SECTION 2

OUESTIONS
Subject
Pitot static systems.
Barometric Altimeters.
Radio Altimeters.
Vertical Speed Indicators.
Airspeed Indicators.
Airspeeds.
Mach Meters.
Gyroscopes.
Attitude Indicators.
Turn and Slip Indicators.
INS, IRS and FMS.
EFIS.
Automati:: Flight Systems.
Flight Directors
EICAS and ECAM.
Engine Monitoring Instruments.
Teruperatrrre Indicators.
Fuel System Monitoring.
Compasses.
Warning and Recording S~sterns.
TCAS.
CRYS.
PITOT STATICS 1.
In case of accidental closing- of an aircraft's left static pressure port (rain, birds),
the altimeter?

a. Over reads the altitude in case of a side-slip to the right and displays the
correct information during symmetric flight.
b. Keeps on providing reliable reading in all situations.
c. Under reads the altitude.
d. Over reads the altitude in case of a sideslip to the left and displays the
correct information during symmetric flight.

PITOT STATICS 2.
If an aircraft is equipped with one altimeter which is compensated for position
error and another altimeter which is not, and all other factors being equal?

a. At high speed the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a lower altitude.

b. There will be no difference between them if the air data computer (ADC) is
functioning normally.
c. ATC will get an erroneous altitude report SSR.
d. At high speed, the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a higher
altitude

PITOT STATICS 3.
An Air Data Computer (ADC)?

a. Measures position error in the static system and transmits this information
to ATC to provide correct altitude reporting.
b. Transforms air data measurements into electric impulses driving servo
motors in instruments.
c. Is an auxiliary system that provides altitude information in the event
that the static source is blocked.
d. Converts air data measurements given by ATC from the ground in
order to provide correct altitude and speed information.

PITOT STATICS 4.
In An Air Data Computer (ADC), aeroplane altitude is calculated from?

a. The difference between absolute and dynamic pressure at the fuselage.

b. Measurement of outside air temperature (OAT).
c. Measurement of elapsed time for a radio signal transmitted to the ground
surface and back.
d. Measurement of absolute barometric pressure from a static source on the
fuselage.
 PITOT STATICS 5.
In a non-pressurized aircraft, if one or several static pressure ports are damaged,
there is an ultimate emergency means for restoring a practically correct static
pressure intake?

a. Breaking the rate-of climb indicator glass window.

b. Slightly opening a window to restore the ambient pressure in the cabin.
c. Descending as much as possible in order to fly at a pressure as close to
1013.25 hPa as possible.
d. C;llculating the ambient static pressure, allowing for the altitude and QNH
aud adjusting the instruments.

PITOT STATICS 6.
:The altimcler consists of one or several aneroid capsules located in a sealed
' casing. The pressures in the aneroid capsule (i) and casing (ii) are respectively?

a. (i) Static pressure (ii) Total pressure.

b. (i) Vacuum (or very low pressure) (ii) Static pressure.
c. (i) Static pressure at time t (ii) Static pressure at time t - t.
d. (i) Total pressure (ii) Static pressure.

PlTOT STATICS 7.
From the ISA table at page 35, the atmospheric pressure at FL 70 in a "standard +
10" atmosphere is?

PITOT STATICS 8.
The QNH is by definition the value of the?

a. Altimeter setting so that the needles indicate zero when the aircraft
is on ground at the location for which it is provided.
b. Atmospheric pressure at the level of the ground over flown by the
aircraft.
c. Altimeter setting so that the needles of the altimeter indicate the
altitude of the location for which it is given.
d. Atmospheric pressure at the sea level of the location for which it is
given.
PITOT STATICS 9.
During a climb after take-off from a contaminated runway, if the total pressure
probe of the airspeed indicator is blocked, the pilot finds that indicated airspeed?

a. Decreases abruptly towards zero.

b. Increases steadily.
c. Increases abruptly towards VNE.
d. Decreases steadily.

PITOT STATICS 10.

With a pitot probe blocked due to ice build up, the aircraft airspeed indicator will
indicate in descent a?

a. Increasing speed.
b. Fluctuating speed.
c. Decreasing speed.
d. Constant speed.

PITOT STATICS 11.

After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud which has blocked the total
pressure probe inlet of the airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a stabilized descent
and finds that the indicated airspeed?

a. Increases steadily.
b. Decreases abruptly towards zero.
c. Decreases steadily.
d. Increases abruptly towards VNE.

PITOT STATICS 12.

The static pressure error of the static vent on which the altimeter is connected
varies substantially with the?

a. Static temperature.
b. Mach number of the aircraft.
c. Deformation of the aneroid capsule.
d. Aircraft altitude.

PITOT STATICS 13.

The pressure altitude is the altitude corresponding?

a. In standard atmosphere, to the reference pressure Ps.

b. In ambient atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this point.
c. In standard atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this point.
d. In ambient atmosphere, to the reference pressure Ps.
PITOT STATICS 14.
The response time of a vertical speed detector may be increased by adding a?

a. Correction based or! an accelerometer sensor.

b. Bi-metallic strip.
c. Return spring.
d. Second calibrated port.

PITOT STATICS 15.

The density altitude is?

a. The altitude of the standard atmosphere on which the density is equal to

the actual density of the atmosphere.
b. The temperature altitude corrected for the difference between the real
temperature and the standard temperature.
c. The pressure altitude corrected for the relative density prevailing at this
point.
d. The pressure altitude corrected for the density of air at this point.

PITOT STATICS 16.

On board an aircraft the altitude is measured from the?

a. Standard altitude.
b. Pressure altitude.
c. Density altitude.
d. Temperature altitude.

PITOT STATICS 17.

The advantages provided by an air data computer to indicate the altitude are?

1. Position/pressure error correction.

2. Hysteresis error correction.
3. Remote data transmission capability.
4. Capability to feed data to a large number of instruments simultaneously.

The combination of correct statements is?

 . -
PITOT STATICS 18.
If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) becomes blocked during a descent
the instrument will?

a. Read zero.
b. Continue to indicate the speed applicable to that at the time of the blockage.
c. Under-read.
d. Over-read.

PITOT STATICS 19.

If the static source to an altimeter becomes blocked during a climb, the instrument
will?

a. Continue to indicate the reading at which the blockage occurred.

b. Under-read by an amount equivalent to the reading at the time that the
instrument became blocked.
c. Over-read.
d. Gradually return to zero.

PITOT STATICS 20.

If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent the
instrument will?

a. Gradually indicate zero.

b. Under-read.
c. Indicate a height equivalent to the setting on the millibar subscale.
d. Continue to display the reading at which the blockage occurred.

PITOT STATICS 21.

A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a non-pressurized aircraft to an airspeed
indicator would cause it to?

a. Under-read.
b. Over-read.
c. Over-read in a climb and under-read in a descent.
d. Under-read in a climb and over-read in a descent.

PITOT STATICS 22.

The pressure measured at the forward facing orifice of a pitot tube is the?

a. Total pressure plus static pressure.

b. Dynamic pressure.
c. Total pressure.
d. Static pressure.
PITOT STATICS 23.
The airspeed indicator circuit consists of pressure sensors. The pitot tube directly
supplies?

a. The total pressure.

b. The static pressure.
c. The total pressure and the static pressure.
d. The dynamic pressure.

PITOT STATICS 24.

The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation of the static pressure near
the source'is known as?

a. Position pressure error.

b. Barometric error.
c. Instrument error.
d. Hysteresis effect.

PITOT STATICS 25.

A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain hole with the static port
open causes the airspeed indicator to?

a. Read a little high.

b. Read a little low.
c. Freeze at zero.
d. React like an altimeter.

PITOT STATICS 26.

A pitot tube covered by ice which blocks the ram air inlet will affect the following
instrument(s)?

a. Airspeed indicator, altimeter and vertical speed indicator.

b. Airspeed indicator only.
c. Altimeter only.
d. Vertical speed indicator only.

PITOT STATICS 27.

Given: Ts is the static temperature (SAT).
Tt is the total temperature (TAT).
Kr is the recovery coefficient.
M is the Mach number.

The total temperature can be expressed approximately by the formula?

PlTOT STATICS 28.
The altimeter is fed by?

a. Differential pressure.
b. Static pressure.
c. Dynamic pressure.
d. . Total pressure.

PITOT STATICS 29.

The vertical speed indicator (VSI) is fed by?

a. Differential pressure.
b. Static pressure.
c. Dynamic pressure.
d. Total pressure.

PITOT STATICS 30.

The operating principie of the vertical speed indicator (VSI) is based on the
measurement of the rate of change s f ?

a. Kinetic pressure.
b. Static pressure.
c. Dynamic pressure.
d. Total pressure.

PITOT STATICS 31.

What advantages are provided by an ADC, compared to traditional pitot static
systems?

(1) Instrument lag is reduced or eliminated.

(2) Position error is automatically correct for.
(3) Compressibility error is automatically corrected for.
(4) A large number of instruments can be fed from one ADC.
(5) It provides emergency altimeter following main system failure.
PITOT STATICS 32.
If the static vents in an un-pressurised aircraft become blocked?

a. Breaking or opening the windows will enable the altimeter to function.

b. Breaking or opening the windows will enable the AS1 to function.
c. Breaking the front glass will enable the altimeter to function.
d. Only instruments fed from an ADC will function.

PITOT STATICS 33.

From where does the ADC obtain its altitude data?

a. Barometric information from the static pressure ports.

b. Barometric pressure from the pitot probe.
c. The difference between pitot and static pressures.
d. The time take for a radio signal to rebound from the earth.

PITOT STATICS 34.

What inputs are fed to the ADC?

AOA.
TAT.
OAT.
Dynamic pressure.
Static pressure.
Total pressure.
AC electrical power.
Autopilot commands.

PITOT STATICS 35.

Which of the following is correct?
PITOT STATICS 36.
Entering ground effect is likely to?

a. Decrease static pressure but increase pitot pressure.

b. Decrease pitot pressure but increase static pressure.
c. Increase position errors.
d. Decrease position errors.

PITOT STATICS 37.

If the pitot tube leaks and the pitot drains are blocked in an unpressurised
aircraft?

a. The AS1 will over indicate.

b. The AS1 will under indicate.
c. The altimeter will under indicate.
d. The altimeter will over indicate.

PITOT STATICS 38.

If the static tube and drains become blocked?

a. The AS1 will under indicate.

b. The AS1 will over indicate.
c. The AS1 will under or over indicate depending on altitude.
d. The AS1 will indicate zero.

PITOT STATICS 39.

If the static tube and drains become blocked?

a. The altimeter will under indicate.

b. The altimeter will indicate zero.
c. The altimeter will over indicate.
d. The altimeter will under or over indicate depending on altitude.

PITOT STATICS 40.

If the static slots of a pitot probe become blocked but the pitot tapping remains
clear?

a. AS1 acts as an altimeter.

b. AS1 acts in the opposite sense to an altimeter.
c. AS1 indication freezes.
d. AS1 indication falls to zero.
 PITOT STATICS 41.
If the pitot tapping becomes blocked it will affect the operation of?

1. ASI.
2. Altimeter.
3. Radalt.
4. Mach meter.
5. VSI.

PITOT STATICS 42.

What will happen to the altimeter indications in an aircraft in level flight if the
right static vent becomes blocked and the left remains clear?

a. Over indicate when side slipping right.

b. Over indicate when side slipping left.
c. Under indicate in all conditions.
d. Over indicate in all conditions.

. PITOT STATICS 43.

What will happen to the AS1 and mach meter indications in an aircraft in level
flight if the right static vent becomes blocked and the left remains clear?

a. They will not be affected.

b. They will both over indicate.
c. Both will under indicate when side slipping right.
d. Both will under indicate when side slipping left.

PITOT STATICS 44.

If the static source becomes blocked in a descent the AS1 will ....indicate, the VSI
will .... indicate and the altimeter will .....indicate?

a. Under under under.

b. Under over over.
c. Over under under
d. Over under over.
 PITOT STATICS 45.
A blocked pitot probe will affect?

a. ASI.
b. VSI.
c. Altimeter.
d. All of the above.

PITOT STATICS 46.

A blocked static vent will affect?

a. ASI.
b. VSI.
c. Altimeter.
d. All of the above.

PITOT STATICS 47.

: Debris on the sides of a pitot probe not blocking the air tappings might cause?

a. Total loss of IAS indications.

b. Total loss of Altitude indications.
c. Erratic or inaccurate IAS and altitude readings.
d. Total loss of VSI indications.

PITOT STATICS 48.

If the static vents in an unpressurised aircraft become blocked?

a. Breaking or opening the windows will enable the altimeter to function.

b. Breaking or opening the windows will enable the AS1 to function.
c. Breaking the front glass will cause the altimeter to under indicate.
d. Only instruments fed from an ADC will function.

PITOT STATICS 49.

What inputs are fed to the ADC?

AOA.
TAT.
OAT.
Dynamic pressure.
Static pressure.
Pitot pressure.
IAS.
Mach number. .
PITOT STATICS 50.
A blocked pitot probe will affect?

a. Mach meter.
b. VSI.
c. Altimeter.
d. All of the above.

ALT 1.
The hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially with the?

a. Time passed at a given altitude.

b. Mach number of the aircraft.
c. Aircraft altitude.
d. Static temperature.

ALT 2.
When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the altimeter will?

a. Under read.
b. Be just as correct as before.
c. Show the actus' h e i ~ h above
t ground.
d. 8;7cr read.

ALT 3.
At sea level, on a typical servo altimeter, the tolerance in feet from indicated must
not exceed?

a. +/-60 feet.
b. +/-75 feet.
c. +/-30 feet.
d. +/-70 feet.
ALT 4.
The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all the
atmosphere layers below the aircraft are cold is?

a. Equal to the standard altitude.

b. Lower than the real altitude.
c. The same as the real altitude.
d. Higher than the real altitude.

ALT 5.
The purpose of the vibrating device of an altimeter is to?

a. Allow damping of the measurement in the unit.

b. Reduce the hysteresis effect.
c. Reduce the effect of friction in the linkages.
d. Inform the crew of a failure of the instrument

ALT 6.
The vertical speed indicator of an aircraft flying at a true airspeed of 100 kt, in a
descent with a slope of 3 degrees, indicates?

a. -300 ftlmin.
b. -150 ftlmin.
c. -250 ftlmin.
d. -500 ftlmin.

ALT 7.
The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all
atmosphere layers below the aircraft are warm is?

a. Equal to the standard altitude.

b. Higher than the real altitude.
c. The same as the real altitude.
d. Lower than the real altitude.

ALT 8.
The primary factor which makes the servo-assisted altimeter more accurate than
the simple pressure altimeter is the use of?

a. A sub-scale logarithmic function.

b. An induction pick-off device.
c. More effective temperature compensating leaf springs.
d. Combination of counterslpointers.
ALT 9.
What will happen to the altimeter reading in a right sideslip, if an aircraft has a
static vent at each side of the fuselage, but the left one is blocked?

a. Over read.
b. Under read.
c. No change.
d. Depends on altitude.

ALT 10.
From what is true altitude derived?

a. Pressure altitude.
b. Density altitude.
c. Temperature altitude.
d. Difference between total pressure and static pressure.

ALT.ll.
What is QNH?

a. Ambient pressure at the airfield.

b. Sea level pressure based on ambient pressure at the airfield.
c. Sea level pressure.
d. Sea level pressure in the ISA.

ALT 12.
What is QNH?

a. Ambient pressure at msl.

b. The pressure to be set on the altimeter subscale to obtain an indication of
zero on the runway.
c. The pressure to be set on the altimeter subscale to obtain a reading of the
pressure altitude of the runway.
d. The pressure to be set on the altimeter subscale to obtain density altitude
when on the runway.

ALT 13.
What is the true altitude of an aircraft if its altimeter indicated 16000 ft when the
ambient temperature was -30' C?

a. 15200 ft.
b. 15400 ft.
c. 16200 ft.
d. 16400 ft.
ALT 14.
What will happen to the indicated altitude if an aircraft in level flight passes into a
warmer air mass?

a. Over indicate.
b. Under indicate.
c. Not change.
d. Remain constant only if above the tropopanse.

ALT 15.
What is density altitude?

a. Pressure altitude corrected for ambient temperature.

b. True altitude.
c. Pressure altitude corrected for density changes.
d. True altitude corrected for density changes.

ALT 16.
What will happen if an aircraft has two altimeters, one of which is compensated for
position error, whilst the other is not?

a. One will over read at high airspeeds.

b. One will under read at high airspeeds.
c. One will under read close to the ground.
d. The ADC will compensate automatically, so both with read correctly.

ALT 17.
Why are vibrators sometimes fitted in altimeters?

a. Overcome friction.
b. Overcome inertia.
c. Overcome hysteresis.
d. Reduce lag.

ALT 18.
What will happen to altimeter indication if an aircraft in level flight enters a cold
front?

a. Over indication.
b. Under indication.
c. No change.
d. No change above the tropopause.
ALT 19.
A barometric altimeter comprises of?

a. An aneroid capsule sensing static pressure.

b. An aneroid capsule sensing pitot pressure.
c. A differential capsule sensing pitot and static pressures.
d. A bellows sensing temperature and static pressure.

ALT 2%
If pressure altitude is 30000 ft, indicated TAT is -10, mach number is 0.82, what is
the density altitude?

a. 31000 ft.
b. 30472 ft.
c. 30573 ft.
d. 30674 ft.

ALT 21.
If QNH is 999 hPa, what is the pressure altitude at an elevation of 25000 ft?

a. 25100 ft.
b. 25200 ft.
c. 25300 ft.
d. 25400 ft.

ALT 22.
If pressure altitude is 22800 ft, at an elevation of 22000 ft, what is QNH?

ALT 23.
If field elevation is 4000 ft amsl and QNH is 900 mb, what is the pressure altitude?
ALT 24.
If field elevation is 3500 ft amsl and QFE is 1020 mb, what is the pressure altitude?

ALT 25.
If pressure altitude is 3700 ft amsl m d QNH is 1000 mb, what is field elevation?

GLT 26.
Density altitude is?

a. The altitude at which the eHiating density would occur in the ISA.
b. The density at which the existing temperature would occur in the ISA.
c. The elevation at which the existing den* would occur in the ISA.
d. The pressure altitude corrected for density deviation.

i&T 27.
The pressure alaitude of the field can be found by?

a. Setting QNH on the altimeter subscale.

b. Setding QFE on the alti~petersubseale.
c. Setting 1013 mb on the altimeter subscale.
d. From an ADC only.

A $ L
If field pressure altitude is 5080 ft amal and OAT is 2s0c, what is the densiq
altitude?

a. - -
5000 + 118(25 (35 (5 x 1.98))) = 7348.2 ft.
b. - -
5000 118(25 (15 + (5 x 1.98)$) = 4988.2 ft.
C. 5000 + 118(25 + (15 - (5 x 1.98))) = 8551.8 ft.
d. -
5000 118(25 + (15 + (5 x 1.98))) = 10888.2 ft.
ALT 29.
If QFE is 1022 hPa what is the pressure altitude of the field?

a. 270 ft amsl.
b. -270 ft amsl.
c. 30660 ft amsl.
d. 500 ft amsl.

ALT 30.
If QNH is 1000 hPa and field elevation is 4500 ft amsl, what is QFE?

ALT 31.
Pressure altitude is?

a. The altitude above sea level.

b. The altimeter indication when QFE is set on the sub-scale.
c. The altimeter indication when QNH is set on the subscale.
d. The altimeter indication when 1013.25 hPa is set on the sub-scale.

ALT 32.
Which of the following cause air density to decrease?

a. Increasing humidity, increasing altitude, increasing temperature.

b. Increasing humidity, increasing altitude, decreasing temperature.
c. Increasing humidity, decreasing altitude, increasing temperature.
d. Decreasing humidity, increasing altitude, decreasing temperature.

ALT 33.
If QNH changes from 1013 hPa to 1022 hPa this will?

a. Increase field elevation.

b. Decrease field elevation.
c. Not affect field elevation.
d. Decrease QFE.
ALT 34.
If QFE changes from 1013 hPa to 1022 hPa will?

a. Increase field elevation.

b. Not affect QNH.
c. Increase QNH.
d. Decrease QNH.

ALT 35.
As pressure altitude increases?

a. Temperature decreases.
b. Temperature increases.
c. Temperature increases then remains constant.
d. Temperature decreases then remains constant.

ALT 36.
At a fixed pressure altitude an increase in temperature will?

a. Decrease density but increase density altitude.

b. Decrease density altitude.
c. Not affect density altitude.
d. Increase density but decrease density altitude.

ALT 37.
What will happen to the altimeter reading in a right sideslip, if an aircraft has a
static vent at each side of the fuselage, but the right one is blocked?

a. Over read.
b. Under read.
c. No change.
d. Depends on altitude.

ALT 38.
What will a cabin altimeter read with QFE set.

a. The same as with QNH set.

b. Height AGL.
c. Height above sea level.
d. Field elevation when on the runway.
ALT 39.
The altimeter of an aircraft with a static pressure source on each side of the
fuselage will.......
if one becomes blocked ?

a. Over read when side slipping.

b. Over read when side slipping towards the blocked source.
c. Over read when side slipping towards the clear source.
d. Under read when side slipping.

ALT 40.
A servo altimeter is ....it employs an electrical pick-off?
a. More accurate because ........
b. Less accurate because ..........
c. Less reliable because.. .........*
d. More reliable because ..........

ALT 41.
What will happen to the altimeter reading if an aircraft flying at a fixed heading
meets a colder air mass?

a Read less than true altitude.

b. Read more than true altitude.
c. Read zero.
d. Readings will not be affected.

ALT 42.
What is the true altitude of an aircraft flying at 16000 ft indicated altitude with an
OAT of -16 degrees C?

a. 13200 ft.
b. 14200 ft.
c. 16050 ft.
d. 16200 ft.

ALT 43.
From where does the ADC obtain a K h & data?

a. Radio Altimeter.
b. OAT sources.
c. Barometric aMbde source.
d. Dynamic m h a s ts-tal pressure.
ALT 44.
True altitude is obtained from ...... on board an aircraft?
a. Density altitude.
b. Temperature altitude.
c. Pressure altitude.
d. International standard altitude.

ALT 45.
What is density altitude?

a. Pressure altitude corrected for density.

b. Temperature altitude corrected for density.
c. Temperature altitude corrected for pressure.
d. Pressure altitude corrected for temperature.

ALT 46.
How will altimeter readings be affected if the layers of air below an aircraft are
colder than the standard temperature?

a. Read true altitude, only the air above matters.

b. Read zero.
c. Read higher than true.
d. Read lower than true.

ALT 47.
How will altimeter reading be affected if the static vent pipe becomes blocked?

a. Read true altitude, only the air above matters.

b. Readings will freeze.
c. Read higher than true.
d. Read lower than true.

ALT 48.
One definition of pressure altitude is?

a. Altitude indication with QFE set.

b. Pressure at that height in the standard a-osphere.
c. Altitude indication with 1013.25 hPa set.
d. Altitude indication with QNH set.
ALT 49.
If icing or debris cause pressure disturbances at the static source, the effect will be?

a. Increased compressibility error.

b. Increased instrument error.
c. Decreased altitude indication.
d. Increased position error.

ALT 50.
If an aircraft flying at constant height over a level surface meets a hotter air mass,
the altimeter will?

a. Indicate higher than true.

b. Indicate lower than true.
c. Indicate randomly varying altitude.
d. Indicate zero.

ALT 51.
Servo altimeters are more accurate because?

a. They employ a logarithmic scale.

b. They sense pressure changes more accurately.
c. They employ a vibrator to minimise friction errors.
d. They employ electromagnetic pick-offs.

ALT 52.
The ADC obtains its altitude data from?

a. A barometric altimeter.
b. A radio altimeter.
c. The TAT and OAT probes.
d. A barometric static pressure sensor similar to a servo altimeter.

ALT 53.
A servo altimeter is ........ than a conventional one, because ........9
a. More accurate electrical servos.
b. More accurate electrical pick-off coils.
c. Less accurate electric servos.
d. Less accurate Electrical pick-off coils.
ALT 54.
In a barometric altimeter .......Is fed into the capsule and ....Is fed into the case?
a. Static pressure dynamic pressure.
b. Vacuum static pressure.
c. Dynamic pressure vacuum.
d. Total pressure static pressure.

ALT 55.
If the static pressure source in an un-pressurised aircraft became blocked the
altimeter would ...........
but might be rectified by ...........
3

a. Read zero break the altimeter glass.

b. Read zero open the windows.
c. Freeze break the altimeter glass.
d. Freeze open the windows.

ALT 56.
If the pitot source becomes blocked the barometric altimeter will?

a. Free'ie.
b. Read zero.
c. Read altitude at which it blocked.
d. Be unaffected.

ALT 57.
If the static vent becomes partly blocked in a descent the indications will?

a. Be too high when descending but correct when at constant altitude.

b. Be too high when descending but correct when at constant height.
c. Be too low when descending but correct when at constant altitude.
d. Be too low when descending but correct when at constant height.

ALT 58.
A vibrator is sometimes fitted in an altimeter to?

a. Overcome gauge parallax error.

b. Reduce instrument errors.
c. Reduce sensing errors.
d. To act as an aural warning.
ALT 59.
In a banked turn a barometric altimeter using a single static source?

a. Will over indicate.

b. Will under indicate.
c. Might over or under indicate, depending on the position of the static source.
d. Will read zero.

ALT 60.
True a l t k d e is shown from .......on board an aircraft?
a. Density altitude.
b. Pressure altitude.
c. Radio altitude.
d. Temperature altitude.

