa is located on the bank of river

(a) Saraswati (c) Beas (b) Indus (d) Ravi

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Q14. Who among the following Governor Generals formed the Triple Alliance against Tipu Sultan?
(a) Warren Hastings (b) Lord Cornwallis (c) Lord Wellesley (d) Lord William Bentinck

Q15. The Cabinet Mission Plan for India envisaged a

(a) Federation (b) Confederation
(c) Unitary form of Government (d) Union of States

Q16. Who among the following Chinese travellers visited the Kingdoms of Harsrhavardhana and Kumar Bhaskar Varma?
(a) I-Tsing (b) Fa-Hien (c) Hiuen Tsang (d) Sun Shuyun

Q17. Which one among the following states was first annexed by Lord Dalhousie under the Doctrine of Lapse?
(a) Nagpur (b) Jhansi (c) Sambalpur (d) Satara

Q18. Which one among the following Indus cities was known for water management?
(a) Lothal (b) Mohenjodaro (c) Harappa (d) Dholavira

Q19. The Name of Ram Prasad Bismil is associated with

(a) Kanpur Conspiracy Case (b) Alipore Conspiracy Case

n
(c) Kakori Conspiracy Case (d) Meerut Conspiracy Case

y.i
Q20. The Circle of illumination divides Earth into two hemispheres known as
(a) East and West (b) North and South (c) Day and night (d) Summer and Winter

Q21. Which one among the following is a sea without having coastline?
(a) North sea (b) Sargasso sea (c) Baltic sea (d) Bering sea

Q22. In soil, water that, is readily available to plant roots is

(a) gravitational water (b) capillary water
m
(c) hygroscopic water (d) bound water
lar
Q23. Mid-latitude cyclones
(a) usually move across North-America from (b) are generally found only over the ocean
(c) generally bring clear skis and little precipitation (d) are formed in regions of strong temperature
ia

Q24. Red soil colour is caused by

(a) aluminium compounds (b) mercury compounds (c) iron compound (d) clay

Q25. The westerlies have their origin in the

or

(a) polar highs (b) subtropical highs (c) equatorial lows (d) sub polar lows
Q26. Satellite having the same orbital period as the period of rotation of the Earth about its ouwn axis is known as
rit

(a) polar satellite (b) stationary satellite (c) geostationary satellite (d) INSAT

Q27. Notification regarding commencement on cessation of a state of war is the responsibility of

(a) Ministry of Home Affairs (b) Ministry of Defence
ter

(c) Ministry of External Affairs (d) None of the above

Q28. The Planning Commission of India has been constituted

(a) under constitutional provision with specific mention for it
(b) through an Act of Parliament
w.

(c) through a cabinet decision in this regard

(d) through constitutional amendment

Q29. Electoral disputes arising out of Presidential and Vice Presidential Elections are settled by
(a) Election Commission of India (b) Joint Committee of Parliament
ww

(c) Supreme Court of India (d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Q30. Power of the Supreme Court of India to decide the between centre and state falls under
(a) advisory jurisdiction (b) original jurisdiction (c) appellate jurisdiction (d) constitutional jurisdiction

Q31. The Governor may recommend the imposition of the President’s rule in the state
(a) on the recommendation of the State Legislature
(b) on the recommendation of the President
(c) on the recommendation of the Chief Minister
(d) if he is convinced that the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the
Constitution of India
Q32. Which one among the following writs literally means you many have the body?
(a) Certiorari (b) Habeas Corpus (c) Mandamus (d) Quo Warranto

Q33. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may be removed from office by
(a) the majority party in the house adopting a no confidence motion
(b) a resolution passed by not less than half of the total membership of the house
(c) a resolution passed by at least two-thirds of the total membership of the house
(d) a resolution passed by a majority of all the members of the house

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Q34. Under flexible exchange rate system, the exchange rate is determined
(a) predominantly by market mechanism (b) by the Central Bank
(c) as a weighted index of a group of currencies (d) by the World Trade Organization

Q35. Rise in the price of a commodity means

(a) rise in the value of currency only
(b) fall in the value of currency only
(c) rise in the value of commodity only
(d) fall in the value of currency and rise in the value of commodity.