ALT 61.
Density altitude is?

a. Temperature altitude corrected for density.

b. Temperature altitude corrected for pressure.
c. Pressure altitude corrected for temperature.
d. Pressure altitude corrected for density.

ALT 62.
If an akeraft has two altimeters, only one of which is corrected for position error?

a. ATC transponder replies wili be inaccurate.

b. At high altitude and high speed the non-correeeed altimeter will over
isdieate.
c. At high altitude and high speed the noa-corrected altimeter will under
indicate.
d. At low altitude and low speed the corrected altimeter will over indicate.

i%ul&
Some a l h e t e r s employ vibrators in order to?

a. Minimise hysteresis.
b. Miaimise inaccuracies due to internal friction.
c. Provide audible warning of low altitudes.
d. Eliminate instrument error.
ALT 64.
If an aircraft with two static ports, sideslips towards the blocked port, the altitude
indication will?

a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Remain unchanged.
d. Increase or decrease depending on sideslip angle.

ALT 65.
If an aircraft with two sltatic ports, sideslips towards the unblocked port, &e
altitude indication will?

a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Remain unchanged.
d. Increase or decrease depending on sideslip angle.

ALT 66.
Barometric altimeter readings can become erratic during landing because?

a. Static ports can become blocked by debris.

b. Static pressure is changed by ground effect.
c. The air is warmer close to the ground so dynamic pressure changes.
d. Static ports become shielded by other parts of the aircraft at high angles of
attack.

ALT 67.
What type of pressure sensor is employed in a barometric altimeter?

a. Aneroid capsule.
b. Differential capsule.
c. Bellows.
d. Bourden tube.

ALT 68.
If the glass of a barometric altimeter in a pressurised aircraft becomes cracked and
the static ports become blocked, the altimeter will?

a. Over read.
b. Under read.
c. Read zero continuously.
d. Read cabin altitude.
ALT 69.
If the pressure feed line to a barometric altimeter becomes detached from the back
of the instrument in flight the instrument will?

a. Read zero continuously.

b. Read cabin altitude.
c. Over read.
d. Under read.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 1.
/-

During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of 650 ft. This is
an indication of the true?

a. Height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any time.
b. Height of the aircraft with regard to the ground at any time. - - -
c. Height of the aircraft with regard to the runway.
d. Altitude of the aircraft.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 2.
For most radio altimeters, when a system error occurs during approach the?

a. Height indication is removed.

b. DH lamp flashes red and the audio signal sounds.
c. DH lamp flashes red.
d. Audio warning signal sounds.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 3.
A radio altimeter can be defined as a?

a. Ground radio aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft.
b. Ground radio aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft.
c. Self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true height of the
aircraft.
d. Self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true altitude of the
aircraft.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 4.
The data supplied by a radio altimeter?

a. Indicates the distance between the ground and the aircraft.

b. Concerns only the decision height.
c. Is used only by the radio altimeter indicator.
d. Is used by the automatic pilot in the altitude hold mode.
RADIO ALTIMETERS 5.
The low-altitude radio altimeters used in precision approaches:

1. Operate in the 1540-1660 MHz range.

2. Are of the pulsed type.
3. Are of the frequency modulation type.
4. Have an operating range of 0 to 5000 ft.
5. Have a precision of +I- 2 feet between 0 and 500 ft.

The combination of the correct statements is?

RADIO ALTIMETERS 6.
In low altitude radio altimeters, the reading is zero when main landing gear wheels
are on the ground. For this, it is necessary to?

a. Change the display scale in short final, in order to have a precise

readout.
b. Compensate residual altitude due to antennas height above the ground
and coaxial cables length.
c. Account for signal processing time in the unit and apply a correction factor
to the reading.
d. Place the antennas on the bottom of the aeroplane.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 7.
The operating frequency range of a low altitude radio altimeter is?

a. 2700 MHz to 2900 MHz.

b. 5GHz.
c. 4200 MHz to 4400 MHz.
d. 5400 MHz or 9400 MHz.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 8.
Modern low altitude radio altimeters emit waves in the following frequency band?

a. HF (High Frequency).
b. UHF (Ultra High Frequency).
c. SHF (Super High Frequency).
d. VLF (Very Low Frequency).
RADIO ALTIMETERS 9.
The operation of the radio altimeter of a modern aircraft is based on?

a. Pulse modulation of the carrier wave.

b. A combination of frequency modulation and pulse modulation.
c. Frequency modulation of the carrier wave.
d, Amplitude modulation of the carrier wave.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 10.

In low altitude radio altimeters height measurement (above ground) is based upon?

a. A triangular amplitude modulation wave, for which modulation phase

shift between transmitted and received waves after ground reflection is
measured.
b. A frequency modulation wave, for which the frequency variation between
the transmitted wave and the received wave after ground reflection is
measured.
e. A pulse transmission, for which time between traasmission and reception
is measured.on a circular scanning screen.
d. A wave transmission, for which the frequency shift by DOPPLER effect
after ground reflection is measured.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 11.

The aircraft radio equipment which emits on a frequency of 4400 MHz is the?

a. Weather radar.
b. Primary radar.
C. Radio altimeter.
d. High altitude radio altimeter.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 12.

A radio altimeter is?

a. Aircraft based and indicates true altitude.

b. Aircraft based and indicates pressure altitude.
c. Aircraft based and indicates true height.
d. Ground based and employ microwaves.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 13.

Radio altimeters are based on the principle of?

a. Frequency modulated carrier wave.

b. Pulse modulated carrier wave.
c. Amplitude modulated carrier wave.
d. Continuous wave.
RADIO ALTIMETERS 14.
For the landing configuration a radio altimeter indicates?

a. Height of the aircraft above the ground.

b. Height of the flight deck above the ground.
c. Height of the main wheel above the ground.
d. Altitude.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 15.

Low altitude radio altimeters operate on the ......... wavelength?
a. Metric.
b. Decimetric.
c. Centhetric,
d. Millimetric.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 16.

Low altitude altimeters use the ........waveband?
a, HF.
b. VHF.
c. UHF.
d. SHF.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 17.

If there is a fault in the system the radalt display will?

a. Needle will disappear and an alarm flag will appear, possibly accompanied
by an audio warning.
b. Freeze.
c. Turn red and activate an aural warning.
d. Turn red and activate visual and aural warnings.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 18.

A radio altimeter measures?

a, True Altitude.
b. Pressure altitude.
c. Height above sea level.
d. Height above the ground or water over which the aircraft is flying.
 RADIO ALTIMETERS 19.
. A radalt is?

a. Ground based and measures true altitude.

b. Ground based and measures true height.
c. Aircraft based and measures true altitude.
d. Aircraft based and measures true height.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 20.

A RADALT provides?

ad Radio altitude.
b. Pressure altitude.
c. Density altitude.
d. Height above terrain.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 21.

The failure of the radio altimeter would cause?

a. Loss of pressure altitude data.

b. Loss of density altitude data.
c. Loss of altitude data.
d. Loss of height data.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 22.

A radio altimeter has a maximum effective height because?

a. At greater heights the signal will be too weak.

b. At greater heights the signal will be undetectable.
c. At greater heights the signal will be absorbed by moisture in the air.
d. At greater heights signal from different modulation cycles will overlap.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 23.

Radio altimeters work on the principal of?

a, Frequency modulation.
b. Amplitude modulation.
c. Pulse modulation.
d. Pulse and amplitude modulation.
RADIO ALTIMETERS 24.
A RADALT employs .......
waveband?

a. HF.
b. VHF.
c. UHF.
d. SHF.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 25.

Radio altimeters employ?

a. FM.
b. AM.
c. Pulsed FM.
d. Pulse modulation.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 26.

A radio altimeter will indicate zero when the aircraft is on the ground because of?

1. Frequency modulation of the transmitted signal.

2. Allowance for the signal path through the aircraft.
3. Allowance for the height of the aerials above the main wheels.
4. Beam width compensation.
5. Reduction in gain rate very close to the surface.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 27.

Radio altimeters are accurate only within the height range?

a. Zero to 50 ft.
b. Zero to 500 ft.
c. 50 ft to 2700 ft.
d. Zero ft to 2500 ft.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 28.

The frequency range used by a low altitude radio altimeter is?

a. 5 GHz.
b. 115 GHz to 750 GHz.
c. 1200 MHz to 1500 MHz.
d. 4200 MHz to 4400 MHz.
RADIO ALTIMETERS 29.
A RADALT system is?

a. Ground based and measures true altitude.

b. Ground based and measures true height.
c. Aircraft based and measures true altitude.
d. Aircraft based and measures true height.

vsr 1.
If the pitot pipe becomes partly blocked?

a. The VSI indication will be too low when climbing.

b. The VSI will be too low when descending.
c. The VSI will not be affected.
d. The VSI will be too low when descending and too high when climbing.

-
VSI 2.
If the static pipe becomes partly blocked?

a. The VSI indication will be too high when descending.

b. The VSI indication will be too high when accelerating.
c. The VSI indication will be too low when climbing or descending.
d. The VSI indication will be unaffected.

VSI 3.
VSI lag is reduced by?

a. Two dashpots responding to acceleration.

b. Two return springs.
c. Bi-metallic strips.
d. Electronic systems.

VSI 4.
If the choke in the VSI becomes partly blocked?

a. The VSI indication will be too high when climbing.

b. The VSI indication will be too low when descending.
c. The VSI indication will be too high at all times.
d. The VSI indication will be too high when climbing or descending.
-
VSI 5.
The correct action to be taken when the static vent blocks on an unpressurised
aircraft is to?

a. Break the VSI glass.

b. Use the standby static source.
c. Calculate ROC using mathematically.
d. Open a window to equalise pressures.

VSI 6.
If the casing of a VSI in a pressurised aircraft develops a leak?

a. VSI indications will be too low when climbing or descending.

b. VSI indications will be too high when climbing or descending.
c. VSL indications will be too low when climbing and too high when
descending.
d. VSI indications will be too high when climbing and too low when
descending.

VSI 7.
L_I

A VSI?

a. Produces an output proportional to ambient pressure.

b. Measures the difference between total pressure and static pressure.
c. Measures the difference between the pressure inside and outside a capsule.
d. Measures only dynamic pressure.

-
VSI 8.
A VSI indicates increasing ROD by?

a. VSI needle moving downwards.

b. VSI needle moving upwards.
c. VSI needle stationary.
d. The VSI indicates only vertical speeds, not accelerations.

VSI 9.
As an aircraft moves close to the ground during a landing the VSI might?

a. Become inaccurate due to ground effect.

b. Become inaccurate due to turbulence.
c. Stick due to loss of pitot source.
d. Become inaccurate due to aircraft attitude changes.
VSI 10.
What should the VSI indicate when an aircraft on a 3 degree glideslope is flying at
100 Kts TAS?

a. 224 fpm descent.

b. 324 fpm descent.
c. 424 fpm descent.
d. 524 fpm descent.

VSI 11.
If the static pipe becomes partly blocked?

a. The VSI indication will be too high when descending.

b. The VSI indication will be too high when accelerating at constant altitude.
c. The VSI indication will be too low at all times.
d. The VSI indication will be too low when descending.

VSI 12.
If the pitot pipe becomes partly blocked?

a. The VSI will over read when climbing or descending.

b. The VSI will be unaffected.
c. The VSI will over under read at all times.
d. The VSI will read zero at all times.

VSI 13.
The response rate of a VSI can be improved by fitting a?

a. Accelerometer system.
b. Choke system.
c. Bi-rnetalic compensator.
d. Return spring.

VSI 14.
If the port static vent of a large aircraft is blocked, what will happen to the VSI
indications when it is side slipping to the left in a descent?

a. Over indicate.
b. Under indicate.
c. Be unaffected.
d. Fluctuate.
-
AS1 1. '

What does the "barber's pole" used on some ASI's indicate?

a. MMO.
b. VNE.
c. TAS.
d. Temperature and VMO.

AS1 2.
What speed is VNO?

a. That which may only be exceeded with caution and in still air.
b. That which may never be exceeded.
c. That which may be exceeded only in emergencies.
d. The maximum at which fully control deflection is possible without
overstressing the aircraft structure.

AS1 3.
From what is VMo calculated?

a. TAS.
b. EAS.
c. CAS
d. RAS.

AS1 4.
What will be the effect if the drain hole and pitot tapping in a pitot probe are
blocked, whilst the static source remains open?

a. The AS1 will respond to changes in pressure altitude only.

b. The AS1 will not respond.
c. The AS1 will under read at all speeds.
d. The AS1 will over read when accelerating, decelerating, climbing or
descending.

AS1 5.
What do the upper and lower limits of the yellow arc on an AS1 represent?

a. VNEand VNo.
b. VNOand VNE.
c. VMo and V N ~ .
d. VNOand VMO.
AS1 6.
If the pitot source and drain become blocked by ice when in cruise flight, how will
the AS1 respond when descending?

a. It will under read.

b. It will over read.
c. It will read zero in all conditions.
d. It will remain fixed at the reading at which it became blocked.

AS1 7.
At msl in the ISA?

a. CAS = TAS.
b. IAS =TAS.
c. IAS = EAS.
d. CAS<TAS.

-
AS1 8.
In an AS1 system, what does the pitot probe measure?

a. Total pressure.
b. Dynamic pressure.
c. Static pressure.
d. Ambient pressure.

AS1 9.
What does the blue line on a twin engine piston aircraft AS1 indicate?

AS1 10.
What are indicated by the lower and upper ends of the white arc on an ASI?

a. VSI and VFE.

b. Vso and VFE.
c. Vm and VFO.
d. VSEand V N ~ .
AS1 11.
Vm is the?

a. Maximum speed at which the aircraft is permitted to fly with its flaps
extended.
b. Maximum speed at which the flaps can be extended or retracted.
c. The minimum speed for flaps up flight.
d. The maximum speed for flaps up flight.

AS1 12.
What will be the effect on the AS1 if the pitot tube of an unpressurised aircraft is
fractured and the pitot drain is blocked?

a. It will over read.

b. It will under read.
c. It will give a constant reading.
d. It will read zero at all speeds.

AS1 13.
At any given weight or altitude, an aircraft will always lift-off at the same?

a. CAS.
b. TAS.
c. Ground speed.
d. EAS.

AS1 14.
CAS is?

a. EAS corrected for position error and compressibility error.

b. IAS corrected for position error and instrument error.
c. TAS corrected for instrument error and ram effect.
d. IAS corrected for density error and position error.

AS1 15.
When descending from FL400 and attempting to maintain maximum groundspeed,
airspeed will be limited by?

a. VNEthen VMO.
b. VNOthen VNE.
c. MMOthen VMO.
d. VMo then MMO.
AS1 16.
What will happen to TAS when descending through an isothermal layer at constant
CAS?

a. Decrease.
b. Increase.
c. Remain constant.
d. Decrease then increase.

AS1 17.
When descending through an inversion at constant TAS?

a. Mach number increases.

b. Mach number decreases.
c. Mach number remains constant.
d. CAS decreases.

AS1 18.
When climbing through an inversion at constant TAS?

a. Mach number increases.

b. Mach number decreases.
c. Mach number remains constant.
d. CAS increases.

AS1 19.
When descending through an inversion at constant CAS?

a. TAS increases.
b. Mach number increases.
c. Mach number remains constant.
d. TAS remains constant.

AS1 20.
When climbing through an inversion at constant CAS?

a. TAS increases.
b. Mach number decreases.
c. Mach number remains constant.
d. TAS decreases.
 AS1 21.
When climbing through an inversion at constant mach number?

a. CAS increases.
b. TAS decreases.
C. TAS remains constant.
d. TAS increases.

AS1 22.
When descending through an inversion at constant mach number?

a. TAS increases.
b. TAS decreases.
c. TAS remains constant.
d. CAS decreases.

AS1 23.
When climbing through an inversion at constant mach number?

a. CAS increases.
--
b. LSS decreases.
c. TAS remains constant.
d. TAS increases.

AS1 24.
When descending through an inversion at constant mach number?

a. CAS decreases.
b. LSS increases.
c. LSS remains constant.
d. TAS decreases.

AS1 25.
When climbing through an inversion at constant CAS?

a. TAS increases.
b. TAS decreases.
c. TAS remains constant.
d. Mach number decreases.
AS1 26.
When descending through an inversion at constant CAS?

a. TAS increases.
b. TAS decreases.
c. TAS remains constant.
d. Mach number increases.

AS1 27.
When descending through an isothermal layer at constant TAS?

a. Mach number increases.

b. Mach number decreases.
c. Mach number remains constant.
d. CAS decreases.

AS1 28.
When climbing through an isothermal layer at constant TAS?

a. Mach number increases.

b. Mach number decreases.
c. Mach number remains constant.
d. CAS decreases.

AS1 29.
Wben descending through an isothermal layer at constant CAS?
a. Mach number increases.
b. Mach number decreases.
c. Mach number remains constant.
d. TAS increases.

AS1 30.
When climbing through an isothermal layer at constant CAS?

a. Mach number increases.

b. Mach number decreases.
c. Mach number remains constant.
d. TAS decreases.
AS1 31.
When climbing through an isothermal layer at constant mach number?

a. TAS increases.
b. TAS decreases.
c. TAS remains constant.
d. CAS increases.

AS1 32.
When descending through an isothermal layer at constant mach number?

a. TAS increases.
b. TAS decreases.
c. TAS remains constant.
d. CAS decreases.

AS1 33.
When climbing through an isothermal layer at constant mach number?

a. CAS increases.
b. CAS decreases.
c. CAS remains constant.
d. TAS decreases.

AS1 34.
When descepding through an isothermal layer at constant CAS?

a. LSS increases.
b. LSS decreases.
c. LSS remains constant.
d. TAS increases.

AS1 35.
When climbing through an isothermal layer at constant CAS?

a. TAS increases.
b. TAS decreases.
c. TAS remains constant.
d. Mach number decreases.
 AS1 36.
When descending through an isothermal layer at constant CAS?

a. TAS increases.
b. TAS decreases.
c. TAS remains constant.
d. Mach number increases.

AS1 37.
If pressure remains constant as temperature increases?

a. Density will increase, causing the CAS :TAS ratio to increase.

b. Density will increase, causing the CAS :TAS ratio to decrease.
c. Density will decrease, causing the CAS : TAS ratio to increase.
d. Density will decrease, causing the CAS : TAS ratio to decrease.

AS1 38.
If the pitot pipe becomes partly blocked?

a. The IAS reading will be too low when climbing.

b. The IAS reading will be too low when descending.
c. The IAS reading will be too low at all times.
d. The IAS reading will be too low when descending and too high when
-..
climbing.

AS1 39.
If the pitot pipe becomes partly blocked?

a. The IAS will be too high when descending.

b. The IAS will be too high when accelerating.
c. The IAS will be too low at all times.
d. The IAS will be too low when accelerating.

AS1 40.
If the static pipe becomes partly blocked?

a. The IAS and ROC will be too low when climbing.

b. The IAS and ROC will be too low when descending.
c. The IAS and ROC will be too low at all times.
d. The IAS will be too low when descending and too high when climbing.
AS1 41.
If the static pipe becomes partly blocked?

a. The IAS will be too high when descending at constant IAS.

b. The IAS will be too high when accelerating at constant altitude.
c. The IAS will be too low at all times.
d. The IAS will be too low when accelerating at constant altitude.

AS1 42.
If the pitot pipe becomes partly blocked?

a. The AS1 will over read and the error will be greater when climbing at
constant CAS than when climbing at constant TAS.
b. The AS1 will over read and the error will be greater when climbing at
constant TAS than when climbing at constant CAS.
c. The AS1 will under read and the error will be greater when climbing at
constant CAS than when climbing at constant TAS.
d. The AS1 will under read and the error will be greater when climbing at
constant TAS then when climbing at constant CAS.

AS1 43.
CAS is IAS corrected for?

a. Position error.
b. Instrument error.
c. Compressibility error.
d. Temperature error.

AS1 44.
What does the white arc on an AS1 indicate?

a. Vso at the lower end and Vm at the upper end.

b. Vso at the lower end and VFOat the upper end.
c. Vsl at the lower end and V F at
~ the upper end.
d. Vsl at the lower end and VFOat the upper end.

AS1 45.
If the pitot source becomes blocked while the static source remains open, an AS1
will?

a. Under read at all speeds.

b. Over read at all speeds.
c. Read zero at all speeds.
d. Give an indication proportional to altitude.
AS1 46.
The pitot source in an AS1 system provides?

a. Dynamic pressure.
b. Static pressure.
c. Kinetic pressure.
d. Total pressure.

AS1 47.
The barber's pole on an AS1 indicates?

a. VNE.
b. VMO.
c. VMo and temperature.
d. VNO.

AS1 48.
If an aircraft is climbed with a constant mach meter indication in the ISA, how
should the AS1 indication respond?

a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Increase then remain constant.
d. Decrease then remain constant.

AS1 49.
The blue line on the AS1 of a twin prop aircraft indicates?

AS1 50.
The yellow arc on an AS1 indicates?

a. VNOat lower end apd V m at upper end.

b. VNEat lower end and VMoat upper end.
c. VLOat lower end and Vm at upper end.
d. VFOat lower end and Vm at upper end.
AS1 51.
VNEis?

a. The speed that must never be exceeded.

b. The maximum speed for normal operations.
c. The best climb speed.
d. The best descent speed.

AS1 52.
What is VFE?

a. The maximum speed for extending or retracting the flaps.

b. The maximum speed for flight with the flaps extended.
c. The maximum speed for the flight envelope.
d. The minimum speed for extending or retracting the flaps.

AS1 53.
-
What is VLO?

a. The maximum speed with landing gear out.

b. The maximum speed for retracting or extending the landing gear.
c. The minimum speed for flight with landing gear out.
d. The minimum speed for flight when operating the landing gear.

AS1 54.
What does the green arc on an AS1 indicate?

a. VLEat the lower end and VLOat the upper end.

b. VFEat the lower end and VFOat the upper end.
c. Vsl at the lower end and MMoat the upper end.
d. Vsl at the lower end and VNOat the upper end.

AS1 55.
What is VNO?

a. Maximum operating speed.

b. Maximum emergency speed.
c. Maximum cruise speed.
d. Maximum dive speed.
AS1 56.
Where on an AS1 is V ~ indicated?
E

a. The upper end of the white arc.

b. The lower end of the yellow arc.
c. The blue radial line.
d. The upper of the green arc.

AS1 57.
Where on an AS1 is Vpo indicated?

a. The upper end of the white arc.

b. The lower end of the white arc.
c. .
It is not specifically marked but will be more than V ~ E
d. I t is not specifically marked but will be less than VFE.

AS1 58.
Where on an AS1 is VMo indicated?

a. Upper end of green mark and lower end of yellow arc.

b. Lower end of green arc and upper end of white arc.
c. Upper end of white arc and lower end of green arc.
d. Upper end of blue arc and lower end of yellow arc.

AS1 59.
Where on an AS1 is VNOindicated?

a. Upper end of green mark and lower end of yellow arc.

b. Lower end of green arc and upper end of white arc.
c. Upper end of white arc and lower end of green arc.
d. Upper end of blue arc and lower end of yellow arc.

AS1 60.
Where on an twin prop aircraft AS1 is V y s indicated?
~

a. The upper end of the white arc.

b. The lower end of the yellow arc.
c. The blue radial line.
d. The upper of the green arc.
AS1 61.
Where on an AS1 is VNEindicated?

a. The red radial line at the upper end of the white arc.
b. The red radial line at the lower end of the green arc.
c. The red radi'al line at the upper end of the yellow arc.
d. The blue radial line at the upper end of the yellow arc.

AS1 62.
Where on an AS1 is VLOindicated?

a. The upper end of the white arc.

b. The lower end of the white arc.
c. It is not specifically marked but will be less than VLE .
d. It is not specifically marked but will be more than VLE.

AS1 63.
Where on an AS1 is Vs with flaps up indicated?

a. Lower end of white arc.

b. Upper end of yellow arc.
c. Lower end of green arc.
d. Upper end of green arc.

AS1 64.
Vm is ........... and is indicated by the ........ on an ASI?
a. Max speed for flap retraction upper end of green arc
b. Max speed for flap down flight upper end of white arc.
c. Min speed for flaps up flight lower end of white arc.
d. Min speed for flap retraction upper end of yellow arc.

AS1 65.
VNOis ..........and is indicated by the .......on an ASI?
a. Min speed for normal operations Lower end of green arc.
b. Max speed for normal operations upper end of green arc.
c. Min speed for night operations lower end of white arc.
d. Min speed for non routine operations red radial line.
AS1 66.
VNEis ......... and is indicated by the ........on an ASI?
a. Minimum night envelope speed upper end of white arc.
b. Maximum night envelope speed lower end of green arc.
c. Never exceed speed red radial line at the upper
end of the yellow arc.
d. Normal endurance speed green radial at the upper end of
the green arc.

AIRSPEEDS 1.
Considering the maximum operational Mach number (MMO) and the maximum
operational speed (VMO), the captain of a pressurized aircraft begins his descent
from a high flight level. In order to meet his scheduled time of arrival, he decides
to use the maximum ground speed at any time of the descent. He will be limited?

a. By the MMO.
b. By the VMO in still air.
c. Initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below a certain flight level.
d. Initially by the VMO, then by the MMO below a certain flight level.

AIRSPEEDS 2.
In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the calibrated airspeed (CAS) is?

a. Lower than the true airspeed (TAS).

b. Equal to the true airspeed (TAS).
c. Independent of the true airspeed (TAS).
d. Higher than the true airspeed (TAS).

AIRSPEEDS 3.
With a constant weight, irrespective of the airfield altitude, an aircraft always takes
off at the same?

a. Calibrated airspeed.
b. Ground speed.
c. True airspeed.
d. Equivalent airspeed.

AIRSPEEDS 4.
The calibrated airspeed (CAS) is obtained by applying to the indicated airspeed
(IAS)?

a. A compressibility and density correction.

b. An instrument and position/pressure error correction.
c. An antenna and compressibility correction.
d. An instrument and density correction.
The velocity maximum operating (VMO) is a speed expressed in?

a. True airspeed (TAS).

b. Computed airspeed (COAS).
c. Calibrated airspeed (CAS).
d. Equivalent airspeed (EAS).

AIRSPEEDS 6.
The limits of the white scale of an airspeed indicator are?

a. VSI for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit.
b. VSO for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit.
c. VSI for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit.
d. VSO for the lower limit and W E for the upper limit.

AIRSPEEDS 7.
The limits of the green scale of an airspeed indicator are?

a. VS1 for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.
b. VS1 for the lower limit and VLO for the upper limit.
c. VS1 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit.
d. VSO for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit.

AIRSPEEDS 8.
The limits of the yellow scale of an airspeed indicator are?

a. VLO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.
b. VLE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.
c. VFE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.
d. VNO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.

AIRSPEEDS 9.
During a straight and uniform climb, the pilot maintains a constant calibrated
airspeed (CAS)?

a. The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) increases.
b. The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) is constant.
c. The Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS) is constant.
d. The Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS) decreases.
AIRSPEEDS 10.
VLE is the maximum?

a. Speed authorized in flight.

b. Flight speed with landing gear down.
c. Speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety.
d. Speed with flaps extended in a given position.

AIRSPEEDS 11.
VLO is the maximum?

a. Speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety.
b. Flight speed with landing gear down.
c. Speed with flaps extended in a given position.
d. Cruising speed not to be exceeded except in still air with caution.

AIRSPEEDS 12.
VNE is the maximum speed?

a. At which the flight controls can be fully deflected.

b. With flaps extended in landing position.
c. Which must never be exceeded.
d. Not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution.

AIRSPEEDS 13.
VNO is the maximum speed?

a. Which must never be exceeded.

b. At which the flight controls can be fully deflected.
c. With flaps extended in landing position.
d. Not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution.

AIRSPEEDS 14.
For a constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) and a level flight, a fall in ambient
temperature will result in a?

a. Lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density.

b. Lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density.
c. Higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density.
d. Higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density.
AIRSPEEDS 15.
When climbing at a constant Mach number below the tropopause, in ISA
conditions, the Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) will?

a. Decrease.
b. Increase at a linear rate.
c. Remain constant.
d. Increase at an exponential rate.

AIRSPEEDS 16.
If the outside temperature at 35 000 feet is -40' C, the local speed of sound is?

a. 686 kt.
b. 596 kt.
c. 247 kt.
d. 307 kt.

AIRSPEEDS 17.
When descending through an isothermal layer at a constant Calibrated Airspeed
(CAS), the True Airspeed (TAS) will?

a. Decrease.
b. Increase at a linear rate.
c. Remain constant.
d. Increase at an exponential rate.

AIRSPEEDS 18.
In a steady climb with the auto-throttle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed.
If the total temperature remains constant, the Mach number?

a. Decreases.
b. Remains constant.
c. Decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard
temperature.
d. Increases.

AIRSPEEDS 19.
The airspeed indicator of a twin-engined aircraft comprises different sectors and
color marks. The blue line corresponds to the?

a. Maximum speed in operations, or VMO.

b. Optimum climbing speed with one engine inoperative, or Vy.
c. Speed not to be exceeded, or VNE.
d. Minimum control speed, or VMC.
The airspeed indicator of an aircraft is provided with a moving red and white
hatched pointer. This pointer indicates the?

a. Speed indicated on the auto-throttle control box, versus temperature.

b. Speed indicated on the auto-throttle control box versus altitude.
c. Maximum speed in VMO operation versus altitude.
d. Maximum speed in VMO operation, versus temperature.

AIRSPEEDS 21.
VFE is the maximum speed?

a. At which the flaps can be operated.

b. With the flaps extended in take-off position.
c. With the flaps extended in a given position.
d. With the flaps extended in landing position.

AIRSPEEEDS 22.
An airplane is in steady descent. The auto-throttle maintains a constant Mach
number. If the total temperature remains constant, the calibrated airspeed?

a. Remains constant.
b. Decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard
temperature, increases if above.
c. Increases.
d. Decreases.

AIRSPEEDS 23.
An aeroplane is in steady descent below the tropopause in the ISA. The auto-
throttle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the total temperature remains
constant, the Mach number?

a. Increases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature,

decreases if higher.
b. Decreases.
c. Increases.
d. Remains constant.
An aeroplane is in a steady climb. The auto-throttle maintains a constant Mach
number. If the total temperature remains constant, the calibrated airspeed?

a. Decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature,

increases if higher.
b. Decreases.
c. Increases.
d. Remains constant.

MACH 1.
How will mach meter indication respond if an aircraft is flying at constant CAS at
FL270 when it experiences a reduction in OAT?

a. No change.
b. Increase.
C. Decrease.
d. Increase or decrease depending on TAT.

MACH 2.
What is the LSS at 30000 ft if ambient temperature is -40' C?

a. 579 Kts.
b. 660 Kts.
c. 584 Kts.
d. 594 Kts.

MACH 3.
Which of the following best defines Mach number?

a. The ratio of TAS:LSS.

b. The ratio of LSS:TAS.
c. The ratio of CAS:LSS.
d. The ratio of ambient density to that at msl in the ISA.

MACH 4.
A mach meter comprises of?

a. A combination of AS1 and altimeter.

b. A combination of VSI and altimeter.
c. An AS1 with its scale marked in mach numbers.
d. An altimeter with its scale marked in mach numbers.
MACH 5.
What is the LSS at 40000 ft in the ISA?
.rl

a. 542 Kts.
b. 660 Kts.
c. 573 Kts.
d. 550 Kts.

MACH 6.
How will mach meter indication vary in a constant CAS climb?

a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Increase then remain constant.
d. remain constant.

MACH 7.
What is the LSS at msl ISA?

a. 600 Kts
b. 550 Kts.
c. 750 Kts.
d. 661 Kts.

MACH 8.
Mach meter indications?

a. Vary with airspeed and temperature.

b. Vary only with airspeed.
c. Vary only with temperature.
d. Vary with density and altitude.

MACH 9.
How will mach meter indication respond if an aircraft passes through a cold front
when flying at constant CAS and altitude?

a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Remain constant.
d. Increase or decrease depending on altitude.
MACH 10.
How will the mach meter respond in a constant CAS climb if the static source
becomes blocked?

a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Remain constant.
d. Increase or decrease depending on airspeed.

MACH 11.
How will the mach meter respond in a constant TAS climb if the static source
becomes blocked?

a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Remain constant.
d. Increase or decrease depending on airspeed.

MACH 12.
How will the mach meter respond in a constant mach number climb if the static
source becomes blocked?

a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Remain constant.
d. Increase or decrease depending on airspeed.

MACH 13.
The indications on a mach meter are independent of?

a. Dynamic pressure.
b. Ambient temperature.
c. Static pressure.
d. Total pressure.

MACH 14.
What happens to mach meter indication in a constant RAS climb?

a. Increases.
b. Decreases.
c. Increases then remains constant.
d. Increases unless in an inversion or isothermal layer.
MACH 15.
What would happen if the static pipe became detached from the back of a mach
meter in a pressurised aircraft at high altitude?

a. Under read.
b. Over read.
c. No effect.
d. Under read or over read depending on temperature.

MACH 16.'
If an aircraft climbs at constant TAS from FL 200 to FL 400 the mach meter
indication will?

a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Increase then reniain constant.
d. Decrease then remain constant.

MACH 17.
A mach meter is made up of?

a. An altimeter with a density capsule.

b. An AS1 with an altitude capsule.
c. A VSI with a modified scale.
d. An AS1 with a modified scale.

MACH 18.
VMois calculated based on?

a. TAS.
b. RAS.
c. CAS.
d. EAS.

MACH 19.
Mach number is the ratio of?
MACH 20. . -
If the static source becomes blocked the mach meter will ....... as an aircraft
climbs?

a. Over indicate.
b. Under indicate.
c. Not indicate.
d. Freeze.

MACH 21.
If temperature decreases when flying at constant CAS at FL 200, the mach meter
.........
indication will and the true mach number will .....
?

a. Increase increase.
b. Decrease decrease.
c. Not change not change.
d. Not change increase.

MACH 22.
Mach meter indications?

a. Are temperature related.

b. Increase with temperature.
c. Decrease with temperature.
d. Are independent of temperature.

MACH 23.
The speed of sound at ISA msl is?

a. 550 Kts.
b. 560 Kts.
c. 660 Kts.
d. 670 kts.

MACH 24.
If ambient temperature is -lo0 C, what is the mach number when TAS is 594 Kts?
MACH 25.
The speed of sound at 25000 ft ISA is?

a. 600 Kts.
b. 602 Kts.
c. 604 kts.
d. 606 Kts.

MACH 26.
What is true mach number at 25000 ft ISA if the TAS is 500 Kts?

MACH 27.
A mach meter indicates mach number based on the ratio of?

a. Static pressure to pitot pressure.

b. Pitot pressure to static pressure.
c. Dynamic pressure to static pressure.
d. Static pressure to dynamic pressure.

MACH 28.
How will CAS respond if temperature increases by 5 degrees C when flying at a
constant indicated mach number at FL290?

a. Increases.
b. Decreases.
c. Remains approximately constant.
d. Depends on conditions relative to ISA.

MACH 29.
What happens to TAT when an aircraft descends at constant indicated mach
number?

a. Increases.
b. Decreases.
c. Remain constant.
d. Remains constant then increases.
MACH 30.
What is actually measured by a mach meter?

a. Pitot pressure.
b. The ratio of (pitot pressure - static pressure) : static pressure.
c. The ratio of static pressure to dynamic pressure.
d. The ratio of (static pressure + pitot pressure) : pitot pressure.

MACH 31.
When descending at constant CAS, the TAT and mach meter indications should?

a. Increase increase.
b. Increase decrease.
c. Increase then remain constant decrease.
d. Remain constant remain constant.

MACH 32.
Mach meter indications are derived from?

MACH 33.
If temperature increases by 5 degrees C during a constant mach number descent,
what will happen to CAS?

a. Increase by 5 Kts.
b. Increase by 10 Kts.
c. Remain constant.
d. Increase or decrease depending on whether conditions are above or below
ISA.

MACH 34.
A mach meter compares?
MACH 35.
What does mach number represent?

a. The CAS of an aircraft as a fraction of the local speed of sound.

b. The local speed of sound as a fraction of the CAS of an aircraft.
c. The TAS of an aircraft as a fraction of the local speed of sound.
d. The local speed of sound as a fraction of the CAS of an aircraft.

MACH 36.
What is the local speed of sound at sea level if the ambient temperature is 20' C?

a. 661 Kts.
b. 666 Kts.
c. 677 Kts.
d. 680 Kts.

MACH 37.
If ambient temperature increases by 10 degrees, for an aircraft flying at constant
TAS, the indicated mach number will ........
and the true mach number will ........
7

a. Increase increase
b. Decrease decrease.
c. Not change increase.
d. Not change decrease.

MACH 38.
When climbing at constant mach number below the torpopause in the ISA, the
CAS will?

a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Remain constant.
d. Decrease then remain constant.

MACH 39.
When descending at constant CAS, if temperature remains constant the indicated
mach number will?

a. Remain constant.
b. Increase.
c. Decrease .
d. Increase exponentially.
MACH 40.
What should the mach meter indicate when flying
. . at 500 kts TAS at FL250, if the

ambient temperatul'e is -30' C?

GYRO 1.
The building principle of a gyroscope, the best efficiency is obtained through the
concentration of the mass?

a. Close to the axis and with a low rotation speed.

b. On the periphery and with a high rotation speed.
c. Close to the axis and with a high rotation speed.
d. On the periphery and with a low rotation speed.

GYRO 2.
A Standby horizon or emergency attitude indicator?

a. Only works of there is a complete electrical failure.

b. Contains its swn separate gyro.
c. Is automatically connected to the primary vertical gyro if the alternator
fails.
d. Is fully independent of external energy resources in an emergency situation.

GYRO 3.
The basis properties of a gyroscope are?

1. The gyro's weight.

2. The rigidity in space.
3. The inertia.
4. The high RPM.
5. The precession

The combination of correct statements is?

GYRO 4.
The indications of the directional gyro when used as an on-board instrument are
valid only for a short period of time. The causes of this inaccuracy are?

1. The earth's rotation.

2. - T h e longitudinal acceleration.
3. The aircraft's motion over the surface of the earth.
4. The mechanical defects of the gyro.
5. The gyro's weight.
6. The gimbal mount of the gyro rings.

The combination of correct statements is?

GYRO 5.
The characteristics of the directional gyro @G) used in a gyro stabilised compass
system are?

a. One degree of freedom, whose vertical axis, aligned with the real
vertical to the location is maintained in this direction by an automatic
erecting system.
b. Two degrees of freedom, whose horizontal axis corresponding to the
reference direction is maintained in the horizontal plane by an
automatic erecting system.
c. Two degrees of freedom, whose axis aligned with the vertical to the
location is maintained in this direction by an erecting system.
d. One degree of freedom, whose horizontal axis is maintained - in the
horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system.

GYRO 6.
A gravity type erector is used in a vertical gyro device to correct errors
on?

a. An artificial horizon
b. A directional gyro unit.
c. . A turn indicator.
d. A gyro-magnetic indicator.
GYRO 7.
When an aircraft has turned 360 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the
pilot observes the following on a classic artificial horizon?

a. Too much nose-up and bank correct.

b. Too much nose-up and bank too high.
c. Attitude and bank correct.
d. 'Too much nose-up and bank too low.

GYRO 8.
When an aircraft has turned 270 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the
pilot observes the following on a classic artificial horizon?

a. Too much nose-up and bank too high.

b. Too much nose-up and bank too low.
c. Attitude and bank correct.
d. Too much nose-up and bank correct.

GYRO 9.
Note: in this question, the degrees of freedom of a gyro are determined by the
number of gimbal rings it comprises. Among the flight control instruments, the
artificial horizon plays an essential part. I t uses a gyroscope with?

a. Two degrees of freedom, whose axis is oriented and continuously

maintained to local vertical by an automatic erecting system.
b. Two degrees of freedom, whose horizontal axis corresponding to a
reference direction is maintained in a horizontal plane by an automatic
erecting system.
c. One degree of freedom, whose horizontal axis is maintained in a
horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system.
d. One degree of freedom, whose vertical axis oriented in the direction
of the real vertical to the location is maintained in this direction by an
automatic erecting system.

GYRO 10.
A slaved directional gyro derives it's directional signal from?

a. A direct reading magnetic compass.

b. The flight director.
c. The flux valve.
d. The air-data-computer.
GYRO 11.
A turn indieator is built arouad a gyrsseepe with?

a. 1degree of freedom.
b. 3 degrees of freedom.
c. 2 degrees of fkeedom.
d. 0 degree of freedom.

GYRO 12.
The diagram below shows three gyro assemblies: A, B and C. Among these gyros,

One is a roH gyro (noted 1).

One is a pitch gyro (noted 2).
One is a yaw gyro (noted 3)

The correct matching of gyros and assemblies is?

GYRO 13.
The indications on a atirectimal gyroscope or gyrocompass are subject to errors,
due to:

1. Rotation of Earth.
2. Aeroplane motion on Earth.
3. Lateral and transversal aeroplane bank angles.
4. North change.
5. Mechanical defects.

Chose the combination with true statements only?

GYRO 14.
At a low bank angle, the measurement of rate-of-turn actually consists in
measuring the?

a. Angular velocity of the aircraft.

b. Yaw rate of the aircraft.
c. Pitch rate of the aircraft.
d. Roll rate of the aircraft.

GYRO 15.
An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom and a
horizontal spin axis is?

a. 'An artificial horizon.

b. A turn indicator..
c. A fluxgate compass.
d. A directional gyro.

GYRO 16.
When, in fight, the needle of a needle and ball indicator is on the left and the ball
on the right, the aircraft is?

a. Turning left with b e much bank.

b. Turning right wit& not enough bank.
c. Turning right with toa mwh bank.
d. Turhilig left with not enough bank.
GYRO 17.
When, in flight, the needle of a needle and ball indicator is on the right and the ball
on the left, the aircraft is?

a. Turning left with too much bank.

b. Turning right with not enough bank.
c. Turning right with too much bank.
d. Turning left with not enough bank.

GYRO 18.
When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle and ball indicator are on the
right, the aircraft is?

a. Turning left with too much bank.

b. Turning left with not enough bank.
c. Turning right with too much bank.
d. Turning right with not enough bank.

GYRO 19.
When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle-and-ball indicator are on the left,
the aircraft is?

a. Turning right with too much bank.

b. Turning right with not enough bank.
c. Turning left with too much bank.
d. Turning left with not enough bank.

GYRO 20.
On the ground, during a left turn, the turn indicator indicates?

a. Needle to the left, ball to the left.

b. Needle in the middle, ball to the right.
c. Needle in the middle, ball to the left.
d. Needle to the left, ball to the right.

GYRO 21.
The rate-of-turn is the?

a. Pitch rate in a turn.

b. Change-of-heading rate of the aircraft.
c. Yaw rate in a turn aircraft.
d. Speed in a turn.
GYRO 22.
In a Turn-indicator, the measurement of rate of turn consists for?

a. High bank angles, in measuring the yaw rate.

b. High bank angles, in measuring the roll rate.
c. Low bank angles, in measuring the yaw rate.
d. Low bank angles, in measuring the roll rate.

GYRO 23.
In a turn at constant rate, the turn indicator reading is?

a. Proportional to the aircraft true airspeed.

b. Independent to the aircraft true airspeed.
c. Proportional to the aircraft weight.
d. Inversely proportional to the aircraft true airspeed.

GYRO 24.
An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom and a
horizontal spin axis is?

a. A directional gyro.
b. An artificial horizon.
c. A turn indicator.
d. A flux gate compass.

GYRO 25.
An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 1 degree of freedom and a
horizontal spin axis is a?

a. Pluxgate compass.
b. Directional gyro.
c. Turn indicator.
dl Gyro-magnetic compass.

GYRO 26.
The vertical reference unit of a three-axis data generator is equipped with a gyro
with?

a. 1 degree of freedom and horizontal spin axis.

b. 1 degree of freedom and vertical spin axis.
c. 2 degrees of freedom and vertical spin axis.
d. 2 degrees of freedom and horizontal spin axis.
GYRO 27.
When an aircraft has turned 90 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the pilot
observes the following on a classic artificial horizon?

a. Too much nose-up and bank correct.

b. Too much nose-up and bank too high.
c. Too much nose-up and bank too low.
d. Attitude and bank correct.

GYRO 28.
On the ground, during a right turn, the turn indicator indicates?

a. Needle in the middle, ball to left.

b. Needle to the right, ball to left.
c. Needle to the right, ball to right.
d. Needle in the middle, ball to right.

GYRO 29.
The heading reference unit of a three-axis data generator is equipped with a gyro
with?

a. 2 degrees of freedom and horizontal spin axis.

b. 2 degrees of freedom and vertical spin axis.
c. 1degree of freedom and horizontal spin axis.
d. 1degree of freedom and vertical spin axis.

GYRO 30.
Following 180° stabilized turn with a constant attitude and bank, the artificial
horizon indicates?

a. Too high pitch-up and too low banking.

b. Too high pitch-up and correct banking.
c. Attitude and banking correct.
d. Too high pitch up and too high banking.

GYRO 31.
The gyro-magnetic compass torque motor?

a. Causes the directional gyro unit to precess.

b. Causes the heading indicator to precess.
c. Feeds the error detector system.
d. Is fed by the flux valve.
GYRO 32.
The heading information originating from the gyro-magnetic compass flux valve is
sent to the?

a. Error detector.
b. Erector system.
c. Heading indicator.
d. Amplifier.

GYRO 33.
The input signal of the amplifier of the gyro-magnetic compass resetting device
originates from the?

a. Directional gyro erection device.

b. Error detector.
c. Flux valve.
d. Directional gyro unit.

GYRO 34.
A rate integrating gyro is a detecting element used in?

1. An inertial attitude unit.

2. An automatic pilot.
3. A stabilizing servo system.
4. An inertial navigation system.
5. A rate-of-turn indicator.

The combination of correct statements is?

GYRO 35.
Under normal operating conditions, when an aircraft is in a banked turn, the rate-
of-turn indicator is a valuable gyroscopic flight control instrument ;when it is
associated with an attitude indicator it indicates?

1. The angular velocity of the aircraft about the yaw axis.

2. The bank of the aircraft.
3. The direction of the aircraft turn.
4. The angular velocity of the aircraft about the real vertical.

The combination of correct statements is?

GYRO 36.
The gimbal error of the directional gyro is due to the effect of?

a. A bank or pitch attitude of the aircraft.

b. An apparent weight and an apparent vertical.
c. Too slow precession on the horizontal gimbal ring.
d. The aircraft's track over the earth

GYRO 37.
The pendulum type detector system of the directional gyro feeds?

a. A torque motor on the sensitive axis.

b. 2 torque motors arranged horizontally.
c. A leveling erection torque motor.
d. A nozzle integral with the outer gimbal ring.

GYRO 38.
The directional gyro axis spins about the local vertical by 15'/hour?

a. In the latitude 30'.

b. In the latitude 45'.
c. On the equator.
d. On the North pole.

GYRO 39.
Compared with a conventional gyro, a laser gyro?

a. Consumes a lot of power.

b. Has a longer life cycle.
c. Is influenced by temperature.
d. Has a fairly long starting cycle.
GYRO 40.
The diagram representing a left turn with insufficient rudder is?

GYRO 41.
A turn indicator is an instrument which indicates rate of turn. Rate of turn
depends upon:

1. ' Bank angle.

2. Aeroplane speed.
3. Aeroplane weight.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is?

a. 1,2, and 3.
b. 1and 2.
c. 1and 3.
d. 2 and 3.

GYRO 42.
During an acceleration phase at constant attitude, the reseh, gprinciple of the
artificial horizon results in the horizon bar indicating a?

a. Nose-down attitude.
b.. Constant attitude.
c. Nose-down followed by a nose-up attitude.
d. Nose-up attitude.

GYRO 43.
Heading information given by a gyro platform, is given by a gyro at?

a. 2 degrees-of-freedom in the vertical axis.

b. 1degree-of-freedom in the horizontal axis.
c. 1degree-of-freedom in the vertical axis.
d. 2 degrees-of-freedom in the horizontal axis.

GYRO 44.
Among the systematic errors of the "directional gyro", the error due to the earth
rotation make the north reference turn in the horizontal plane. At a mean latitude
of 45' N, this reference turns by?

a. 15Ohour to the right.

b. 7.5OIhour to the right.
c. 7.5OIhour to the left.
d. 10.5°/hour to the right.

GYRO 45.
The diagram which shows a 40° left bank and 15O nose down attitude is?
GYRO 46.
The heading read on the dial of a directional gyro is subject to errors, one of which
is due to the movement of the aircraft. This error?

Is at its greatest value when the aircraft follows a meridional track.

Shows itself by an apparent rotation of the horizontal axis of the gyroscope
which seems to turn at 1 5 O per hour to the right in the northern hemisphere.
Is dependent on the ground speed of the aircraft, its true track and the
average latitude of the flight.
Is, in spite of this, insignificant and may be neglected.

GYRO 47.
A gravity erector system is used to correct the errors on?

Artificial horizon.
A directional gyro.
A turn indicator.
, A gyro-magnetic compass.
GYRO 48.
The maximum directional gyro error due to the earth rotation is?

GYRO 49.
A directional gyro is:

1. A gyroscope free around two axis.

2. A gyroscope free around one axis.
3. Capable of self-orientation around an earth-tied direction.
4. Incapable of self-orientation around an earth-tied direction.

The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is?

a. 1,4.
b. 2,4.
c. 2,3.
d. 1,3.

GYRO 50.
- - a true track of 360° between the 005O S and OOSON parallels,
For an aircraft flying
the precession error of the directional gyro due to apparent drift is equal to?

a. Depends only on the aircraft's ground speed.

b. Oo/hour.
c. +5O/hour.
d. -5OIhour.

GYRO 51.
What is the maximum gyro drift rate that can be caused by earth rotation?

a. 5' er hour.
b. 15 l' per hour.
c. 20' per hour.
d. 90' per hour.

GYRO 52.
A DGI has ....... degrees of freedom and a ......spin axis?
a. 1 vertical.
b. 2 horizontal.
c. 3 horizontal.
d. 2 vertical.
GYRO 93.
Which instrument uses a vertical gyroscope fitted with a gravity erection device?

a. Artificial horizon.
b. DGI.
c. Turn indicator.
d. Rate gyro.

GYRO 54.
Integrating gyroscopes are used?

1. Attitude indicators.
2. Inertial attitude units.
3. Rate of turn indicators.
4. Inertial navigation platforms.
5. Autopilots.

a. 3 and 4.
b. 4 and 5.
c. 2,3,and 5.
d. 2 and 4.

GYRO,55.
How many degrees of freedom and what spin axis will a two axis gyro measuring
vertical changes use?

a. 2 Vertical.
b. 2 Lateral.
c. 2 Longitudinal.
d. 1 Vertical.