Q36. An exceptional demand curve is one that slopes

(a) downward to the right (b) upward to the right (c) horizontally (d) upward to the left

Q37. ‘Arihant is a
(a) Multi barrel rocket launcher (b) Airborne Early Warning and Control System
(c) Unmarmed Combat Aerial Vehicle (d) Nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine

n
Q38. Which Indian armed force has created a first-of-its kind ‘human rights cell’?
(a) India Navy (b) Indian Army (c) Indian Coast Guard (d) Indian Air Force

y.i
Q39. What is ‘INS Karanj’, which was making news recently, with reference to Indian defence?
(a) Scorpene submarine (b) Aircraft carrier (c) Frigate (d) Destroyer

Q40. Which state /UT plays host to the Khelo India Winter Games 2021?
(a) Delhi

m
(b) Jammu and Kashmir (c) Maharashtra (d) Uttar Pradesh

Q41. Which state of India houses the Shaheed Veer Narayan Singh International Cricket Stadium?
(a) Jharkhand (b) Chattisgarh (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Maharashtra
lar
Q42. Which country houses the headquarters of the International Tennis Federation?
(a) Canada (b) Switzerland (c) France (d) United Kingdom

Q43. Which sport’s competition is known as the “Davis Cup”?

ia

(a) Tennis (b) Football (c) Cricket (d) Volleyball

Q44. Which one of the following is a peacetime Gallentry Award?

or

(a) Shaurya Chakra (b) Vir Chakra (c) Yudh Seva Medal (d) Param Vir Chakra

Q45. The National Dope Testing Laboratory functions under

(a) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (b) Ministry of Science and Technology
rit

(c) Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports (d) Ministry of Home Affairs

Q46. What is the rank of India in the World Press Freedom index 2021?
(a) 142 (b) 152 (c) 162 (d) 172
ter

Q47. The Commercial Crew Program (CCP), which was making news recently, is a flagship initiative of which space agency?
(a) ISRO (b) NASA (c) JAXA (d) Roscosmos

Q48. Which state/UT announced that all departments of the government will use only electric vehicles?
w.

(a) Odisha (b) Delhi (c) West Bengal (d) Telangana

Q49. Which organisation is set to launch Covid-19 Oxygen Emergency Taskforce?

(a) UNICEF (b) Indian Medical Association
(c) AIIMS (d) WHO
ww

Q50. ‘B.1.526’ is a new highly contagious Covid-19 mutant variant first recorded in which country?
(a) China (b) USA (c) South Africa (d) India

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PART–II : ENGLISH

Analyze the content of the passage and then answer the questions that follow passage.
The enjoyment of physical possession of things would seem to be one of the prerogatives of wealth which has been little im-
paired. Presumably nothing has happened to keep the man who can afford them from enjoying his Rembrandt and his home-
grown orchids. But enjoyment of things has always been associated with the third prerogative of wealth which is the distinct it
confers. In a world where nearly everyone was poor, the distinction was very great. It was the natural consequence of rarity. In
England it is widely agreed, the ducal families are not uniformly superior. There is a roughly normal incidence of intelligence
and stupidity, good taste and bad taste, morality, immorality. But very few people are dukes and duchesses, although the later
have become rather more frequent with modern easing of divorce laws. As a result, even though they may be intrinsically unex-
pectional they are regarded with some awe. So it has long have been with the rich. Were dukes numerous their position would
deteriorate. As the rich have become more numerous, they have inevitably becomes a debased currency.

Q51. The distinction conferred by wealth

(a) was unfair to the poor (b) was unlikely to spread throughout the world
(c) was very great when there were many rich people (d) was very great when there were few rich people

n
Q52. The enjoyment of the physical possession of things
(a) is one of the privileges of wealth which has not been changed

y.i
(b) is one of the privileges of wealth which should be curtailed
(c) has little to do with the prerogatives of wealth
(d) is a prerogative of wealth which cannot be disputed

Q53. Ducal families in England

(a) are generally agreed to be fairly common
(c) are superior because they are rich
m
(b) are generally agreed to be fairly superior
(d) are generally agreed not to be always better than others
lar
Q54. There are more duchesses now because
(a) it is easier for dukes to divorce and remarry (b) dukes are more immoral than they used to be
(c) there position has deteriorated (d) they are debased
ia

Q55. Among the ducal families

(a) there is great deal of immortality (b) there is a fairly even spread of virtues and vices
(c) there is a great deal of bad taste (d) there is either great intelligence or great stupidity
or

Choose the word which best expresses nearly the same meaning of the given word.