GYRO 56.
The properties that are peculiar to a gyroscope are?

1. Inertia.
2. Precession.
3. Rigidity.
4. Angular momentum.

a. 1and 2.
. 2 and 4.
c. 2,3, and 4
d. 2 and 3.
GYRO 57.
Rigidity increases with?

a. Increasing RPM, and concentrating mass close to the centre.

b. Increasing RPM and concentrating mass at the periphery.
c. Decreasing RPM and radius.
d. Increasing RPM and spin axis length.

GYRO 58.
A gravity erection device would be used on?

a. VSI.
b. DGI.
c. Artificial horizon.
d. Turn and slip indicator.

GYRO 59.
The yaw damper system, uses a ...... gyro and produces rudder inputs
proportional to ............
3

a. Horizontal rate yaw rate.

b. Vertical rate yaw and roll.
c. Horizontal displacement yaw rate.
d. Vertical displacement roll rate.

-GYRO60.
To obtain heading information a gyro-stabilised platform requires?

a. A horizontal axis and one degree of freedom.

b. A vertical axis and two degrees of freedom.
c. A lateral axis and two degrees of freedom.
d. A vertical axis and one degree of freedom.

GYRO 61.
What will be the apparent wander on gyroscope when flying on a northerly track
from 05' S to 05' N.
1

a. 10' per hour.

b. 15' per hour.
c. Zero.
d. 120' per hour.
GYRO 62.
The number of degrees of freedom of a gyro is?

a. One more than the number of gimbals.

b. The same as the number of gimbals.
c. One less than the number of gimbals.
d. Not related to the number of gimbals.

GYRO 63.
A directional gyro requires?

a. One gimbal, one degree of freedom and a horizontal spin axis.

b. Two gimbals, two degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis.
c. Three gimbals, three degrees of freedom and a lateral spin axis.
d. One gimbal, one degree of freedom and a vertical spin axis.

GYRO 64.
What type of gyro has a horizontal spin axis and one degree of freedom?

a. Rate gyro.
b. Displacement gyro.
c. Rate integrating gyro.
d. Space gyro.

GYRO 65.
The properties of a gyro are?

1. Mass.
2. Rigidity in space.
3. Inertia.
4. Precession.
5. Rigidity with reference to the earth.

GYRO 66.
Gyro rigidity improves with?

a. Increasing RPM, mass and radial displacement of mass.

b. Increasing RPM and mass but decreasing radial displacement of mass.
c. Decreasing RPM but increasing mass and radial displacement of mass.
d. Decreasing RPM and mass but increasing radial displacement of mass.
GYRO 67.
The dither motor in a ring laser gyroscope?

a. Stabilises the frequency or the laser source.

b. Prevents laser lock.
c. Prevents or minimises transport wander.
d. Increases accuracy at all rotation rates.

GYRO 68.
When viewed from above a gyro is seen to rotate on a vertical spin axis, as
illustrated in the diagram. If a force tends to push the right side downwards?

Front
a. It will tilt upwards at the front.
b. It will tilt upwards at the left.
c. It wiU tilt upwards at the right. Right
d. It will tilt upwards at the back.
/
View from abov u d Rotation

Back

GYRO 69.
A 2 axis gyro measuring vertical changes will have?

1. One degree of freedom.

2. Two degrees of freedom.
3. Verticalaxis.
4. Horizontal axis.

GYRO 70.
The properties unique to a gyro include?

1. Mass.
2. Inertia.
3. Rigidity.
4. Precession.
5. Rotational velocity.
 . .
a. 1,2.
b. 2,3.
C. 3,4.
d. All of the above.

GYRO 71.
The gyro in a DGI has.

1. One degree of freedom.

2. Two degrees of freedom.
3. Vertical axis.
4. Horizontal axis.

GYRO 72.
The gyro in a vertical reference data generator has?

1. One degree of freedom.

2. Two degrees of freedom.
3. Vertical axis.
4. Horizontal axis.

GYRO 73.
The purpose of the torque motor in a gyro stabilised magnetic compass is to?

a. Move the selsyn stator to calibrate the compass.

b. Remove flux valve errors.
c. Precess the directional gyro.
d. Align the heading pointer with true heading prior to flight.

GYRO 74.
Where would a rate integrating gyro be used?

1. Rate of turn indicator.

2. Autopilot.
3. Inertial navigation unit.
4. Inertial attitude reference unit.
5. As a stabiliser for an instrument or inertial platform.

GYRO 75,
DGI errors are caused by?

1. Mechanical imperfections.
2. Earth rate.
3. Transport wander.
4. Banking when pitching.
5. Annual migration of the poles.

a. All of the above.

b. 1, 2, 3, 4.
c. 2,3,4,5.
d. 3,4,5.

GYRO 76.
To indicate true heading, the gyros in a gyro stabilised platform require?

1. One degree of freedom.

2. Two degrees of freedom.
3. Vertical axis.
4. Horizontal axis.

GYRO 77.
A gravity erector system is used to correct errors in?

a. A ROT indicator.
b. A DGI.
C. An artificial horizon.
d. An inertial platform.
GYRO 78.
What error is caused by movement of the gyro relative to the earth in a DGI?

a. Transport wander.
b. Earth rate.
c. Real wander.
d. Longitude latitude error.

GYRO 79.
The gyro in an artificial horizon requires.

1. One degree of freedom.

2. Two degrees of freedom.
3. Vertical axis.
4. Horizontal axis.

GYRO 80.
Gyroscope rigidity is increased by .......RPM and concentrating the mass at the
........
of the rotor?

a. Increasing hub.
b. Increasing rim.
c. Decreasing hub.
d. Decreasing rim.

GYRO 81.
Which instrument employs a gravity erecting device on its gyro?

a. ASI.
b. Directional gyro unit.
c. Turn indicator.
d. Artificial horizon.

GYRO 82.
A gyro with one degree of freedom is used in a?

a. Slaved gyro compass.

b. Directional gyro unit.
c. Turn indicator.
d. Artificial horizon.
GYRO 83.
Transport wander when flying east at 400 Kts at 45 degrees north is?

a. 5.67' per hour.

b. 6.67' per hour.
c. 7.670per hour.
d. 8.67' per hour.

GYRO 84.
Transport wander when flying east at 300 Kts at 40 degrees south is?

a. -4.2' per hour.

b. -5.20per hour.
c. 6.20per hour.
d. 7.20per hour.

GYRO 85.
Transport wander when flying west at 300 Kts at 25 degrees south is?

a. -2.33' per hour.

b. 3.34' per hour.
c. 2.33' per hour.
d. 3.34' per hour.

GYRO 86.
Transport wander when flying west at 300 Kts at 25 degrees north is?

a. 2.33' per hour.

b. 3.34' per hour.
c. -2.33' per hour.
d. -3.34' per hour.

GYRO 87.
Earth rate at 25 degrees south is?

a. 13.59' per hour.

b. 6.34' per hour.
c. -13.59' per hour.
d. -6.34' per hour.
GYRO 88.
Earth rate at 45 degrees north is?

a. -13.59' per hour.

b. -10.61' per hour.
c. 13.59' per hour.
d. 10.61' per hour.

GYRO 89.
Earth rate at the equator is?

a. Zero.
b. 15' per hour.
c. -15' er hour
d. 6.34 (Pper hour.

ATTITUDE 1.
How pany degrees of freedom and what is the spin axis of an attitude indicator?

a. Local earth vertical two degrees of freedom.

b. Aircraft lateral axis two degrees of freedom.
c. Aircraft horizontal axis one degree of freedom.
d. aircraft longitudinal axis three degrees of freedom.

ATTITUDE 2.
What would be the indication on an attitude indicator in a right turn?

a. Climb due to pendulous vanes.

b. No climb.
c. Descent due to pendulous vanes.
d. Correct pitch and bank at all times.

ATTITUDE 3.
What will a classic artificial horizon indicate when turning through 90 degrees at
constant attitude and bank angle?

a. Correct bank angle and attitude.

b. Too much bank and too much nose up attitude.
c. Too little bank and too little nose up attitude.
d. Too little bank and too much nose up attitude.
ATTITUDE 4.
An A1 has?

a. One degree of freedom and a lateral spin axis.

b. Two degrees of freedom and a vertical spin axis.
c. Two degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis.
d. One degree of freedom and a vertical spin axis.

ATTITUDE 5.
How will a basic A1 respond if an aircraft performs a 270 degree turn at constant
bank angle and ROT?

a. Nose up and bank.

b. Nose down and bank.
c. Nose level and bank.
d. Correct bank and pitch.

ATTITUDE 6.
Aircraft attitude is indicated on?

a. EICASECAM primary display.

b. EFIS ND.
c. EFIS PFD.
d. All of the above.

ATTITUDE 7.
When turning through 90' at constant AOB and pitch attitude, what will a classic
artificial horizon indicate?

a. Too much nose up and too little bank angle.

b. Too much nose up and too much bank angle.
c. Too little nose up and too little bank angle.
d. Too little nose up and too much bank angle.

ATTITUDE 8.
When turning through 270' at constant AOB and pitch attitude, what will a classic
artificial horizon indicate?

a. Too much nose up and too little bank angle.

b. Too much nose up and too much bank angle.
c. Too little nose up and too little bank angle.
d. Too little nose up and too much bank angle.
ATTITUDE 9.
An artificial horizon has?

a. Two degrees of freedom and a vertical spin axis.

b. Two degrees of freedom and a longitudinal spin axis.
c. Two degrees of freedom and a lateral spin axis.
d. No degrees of freedom because it is earth tied.

ATTITUDE 10.
The latitude nut ...........an artificial horizon?
a. Compensates for transport error.
b. Is not fitted to.
c. Compensates for latitude error.
d. Compensates for earth rate errors.

ATTITUDE 11.
The gravity sensing unit in an artificial horizon is used to?

a. Prevent tilting of the gyro.

b. Prevent precession of the gyro.
c. Erect the gyro.
d. Provide signals to the autopilot.

ATTITUDE 12.
Classic artificial horizon indications turning through 180' at constant AOB?

a. Nose up and AOB too low.

b. Nose up and AOB too high.
c. Nose up and correct AOR.
d. Pitch attitude and AOB correct.

ATTITUDE 13.
An artificial horizon has .....degrees of freedom in the ........axis?
a. Two vertical.
b. Two horizontal.
c. One vertical.
d. One horizontal.
ATTITUDE 14.
Which or the following properties are possessed by a standby artificial horizon?

1. Independent power supply.

2. Integral gyro.
3. Remote (external) gyro.
4. Used only in emergencies.
5. At least one per pilot in JAR 25 aircraft.

ATTITUDE 15.
If an aircraft turns through 270' at a constant rate of turn and AOB, the
indications on its classic artificial horizon will be?

a. Bank left nose up.

b. Bank right nose up.
c. Wings level nose up.
d. AOB and pitch attitude correct.

TURNJSLIP 1.
The ball in a serviceable slip indicator is ..........by ...........and ..........Indicatels
the state of slip?

a. Held central Gravity Does not always.

b. Positioned Acceleration Does not always.
c. Held central Gravity Always.
d. Positioned Acceleration Always.

TURNJSLIP 2.
The turn indicator is affected by?

1. AOB.
2. Airspeed.
3. Weight.
4. Altitude.
TURNISLIP 3.
A turn indicator used in conjunction with an attitude indicator.will show?

1. Turn direction.
2. Rate of turn.
3. Angular velocity about the true vertical axis.
4. Angular velocity about the aircraft vertical axis.
5. Angular velocity about the longitudinal axis.

TURNISLIP 4.
ROT indications are?

a. Proportional to TAS.
b. Proportional to CAS.
c. Proportional to mass.
d. Proportional to EAS.

TURNISLIP 5.
A turn indicator has?

1. A horizontal spin axis.

2. A vertical spin axis.
3. One degree of freedom.
4. Two degrees of freedom.
5. A spin axis tied to the yawing plane of the aircraft.
6. A gravity erecting unit.

TURNISLIP 6.
When both the needle and ball of a turn and slip indicator are displaced to the
right the aircraft is?

a. Turning right with insufficient bank.

b. Turning right with too much bank.
c. Turning left with too much bank.
d. Turning left with insufficient bank.
TURNISLIP 7.
When both the needle and ball of a turn and slip indicator are displaced to the
right the aircraft is?

a. Turning right with too much TAS.

b. Turning right with insufficient TAS.
c. Turning left with too much TAS.
d. Turning left with insufficient TAS.

TURNISLIP 8.
When the needle is displaced right and the ball displaced left, in a turn and slip
indicator, the aircraft is?

a. Turning right with insufficient bank.

b. Turning left with too much bank.
c. Turning left with insufficient TAS.
d. Turning right with too much bank.

TURNISLIP 9.
The turn needle indicates ......in a slightly banked turn?
a. Angular velocity about the vertical axis.
b. Angular acceleration about the vertical axis.
c. Angular velocity about the lateral axis.
d. Yaw displacement.

TURNISLIP 10.
A rate 1turn at 120 kts requires?

a* 10' AOB.
b. 20°AOB.
c. 30' AOB.
d. 40°AOB.

TURNISLIP 11.
The correct turn and slip indications when turning right on the ground are?

a. Needle and ball right.

b. Needle and ball left.
c. Needle right and ball left.
d. Needle left and ball right.
TURNISLIP 12.
ROT indications depend on?

1. Airspeed.
2. Mass.
3. AOB.

TURNISLIP 13.
For a rate one turn at 150 Kts the AOB must be?

TURNISLIP 14.
Following a left engine failure the pilot of a multi-engine aircraft uses rudder to
arrest the yaw, whilst side slipping down track with the wings held level by the
ailerons. What will the turn and slip indicator show in this condition.

a. Both needle and ball central.

b. Both needle and ball right.
c. Both needle and ball left.
d. Needle left and ball right.

TURNISLIP 15.
Following a left engine failure the pilot of a multi-engine aircraft uses rudder to
oppose yaw and keep the aircraft on heading, whilst using bank to prevent side slip.
What will the turn and slip indicator show?

a. Both needle and ball central.

b. Both needle and ball right.
c. Both needle and ball left.
d. Needle central and ball right.
TURNISLIP 16.
What will be the immediate turn and slip indications when a left engine fails in
climbing flight.

a. Needle and ball left.

b. Needle and ball right.
c. Needle left and ball right.
d. Needle right and ball left.

TURNISLIP 17.
What does it indicate ifboth the needle and ball in a turn and slip indicator move
out to the right?

a. Turning right with too much bank.

b. Turning right with too little bank.
c. Turning left with too much bank.
d. Turning left with too little bank.

TURNISLIP 18.
When turning at constant bank angle the rate of turn is?

a. Determined by weight and TAS.

b. Determined by weight.
c. Determined by TAS.
d. Determined only by AofA.

TURN/SLIP 19.
A turn indicator used in conjunction with an attitude indicator can show?

1. TAS in a turn.
2. Direction of turn.
3. Angular velocity about the vertical axis of the aircraft.
4. Angular velocity about the true vertical axis.

TURNISLIP 20.
What factors affect the turn indicator?

1. AofA.
2. AOB.
3. TAS.
4. Weight.
TURNISLIP 21.
What are the essential properties of a turn indicator?

1. Two degrees of freedom.

2. One degree of freedom.
3. Horizontal spin axis.
4. Vertical spin axis.
5. Longitudinal spin axis.

TURNISLIP 22.
What angle of bank would give a rate 1 turn at 120 Kts?

a. 10 degrees.
b. 14 degrees.
c. 18 degrees.
d. 22 degrees.

TURNISLIP 23.
What does it indicate when the turn needle is out to the left and the ball out to the
right?

a. Right turn with too much bank.

b. Right turn with too little bank.
c. Left turn with too much bank.
d. Left turn with too little bank.

TURNISLIP 24.
What should a turn and slip indicator show in a right turn on the ground?

a. Needle left and ball left.

b. Needle left and ball right.
c. Needle right and ball left.
d. Needle right and ball right.
TURNISLIP 25.
What will the turn needle indicate in a slightly banked turn?

a. Yaw rate.
b. Roll rate.
c. Pitch rate.
d. Angular velocity about the vertical axis.

TURNISLIP 26.
What corrective action is required if the ball is out to the right in a left turn?

a. More right ruder.

b. More left rudder.
c. More right bank.
d. More left bank.

TURNISLIP 27.
If both the ball and needle are out to the left in a turn, the ball can be centralised
by?

a. Pushing the right rudder bar forward.

b. Increasing left bank.
c. Decreasing TAS.
d. Increasing TAS.

TURNISLIP 28.
How should the turn and slip indicator respond in a right turn when taxiing?

a. Needle left and ball left.

b. Needle left and ball right.
c. Needle right and ball right.
d. Needle right and ball left.

TURNISLIP 29.
For a coordinated rate 1 right turn at 250 Kts TAS, the correct AOB is
approximately?

a. 32 degrees.
b. 23 degrees.
c. 16 degrees.
d. 25 degrees.
TURNISLIP 30.
For a coordinated 300 Kts TAS rate 1 right turn the AOB should be?

a. 17 degrees.
b. 27 degrees.
c. 37 degrees.
d. 47 degrees.

TURNISLIP 31.
For a coordinated rate 1 left turn at an AOB of 27 degrees, the TAS should be?

a. 200 Kts.
b. 250 kts.
c. 270 Kts.
d. 300 Kts.

TURNISLIP 32.
The gyro in a turn indicator must have ......gimbal and .......degrees of freedom?
a. One one.
b. Two one.
c. Two two.
d. Three two.

TURNISLIP 33.
If the turn indicator needle is out to the right and the ball is out to the left, it
indicates?

a. A left turn with too much bank.

b. A left turn with too little bank.
c. A right turn with too much bank.
d. A right turn with too little bank.

TURNISLIP 34.
What angle of bank is required to conduct a balanced rate 1 turn in an aircraft at
125 kts TAS at a mass of 55000 Kg?

a. 15.5 degrees.
b. 17.5 degrees.
c. 19.5 degrees.
d. 21.5 degrees.
TURNBLIP 35.
If the mass of the aircraft in question 34 above, was decreased to 45000 Kg?

a. It would increase the required AOB.

b. It would decrease the required AOB.
c. It would not affect the required AOB, but less power would be required.
d. It would not affect the required AOB but more power would be required.

TURNISLIP 36.
The correct indications when taxiing to the left are?

a. Needle right, ball right.

b. Needle right, ball centre.
c. Needle left, ball left
d. Needle left, ball right.

TURNISLIP 37.
If the turn and slip indicator shows needle left and ball left in a banked turn, the
aircraft is..........
and the required corrective action is ........
3

a. Skidding push left pedal forward.

b. Skidding push right pedal forward.
c. Slipping push left pedal forward.
d. Slipping push right pedal forward.

TURNISLIP 38.
If the turn and slip indicator shows needle left and ball right in a banked turn, the
aircraft is..........
and the required corrective action is ........
7

a. Skidding push left pedal forward.

b. Skidding push right pedal forward.
c. Slipping push left pedal forward.
d. Slipping push right pedal forward.

TURNISLIP 39.
If the turn and slip indicator shows needle right and ball right in a banked turn,
the aircraft is..........
and the required corrective action is ........
7

a. Skidding push left pedal forward.

b. Skidding push right pedal forward.
c. Slipping push left pedal forward.
d. Slipping push right pedal forward.
-
TURNISLIP 40.
If the turn and slip indicator shows needle right and ball left in a banked turn, the
aircraft is..........
and the required corrective action is ........
3

a. Skidding push left pedal forward.

b. Skidding push right pedal forward.
c. Slipping push left pedal forward.
d. Slipping push right pedal forward.

INSIIRSIFMS 1.
What is the Schuler period?

a. 48 minutes.
b. 84 seconds.
c. 48 seconds.
d. 84 minutes.

INS/IRS/FMS 2.
To obtain heading information from a gyro-stabilised platform, the gyros should
be?

a. 1degree of freedom and a horizontal axis.

b. 1degrees of freedom and a vertical axis.
c. 2 degree of freedom and a horizontal axis.
d. 2 degree of freedom and a vertical axis.

INSIIRSIFMS 3.
While inertial platform system is operating on board an aircraft, it is necessary to
use a device with the following characteristics, in order to keep the vertical line
with the pendulous system?

a. With damping and a period of about 84 minutes.

b. With damping and a period of about 84 seconds.
c. Without damping and a period of about 84 minutes.
d. Without damping and a period of about 84 seconds.

INSIIRSIFMS 4.
Heading information given by a gyro platform is given by a gyro with?

a. 3 degrees of freedom in the vertical axis.

b. 3 degrees of freedom in the horizontal axis.
c. 2 degrees of freedom in the vertical axis.
d. 1degrees of freedom in the horizontal axis.
The amber ALERT light on an INS control and display unit?

a. llluminates steadily for 2 minutes before reaching the next waypoint.

b. Flashes for 2 minutes before reaching the next waypoint.
c. Illuminates if power from the aircraft bus bar has been lost and the system
is operating on standby battery.
d. llluminates steadily after passing a waypoint in manual mode, until the next
leg is programmed in.

INSIIRSIFMS 6.
At the second state of integration E N speed is converted into E N distance gone.
To convert this departure into change of longitude it has to?

a. Be divided by the secant of latitude.

b. Be multiplied by the secant of latitude.
c. Be divided by the tangent of latitude.
d. Be multiplied by the Cosine of latitude.

INSIIRSIFMS 7.
An INS with the accelerometers aligned NIS and E/W is limited to use at latitudes
below about 82'. This is because?

a. I t loses horizontal reference as dip becomes large.

b. At high speed on East or West tracks the rate of convergency is faster than
the azimuth motor can correct.
c. The functions of secant latitude and tangent latitude used in certain
corrections in the computer start to approach infinity and the computer
cannot handle the rapid changes involved.
d. The correction for the coriolis effect of the earth rotation approaches
infinity above 82' latitude.

INSIIRSIFMS 8.
The diagram below shows a gyro-stabilised platform. 1is a ....gyro gimbal and 2
is a ......
gimbal?

a. Roll Pitch.
b. Pitch Roll.
c. Roll Yaw.
d. Pitch Roll.
 NIS ACCELEROMETER
Wn/ ACCELEROMETER
NIS TILT SENSING GYRO
PLATFORM

AZIMUTH GYRC

ROLL MOTOR

INS/IRS/FMS 9.
The vertical reference unit of a three axis data generator is equipped with a gyro
with?

1 degree of freedom and a horizontal spin axis.

1degree of freedom and a vertical spin axis.
2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis.
2 degrees of freedom and a vertical spin axis.

INSJIRSIFMS 10.
With reference to Inertial Navigation Systems, the functions of the integrator are?

At the second stage integration to suppress unbounded errors (when in nav

mode).
At the first stage of integration to convert accelerations with respect to time,
into speed, (when in nav mode).
At the second stage of integration to convert speed with respect to time, into
distance gone, (when in nav mode).
To align the platform (when in level and align modes).

All of the above statements are correct.

Only statements 2,3 and 4 are correct.
Only statements 1 , 2 and 3, are correct.
Only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
INSIIRSIFMS 11.
Ring laser gyros use dither motors to? ,

a. Reduce random wander.

b. Prevent unbounded errors.
c. Level and align the gyros.
d. Prevent lock in of the laser beams.

INSIIRSIFMS 12.
The product of the first integration of the E/W acceleration sensed by an INS
system is?

a. Departure.
b. Speed along the local parallel.
c. Speed along the local horizontal.
d. Distance.

INSJIRSIFMS 13.
Why is an INS platform virtually unusable at very high latitudes?

a. The value of the earth rate affecting the EIW accelerometer is a component
dependent on the sine lat. At high latitudes this component is nearly zero
and makes alignment to true north virtually impossible.
b. The value of the earth rate affecting the EIW accelerometer is a component
dependent on the sine lat. At high latitudes this component is nearly zero
and makes alignment to true magnetic virtually impossible.
c. The value of the earth rate affecting the E/W accelerometer is a component
dependent on the cosine lat. At high latitudes this component is nearly zero
and makes alignment to magnetic north virtually impossible.
d. The value of the earth rate affecting the EIW accelerometer is a component
dependent on the cosine lat. At high latitudes this component is nearly zero
and makes alignment to true north virtually impossible.

INSIIRSIFMS 14.
A longitude error in an INS will cause:

a. A failure to align.
b. Poor alignment and degraded accuracy.
c. Will be corrected for once the E/W accelerometer has aligned to true north.
d. Will cause no problems at all.
INS/IRS/FMS 15.
When using an INS platform coriolis affects?

a. The N/S accelerometer.

b. The EIW accelerometer.
c. Both a, and b.
d. Neither a, nor b.

INS/IRS/FMS 16.
The errors of an INS fall into three categories?

a. Bounded, unbounded and velocity,

b. Coriolis, unbounded and inherent.
c. Bounded, unbounded and inherent.
d. Bounded, unbounded and accelerometer.

INS/IRS/FMS 17.
The fundamental difference between INS and IRS is that?

a. The INS is a strap down system with 2 accelerometers mounted at 90'to

each other.
b. The IRS is a strap down system with 2 accelerometers mounted at 90°to
each other.
c. The INS is a strap down system with 3 accelerometers mounted at 90°to
each other.
d. The IRS is a strap down system with 3 accelerometers mounted at 90°to
each other.

INS/IRS/FMS 18.
The position accuracy of an RLG INS is?

The control and display unit of an inertial navi ation system indicates a position of
4810.9'~ 0 0 0 1 2 . 2 ~on~ a ramp position 4807.5 ,!?
N 0 0 0 0 5 . 1 ~ ~What
. is the radial
error rate of the system if it has been in NAV mode for 8 hours 20 minutes?
INSIIRSIFMS 20.
In an INS a TAS input is?

a. Not required.
b. Required for polar navigation.
c. Required for great circle navigation.
d. Required in order to provide a wind velocity read out.

INSIIRSIFMS 21.
In an INS which is Schuler tuned, the largest unbounded errors are?

a. Due to the output of the first stage integrators.

b. Due to the real wander of the platform gyroscopes.
c. Due to accelerometer errors.
d. Track errors due to initial platform misalignment.

INSIIRSIFMS 22.
During initialisation of an INS the aircraft must not be moved until?

a. The ramp position has been inserted and checked.

b. The platform is levelled.
c. The gyros and the accelerometers are all in the NULL position.
d. The green READY NAV light is illuminated and the mode selector switch
has been set to the NAV position.

INSITRSIFMS 23.
An INS in the ALIGN mode will?

a. Not accept an error on 10' latitude and 10' longitude of the inserted initial
-position.
b. Accept an error of 10' latitude and 10' of longitude of the inserted position.
c. Accept an error of 10' latitude but not an error of 10' longitude of the
inserted initial position.
d. Accept an error of 10' longitude but not one of 10' of latitude in the inserted
initial position.

INSIIRSIFMS 24.
An IRS with laser gyros should (i). ......be Schuler tuned, and (ii). ....be strapped
down?

a. (i) always (ii) always.

b. (i) always -(ii)never.
c. (i) never (ii) always.
d. (i) never (ii) never.
INSIIRSIFMS 25.
Laser gyros are used in an IRS. Why must accurate latitude and longitude be
inserted?

a. To determine magnetic north.

b. To check the function of the laser gyros.
c. To determine the computed trihedron.
d. To compensate for aircraft movement.

INSIIRSIFMS 26.
The triangular cavity in a RLG is filled with which combination of gasses?

a. Helium and argon.

b. Hydrogen and neon.
c. Helium and neon.
d. Hydrogen and argon.

INSIIRSIFMS 27.
Alignment of a RLG INS takes?

a. Less than 10 minutes.

b. 10 to 15 minutes.
c. 15 to 20 minutes.
d. 84.4 minutes.

INSIIRSIFMS 28.
In an INS the gyros should .....be strap down. In an IRS the gyros should ....be
strapped down?

a. always never.
b. always always.
c. never always.
d. never never.

INSIIRSIFMS 29.
In order to align a strap-down inertial unit, it is required to insert the local
geographical coordinates. This is necessary to?

a. Position the computing trihedron with reference to the earth.

b. Check operation of the laser gyros.
c. Determine magnetic or true heading.
d. Re-erect laser gyros.
INS/IRS/FMS 30.
When initial position is put into an INS system?

a. It rejects initial latitude or longitude errors.

b. It rejects initial longitude errors, but will accept latitude errors.
c. It rejects initial latitude errors, but accepts initial longitude errors.
d. It accepts both longitude and latitude errors.

IRS is different from INS in that it?

a. Its strapped down accelerometers are not rotated with the aircraft and
hence do not suffer schuler errors.
b. It requires no corrections for central accelerations or coriolis effects.
c. It suffers laser lock but spins up faster.
d. It is not affected by vertical accelerations due to gravity, but it requires a
longer spin-up time.

An FMS database is valid for?

a. 7 days.
b. 28 days.
c. 56 days.
d. It depends upon operational area.

INSIIRSJFMS 33.
In an IRS system?

a. Both the platform and accelerometers are strapped down.

b. Both the platform and accelerometers are gyro-stabilised.
c. The platform is strapped down but the accelerometers are gyro-stabilised.
d. The platform is gyro-stabilised but the accelerometers are strapped down.

INS/IRS/FMS 34.
The JAR 25 standard colour for an FMS active planned route is?

a. Cyan.
b. Magenta.
c. Red.
d. White.
INSIIRSIFMS 35.
The sequences for switching on INS is?

a. Off, Standby, Align, Nav.

b. Off, Align, Standby, Nav.
c. Off, On, Align, Standby.
d. Off, Align, On, Standby.

INSIIRSIFMS 36.
The correct latitude must be put into INS?

a. Because it cannot detect initial latitude.

b. Because it cannot detect latitude changes.
c. Because small latitude errors will not be detected but will cause unbounded
errors during the subsequent flight.
d. Large latitude errors will be undetected but cause large errors during the
subsequent flight.

INSIIRSIFMS 37.
During initial alignment the IRS must be given coordinates to?

a. Establish true magnetic north.

b. Test the accuracy and serviceability of the laser ring gyros.
c. Establish the trihedron with reference to the earth.
d. Input initial heading information.

INSIIRSIFMS 38.
The schuler period is?

a. 12 minutes.
b. 20 minutes.
c. 84 minutes.
d. 98 minutes.

INSIIRSIFMS 39.
The inputs to the FMS include?

1. Air data computer information. 4. Power pland data.

2. Route data. 5. Operating data.
3. Radio aids information.
INS/IRS/FMS 40.
The selection on an IRS mode panel are used in the following order?

a. OFF STBY ALIGN ATT NAV.

b. OFF ALIGN STBY NAV ATT.
c. OFF ALIGN STBY ATT NAV
d. OFF STBY ALIGN NAV ATT.

INSIIRSIFMS 41.
What is the first page on an FMS CDU?

a. INDEX.
b. IDENT.
C. TAKE-OFF.
d. PRE-START.

INSIIRSIPMS 42.
Setting zero cost index on an FMS gives?

a. Best range.
b. Best time.
c. Best endurance.
d. Lowest total costs.

INSIIRSIFMS 43.
Valid FMS CDU waypoint entries include?

1. Runway number.
2. Navaid limitations.
3. Airport ICAO identifier.
4. Navaid identifier.
5. Waypoint name.
6. Country code.
INSIIRSIFMS 44.
Where would a rate integrating gyro be used?

Turn and slip indicators.

Servo stabiliser mechanisms.
Autopilots.
Inertial attitude units.
Inertial navigation units.

Integration of a yaw rate signal?

a. Gives heading.
b. Gives yaw displacement.
c. Gives yaw acceleration rate.
d. Gives track.

The schuler period is?

a. 1oscillation in azimuth.
b. 22 minutes.
c. 66 minutes.
d. 84 minutes.

INSIIRSIFMS 47.
Why is the inertial strapdown unit in an IRS programmed with coordinates during
alignment?

a. To compensate for earth rotation errors.

b. To establish the trihedron with reference to the earth.
c. To functionally test the ring laser gyroscopes.
d. To establish magnetic north and true north.
INS/IRS/FMS 48.
Obtaining heading information from a gyro stabilised platform requires a gyro
with?

a. Two degrees of freedom and a vertical spin axis.

b. Two degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis.
c. One degree of freedom and a vertical spin axis.
d. One degree of freedom and a horizontal spin axis.

When an IRS is first switched on it must be aligned in order to?

a. Establish true and magnetic north.

b. Establish latitude.
c. Calculate the computed triehedron.
d. Warm up the gyroscopes.

INSJIRSIFMS 50.
The inputs to an FMS include?

1. Operating data.
2. Terminal data.
3. Air data.
4. Route data.
5. Engine data.
6. Radio aids data.

a. 1,2,3,4.
b. 2,3,4,5.
c. 3,4, 5,6.
d. All of the above.

INS/IRS/FMS 51.
Which of the following is closest to the schuler period?

a. 48 seconds.
b. 84 seconds.
c. 48 minutes.
d. 84 minutes.
INS/IRS/FMS 52.
Modern systems employ ring laser gyros because they offer?

a. More rapid run up.

b. More rapid alignment.
c. Longer life.
d. Lower electrical power requirements.

A rate integrating gyro is used in?

a. Artificial horizon.
b. Plight Director.
c. Inertial navigation system.
d. Turn and slip indicator.

With reference to an FMS, what does the term managed guidance mean?

a. The INS gives commands to the autopilot.

b. The PMC gives commands to the autopilot.
c. The autopilot gives commands to the FMC.
d. The term managed guidance is not related to PMS.

INS/IRS/FMS 55.
What would be the FMC displayed position in an aircraft equipped with a twin
inertial system and DME?

a. Identical to the primary inertial system position.

b. The mean of the radio fm position and the primary inertial position.
c. The mean between the radio fix and the mean of the two inertial positions.
d. The mean of the two inertial positions.

INS/IRS/FMS 56.
What happens if an PMC that autotunes to DME stations for fming purposes, does
not receive a satisfactory decode?

a. The beacon frequency will be displayed instead of its identifier.

b. The MCDU will display a warning message.
c. The identifier codes are retrieved from memory and displayed in red.
d. Alternative DME's are selected and employed.
INS/IRS/FMS 57.
A cost index is?

a. An FMS output code.

b. An FMS input code telling the FMS the required balance between
optimising fuel costs and sector time.
c. A fixed code giving the best fuel efficiency for each aircraft type.
d. A fixed code giving best fuel efficiency for each route.

INS/IRS/FMS 58.
What happens if an FMC operating in VNAV and LNAV modes reaches a
waypoint beyond which no route has been input?

a. The aircraft circles the waypoint until commanded to do otherwise.

b. The aircraft returns to the previous waypoint.
c. The system reverts to heading mode.
d. The autopilot will disconnect and a warning will be sounded and illuminated
on EICASIECAM.

INS/IRS/FMS 59.
The flight control unit in an FMS?

a. Control vertical flight paths.

b. Controls lateral flight paths.
c. Control all flight paths.
d. Controls only heading.

INS/IRS/FMS 60.
When an INS is turned on it is aligned in order to?

a. Establish magnetic north.

b. Establish magnetic and true north.
c. Establish its position relative to magnetic and true north.
d. Align the trihedron with True North.

EFIS 1.
Cautionary information on an EHSI is displayed in?

a. Cyan.
b. Red orMagenta.
c. Yellow or Amber.
d. White.
EFIS 6.
Regarding the Electroni~Flight Instruments System (EFIS).

1. The Navigation Display (ND) displays Flight Director Bars.

2. The altimeter setting is displayed on the Primary Flight Display (PFD).
3. The Primary Flight Display (PFD) is the main flying instrument.
4. The Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA) is part of the Navigation Display
(ND).

The combination regrouping all of the correct statements is?

EFIS 7.
Below which altitude dues the radio altitude indication on an EADI appear within
the circular scale as a digital readout?

a. Above 2500 ft.

b. Below 1000 ft. ,
c.
d.
Below 2500 ft.
Above 1000 ft.
~
EFIS 8. 1
Which of the following s h e m e n t s is true?

a. The Weather Radar display data is available on all modes of the EFSI.
b. In PLAN mod:, the Weather Radar data is inhibited on the EHSI.
c. The weather radar data is inhibited on the full and expanded NAV modes of
the EHSI. I

d. The weather Radar data is only available on the PLAN mode of the EHSI.

EFIS 9.
Radio altitude is shown on the EADI and changes from a digital display to a
circular scale? I

a. At 2500 ft.
b. At 1000 ft and bellow AGL.
c. Below 1000 ft AGL.
d. At DH. I
EFIS 10.
Weather Radar returns show as areas of precipitation in the following colours?

Green Magenta, Yellow and Red.

Green, Orange, Yellow and Red.
Green, Yellow, Red and Magenta.
Green, Yellow, Magenta and Red.

EFIS 11.
In the diagram below the next waypoint to be overflown is ... and the estimated
.....is .....?

TIC, time of departure, 01:44.

TIC, time of arrival, 15:OS.
VLM, time of departure, 01:44,
VLM, time of arrival, 15:OS. '

EFIS 12.
The symbol shown appears in white on the EHSI display. I t represents?
a. An off-route waypoint.
b. The aeroplane.1
c. An inactive waypoint.
d. AVORDME.

EFIS 13.
On an EHSI display, wind velocity can be displayed in which of the following
modes?

a. Plan, Full ILS; Expanded VOR and Full VOR.

b. Map, Expanded ILS, Full ILS and Full VOR.
c. Map, Plan, Full ILS and Full VOR.
d. Expanded ILS, Expanded VOR, Plan and Full ILS.

EFIS 14.
Command information is displayed in ...... on the EHSI?
a. White.
b. Green.
c. Red.
d. Magenta.

EFIS 15.
In which of the following EHSI modes are the Weather Radar returns visible?

a. Any full mode.

b. Plan mode.
c. Map mode and in any expanded mode.
d. Any expanded mode.

EFIS 16.
Decision height is displayed on the?

a. EADI, and below 2500 ft the display changes to a circular scale with
magenta coloured marker.
b. EADI,. and below 1000 ft is shown as a circular scale which is erased anti-
clockwise as tpe aircraft descends.
c. EHSI, in Map mode, and below 1000 ft is shown as a circular display, which
is erased, anti~clockwiseas the aircraft descends.
d. EADI, and below 800 ft changes to a circular scale which is white with a
magenta DH marker.
EFIS 17.
The heading reference used on the EHSI is?

True.
True or Magnetic.
Magnetic.
Compass.

EFIS 18.
On the FMA, engaged flight automatic flight modes are displayed in?

Blue.
Green.
Red.
Magenta.

EFIS 19.
The EFIS control panel allows selection of?

EADI, operating modes.

EHSI fail-operational fall back mode.
Autopilot operating modes.
Decision height.

EFIS 20.
Which colours are typically used on an EHSI?

Red and blue.

Black, blue, purple, red, green and white.
Magenta, brown, black and green.
White, green, magenta, cyan, yellow and red.
EFIS 21.
Which mode is selected on the Navigation Display in the diagram below?

Expanded VOR mode.

Full VOR mode.
Plan mode.
Expanded ADF mode.

EFIS 22.
In PLAN mode?

The active flight path appears as a red line joining successive waypoints.
The Weather Radar display data is inhibited.
The display may be oriented to Grid North.
The wind arrow is oriented to True North.

EFIS 23.
At what height does the DH, on the EADI display, start flashing yellow?

At DH plus 100 ft.

On reaching DH.
On touchdown.
At 1000 ft AGL.
EFIS 24.
In the displayed weather modes, the intensities of the returns in ascending order of
intensity are?

Yellow, green, blue and red.

Yellow, green, red and magenta.
Green, yellow, red and magenta.
Blue, green, yellow and red.

EFIS 25.
The green symbol of a circle with T/D on the EHSI display below represents?

The actual top--of-descent.

The FMC calculated top-of-climb.
An en-route waypoint.
The FMC calculated top-of-descent

EFIS 26.
The EHSI mode in which the whole compass ro.se is not visible and upon which the
relative bearing to the active waypoint iishown although the waypoints themselves
are not, is the?

Full rose, VOR mode.

Centre MAP mode.
Expanded VOR mode.
Expanded NAV mode.
EFIS 27.
The Weather Radar display can be shown on the?

Only one EHSI at a time.

The First Officer's EHSI only.
The Captain's ERSI only.
The Captain's and the First Officer's EHSI simultaneously.

EFIS 28.
Aircraft electronic display systems normally incorporate?

One symbol generator for each CRT.

LED alphanumeric displays.
Automatic CRT brightness control.
A single CRT for each pilot.

EFIS 29.
The speed tape on an EADI is located?

On the left side of the EADI.

On the left side of the EHSI.
At the top of the ADI.
On the right side of the EADI.

EFIS 30.
An EFIS installation in a Boeing 737 consists of?

Two screens, one control panel and two symbol generators.

Two screens and one symbol generator.
Four screens and two symbol generators.
Four screens and three symbol generators.

EFIS 31.
Which of the following displays are part of the Electronic Flight Instrumentation
System (for Boeing Aircraft)?

ND and Electronic Attitude Director Indicator.

EHSI and PFD.
Navigation Display and Primary Flight Display.
Electronic Attitude Director Indicator and Electronic Horizontal Situation
Indicator.
EFIS 32.
Which mode is selected on the EHSI illustrated below?

VOR I
1
Expanded VOR mode.
Expanded ILS mode.
Full VOR mode.
Map Mode.

EFIS 33.
The decision Height (DH) warning light illuminates when the aircraft?

Passes over the outer marker.

Descends below a pre-set radio altitude.
Descends below a pre-set barometric altitude.
Passes the ILS inner marker.

EFIS 34.
The wind direction symbol displayed in all EHSI modes except PLAN is oriented?

With respect to aircraft heading.

To Grid North when flying at high altitude.
To True North.
To Magnetic North.
EFIS 35.
The Head Up Display (HUD) is a device allowing the pilot while still looking
outside, to have?

a. A monitoring only during CAT I1 precision approaches.

b. A flying and flight path control aid.
c. A synthetic view of the instrument procedure.
d. A monitoring of engine data.

EFIS 36.
.In order to know which mode of the auto-throttle is engaged the crew must check
the?

a. ND (Navigation Display).
b. TCC (Thrust Control Computer).
c. Throttle position.
d. PFD (Primary Flight Display).

EFIS 37.
The white arrow in the lower left corner in the diagram below indicates?

After passing BODAL waypoint in 8 minute lhe next heading will be 305~:
The current wind of 305~18kts is being experienced.
The active waypoint (BODAL) is located on radial 305' and 8 nm from VOR
tuned in the active NAVreceiver.
The active waypoint (TID) is located on radial 305' and 8 nm from a VOR
tuned in the active NAV receiver.
EFIS 38.
An aircraft is under uidance mode following a VOR radial. From the AD1 and
HSI represented in th diagram below, it is possible to deduce that the aircraft is?

a.
b.
c.
d.
I
Located to the eft side of the selected radial.
Located to the ight side of the selected radial.
Experiencing I$t side crosswind.
Experiencing rikht
I
side crosswind.

EFIS 39.
Which of the diagrards below illustrates a*30° right bank and 15' nose down
attitude?
 I
EFIS 40. I
With reference to the diagram is question EFIS 38, it is possible to deduce that the
aircraft is? 1

a. Following a radihl 240' from OKL VOR.

b. Following a radial 229' from OKL.
c. Flying towards OKL VOR.
d. Flying below the selected command speed, which is 220 Kts.

EFIS 41.
In the diagram below the TIC is a .......and it will be reached at approximately.......?
a. FMC calcualted top of climb: 5 nm from present position.
b. Actual top of climb speed: 15.082.
c. FMC waypoint: 15.082.
d. TCAS traffic: 10 nm from present position.
EFIS 42.
What is the current active waypoint in the diagram below is?
 ILB.
VIW.
TIC.
TRA.

EFIS 43.
In the diagram below, what is the meaning of the white circle with (INTC) next to
it?

It denotesd an active waypoint on the flight plan.

I t indicates a location where you will intercept radial 330' from FRE VOR
and track inbound.
TCAS indication - you are being inercepted by military aircraft.
I t indictaes a location of an intersecting airway - a mandatory reporting
point.
 EFIS 44.
What heading is the aircraft currently flying in diagram below?
1

EFIS 45.
What value is selected by the heading selector (heading bug) in the diagram in
question EFIS 44 above?

EFIS 46.
On what track is the aircraft currently flying in the diagram in quiestion EFIS 44
on the previous page?
EFIS 47.
Which mode is selected on the Navigation Display (EHSI) in diagram below?

Map mode.
Centre Map mode.
Plan mode.
Centre plan mode.
EFIS 48.
Which mode is selected on the Navigation Display (EHSI) in the diagram below?

Full VOR mode.

Expanded VOR mode.
Full NAV mode.
Expanded NAV mode.
EFIS 49.
Which mode is selected in the Navigation Display (EHSI) in diagram below?

Full VOR mode.

Expanded VOR mode.
Full NAV mode.
Expanded NAV mode.
EFIS 50.
Which mode is selected on the Navigatiion Display (EHSI) in the diagram below?

Map mode.
Centre Map mode.
Plan mode:
Full NAV mode.

EFIS 51.
When using the EHSI, the weather radar may be displayed on the 3 following
settings?

Map, VOMLS.
VOR/ILS, Map, Expalnded plan.
Expanded Map, VOWILS, Plan.
Map, Expanded VOWILS.
EFIS 52.
What is the current active waypoint in the diagram below?

AMLON.
ANC10.
ILB.
TRA.

EFIS 53.
Decision height is adjusted and set on the?

a. Flight Management Computer.

b. HSI section of the EFIS control panel.
c. AD1 section of the EFIS control panel.
d. AD1 or ESI.

EFIS 54.
The WXR display is controlled from?

a. The Captain's EHSI only.

b. The Co-pilot's EHSI only.
c. A special control panel.
d. Both the Capatain's and the Co-pilot's ESI control panels.
EFIS 55.
The WXR display is on?

a. The Captaion's CRT only.

b. The Co-pilot's CRT only.
c. A special screen.
d. On both the Captain's and the Co-pilot's CRTs.

EFIS 56.
Airspeed is shown on?

a. Only on the Captain's EHSI.

b. On both EADI's.
c. On both EHSI's.
d. Only on the flight management CRT.

EFIS 57.
In addition to a control panel, symbol generators and a remote light sensor, an
EFIS also has?

a. EADIs and EHSIs.

b. EHSIs and altitude indicator.
c. EADIs and EICASs.
d. EADIs and WXR display tubes.

EFIS 58.
Modes available for (EFIS) HSI on some units are?

a. Airspeed and Mach.

b. Map and Plan.
c. VOR, ILS, Map and Auto Select.
d. Only from manometric sources.

EFIS 59.
With an EFIS Flight director using EFIS guidance, reference North can be?

a. Magnetic North only.

b. Magnetic North between 7 3 ' ~and 65's and True North above these
latitudes.
c. Magnetic North between 6 5 ' ~and 73's and True North above these
latitudes.
d. Magnetic North between 7 5 ' ~and 75's and True North above these
latitudes.
EFIS 60.
In diagram below the data is is shown on (i) .......which is displaying (ii)......?
a. (i) Primary Flight Display. (ii) 600 Kts TAS.
b. (i) Navigation Display. (ii) 600 ft RA.
c. (i) EADI. (i) 600 ft RA.
d. (i) EHSI. (ii) 600 Kts GS.

EFIS 61.
The symbol below appears in yellow in place of the normal radio altitude display
when?

a. The selected radio altitude has been reached.

b. The radio altitude needs re-setting on the EHSI.
c. There is a failure of the radio altimeter.
d. The aircraft has descended below 1000 ft AGL.

EFIS 62.
In the diagram below the symbols A, C and E respectively are best described as?

a. Off route waypoint, airport, novigation aid.

b. Next waypoint, navigation aid, airport.
c. Off route waypoint, navigation aid, a navigation point.
d. Active waypoint aircraft currently navigating to, navigation aid, off route
waypoint.
I
EFIS 63.
In the diagrams below the symbols for a navaid and enroute wayoint are?
EFIS 64.
In diagrams on the previous page, the full VOR display is shown on diagram?

EFIS 65. d.
In the diagrams in question EFIS 64, on which of the displays can weather be
displayed?

a. B, D and E.
b. A, C and F.
c. B and D.
d. C, E and F.

EFIS 66.
In the diagrams in question EFIS 64, what would be the display which would result
from the selections as shown in the diagram below?

MSI
NAV VOR/ILS
EFIS 67.
In the display below, what is the correct statement?

a. The aircraft is closing the localiser from the right, heading 1 3 0 ' ~and is
approaching the glide path from above.
b. When established on the localiser the inbound heading will be 1 6 5 ' ~ .
c. The localiser track is 1 6 5 ' ~ .
d. The localiser centre line is 1 3 3 ' ~ .

EFIS 68.
In the display below, the track from ZAPPO to BANTU is?
EFIS 69.
In the display below, the centre weather returns are?

a. 106' relative, 18 nm.

b. 332' relative, 13 nm.
c. 100' Magnetic, 130 nm.
d. 30 nm left of track, 15 nm ahead.

EFIS 70.
The groundspeed is indicated in which of the following colours?

a. Magenta.
b. White.
c. Green.
d. Yellow.
 EFIS 71.
With APP selected on the MCP below 500 ft AGL, if more than one dot for one
second in glideslope deviation or more than 115th dot for one second in localiser
deviation occurs?

a. The respective localiser or glideslope scales change colour from white to

magenta and the pointer flashes.
b. The respective localiser or glideslope scales change colour from white to red
and the pointer flashes.
c. The respective localiser or glideslope scales change colour from steady white
to flashing white.
d. The respective localiser or glideslope scales change colour from white to
amber and the pointer flashes.

EFIS 72.
On a HSI map mode, distance to go is displayed in the?

a. Top left corner.

b. Bottom left corner.
c. Bottom right corner.
d. Top right corner,

EFIS 73.
Weather radar data can not be displayed on the EHSI in which of the following
maodes?

a. VOR.
b. ILS.
c. MAP.
d. PLAN.

AUTOFLIGHT 1.
The purpose of Auto Trim function in autopilot is to?

a. Tell the pilot when elevator trimming is required.

b. Help Auto Pilot to compensate for crosswind influence.
c. Trim throttles to obtain smooth engine power variation.
d. Control elevator trim tab in order to relieve elevator load
-
AUTOFLIGH~~.
The purpose of Auto Throttle is?

a. Automatic shut down of one engine at too high temperature.

b. To deactivate manual throttles and transfer engine control to Auto
Pilot.
c. To synchronize engines to avoid "yawing".
d. To maintain constant engine power or airplane speed.

AUTOFLIGHT 3.
In order to know in which mode the auto-throttles are engaged, the crew will
check the?

a. ND (Navigation Display).
b. TCC (Thrust Control Computer).
c. Throttles position.
d. PFD (Primary Flight Display).