Q56. HIATUS
rit

(a) Atrocious (b) Gap (c) Dominance (d) Obscure

Q57. MACABRE
(a) Innocent (b) Tarried (c) Gruesome (d) Pleasing
ter

Q58. FEIGN
(a) Hesitate (b) Pretend (c) Deserve (d) Attend

Q59. GRIT
(a) Bold (b) Courage (c) Grease (d) Level
w.

Q60. FOMENT
(a) Instigate (b) Shield (c) Frustrate (d) Waver
ww

In each of the following question, out of the given words, one word is mis-spelt. Find the mis-spelt word.

Q61. (a) Impetuous (b) Impetinent (c) Imperial (d) Implication

Q62. (a) Prefer (b) Defer (c) Difer (d) Refer

Q63. (a) Mercenary (b) Machinery (c) Missionery (d) Visionary

Choose the word which best expresses the opposite meaning of the word.
Q64. ELAN
(a) Brashness (b) Dignity (c) Composure (d) Nervousness

Q65. PENCHANT
(a) Disinclination (b) Lone (c) Directness (d) Lack of skill

Q66. SUBLIME
(a) Base (b) Concise (c) Partial (d) Insist

Q67. PRIMITIVE
(a) Polite (b) Naive (c) Weak (d) Sophisticated

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Q68. REGRESSION
(a) Reverse (b) Relapse (c) Regenerate (d) Retreat

Fill up the blanks with the most appropriate word from the option given below.
Q69. The battalion operating from the mountain was able to tie ___________ three enemy divisions.
(a) up (b) down (c) on (d) with

Q70. A great literary or artistic work is known as __________ .

(a) par excellence (b) bete noire (c) peccadillo (d) magnum opus

Q71. Since the British were masters of the seas, no ________ power could venture into Indian waters under British rule.
(a) territorial (b) continental (c) maritime (d) geo-political

Q72. One dark night a Darvesh ___________ passing by a dry well.

(a) wasn’t (b) happened to be (c) discovered in (d) found to

Q73. The neighbour grabbed the boy, and rolled him on the road to ___________ the flames.

n
(a) cover (b) kill (c) burn out (d) fizz out

y.i
In each of the following sentences find out which part of the sentence has an error.
Q74. If he did not know (a)/ what to do (b)/ he would have asked us. (c)/ No error (d)/

Q75. I would love to be able to swim (a)/ if I am not afraid (b)/ of water (c)/ No error (d)/

m
Q76. Only when you have your children (a)/ you will understand (b)/ how difficult it is (c)/ No error (d)/

Q77. If she will go to the university next year (a)/ we will have the (b)/ house to ourselves (c)/ No error (d)/
lar
Q78. I told goodbye to (a)/ Deepesh but he (b)/ ignored me completely (c)/ No error (d)/

Choose the best expression amongst multiple choices for a given idiom/proverb.

Q79. To get admission in present day educational institutions, all children should be born with a silver spoon in the mouth.
ia

(a) be born in a rich family (b) be born to silver spoon manufacture

(c) always hold a silver spoon (d) be born with silver spoon
or

Q80. A man of straw means

(a) A very active person (b) A worthy fellow
(c) An unreasonable person (d) A man of no substance
rit

Q81. To be above board.

(a) To have a good height (b) To be honest in any business deal
(c) Having no debts. (d) To try to be beautiful
ter

Q82. To cry wolf.

(a) To listen eagerly (b) To give false alarm (c) To turn pale (d) To keep off starvation

In each of the following question out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substitute for the given word/
sentence.
w.

Q83. List of the business or subjects to be considered at a meeting

(a) Schedule (b) Timetable (c) Agenda (d) Plan
ww

Q84. Leave or remove from a place considered dangerous

(a) Evade (b) Evacuate (c) Avoid (d) Exterminate

Q85. A prima facie case is such

(a) As it seems at first sight (b) As it is made to seem at first sight
(c) As it turns out to be at the end (d) As it seems to the court after a number of hearings

In these questions, the first and last sentences of the passage are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of passage is split into four parts
and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentence and find out which of the
four combinations is correct.