AUTOFLIGHT 4.
Mode "Localizer ARM" active on Flight Director means?

a. Localizer ALARM, making localizer approach not authorized.

b. Coupling has occurred and system provides control data to capture the
centreline.
c. Localizer is armed and coupling will occur when flag warning disappears.
d. System is armed for localizer approach and coupling will occur upon
capturing centre line.

AUTOFLIGHT 5.
The Altitude Select System?

a. Disengages autopilot Auto Trim at selected altitude.

b. Is annunciated by light and/or sound when airplane is approaching
selected altitude.
c. Illuminates a light when selected altitude is attained.
d. Engages autopilot Auto Trim at selected altitude.

AUTOFLIGHT 6.
The correction of the control surface deflection made by the automatic pilot
calculator in order to stabilize the longitudinal attitude will be all the more
significant as the?

1. Difference between the reference attitude and the instantaneous attitude

is high.
2. Rate of change of the difference between the reference attitude and the
instantaneous attitude is high.
3. Temperature is low.
4. Pressure altitude is high.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is?

AUTOFLIGHT 7.
The correction of the control surface deflection made by the auto-pilot calculator in
order to keep a given altitude will be all the more significant when the?

1. Difference between the attitude necessary to keep the given or reference

altitude and the instantaneous attitude is high.
2. Variation speed of the difference between the attitude necessary to
maintain the altitude and the instantaneous attitude is high.
3. Difference between the altitude of reference and the instantaneous
altitude is high.
4. Variation speed of the difference between the reference altitude and the
instantaneous altitude is high.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is?

a. 1 , 2 , 3 and 4.
b. 1 and 2.
c. 3 and 4.
d. 1 , 2 and 3.

AUTOFLIGHT 8.
An automatic landing is carried out when the automatic pilot?

a. And the auto-throttle ensure a correct final approach, at least up to

ground roll.
b. Ensures a correct final approach, at least up to ground roll while the
human pilot controls the power.
c. And the auto-throttle ensure a correct final approach, at least up to
flare-out.
d. And the auto-throttle ensure a correct final approach, at least up to
flare-out while the human pilot controls the power.
 I
AUTOFLIGHT 9.
A pilot has to carry out a single-pilot IFR flight on a light twin-engined
aircraft for cargo transport. The purpose of the automatic pilot is at least to hold
the?

a. Heading.
b. Altitude.
c. Heading, to hold the altitude and to have a radio axis tracking function.
d. Heading and to hold the altitude.

AUTOFLIGHT 10.
The block diagram of an autopilot is shown below.

Control surface

Detectors
6 control su&ace feedback

Aircraft S response feedback

I
I
For each control channel (pitch, roll and yaw) the piloting law is the relationship
between the deflection of the control surface commanded by the computer (BETA
c) and the?

a. Real deflection of the control surface (BETA control surface feedback).

b. Offset EPSILON at the computer input.
c. Pilot command E.
d. Aircraft response S.

AUTOFLIGHT 11.
In the automatic trim control system of an autopilot, automatic trimming is
normally effected about the?

a. Pitch axis only.

b. Roll and yaw axes only.
c. Pitch roll and yaw axes.
d. Pitch and roll axes only.
 AUTOFLIGHT 12.
A closed loop control system in which a small power input controls a much larger
power output in a strictly proportionate manner is known as?

a. An amplifier.
b. A feedback control circuit.
c. An autopilot.
d. A servomechanism.

AUTOFLIGHT 13.
Mach Trim is a device to compensate for?

a. Weight reduction resulting from fuel consumption during the cruise.

b. Backing of the aerodynamic centre at high Mach numbers by moving the
elevator to nose-up.
c. The effects of fuel transfer between the main tanks and the tank located in
the horizontal tail.
d. The effects of temperature variation during a climb or descent at constant
Mach.

AUTOFLIGHT 14.
Which one of the following statements is true with regard to the operation of a
Mach trim system?

a. It only operates above a pre-determined Mach number.

b. It operates to counteract the larger than normal forward movements of
the wing centre of pressure at high subsonic airspeeds.
c. It only operates when the autopilot is engaged.
d. It operates over the full aircraft speed range.

AUTOFLIGHT 15.
A landing will be considered to be performed in the SEMI-AUTOMATIC
mode when?

1. The autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the decision
height is reached then is disengaged automatically.
2. The auto-throttle maintains a constant speed until the decision height is
reached then is disengaged automatically.
3. The autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the flare.
4. The auto-throttle decreases the thrust when the height is approximately
1
30 ft.
5. The flare and the ground roll are performed automatically.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is?

a. 3,4 and 5.
b. 1and 4.
c. 2,3 and 5.
d. 1and 2.

AUTOFLIGHT 16.
When using the autopilot, the function of the pitch channel automatic trim is to?

1. Cancel the hinge moment of the elevator.

2. Ease as much as possible the load of the servo-actuators.
3. Restore to the pilot a correctly trimmed airplane during the autopilot
disengagement.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is?

a. 1and 2.
b. 1,2 and 3.
C. 3.
d. 1and 3.

AUTOFLIGHT 17.
Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the airplane
guidance are?

1. Pitch attitude holding.

2. Horizontal wing holding.
3. Indicated airspeed or Mach number holding.
4. Altitude holding.
5. VOR axis holding.
6. Yaw damping

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is?

a. 1,3,4 and 5.
b. 3,4 m d 5.
c. 1, 2, and 6.
d. 1, 2,3 and 6.

AUTOFLIGHT 18.
Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the airplane
stabilization are?

1. Pitch attitude holding.

2. Horizontal wing holding.
3. Displayed heading or inertial track holding.
4. Indicated airspeed or Mach number holding.
5. Yaw damping.
6. VOR axis holding.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is?

a. 2,4, and 5.
b. 1,2 and 5.
c. 1,2,3 and 6.
d. 3,4,5 and 6.

AUTOFLIGHT 19.
The interception of a localizer beam by the autopilot takes place?

a. According to an interception versus radio deviation law.

b. According to an interception versus range and angular speed law.
c. At a constant heading.
d. At a constant magnetic course.

AUTOFLIGHT 20.
The yaw damper, which suppresses Dutch roll?

a. Controls the ailerons, with the angular rate about the vertical axis as the
input signal.
b. Controls the rudder, with the angular rate about the vertical axis as the
input signal.
c. Controls the ailerons, with Mach Number as the input signal.
d. Controls the rudder, with Mach Number as the input signal.

AUTOFLIGHT 21.
Landing shall be considered as having been carried out automatically when the
autopilot and the auto-throttle of an aircraft are disengaged by flight crew?

a. At the outer marker.

b. During ground roll.
c. During the flare.
d. At the decision height.

AUTOFLIGHT 22.
The yaw damper indicator supplies the pilot with information regarding the?

a. Yaw damper action on the rudder.

b. Rudder displacement by the rudder pedals.
c. Yaw damper action only on the ground.
d. Rudder position.
AUTOFLIGHT 23.
An airplane is in steady cruise at flight level 290. The auto-throttle maintains a
constant Mach number. If the total temperature increases, the calibrated
airspeed?

a. Decreases.
b. Increases if the static temperature is higher than the standard
temperature, decreases if lower.
c. Remains constant.
d. Increases.

AUTOFLIGHT 24.
The calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach holding mode is carried out by:

1. The autopilot pitch channel in the climb mode at a constant calibrated

airspeed (CAS) or Mach number.
2, The auto-throttles in the climb mode at a constant calibrated airspeed
(CAS) or Mach number.
3. The autopilot pitch channel in the altitude or glide path holding mode.
4. The auto-throttles in the altitude or glide path holding mode.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is?

a. 2 and 4.
b. 1 and 3.
c. 2 and 3.
d. 1 and 4.

AUTOFLIGHT 25.
When an automatic landing is interrupted by a go-around:

1. The auto-throttle reacts immediately upon the pilot action on the TO/GA
(TakeoffIGo-around) switch in order to recover the maximum thrust.
2. The autopilot monitors the climb and the rotation of the airplane.
3. The autopilot retracts the landing gear and reduces the flap deflection in
order to reduce the drag.
4. The pilot performs the climb and the rotation of the airplane.
5. The pilot retracts the landing gear and reduces the flap deflection in order
to reduce the drag.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is?

a. 1 , 3 and 4.
b. 1 , 2 and 3.
c. 1 , 2 and 5.
d. 1 , 4 and 5.
AUTOFLIGHT 26.
A landing will be considered to be performed in the AUTOMATIC mode
when:

1. The autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the decision
height is reached then is disengaged automatically.
2. The auto-throttle maintains a constant speed until the decision height is
reached then is disengaged automatically.
3. The autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the flare.
4. The auto-throttle decreases thrust when the height is approximately 30 ft.
5. The flare and the ground roll are performed automatically.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is?

a. 1 and 2.
b. 2,3 and 5.
c. 1 and 4.
d. 3,4 and 5.

AUTOFLIGHT 27.
An autopilot capable of holding at least altitude and heading mode is compulsory?

a. For IFR or night flights with only one pilot.

b. On multi-pilot airplanes.
c. For VFR and IFR flights with only one pilot.
d. On airplanes over 5.7 t.

AITTOFLIGHT 28.
The automatic power control system (auto-throttle) of a transport airplane has
the following mode(s):

1. Capture and holding of speeds.

2. Capture and holding of Mach number.
3. Capture and holding of flight angle of attack.
4. Capture and holding of N1 or EPR (Engine Power Ratio).
5. Capture and holding of flight paths.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is?

AUTOFLIGHT 29.
From a flight mechanics point of view, the "guidance" functions of a transport
airplane autopilot consist in?

a. Stabilizing and monitoring the movements around the aerodynamic centre.

b. Monitoring the movements of the centre of gravity in the three dimensions
of space (path).
c. Stabilizing and monitoring the movements around the centre of gravity.
d. Monitoring the movements of the aerodynamic centre in the three
dimensions of space (path).

AUTOFLIGHT 30.
The functions of an autopilot (basic modes) consist of?

a. Guiding the airplane path.

b. Stabilizing and monitoring the movement around the airplane aerodynamic
centre.
c. Stabilizing and monitoring the movement around the airplane centre of
gravity.
d. Monitoring the movement of the airplane centre of gravity.

AZTTOFLIGHT 31.
A pilot engages the control wheel steering (CWS) of a conventional autopilot
and carries out a manoeuvre in roll. When the control wheel is released, the
autopilot will?

a. Restore the flight attitude and the rate of turn selected on the autopilot
control display unit.
b. Maintain the flight attitude obtained at that moment.
c. Roll wings level and maintain the heading obtained at that moment.
d. Maintain the track and the flight attitude obtained at that moment.

AUTOFLIGHT 32.
During a Category I1 automatic approach, the height information is supplied by
the?

a. Altimeter.
b. Radio altimeter.
c. GPS (Global Positioning System).
d. Encoding altimeter.
AUTOFLIGHT 33.
The purpose of an airplane automatic trim system is to trim out the hinge moment
of the?

a. Rudder(s).
.b. Elevator(s) and rudder(s).
c. Elevator(s), rudder(s) and ailerons.
d. Elevator(s).

AUTOFLIGHT 34.
An automatic pilot is a system which can ensure the functions of?

a. Piloting from take-off to landing without any action from the human
pilot.
b. Piloting and guidance of an aircraft in both the horizontal and vertical
planes.
c. Piloting only.
d. Navigation.

AUTOFLIGHT 35.
When being engaged, and without selecting a particular mode, an automatic pilot
enables?

a. A constant speed on track, wings horizontal.

b. All aeroplane piloting and guidance functions except maintaining radio-
navigation course lines.
c. Aeroplane stabilization with attitude hold or maintaining vertical speed and
possibly automatic trim.
d. Aeroplane piloting and guidance functions.

AUTOFLIGHT 36.
On an autopilot coupled approach, GO AROUND mode is engaged?

a. By the pilot pushing a button located on the throttles.

b. By the pilot selecting G.A. mode on the thrust computer control panel.
c. Automatically in case of an autopilot or flight director alarm.
d. If the aircraft reaches the decision height selected on the radio altimeter at a
higher speed than the one selected.
AUTOFLIGHT 37.
In a transport airplane, an autopilot comprises, in addition to the mode display
devices, the following fundamental elements:

1. Airflow valve.
2. Sensors.
3. Comparators.
4. Computers.
5. Amplifiers.
6. Servo-actuators.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is?

AUTOFLIGHT 38.
The engagement of an autopilot is not possible when:

1. There is a fault in the electrical power supply.

2. The controlled-turn knob is not set to centre-off.
3. There is a synchronization fault in the pitch channel.
4. There is a fault in the attitude reference unit.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is?

AUTOFLIGHT 39.
The purpose of the automatic trim is to:

1. Reduce to zero the hinge moment of the entire control surface in order to
relieve the load on the servo-actuator.
2. Ensure the aeroplane is properly trimmed when the autopilot is disengaged.
3. Maintain the same stability/manoeuverablity trade-off within the whole
flight envelope.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is?

AUTOFLIGHT 40.
In automatic landing mode, in case of failure of one of the two autopilots, the
system is considered?

a. "Fail soft" with minimized failure effect.

b. "Fail passive" or without failure effect but with disconnection.
c. "Fail survival" or without failure effect with function always ensured.
d. "Fail hard" or without failure effect and disconnection.

AUTOFLIGHT 41.
In automatic landing mode, when the 2 autopilots are used, the system is
considered?

a. "Fail survival" or without failure effect with function always ensured.

b. "Fail soft" or with minimized failure effect.
c. "Fail passive" or without failure effect but with disconnection.
d. "Fail hard" or with failure effect and disconnection.

AUTOFLIGHT 42.
When only one autopilot is used for climbing, cruising and approach, the system is
considered?

a. "Fail survival" or without failure effect with function always ensured.

b. "Fail safe" with failure effect without disconnection.
c. "Fail soft" with minimized failure effect but with disconnection.
d. "Fail passive" or without failure effect.

AUTOFLIGHT 43.
The autopilot basic modes include, among other things, the following functions?

1. Pitch attitude hold.

2. Pressure altitude hold.
3. Horizontal wing hold.
4. Heading hold.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements I ?

AUTOFLIGHT 44.
The control law of a transport airplane autopilot control channel may be defined as
the relationship between the?

a. Computer input deviation data and the signals received by the

servo-actuators.
b. Input and output signals at the amplifier level respectively control
deviation data and control deflection signals.
c. Crew inputs to the computer and the detector responses (returned to the
airplane).
d. Computer input deviation data and the output control deflection signals.

AUTOFLIGHT 45.
Four scenarios of VOR axis interception are represented below. The one
corresponding to the optimal interception pathcalculated by a flight director is
number?
AUTOFLIGHT 46.
When an aircraft, operating in the VOR coupled mode, approaches the "cone
of confusion" over a VOR station, the roll channel of the autopilot?

a. Remains always coupled to the selected VOR radial.

b. Is temporarily disconnected.
c. Maintains its existing heading.
d. Is damped by a trim input signal from the lateral trim system.

AUTOFLIGHT 47.
A landing is performed automatically when the autopilot and auto-throttle
ensure good performance from the final approach?

a. Until the flare.

b. Until reaching decision height.
c. During the landing roll and sometimes until the aircraft comes to a complete
stop.
d. Until reaching 100 ft, height at which point the autopilot is automatically
disconnected.

AUTOFLIGHT 48.
A semi-automatic landing system disconnects itself automatically?

a. On ground.
b. When going around.
c. At approximately 100 ft.
d. At the decision height.

AUTOFLIGHT 49.
An automatic landing system necessitating that the landing be continued manually
in the case of a system failure during an automatic approach is
Called "FAIL...."?

a. "OPERATIONAL".
b. "SAFE".
c. "REDUNDANT".
d. "PASSIVE".
AUTOFLIGHT 50.
An automatic landing system which can keep on operating without deterioration of
its performances following the failure of one of the autopilots is called "FAIL...:?

a. "REDUNDANT".
b. "OPERATIONAL".
c. "PASSIVEw.
d. "SAFE " .

AUTOFLIGHT 51.
During an automatic landing, from a height of about 50 ft the?

a. Autopilot maintains a vertical speed depending on the radio altimeter

height.
b. Glideslope mode is disconnected and the airplane continues its descent until
landing.
c. Autopilot maintains an angle of attack depending on the radio altimeter
height.
d. Loc and Glideslope modes are disconnected and the airplane carries on its
descent until landing.

AUTOFLIGHT 52.
Automatic trim is a component of the autopilot pitch channel. Its function is to?

a. Reset the attitude, after engaging (the autopilot).

b. Set the attitude to an instantaneous value before engaging the autopilot.
c. Automatically disengage the autopilot in the case of an excessive pitch up.
d. Transfer a stabilized aeroplane to the pilot during autopilot disengagement.

AUTOFLIGHT 53.
The auto-throttle:

1. Enable to catch and to maintain the N1 RPM.

2. Enable to catch and to maintain the N2 RPM.
3. Enable to catch and to maintain an airplane indicated airspeed (IAS).
4. Is always engaged automatically at the same time as the autopilot.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is?

a. 1 and 3.
b. 2 and 3.
c. 1 and 4.
d. 1,3 and 4.
AUTOFLIGHT 54.
When the altitude acquisition mode is engaged on a jet transport airplane equipped
with autopilot (AP) and auto-throttle (ATS) systems the?

a. True airspeed (TAS) is maintained constant by the auto-throttle system.

b. Indicated airspeed (IAS) is maintained constant by the auto-throttle
system.
c. Indicated airspeed GAS) is maintained constant by the autopilot by means
of elevator.
d. True airspeed (TAS) is maintained constant by the autopilot by means of
elevator.

AUTOFLIGHT 55.
The synchronization of the autopilot control channel system:

1. Enables the prevention of jerks during disengagement.

2. Enables the cancellation of rudder control signals.
3. Enables the prevention of jerks during engagement.
4. Functions in the heading, navigation, approach modes.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is?

AUTOFLIGHT 56.
In a selected axis capture mode, the autopilot gives a bank attitude input?

a. Proportional to the deviation between the selected heading and the current
heading but not exceeding a given value.
b. Of a fixed value equal to 27O.
c. Of a fixed value equal to 20°.
c. Proportional to the aircraft true airspeed but not exceeding a given value.

AUTOFLIGHT 57.
The computers of the electrical flight controls system comply with programs
defined by attitude control laws such as:

1. On the longitudinal axis, the law may combine the load factor and the
changes in the pitch rate as control data sources.
2. The trimming is automatic and ensures stability.
3. The protections apply to pitch and bank attitudes depending on the speed.
4. These laws do not apply to the whole flight envelope.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is?

AUTOFLIGHT 58.
An autopilot is selected "ON" in mode "altitude hold," the pilot alters the
barometric pressure set on the sub-scale of his altimeter the?

a. Aircraft will remain at the same altitude, the autopilot takes its pressure
information from the altimeter corrected to standard pressure, 1013.25 hPa.
b. Aircraft will climb or descend in the sense of the change, the autopilot takes
its pressure information from the altimeter.
c. Mode altitude hold will disengage.
d. Aircraft will remain at the same altitude, the autopilot takes its pressure
information from the static source.

AUTOFLIGHT 59.
In an auto-pilot slaved powered control circuit, the system which ensures
Synchronization?

a. Prevents uncommanded surface deflection when the automatic pilot is

disengaged.
b. Is inhibited when the automatic pilot is engaged.
c. Can itself, when it fails, prevent the automatic pilot from being engaged.
d. Intervenes only when the automatic pilot has been engaged.

AUTOFLIGHT 60.
The command functions of an autopilot include, among others, the holding of:

1. Vertical speed.
2. Altitude.
3. Attitude.
4. Bank.
5. Heading.

The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is?

AUTOFLIGHT 61.
When the auto-pilot is engaged; the role of the automatic trim is to?

a. Relieve the pressure on the control column and return, the aircraft in trim
at A.P. disconnect.
b. React to altitude changes in Altitude Hold mode.
c. Synchronize the longitudinal loop.
d. Relieve the A.P. servo motor and return the aircraft in-trim at A.P.
disconnection.

AUTOFLIGHT 62
What happens to the glideslope signal at 50 ft agl in an autoland?

a. I t causes the aircraft to execute a flare.

b. It is automatically disconnected.
c. I t continues to be followed automatically.
d. I t changes gradient to reduce landing impact.

AUTOFLIGHT 63.
When is the autoland considered to have been completed and the autopilot
disconnected in an automatic landing?

a. At 100 ft agl.
b. At roll out.
c. At the flare.
d. At decision height.

AUTOPLIGHT 64.
Which of the following prevent engagement of the autopilot?

1. Attitude reference unit failure.

2. Synchronisation error.
3. Electrical supply failure.
4. Turn control knob not at centre off position.
5. Altimeter not set to correct QFE.
AUTOFLIGHT 65.
What provides the required height information during a Cat 2 autoland?

a. Central ADC.
b. Radalt.
c. Baralt.
d. Glideslope signal.

AOTUFLIGHT 66.
What is the term used for an autopilot system that can still conduct an automatic
landing safely following a single system failure?

a. Fail active.
b. Fail passive.
c. Fail safe.
d. Fail operational.

AUTOFLIGHT 67.
What is the term used for an autopilot system that cannot conduct an automatic
landing safely but does not endanger the aircraft following a single system failure?

a. Fail active.
b. Fail passive.
c. Fail safe.
d. Fail operational.

AUTOFLIGHT 68.
For what type of operations is an autopilot with heading hold and altitude hold the
minimum requirement?

a. Class A aircraft operations.

b. Commercial operations.
c. Flight in IFR or at night by a single pilot.
d. Flight in VMC or IMC by a single pilot.

AUTOFLIGHT 69.
What happens if an aircraft flies over the cone of confusion with its autopilot set to
VOR hold?

a. Existing heading will be held until intelligible signals are regained.

b. The pilot must immediately deselect VOR hold or the flight path will
become erratic.
c. The system will:qidomatically disengage VOR hold.
d. The cone of sbnbston
. --.\
not a phenomenon of VOR.
AUTOLFLIGHT 70.
The yaw damper indicator shows?

a. Rudder position.
b. Rudder movements caused by the damper.
c. Nothing until the system fails.
d. Nothing until the system becomes active.

AUTOFLIGHT 71.
Localiser beam interception by the autopilot?

a. Uses a radio deviation law.

b. Uses range computation algorithms.
c. Uses a constant heading.
d. Uses the inner and outer markers.

AUTOFLIGHT 72.
A yaw damper system?

a. Moves the ailerons in proportion to yaw rates.

b. Moves the ailerons in proportion to Dutch roll rates.
c. Moves the rudder in proportion to yaw rates.
d. Moves the rudder in proportion to Dutch roll rates.

AUTOFLIGHT 73.
When conducting an automatic landing the autopilot?

a. Controls attitude and the auto-throttle controls speed and altitude.

b. Controls attitude and altitude and the auto-throttle controls speed.
c. And the auto-throttle together control the aircraft until at least the roll out.
d. And the auto-throttle control the aircraft until decision height, when the
auto-throttle becomes inactive.

AUTOFLIGdT 74.
The roll commands generated by an autopilot system?

a. Are zero when AOB is less than 25 degrees.

b. Are zero when heading error less than 5 degrees.
c. Are proportional to the difference between the selected heading and the
actual heading.
d. Are proportional to TAS in order to avoid overshooting the desired heading.
AUTOFLIGHT 75.
The purpose of synchronisation in an autopilot system is to?

1. Prevent snatching on engagement.

2. Prevent snatching on disengagement.
3. Prevents the engagement of an unserviceable autopilot system.
4. Cancels pilot-induced rudder inputs.

AUTOFLIGHT 76.
Fly by wire system employ control laws which?

a. Determines how pilot input demands are translated into control surface
movement.
b. Determines how controls must move to maintain steady state conditions.
c. Analyses error signals between pick-offs on the ailerons and rudder.
d. Maintains constant aircraft attitude.

ALTTOFLIGHT 77.
The device in a closed loop that converts a small input signal into a large output in
a proportionate manner is?

a. An autostab module.
b. An amplifier.
c. A servomechanism.
d. A negative feedback loop.

AUTOFLIGHT 78.
Autotrim is employed in an autopilot system in order to?

1. Prevent snatching on engagement.

2. Prevent snatching on disengagement.
3. Prevent the autopilot engaging when unserviceable.
4. Provide manual control.
5. To reduce control hinge moments.
6. Maintain manual control authority.

a. 1,6.
b. 2,4.
c. 3,5, and 6.
d. 2,3, and 5.
AUTOFLIGHT 79.
During a semi-automatic landing the autopilot?

a. Controls speed down to 30 ft agl before automatically disengaging.

b. Controls the aircraft throughout the approach and until at least the decision
height.
c. Controls the aircraft throughout the approach and until the end of the roll
out.
d. Is not employed below 400 ft agl.

AUTOFLIGHT 80.
At 50 ft agl in an automatic landing?

a. Glideslope disconnects and the aircraft continues to descend.

b. Glideslope disconnects and the aircraft flares.
c. Radalt reduces ROD to produce a flare.
d. Radalt reduces ROD to zero.

AUTOFLIGHT 81.
An autoland procedure is complete when?

a. The aircraft reaches decision height.

b. The aircraft stops.
c. The aircraft starts its ground roll.
d. The flare is completed.

AUTOFLIGHT 82.
The mach trimmer system?

a. Prevents tuck under at low mach numbers.

b. Prevents tuck under at high mach numbers.
c. Prevents tuck under only at mach 1.
d. Prevents tuck under at high altitudes.