Q86. S1: The city is almost a slum and stinks most of time.
P : The slush on the road did not deter them.
Q : The occasional slips and falls were considered a small price to pay for the trip.
R : They were excited, fascinated by the sight of fresh snow on the roads.
S : Even so, it looked beautiful to tourists of various categories.
S6: But some visitors came away with the unforgettable sight of young labours scantily clad.
The Proper sequence should be:
(a) RQPS (b) QPRS (c) RSQP (d) SPQR

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Q87. S1: Venice is a strange and beautiful city in the north of Italy.
P : There are about four hundred old stone bridges joining the island of Venice.
Q : In this city there are no motor cars, no horses, no buses.
R : These small islands are near one another.
S : It is not an island but a hundred and seventeen islands.
S6: This is because Venice has no streets.
The Proper sequence should be:
(a) PQRS (b) PRQS (c) SRPQ (d) PQSR

Q88. S1: The Hound of Baskervilles was feared by the people of the area.
P : Some people spoke of seeing a huge, shadowy form a Hound at midnight on the moor.
Q : But they spoke of it in tones of horror.
R : Nobody had actually seen the hound.
S : This shadowy form did not reveal any details about the animal.
S6: The Hound of Baskervilles remains an unsolved mystery.
The Proper sequence should be:

n
(a) SPQR (b) SPRQ (c) PSRQ (d) PQRS

Q89. S1: A gentleman who lived alone always had two plates placed on the table at dinner time.

y.i
P : One day just as he sat down to dine, the cat rushed in to the room.
Q : One plate was for himself and other was for his cat.
R : she drooped a mouse into her own plate and another into her master plate.
S : He used to give the cat a piece of meat from his own plate.
S6: In this way the cat showed her gratitude to her master.
The Proper sequence should be:
(a) QSPR (b) PSRQ (c) QRSP (d) RPQS
m
lar
For Underlined part of the sentence chooses part of the sentence from given choices, to correct or improve it.
Q90. No one could explain how a calm and balanced person like him could penetrate such a mindless act on his friends.
(a) perpetuate (b) perpetrate (c) precipitate (d) No improvement
ia

Q91. Five years ago today, I am sitting in a small Japanese car, driving across Poland towards Berlin.
(a) was sitting (b) sat (c) have been sitting (d) No improvement
or

Q92. I took the cycle which he bought yesterday.

(a) that he bought yesterday (b) that which he had bought yesterday
(c) that he had bought yesterday (d) No improvement
rit

Q93. Please make it a point to send you letter at my address.

(a) on my address (b) to my address (c) in my address (d) No improvement

Q94. If you are living near a market place you should be ready to bear the disturbances caused by traffic.
ter

(a) to bear upon (b) to bear with (c) to bear away (d) No improvement

In each or the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active (or Passive) voice. Out of the four alternatives
suggested, select the one which best express the same sentence in Passive (or Active) voice.
w.

Q95. The people elected him Mayor.

(a) Him was elected Mayor the people. (b) He was elected Mayor by the people.
(c) Mayor is elected by the people. (d) He is elected by the people Mayor.
ww

Q96. Someone saw him picking up a gun.

(a) He was seen pick up a gun by someone (b) He was seen picking up a gun by someone
(c) He was seen when he was picking up a gun (d) He was seen by someone pick a gun

Q97. The boy has rung the bell

(a) The bell has been rung by the boy. (b) The bell was being rung by the boy.
(c) The bell was rung by the boy. (d) The bell has been being rung by the boy.

Rearrange the following part of the sentence in form of a meaningful sentence.

Q98. Mohan, the son of my friend, gave me a set of pens (P)/ which is very precious (Q)/ while working in Japan (R)/ who
died in an accident (S)/
(a) P Q R S (b) S R P Q (c) R S P Q (d) S P Q R

Q99. The clerk on the desk (P)/ left the money (Q)/ in the safe (R)/ which he should have locked up (S)/
(a) P Q R S (b) R S P Q (c) Q P R S (d) Q P S R

Q100. There must be countries now in which peasants can spend several years in universities (P)/ so that (Q)/ a lot of young
persons (R)/ are going without substantial meals (S)/
(a) S R Q P (b) P Q R S (c) S Q R P (d) Q P S R

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 https://testbook.com https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.testbook.tbapp

PART–I : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

ANSWER PRACTICE TEST PAPER - 3

1. (c) Sound 27. (c) Ministry of External Affairs

2. (a) either plane or convex 28. (c) through a cabinet decision in this regard
3. (a) Because of the air encapsulated between two 29. (c) Supreme Court of India
layers
30. (b) original jurisdiction
4. (a) non-contact forces 31. (d) if he is convinced that the Government of the
5. (a) John Dalton State cannot be carried on in accordance with the
provisions of the Constitution of India
6. (d) Acetylene
32. (b) Habeas Corpus
7. (a) chemical energy
33. (d) a resolution passed by a majority of all the
8. (b) a compound
members of the house

n
9. (c) Insulin
34. (a) predominantly by market mechanism

y.i
10. (b) low partial pressure of oxygen
35. (b) fall in the value of currency only
11. (d) lymphocytes
36. (a) downward to the right
12. (c) Insulin
37. (d) Nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine
13.
14.
15.
(d) Ravi
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(d) Union of States
m38.
39.
(b) Indian Army
(a) Scorpene submarine
lar
40. (b) Jammu and Kashmir
16. (c) Hiuen Tsang
41. (b) Chattisgarh
17. (d) Satara
42. (d) United Kingdom
18. (d) Dholavira
ia

43. (a) Tennis

19. (c) Kakori Conspiracy Case
44. (a) Shaurya Chakra
20. (c) Day and night
45. (c) Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
or

21. (b) Sargasso sea

46. (a) 142
22. (b) capillary water
47. (b) NASA
rit

23. (d) are formed in regions of strong temperature

48. (b) Delhi
24. (c) iron compound
49. (d) WHO
25. (b) subtropical highs
50. (b) USA
ter

26. (c) geostationary satellite

PART–II : ENGLISH
ANSWER PRACTICE TEST PAPER - 3
w.

51. (d) was very great when there were few rich people 65. (a) Disinclination
52. (a) is one of the privileges of wealth which has not 66. (a) Base
ww

been changed 67. (d) Sophisticated

53. (d) are generally agreed not to be always better than 68. (c) Regenerate
others
69. (b) down
54. (a) it is easier for dukes to divorce and remarry
70. (d) magnum opus
55. (b) there is a fairly even spread of virtues and vices
71. (c) maritime
56. (b) Gap
72. (b) happened to be
57. (c) Gruesome
73. (b) kill
58. (b) Pretend
74. (a) If he did not know
59. (b) Courage
If he hadn’t known what to do, he would have asked
60. (a) Instigate us.
61. (b) Impetinent 75. (b) if I am not afraid
I would love to be able to swim, if I was not afraid of
62. (c) Difer
water.
63. (c) Missionery
76. (c) you will understand
64. (d) Nervousness Only when you have your children will you
understand how difficult it is.

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 https://testbook.com https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.testbook.tbapp

77. (a) If she will go to the university next year 88. (a) SPQR
If she goes to the university next year, we will have 89. (a) QSPR
the house ourselves.
90. (b) perpetrate
78. (a) I told goodbye to
I said goodbye to Deepesh but he ignored me 91. (a) was sitting
completely. 92. (c) that he had bought yesterday
79. (a) be born in a rich family 93. (b) to my address
80. (d) A man of no substance 94. (b) to bear with
81. (b) To be honest in any business deal 95. (b) He was elected Mayor by the people.
82. (b) To give false alarm 96. (b) He was seen picking up a gun by someone
83. (c) Agenda 97. (a) The bell has been rung by the boy.
84. (b) Evacuate 98. (b) S R P Q
85. (a) As it seems at first sight 99. (d) Q P S R

n
86. (d) SPQR 100. (c) S Q R P

y.i
87. (c) SRPQ

m
ia lar
or
rit
ter
w.
ww

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