AUTOLFLIGHT 83.
The autopilot causes an aircraft to pitch, roll and yaw?

a. Only when it becomes unserviceable.

b. Its centre of pressure.
c. Its centre of gravity.
d. Its manoeuvre point.
AUTOFLIGHT 84.
What will an autopilot provide if it is engaged with no modes selected?

a. Autostab and autotrim.

b. Autostab and constant attitude.
c. VNAV and LNAV.
d. Height hold.

AUTOFLIGHT 85.
Which of the following best describes what happens when the TOGA switch is
pressed during a missed approach?

1. The pilot takes over and flies manually.

2. Go around power is selected automatically.
3. Maximum power is selected automatically.
4. Flaps and gear are retracted automatically.
5. The autopilot controls the aircraft during the go around manoeuvre.

AUTOFLIGHT 86.
Under what conditions is a landing considered to be fully automatic?

1. Both flare and ground roll are conducted automatically.

2. The autopilot follows the ILS down to the flare.
3. The autopilot follows the ILS down to decision height, at which point it is
disengaged.
4. Auto-throttle is disengaged at 50 ft.
5. Auto-throttle maintains speed down to decision height and is then
disengaged.

AUTOFLIGHT 87.
A Category 3A autoland procedure is complete when?

a. At the flare.
b. At the end of the ground roll.
c. At the start of the ground roll.
d. At decision height.
AUTOFLIGHT 88.
When a go around is initiated from an automatic approach?

1. The pilot takes over and flies manually.

2. Go around power is selected automatically.
3. Maximum power is selected automatically.
4. Flaps and gear are retracted automatically.
5. The autopilot controls the aircraft during the go around manoeuvre.

AUTOFLIGHT 89.
In straight and level cruising flight, ........holds speed and ........holds height?
a. Autostab autopilot.
b. Auto-throttle autopilot.
c. Autopilot autopilot.
d. Autopilot auto-throttle.

AUTOFLIGHT 90.
What type of autopilot system prevents the continuation of an automatic landing to
continue after one autopilot fails?

a. Fail safe.
b. Fail passive.
c. Fail active.
d. Duplex.

AUTOFLIGHT 91.
What are the minimum autopilot requirements for single pilot IFR flight?

a. Heading hold and speed hold.

b. Heading hold and altitude hold.
c. Altitude hold.
d. Heading hold, altitude hold and VOR tracking.

AUTOFLIGHT 92.
Auto-throttle modes are typically annunciated?

a. On EICAS. O r ECAM
b. On EFIS ND.
c. On EFIS PFD.
d. Thrust computation system control panel.
AUTOFLIGHT 93.
Turning the barometric setting knob clockwise when ALT HOLD is engaged will?

a. Have no immediate effect.

b. Make the aircraft climb.
c. Make the aircraft descend.
d. Cause the autopilot to disengage.

AUTOFLIGHT 94.
The rate at which an autopilot system moves the control surfaces?

1. Varies greatly with altitude.

2. Varies greatly with the deviation from the selected condition.
3. Varies with rate of deviation from selected parameters.
4. Is constant.

AUTOFLIGHT 95.
A yaw damper?

a. Moves the rudder in proportion to yaw displacement.

b. Moves the rudder in proportion to yaw rate.
c. Moves the rudder to prevent spiral instability.
d. Moves the rudder in proportion to mach number.

AUTOFLIGHT 96.
If only one autopilot is employed to control climb, cruise and approach, it must be?

a. Fail safe and automatically disconnected in the event of its failure.

b. Fail soft and manually disconnected in the event of its failure.
c. Redundant and fail safe.
d. Fail operational.

AUTOFLIGHT 97.
The pilot can check which auto-throttle mode is engaged by looking at?

a. Thrust computation computer.

b. EPR indicator.
c. EFIS ND.
d. EFIS PFD.
AUTOFLIGHT 98.
When is the autoland flare initiated?

a. 1000 ft agl.
b. 400 ft agl.
c. 100 ft agl.
d. 50 ft agl.

AUTOFLIGHT 99.
A pilot can check auto-throttle mode on the?

a. EICAS or ECAM primary display.

b. EFIS PFD.
c. EFIS ND.
d. Overhead panel.

AUTOFLIGHT 100.
At what height will the autopilot be disengaged during a semi-automatic landing?

a. 400 ft.
b. 100 ft.
c. 50 ft.
d. Decision height.

AUTOFLIGHT 101.
What is the minimum acceptable autopilot facility for single pilot fight at night or
in IFR conditions?

a. Two axis autopilot providing altitude hold, heading hold, and VOR
tracking.
b. Two axis autopilot providing altitude hold and heading hold.
c. Single axis autopilot providing altitude hold.
d. Single axis autopilot providing heading hold.

AUTOFLIGHT 102.
An autopilot capable of providing heading hold and altitude hold is the minimum
requirement for?

a. Automatic landings.
b. Single pilot IMC and VMC operations.
c. Single pilot night and IFR operations.
d. Class A aircraft.
AUTOFLIGHT 103.
What is the meaning of an illuminated "LOC ARMED" caption on the
annunciator?

a. ILS captured.
b. Localiser is armed and awaiting capture.
c. Localiser has been captured.
d. Localiser beam has failed.

AUTOFLIGHT 104.
An automatic landing is one in which?

1. The flare is conducted automatically.

2. The auto-throttle is disengaged at 50 ft.
3. The autopilot follows the ILS down to the flare.
4. The auto-throttle controls airspeed down to decision height then disengages.
a. 1, 2.
b. . 1,3.
c. 2,3.
d. 2,4.

AUTOFLIGHT 105.
What is the purpose of automatic trim in an autopilot system?

a. To prevent snatching on engagement.

b. To prevent snatching on disengagement.
c. To prevent system runaway.
d. To prevent mach tuck under.

AUTOFLIGHT 106.
If an aircraft is provided with only a single autopilot to control climb, cruise and
descent, the failure of this system will?

a. Cause no problems because it will be fail safe and disengage automatically

upon failure.
b. Cause the system to run away unless immediately switched off by the pilot.
c. Be redundant and hence fail passively.
d. Will fail soft and hence not need switching off.

AUTOFLIGHT 107.
Which of the following can be held by the auto-throttle system?

1. Mach number.
2. IAS.
3. Altitude.
4. NlandEPR.
5. VOR tracking.
6. Vertical speed.

AUTOFLIGHT 108.
The purpose of the automatic trim facility is to?

a. To relieve the forces on the control column prior to hand over.

b. To reduce control hinge moments to zero.
c. To relieve forces on the autopilot servos prior to hand over.
d. To prevent sudden altitude changes in alt hold.

AUTOFLIGHT 109.
In the heading select mode the autopilot banks the aircraft by inputting control
signal that are?

1. Proportional to the error between actual heading and selected heading.

2. Within specific limits.
3. Sufficient to achieve a maximum of 25 degrees of bank.
4. Sufficient to achieve a rate one turn.

AUTOFLIGHT 110.
The most basic autopilot function is to?

a. Level the wings.

b. Heading hold.
c. Altitude hold.
d. Pitch hold.

AUTOFLIGHT 111.
The effects of an automatic trim function in an autopilot system are to?

1. Cancel rudder control inputs to prevent runaway.

2. Prevent snatching on engagement.
3. Prevent snatching on disengagement.
4. to prevent system engagement if autotrim is not abvailable.
AUTOFLIGHT 112.
The TOGA facility is activated?

a. By pressing the TOGA button on or close to the throttle levers.

b. By pressing the pulling back on the control column during an autoland.
c. If the autopilot fails during an autoland.
d. When the glideslope is lost.

AUTOFLIGHT 113.
Initiating a go-around during an automatic approach?

1. The pilot controls the aircraft in the climb.

2. The autopilot controls the aircraft in the climb.
3. Auto-throttle selects maximum power.
4. Auto-throttle selects go-around power.
5. The pilot retracts flaps and gear.
6. The flaps and gear are retracted automatically.

AUTOFLIGHT 114.
A fully automatic landing is one in which?

a. The autopilot and auto-throttle control the aircraft until at least the roll out.
b. The autopilot and auto-throttle control the aircraft down to the flare.
c. The autopilot and auto-throttle control the aircraft until it stops.
d. The autopilot and auto-throttle control the aircraft down to decision height.

AUTOFLIGHT 115.
The term used to describe an autopilot system that is unable to continue an
automatic landing after a single autopilot failure is?

a. Fail safe.
b. Fail passive.
c. Duplexed.
d. Fail operational.
AUTOFLIGHT 116.
What happens if the barometric altimeter pressure setting is adjusted when the
autopilot is flying the aircraft altitude hold mode?

a. The changed pressure setting has no effect.

b. The aircraft climbs or descend, depending on which way the setting is
changed.
c. The aircraft climbs.
d. The aircraft descends.

AUTOFLIGHT 117.
The autopilot rotates the aircraft around?

a. Its C of P.
b. Its C of G.
c. Its aerodynamic centre.
d. Only when defective.

AUTOFLIGHT 118.
A single pilot flying IFR must have an autopilot providing at least?

a. Horizontal hold.
b. Attitude hold.
c. Altitude and heading hold.
d. Attitude hold and altitude hold employing some form of radio navigation
aid.

AUTOFLIGHT 119.
What is the name for a closed loop system in which a small input controls a much
larger output in accordance with a set proportionality law?

a. Autopilot.
b. Amplifier.
c. Servo mechanism.
d. Positive feedback loop.

AUTOFLIGHT 120.
What is controlled by an auto flight system?

a. Elevators to control IAS.

b. Elevators to control heading.
c. Auto-throttle to control altitude.
d. Auto-throttle to control vertical speed.
AUTOFLIGHT 121.
At 50 ft agl?

a. The autopilot disengages.

b. The ILS and glideslope disengage.
c. The localiser and glideslope disengage.
d. The glideslope disengages.

AUTOFLIGHT 122.
How is the go around mode selected?

a. Automatically when the glideslope is lost.

b. By the pilot pressing the TOGA button on the throttle quadrant.
c. By the pilot pressing the TOGA button on the overhead panel.
d. By the pilot pushing the throttle levers fully forward.

AUTOFLIGHT 123.
At 50 ft agl during a n auotland?

a. The horizontal stabiliser is trimmed nose up.

b. The glideslope and localiser disengage.
c. The flare mode becomes armed.
d. The autopilot flare mode takes over pitch control from the glideslope.

AUTOFLIGHT 124.
The yaw damper indicator?

a. Shows rudder angle.

b. Show rudder angle only when on the ground.
c. Shows rudder rate of movement.
d. Shows the degree to which the yaw damper has moved the rudder.

AUTOFLIGHT 125.
If the autopilot is engaged without selecting any modes it will provide?

a. Nothing.
b. Automatic stabilisation and in some cases automatic trim.
c. Wings level only.
d. Pitch attitude hold only.
AUTOFLIGH 126.
The "LOC ARMED" caption indicates that?

a. The localiser system has failed.

b. The localiser beam has been captured.
c. The localiser has been armed and is ready for capture.
d. The glideslope has been captured and the localiser is armed ready for
capture.

AUTOFLIGHT 127.
When an aircraft has both autopilot and auto-throttle?

a. When climbing the auto-throttle holds IAS or mach number in the speed
mode and the autopilot holds attitude in the climb mode.
b. When climbing the auto-throttle holds thrust or EPR while the autopilot
holds IAS or mach number is the LVL CHG mode.
c. When cruising the auto-throttle holds altitude in the ALT hold mode and
the autopilot holds IAS or mach number in the speed hold mode.
d. When descending, the auto-throttle holds vertical speed while the autopilot
holds IAS or mach number.

AUTOFLIGHT 128.
What happens at 50 ft agl during an autoland?

a. The glideslope signal flares the aircraft.

b. The glideslope signal is automatically disengaged.
c. The glidslope signal continues to be used to fly the aircraft but its angle
reduces.
d. The glideslope signal frequency increase to improve accuracy.

AUTOFLIGHT 129.
If an aircraft climbs with its auto-throttle system in mach hold?

a. IAS will increase.

b. CAS will decrease.
c. TAS will remain constant.
d. Throttle angle will remain constant.

FLIGHT DIRECTOR 1.
On a modern aircraft, the flight director modes are displayed on the?

a. Control panel of the fight director only.

b. Upper strip of the PFD (Primary Flight Display).
c. Upper strip of the ND (Navigation Display).
d. Upper strip of the ECAM (Electronic Centralized A/C Management).
FLIGHT DIRECTOR 2.
The essential components of a mght director are:

1. A computer.
2. An automatic pilot.
3. An autothrottle.
4. Command bars.

The combination of correct statements is?

FLIGHT DIRECTOR 3.
The aim of the flight director is to provide information to the pilot?

a. Allowing him to return to a desired path according to a 45O intercept angle.

b. Allowing him to return to a desired path according to a 30° intercept angle.
c. Allowing him to return to a desired path in an optimal way.
d. About his position with regard to a radio-electric axis.

FLIGHT DIRECTOR 4.
Flight Director Information supplied by an FD computer is presented in the form
of command bars on the following instrument?

a. AD1 Attitude ~ i s ~Indicator.

l a ~
b. BDHI Bearing Distance Heading Indicator.
c. RNII Radio Magnetic Indicator.
d. HSI Horizontal Situation Indicator.

FLIGHT DZRECTOR 5.
The "heading hold" mode is selected on the flight director (FD) with a course to
steer of 180°. Your aircraft holds a heading of 160°. The vertical bar of the FD?

a. Cannot be centreed.
b. Is centreed if the aircraft is on optimum path to join heading 180°.
c. Is centreed if the aircraft has a starboard drift of 20°.
d. Is centreed if the aircraft has a port drift of 20°.
FLIGHT DIRECTOR 6.
The Flight Director bars are?

a. Always visible in flight.

b. Always visible in automatic flight.
c. Sometimes visible in automatic flight.
d. Never visible in automatic flight.

FLIGHT DIRECTOR 7.
After having programmed your flight director, you see that the indications of your
AD1 (Attitude Director Indicator) are as represented in diagram below. On this
instrument, the command bars indicate that you must bank your airplane to the
left and?

a. Increase the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the symbolic
airplane.
b. Decrease the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the
symbolic airplane.
c. Increase the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the horizon.
d. Decrease the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the horizon.

FLIGHT DIRECTOR 8.
The command bars of a flight director are generally represented on an?

a. HSI (Horizontal Situation Indicator).

b. RMI (Radio Magnetic Indicator).
c. ILS (Instrument Landing System).
d. AD1 (Attitude Director Indicator).
FLIGHT DIRECTOR 9.
An aeroplane is equipped with a Flight Director (with crosshair trend bars),
heading 270°, in HDG mode (heading hold). A new heading, of 360°, is selected the
vertical trend bar?

a. Deviates to its right stop as long as the aeroplane is more than 10° off the
new selected heading.
b. Deviates to the right and will be centred as soon as you roll the aircraft to
the bank angle calculated by the flight director.
c. Deviates to the right and remains in that position until the aircraft has
reached heading 360°.
d. Disappears, the new heading selection has deactivated the HDG mode.

FLIGHT DIRECTOR 10.

The flight director indicates the?

a. Optimum path at the moment it is entered to reach a selected radial.

b. Path permitting reaching a selected radial in minimum time.
c. Path permitting reaching a selected radial over a minimum distance.
d. Optimum instantaneous path to reach selected radial.

FLIGHT DIRECTOR 11.

The position of a Flight Director command bars?

a. Indicates the manoeuvers to execute, to achieve or maintain a flight

situation.
b. Repeats the AD1 and HSI information.
c. Enables the measurement of deviation from a given position.
d. Only displays information relating to radio-electric deviation.

FL.IGHT DIRECTOR 12.

After having programmed your flight director, you see that the indications of your
ADI (Attitude Director indicator) are as represented in diagram below. On this
instrument, the command bars indicate that you must?
a. Increase the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the left until the
command bars recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.
b. Increase the flight attitude and bank your aeroplane to the right until the
command bars recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.
c. Decrease the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the left until the
command bars recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.
d. Decrease the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the right until
the command bars recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.

FLIGHT DIRECTOR 13.

What commands are being indicated by the
flight director at the right?

a. Go down and right.

b. Go up and left.
c. Go down and left.
d. Go up and right.

FLIGrHT DIRECTOR 14.

What: commands are being indicated by the
flight director at the right?

Go down and right.

Go up and left.
Go down and left.
Go up and right.

FLIGHT DIJKECTOR 15.

What: commands are being indicated by the
flight director at the right?

Go down and right.

Go up and left.
Go down and left.
Go up and right.
FLIGHT DIRECTOR 16.
An aircraft is flying on a heading of 275' and the autopilot is in the heading select
mode. What will the flight director command bars do if heading is changed to
350°?

a. The roll bar will move to the right until the AFDS angle of bank required to
intercept is achieved. The bar will then centralise.
b. Roll bar moves hard right then gradually centralises as the difference
between actual heading and selected heading reduces.
c. Roll bar moves left until the actual heading matches the selected heading.
d. The roll bar does not move, but the system automatically regains the
selected heading.

FLIGHT DIRECTOR 17.

Flight director modes are displayed?

a. On the EFIS primary flight display.

b. On the EFIS nav display.
c. On EICAS or ECAM.
d. On the flight director control panel

FLIGHT DIRECTOR 18.

What command are being indicated
by the FD at the right.

a. Go up and right.
b. Go up and left.
c. Go down and right.
d. Go down and left.

FLIGHT DIRECTOR 19.

On which instrument are the FD bars normally displayed?

a. EFIS ND.
b. EFIS PFD.
c. EICAS or ECAM.
d. PPI.
FLIGHT DIRECTOR 20.
When will the AD1 vertical bar become centralised with 180 degrees is selected
when flying on a heading of 160 degrees?

a. When at the correct attitude to intercept 180 degrees.

b. When on a heading of 180 degrees.
c. When on a heading of 160 degrees.
d. When within 20 degrees of 180 degrees.

FLIGHT DIRECTOR 21.

Having programmed the flight director, a
pilot observes that the AD1 indications are
as illustrated in the diagram at the right.
The command bars indicate that the
aircraft should?

a. Bank left and increase nose up attitude until the bars centralise.
b. Bank left and decrease nose up attitude until the bars centralise.
c. Bank right and increase nose up attitude until the bars centralise.
d. Bank right and decrease nose up attitude until the bars centralise.

FLIGHT DIRECTOR 22.

If heading is set to 180 degrees when the aircraft is stable on 160 degrees, what will
happen to the vertical bar on the flight director?

a. Move left.
b. Move right.
c. Move down.
d. Remain central.

FLIGHT DIRECTOR 23.

Where are the flight director modes displayed?

a. EFIS ND.
b. EFIS PFD.
c. EICASIECAM.
d. FD controller.
FLIGHT DIRECTOR 24.
How will the FD bars respond if a heading of 350 degrees is selected, when the
aircraft with heading hold engaged is in steady flight on a heading of 270 degrees?

a. Move right until the turn command is executed, then centralise until a
heading of about 340 degrees is reached, when it will move left to execute a
roll out.
b. Move right until on 350 degrees then centralise.
c. Move right until on heading 260 degrees then move left to regain 350
degrees.
d. Move right temporarily then quickly centralise.

EICASIECGM 1.
Ia a basic ECAM system?

a. The left screen show information in checklist and memo form, whilst the
right screen shows relevant diagrams.
b. The right screen shows information in checklist or memo form, whilst the
left screen shows the relevant diagrams.
c. The left screen is normally blank with the right showing primary engine
data.
d. The right screen is normally blank with the left showing primary engine
data.

EICASECAM 2.
The basic ECAM system has?

a. Three automatic modes and one manual mode.

b. Four automatic modes and one manual mode.
c. Three manna1 modes and one automatic mode.
d. No manual modes.

EICASECAM 3.
A message enclosed within a box?

a. Is used in EICAS to show a system which is unserviceable.

b. Is used in ECAM to show a system which is unserviceable.
c. Is used in EICAS to show a system which although serviceable, is rendered
non-operational due to the failure of a different system.
d. Is used in ECAM to show a system which although serviceable, is rendered
non-operational due to the failure of a different system.
EICAS/ECAM 4.
ECAM provides?

a. Information in checklist or memo format on the left or upper display and a

synoptic diagram on the right or lower display.
b. Information in checklist or memo format on the right or lower display and a
synoptic diagram on the left or upper display.
c. No information about the engines.
d. Information about the engines only on the right or lower displays.

EICASIECAM 5.
If a screen fails in a basic (non-EFIS equipped) ECAM system?

a. The information that would normally appear on that screen is displayed in

compacted format on the other screen.
b. The information that would normally be displayed on that screen is
provided on conventional analogue displays.
c. The information that would normally be displayed on that screen is lost.
d. The engine primary data is displayed on the emergency engine data LED
display.

EICASECAM 6.
If a screen fails in an advanced (EFIS equipped) ECAM system?

a. The information that would normally appear on that screen is displayed in

compacted format on the other screen.
b. The information that would normally be displayed on that screen is
automatically transferred to one of the EFIS screens.
c. The information that would normally be displayed on that screen is lost.
d. The engine primary data is displayed on the emergency engine data LED
display.

EICASIECAM 7.
If a screen fails in a basic (non EFIS equipped) EICAS system?

a. The information that would normally appear on that screen is displayed in

compacted format on the other screen.
b. The information that would normally be displayed on that screen is
automatically transferred to one of the EFIS screens.
c. The information that would normally be displayed on that screen is lost.
d. The engine primary data is displayed on the emergency engine data LED
display.
EICASIECAM 8.
If a screen fails in an advanced (EFIS equipped) EICAS system?

a. The information that would normally appear on that screen is displayed in

compacted format on the other screen.
b. The information that would normally be displayed on that screen is
automatically transferred to one of the EFIS screens.
c. The information that would normally be displayed on that screen is lost.
d. The engine primary data is displayed on the emergency engine data LED
display.

EICASIECAM 9.
If an emergency occurs in an aircraft employing advanced ECAM?

a. The nature of the problem is indicated in red a t the bottom left of the upper
display, together with corrective instructions in blue.
b. The nature of the problem is indicate in amber at the bottom left of the
upper display, together with corrective instructions in white.
c. The nature of the problem is indicated in red at the top left of the upper
display.
d. The nature of the problem is indicated in red on the lower display.

EICASECAM 10.
If an emergency occurs in an aircraft employing advanced EICAS?

a. The nature of the problem is indicated in red at the bottom left of the upper
display, together with corrective instructions in blue.
b. The nature of the problem is indicate in amber at the bottom left of the
upper display, together with corrective instructions in white.
c. The nature of the problem is indicated in red at the top left of the upper
display.
d. The nature of the problem is indicated in red on the lower display.

EICASECAM 11.
In EICAS?

a. Engine primary data such as N1, EGT and EPR are displayed constantly on
the lower screen, the upper screen remaining blank in normal flight.
b. Engine primary and secondary data plus flap, slat and flying control
positions are displayed constantly on the upper screen, the lower screen
remaining blank throughout normal flight.
c. Engine primary and secondary data plus flap, slat and flying control
positions are displayed constantly on the lower screen, the upper screen
remaining blank throughout normal flight.
d. Engine primary data such as N1, EGT and EPR are displayed constantly on
the upper screen, the lower screen remaining blank in normal flight.
EICASIECAM 12.
The EICAS display modes are?

a. Operational, status and maintenance.

b. Normal, failure, status, manual.
c. Operational, status, manual, emergency.
d. Normal, manual, status.

EICAS.ECAM 13.
A red message on an upper EICAS display?

a. Is a warning of a situation for which immediate corrective action is

required. It may or may not be accompanied by an aural warning,
depending on the seriousness of the situation.
b. Is a warning of a situation for which immediate corrective action is
required. It will be accompanied by an appropriate aural warning.
c. Advises the crew of a situation that does not require immediate corrective
action, but might do so in the near future. It will always be accompanied by
an aural warning.
d. Advises the crew of a situation that does not require immediate corrective
action, but might do so in the near future. It may or may not be
accompanied by an aural warning, depending upon the seriousness of the
situation.

EICAS.ECAM 14.
An amber message on an upper EICAS display?

a. Is a warning of a situation for which immediate corrective action is

required. It may or may not be accompanied by an aural warning,
depending on the seriousness of the situation.
b. Is a warning of a situation for which immediate corrective action is
required. It will be accompanied by an appropriate aural warning.
c. Advises the crew of a situation that does not require immediate corrective
action, but might do so in the near future. It will always be accompanied by
an aural warning.
d. Advises the crew of a situation that does not require immediate corrective
action, but might do so in the near future. It may or may not be
accompanied by an aural warning, depending upon the seriousness of the
situation.
EICASECAM 15.
A green bug on an EICAS EPR gauge indicates?

a. The current EPR value.

b. The fact that the current EPR value is the correct one for that stage of
flight.
c. The target EPR value.
d. The maximum safe EPR value.

EICASECAM 16.
The main advantages of EICAS and ECAM are?

a. More accurate indications.

b. Lighter and cheaper instruments.
c. Less cockpit clutter and better information management.
d. The ability to display parameters for multiple engines.

EICASECAM 17.
How will a single EICAS failure be displayed.

1. If one screen of a basic EICAS system fails the other will go into compacted
display mode.
2. If one computer of an EICAS system fails an amber caption will appear on
the upper display but the system will continue to function.
3. If one screen of an advanced EICAS system fails the information from that
screen will be automatically transferred to one of the EFIS navigation
displays, and an amber caption will appear on the screen depicting EICAS
primary data.

a. 1,2.
b. 1,3.
c. 2,3.
d. All of the above.

EICASECAM 18.
If both displays fail on a basic EICAS system?

a. Limited engine primary data (Nl, N2, EGT) are displayed on an EFIS
screen.
b. Limited engine primary data (Nl, N2, EGT) are displayed on analogue
gauges.
c. Limited engine primary data (Nl, N2, EGT) are displayed on the standby
engine LED indicator.
d. All data becomes unavailable.
EICASECAM 19.
An EICAS advisory message?

Appears in amber on the upper display, indented one digit to the left.
Appears in amber on the upper display, indented one digit to the right.
Appears in green on the lower display, indented one digit to the right.
Appears in amber on the lower screen, indented one digit to the right.

EICASECAM 20.
For what is the colour red used in EICAS and ECAM displays?

a. Warning and cautions.

b. Cautions and limits.
c. Warnings and limits.
d. Cautions and limits.

EICASECAM 21.
How must a pilot react to an amber EICAS or ECAM indication?

a. Take immediate corrective action.

b. Take no action, it is for information only.
c. Take no immediate corrective action but be aware of it and consider its
potential effects in the event of other failures.
d. Contact ATC immediately and divert to the nearest capable airfield.

EICASECAM 22.
What indication is given for an ECAM system failure?

a. Light only.
b. Light and aural.
c. A button is illuminated to indicate how to switch off warning.
d. Amber message.

EICASECAM 23.
What is the purpose of the cancel and recall buttons on an EICAS or ECAM
system?

a. To delete unwanted messages and recover them if the situation suddenly

deteriorates.
b. To scroll down and up the list of warnings, cautions and advisories, when
they fiil more than one page.
c. To delete warnings if they cannot be rectified, and to recover them if it is
decided to make a further attempt.
d. To delete low priority messages to concentrate on the high priority ones.
Then to recall the low priority messages when the more important ones have
been dealt with.
EICASECAM 24.
When an ECAM warning has been dealt with?

a. The blue corrective instructions will be replaced by a blue statement of the

new configuration.
b. The red corrective instructions will be deleted.
c. The blue corrective instructions will be deleted.
d. The blue corrective instructions will be replaced by a green statement of the
new configuration.

EICASECAM 25.
When the ECAM T I 0 button is pushed?

a. The aircraft takes-off.

b. The system checks that the aircraft is in the take-off configuration.
c. The system puts the aircraft into the take-off configuration.
d. The system prepares the aircraft for take-off, then awaits the release of the
brakes before spooling up the engines.

EICASECAM 26.
When the Take-off button on an ECAM system is pushed?

a. The aircraft conducts an automatic take-off, to flap retraction height.

b. The aircraft conducts an automatic take-off and climb out to cruise height.
c. The ECAM confirms that the aircraft is in the take-off configuration.
d. The ECAM confirms that the aircraft is in the lift-off attitude.

EICSECAM 27.
The basic ECAM system displays?

a. Engine and aircraft systems primary data.

b. Engine and aircraft systems primary and secondary data.
c. Aircraft systems primary data.
d. Aircraft systems primary and secondary data.

EICSIECAM 28.
Both ECAM and EICAS?

a. Display engine secondary data in analogue format only.

b. Display engine secondary and primary data in digital format only.
c. Display engine primary and secondary data in analogue and digital format.
d. Display engine primary data in analogue and digital format, and secondary
only in analogue format
 EICASECAM 29.
ECAM displays warnings and cautions?

a. At the right side of the left or upper display.

b. At the left side of the right or lower display.
c. At the bottom of the left or upper display.
d. At the top of the left or upper display.

EICASIECAM 30.
The correct response to an EICAS red message is to?

a. Take immediate corrective action.

b. Press the status button to get more information about the failed system.
c. Press the cancel button to see if other faults exist.
d. Press the recall button to obtain a list of corrective actions.

EICASECAM 31.
The correct response to an EICAS amber and aural message is?

a. Take the immediate corrective actions listed on the bottom of the upper
display.
b. Take no immediate action but be aware of the situation.
c. Take immediate corrective actions listed on the lower display.
d. Press the recall button to obtain a list of corrective actions required.

EICASECAM 32.
The correct response to an EICAS amber without aural message is?

a. Take the immediate corrective actions listed on the bottom of the upper
display.
b. Take no immediate action but be aware of the situation.
c. Take immediate corrective actions listed on the lower display.
d. Press the recall button to obtain a list of corrective actions required.

EICASECAM 33.
The correct response to an ECAM red message is?

a. To take immediate corrective action as listed on the bottom of the left or

upper display.
' b. To press the recall button to obtain details of corrective actions required.
c. Take no immediate actions but be aware of the situation.
d. Corrective action will be taken automatically by the system.
EICASECAM 34.
Where are the flying control positions indicated on an advanced ECAM system?

a. The right side of the upper display.

b. The left side of the upper display.
c. The bottom of the lower display.
d. The left side of the lower display.

EICASECAM 35.
Where are the flap and slat positions indicated on an advanced ECAM system?

a. The right side of the upper display.

b. The left side of the upper display.
c. The bottom of the lower display.
d. The left side of the lower display.

EICAS/ECAM 36.
When an aircraft system failure occurs on an aircraft with a basic ECAM system?

a. The left display will indicate the situation in red or amber, together with the
required corrective actions in blue. The right display will show a diagram of
the faulty system.
b. The left display will indicate the situation in red or amber, together with the
required corrective actions in green. The right display will show a diagram
of the faulty system.
c. The right display will indicate the situation in red or amber, together with
the required corrective actions in blue. The left display will show a diagram
of the faulty system.
d. The right display will indicate the situation in red or amber, together with
the required corrective actions in green. The left display will show a
diagram of the faulty system. I

EICASECAM 37.
When the required corrective actions have been taken to remedy an aircraft system
fault, an ECAM system will?

a. The upper screen will continue to display the original fault statement
together with the blue corrective action list, but the lower screen will go
blank.
b. The upper screen will briefly continue to display the original fault
statement, but the list of corrective actions will become green. Both screens
will then revert to normal.
c. The fault indications will immediately disappear as the screens return to
normal.
d. The original fault statement will remain but the corrective actions list will
turn green. The lower display will return to normal.
 EICASECAM 38.
In normal flight conditions an EICAS system display is?

a. Both screens blank.

b. Upper screen blank and lower one indicating primary engine data.
c. Lower screen blank and upper screen indicating primary engine data.
d. Upper screen indicating engine primary data and lower screen indicating
engine secondary data.

EICASECAM 39.
An engine fire on an EICAS equipped aircraft would be indicated by?

a. Red caption on the upper display and engine secondary data on the lower
display.
b. Red caption on the upper display, aural warning, engine secondary data on
the lower display.
c. Amber caption on the upper display and engine secondary data on the lower
display.
d. Amber caption on the upper display, aural warnings, engine secondary data
on the lower display.

EICASECAM 40.
In an EICAS system, excessive EGT is indicated by?

a. The position and figures on an analogue and digital display.

b. The EGT display will turn red.
c. The EGT display will turn amber.
d. The EGT display will flash alternately red and amber.

EICASECAM 41.
If the lower EICAS display fails but the EICAS system does not detect the failure?

a. The lower display will remain blank, but the upper will show a series of
\/ Signs whenever data should be on the lower display.
b. Display failures are always detected by EICAS.
he lower display will remain blank, but the upper will show a series of
C.

d.
T Signs whenever data should be on the lower display.
The system will automatically go into compacted display mode.
EICASECAM 42.
The message on an ECAM display indicates?

a. The RADALT is defective.

b. The RADALT is not itself defective but it has been rendered unavailable
due to the failure of another systems which is not identified.
c. The RADALT is not itself defective but it has been rendered unavailable
due to the failure of another systems which is also identified by another
message.
d. The RADALT has been switched on.

EICASECAM 43.
How is the lower screen in an EICAS system cleared when in status mode?

a. By pressing the CLR button.

b. By pressing the status button.
c. By repeatedly pressing the status button until all pages have been viewed.
d. By pressing the RCL button.

EICAIECAM 44.
Modern commercial transport aircraft will employ?

a. ECAM, EICAS and EFIS.

b. ECAM and EICAS but not EFIS.
c. EFIS and either ECAM or EICAS
d. EFIS only.

EICASECAM 45.
The advantages of EICAS and ECAM include?

1. Reduced cockpit clutter.

2. Reduced pilot workload.
3. Easier identification of faults.
4. Easier interpretation of information in difficult conditions.
5. Lighter indication systems.
6. Better integration of information.

a. 1,2,3,4.
b. 2,3,4,63
c. 3,4,5,6.
d. All of the above.
ENGINE 1.
The temperature measured by the CHT (Cylinder Head temperature) probe is
The?

a. Temperature within the hottest cylinder, depending on its position in the

engine block.
b. Average temperature within the whole set of cylinders.
c. Temperature of the exhaust gases.
d. Temperature of the carburetor to be monitored when the outside air
temperature is between - 5 O C and lo0 C.

ENGINES 2.
The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a 3-phase AC generator, connected
to RPM indicator, is a DC voltage varying with the RPM?

a. The indicator is a plain voltmeter with a revlmin scale measuring an AC

voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM.
b. The indicator converts the signal into square pulses which are then counted
as an AC voltage varying with the RPM.
c. The indicator rectifies the signal via a diode bridge and is provided with a
voltmeter a three-phase voltage, the frequency of which varies with the
RPM.
d. The indicator is provided with a motor, which drives a magnetic
tachometer.

ENGINES 3.
The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a magnetic sensor, connected to an
RPM indicator is a three-phase voltage frequency varies with the RPM?

a. The indicator is provided with a motor which drives a magnetic tachometer

a DC voltage varying with the RPM.
b. The indicator is a simple voltmeter with a revlmin scale measuring an AC
voltage varying with the RPM?
c. The indicator rectifies the signal via a diode bridge and is provided with a
voltmeter measuring an AC voltage, the frequency of which varies with the
RPM.
d. The indicator converts the signal into square pulses which are then counted.

ENGINES 4.
A vibration indicator receives a signal from different sensors (accelerometers). I t
indicates the?

a. Vibration period expressed in seconds.

b. Vibration amplitude at a given frequency. .
c. Acceleration measured by the sensors, expressed in g.
d. Vibration frequency expressed in Hz.
ENGINES 5.
The transmitter of RPM indicator may consist of:

1. A magnetic sensor supplying an induced AC voltage.

2. A DC generator supplying a DC voltage.
3. A single-phase AC generator supplying an AC voltage.
4. A three-phase AC generator supplying a three-phase voltage.

The combination of correct statements is?

ENGINES 6.
The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is computed by?

a. Dividing turbine discharge pressure by compressor inlet pressure.

b. Dividing compressor discharge pressure by turbine discharge pressure.
c. Multiplying compressor inlet pressure by turbine discharge pressure.
d. Multiplying compressor discharge pressure by turbine inlet pressure.

ENGINES 7.
The principle of detection of a vibration monitoring system is based on the use of?

a. 2 accelerometers.
b. 2 high and low frequency amplifiers.
c. 2 high and low frequency filters.
d. A frequency converter.

ENGINES 8.
The green sector of the arc of a temperature gauge corresponds to?

a. An exceptional operating range.

b. A forbidden operating range.
c. A special operating range.
d. A normal operating range.

ENGINES 9.
A synshroscope is used on aircraft to?

a. Reduce the vibration of each engine.

b. Reduce the rpm of each engine.
c. Achieve optimum control of on-board voltages.
d. Set several engines to the same speed.
ENGINES 10.
A thermocouple type thermometer consists of?

a. A single-wire metal winding.

b. Two metal conductors of different type connected at one point.
c. Two metal conductors of the same type connected at two points.
d. A Wheatstone bridge connected to a voltage indicator.

ENGINES 11.
The yellow sector of the temperature gauge corresponds to?

a. A frequent operating range.

b. A forbidden operating range.
c. An exceptional operating range.
d. A normal operating range.

ENGINES 12.
In an engine vibration monitoring system for a turbojet any vibration produced by
the engine is?

a. Directly proportional to engine speed.

b. Fed directly to the cockpit indicator without amplification or filtering.
c. Amplified and filtered before being fed to the cockpit indicator.
d. Inversely proportional to engine speed.

ENGINES 13.
Different pressure sensors are used according to the intensity of the pressure
measured (low, medium or high). Classify the following sensors by order of
increasing pressure for which they are suitable?

1. Bellows type.
2. Bourdon tube type.
3. Aneroid capsule type.
ENGINES 14.
The RPM indicator (or tachometer) of a piston engine can include a small red arc
within the arc normally used (green arc). In the RPM range corresponding to this
small red arc the?

a. Rating is the minimum usable in cruise propeller efficiency.

b. Is minimum at this rating.
c. Propeller generates vibration, continuous rating is forbidden.
d. Rating is the maximum possible in continuous mode.

ENGINES 15.
In order to measure temperature the cylinder head temperature (CHT) gauge
utilises a?

a. Thermocouple consisting of two dissimilar metals.

b. Wheatstone bridge circuit.
c. Ratiometer circuit.
d. Bourdon tube.

ENGINES 16.
A manifold pressure gauge of a piston engine measures?

a. Fuel pressure leaving the carburettor.

b. Vacuum in the carburettor.
c. Absolute pressure in intake system near the inlet valve.
d. Absolute air pressure entering the carburettor.

ENGINES 17.
If a manifold pressure gauge consistently registers atmospheric pressure, the cause
is probably?

a. Leak in pressure gauge line.

b. Too high float level.
c. Fuel of too low volatility.
d. Ice in induction system.

ENGINES 18.
A millivoltmeter measuring the electromotive force between the "hot junction" and
the "cold junction" of a thermocouple can be directly graduated in temperature
values provided that the temperature of the?

a. Cold junction is maintained constant.

b. Hot junction is maintained constant.
c. Cold junction is maintained at 15O C.
d. Hot junction is maintained at 15' C.
ENGINES 19.
The main advantage of a ratiometer-type temperature indicator is that it?

a. Is simple.
b. Can operate without an electrical power supply.
c. Is very accurate.
d. Carries out an independent measurement of the supply voltage.

ENGINES 20.
The probe used to measure the air intake pressure of a gas turbine engined
powerplant is?

a. A differential capsule.
b. A Bourdon tube.
c. A bellows sensor.
d. An aneroid capsule.

ENGINES 21.
The pressure probe used to measure the pressure of a low pressure fuel pump is?

a. An aneroid capsule.
b. A bellows sensor.
c. A Bourdon tube.
d. A differential capsule.

ENGINES 22.
The disadvantages of a single-phase A.C. generator tachometer are:

1. The presence of spurious signals due to a D.C. generator commutator.

2. The importance of line resistance on the information value.
3. The influence of temperature on the tachometer information.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is?

ENGINES 23.
The advantages of single-phase A.C. generator tachometer are:

1. The suppression of spurious signals due to a D.C. generator commutator.

2. The importance of line resistance on the information value.
3. The independence of the information in relation to the airborne electrical
power supply.
4. The ease of transmission of the information.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is?

ENGINES 24.
The advantages of a D.C. generator tachometer are:

1. Easy transmission of the information.

2. Independence of the information relative to the airborne electrical
power supply.
3. Freedom from any spurious current due to the commutator.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is?

ENGINES 25.
The electronic tachometer sensor is composed of?

a. The rotor of a single phase A.C. generator.

b. The rotor of a three phase A.C. generator.
c. A notched wheel rotating in front of an electro-magnet.
d. A circular magnet with four poles.

ENGINES 26.
The advantages of an electrical induction tachometer are:

1. The display is not sensitive to line resistance.

2. The measurement is independent of aircraft power supply.
3. The measurement is independent of temperature variations.
4. The option to use without restriction several indicators connected in parallel
to a single transmitter.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is?

ENGINES 27.
The measurement of the turbine temperature or of the EGT (Exhaust Gas
Temperature) is carried out at the?

a. Combustion chamber outlet.

b. Combustion chamber intake.
c. High pressure chamber intake.
d. High pressure turbine outlet.

ENGINES 28.
The sensors used to measure the exhaust gas temperature on an aircraft equipped
with turbojets are?

a. Thermocouples.
b. Based on metallic parts whose expansion/contraction is measured.
c. Based on metallic conductors whose resistance increases linearly with
temperature.
d. Capacitors whose capacity varies proportionally with temperature.

ENGINES 29.
The red pointer which is normally on the red line on the EGT (Exhaust Gas
Temperature) indicators?

a. Allows the display of the parameter value to be adopted during take-off.

b. Shows the vibration level of the engine under consideration.
c. Moves when the corresponding value is exceeded and remains positioned at
the maximum value that has been reached.
d. Shows the limit value not to be exceeded.

ENGINES 30.
A Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) has the following functions:

1. Flow regulation (fuel, decelerations and accelerations monitoring).

2. Automatic starting sequence.
3. Transmissions of engine data to the pilot's instruments.
4. Thrust management and protection of operation limits.
5. Monitoring of the thrust reversers.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is?

ENGINES 31.
The operating principle of the "induction" type of tachometer is to measure the?

a. Electromotive force (EMF) produced by a dynamo or an alternator.

b. Frequency of the electric impulse created by a notched wheel rotating in a
magnetic field.
c. Magnetic field produced by a dynamo or an alternator.
d. Rotation speed of an asynchronous motor energized by an alternator.

ENGINES 32.
The operating principle of an "electronic" tachometer is to measure the?

a. Rotation speed of an asynchronous motor energized by an alternator.

b. Magnetic field produced by a dynamo or an alternator.
c. Frequency of the electric impulse created by a notched wheel rotating in a
magnetic field.
d. Electromotive force (EMF) produced by a dynamo or an alternator.

ENGINES 33.
In a 3-phase synchronous motor type tachometer indicator:

1. The transmitter is a direct current generator.

2. The voltage is proportional to the transmitter drive speed.
3. The frequency is proportional to the transmitter drive speed.
4. The speed indicating element is a galvanometer.
5. The speed indicating element is a synchronous motor driving a magnetic
tachometer.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is?

ENGINES 34.
The two main sources of information used to calculate turbojet thrust are the?

a. Fan rotation speed (or N1) or the total pressure at the low pressure turbine
outlet.
b. Fan rotation speed (or N1) or the EPR (Engine Pressure Ratio).
c. High pressure turbine rotation speed or the EPR (Engine Pressure
Ratio).
d. Fan rotation speed (or N1) or the total pressure a t the high pressure
compressor outlet.
ENGINES 35.
To permit turbine exit temperatures to be measured, gas turbines are equipped
with thermometers which work on the following principle?

a. Gas pressure.
b. Thermocouple.
c. Bi-metallic strip.
d. Liquid expansion.

ENGINES 36.
On an aeroplane equipped with a constant speed propeller, the RPM indicator
enables?

a. Control of power.
b. Selection of engine RPM.
c. On a twin-engine aeroplane, automatic engine synchronisatim.
d. Control of the propeller regulator and the display of propeller RPM.

ENGINES 37.
Torque can be determined by measuring the?

a. Oil pressure at the fixed crown of an epicycloidal reducer of the main engine
gearbox.
b. Phase difference between 2 impulse tachometers attached to a transmission
shaft.
c. Frequency of an impulse tachometer attached to a transmission shaft.
d. Quantity of light passing through a rack-wheel attached to a transmission
shaft.

ENG 38.
What type of sensor is employed to measure compressor air inlet temperature in a
typical turbojet engine fuel system?

a. Temperature probe.
b. Mercury thermometer.
c. Alcohol thermometer.
d. Optical pyrometer.

ENG 39.
A millimetric voltmeter measuring the PD across the hot and cold junctions of a
thermocouple, can be calibrated to indicate temperature by?

a. The cold junction is kept at absolute zero.

b. The cold junction is kept a zero degree Celsius.
c. The cold junction temperature is known.
d. . The cold junction is kept at a constant temperature.
ENG 40.
The electrical supply for a basic thermocouple system is? '

a. Provided by a dedicated transformer.

b. Provided from the essential services busbar.
c. Self generated by the SEEBECK effect.
d. Self generated by the inductive reactance method.

ENG 41.
Cyllinder head temperature on a piston engine is measured using a ........on the
..........
9

a. Thermocouple coolest cylinder.

b. Resistive element hottest cylinder.
c. Resistive element exhaust manifold.
d. Thermocouple hottest cylinder.

ENG 42.
Temperature is measured in aircraft engines by means of?

1. Thermocouples.
2. Mercury.
3. Resistive elements.
4. Capacitive elements.

ENG 43.
If one of the probes in a typical gas turbine engine EGT system becomes defective,
the indications would be?

a. Too high.
b. Too low.
c. Not significantly affected.
d. Lost.
ENG 44.
Cylinder head temperature measurement systems typically work on the ......
principle?

a. Thermocouple.
b. Resistive.
c. Capacitive.
d. Thermal expansion (bi-metal strip).

ENG 45.
Thermocouples are?

a. Two dissimilar metals connected at one point.

b. Two dissimilar metals connected at two points.
c. Two dissimilar metals separated by a dielectric material.
d. Two similar metals connect at two points.

ENG 46.
Jet engine exhaust gas temperature is measured using?

a. A thermocouple.
b. A number of thermocouples connected in series.
c. A number of thermocouples connected in parallel.
d. A thermistor.

ENG 47.
The pointer that aligns with the red line on a EGT gauge?

a. Indicates maximum temperature.

b. Is movable and indicates maximum temperature exceeding the red line.
c. Is adjustable to permit different limits to be set as required.
d. Is adjustable to permit higher limits to be set when taking-off at high mass
in high ambient temperatures.

ENG 48.
A temperature gauging system employing thermocouples can be graduated to
indicate temperature by?

a. By keeping the cold junction at 15 degrees Celsius.

b. By keeping the hot junction above 15 degrees Celsius.
c. By keeping the cold junction at a constant temperature.
d. By protecting the hot junction from high temperatures.
ENG 49.
Which of the following is used to measure temperature?

1. The seebeck effect.

2. the variation of electrical resistance with changes in temperature.
3. The variation of capacitance with changes in temperature.
4. Thermal expansion of liquids and solids.

ENG 50.
A cylinder head temperature gauge measures?

a. All of the cylinders and sums the result.

b. All of the cylinders and averages the result.
c. The coolest cylinder only to preserve the sensor.
d. The hottest cylinder only.

ENG 51.
Where is EGT measured?

a. At the HP turbine outlet.

b. At the L P turbine outlet.
c. At the L P turbine inlet.
d. At the HP turbine inlet.

ENG 52.
Where is EGT measured?

a. At the turbine outlet.

b. At the turbine inlet.
c. In the jet pipe.
d. In the combustion chamber.

ENG 53.
If a ratiometer is used in the indicator of temperature measuring system rather
than an ameter?

a. It will be less affected by line resistance losses.

b. It will be more affected by line resistance losses.
c. I t will be ineffective due to line resistance losses.
d. I t will always give accurate readings, regardless of line resistance losses.
ENG 54.
What type of sensor is typically used to measure lubricating oil temperature in a
turbojet engine?

a. Resistive probe.
b. Capacitive probe.
c. Thermocouple probe.
d. Bi-metal strip.

ENG 55.
What type of sensors are used in an EPR gauge?

a. Bourden tubes.
b. Bellows.
c. Aneroid capsules
d. Differential capsules.

ENG 56.
What type of sensors are typically used to measure carburettor inlet temperatures?

a. Thermocouples.
b. Resistive probes.
c. Reactive probes.
d. Capacitive probes.

ENG 57.
What type of sensors are typically used to measure engine oil temperature?

a. Thermocouples.
b. Resistive probes.
c. Reactive probes.
d. Capacitive probes.

ENG 58.
What type of sensor is normally used to measure inlet air temperature where the
signal is to be employed for altitude compensation in a conventional (non FADEC)
engine fuel system?

a. Liquid expansion.
b. Resistive.
c. Bi-metalic.
d. Capacitive.
ENG 59.
What does the amber arc on an EGT gauge indicate?

a. Maximum EGT for normal operations.

b. Time limited EGT.
c. Altitude limited EGT.
d. Mass limited EGT.

ENG 60.
If a remote sensing pressure measurement system uses a ratiometer rather than an
ammeter as its indicator, it will be?

a. More sensitive to line resistance changes.

b. Less sensitive to line resistance changes.
c. Not affected by line resistance changes.
d. Rendered unserviceable by line resistance changes.

ENG 61.
What measures inlet pressure?

a. Bourden tube.
b. Bellows.
c. Differential capsule.
d. Aneroid capsule.

ENG 62.
Arrange the following sensors in increasing order of the pressures they would be
used to sense?

1. Capsule.
2. Bellows.
3. Bourden tube.

ENG 63.
A capsule stack would be used to measure ....
pressure when a ...... mechanical
output for a given pressure change was required?

a. High large.
b. High small.
c. Low large.
d. Low small.
ENG 64.
What is a bellows used to measure?

a. Low pressures.
b. High pressures.
c. Low temperatures.
d. Density.

ENG 65,
Turbine outlet pressure is detected by?

a. Aneroid capsule.
b. Bellows.
c. Differential capsule.
d. Bourden tube.

ENG 66.
A remote sensing pressure gauging system measuring low pressures, typically
employs a ........ ..............
to move ........
The variations in are then measured
using a .................or ..............
7

a. Aneroid capsule, capacitor, capacitance, wheatstone bridge, ratiometer.

b. Bellows, variable resister, resistance, wheatstone bridge, ratiometer.
c. Bourden tube, variometer, capacitance, transistor, capacitor.
d. Differential capsule, ratiometer, current, capacitor, ammeter.

ENG 67.
EPR is calculated by?

a. Dividing compressor inlet pressure by HP turbine outlet pressure.

b. Diving HP turbine outlet pressure by air inlet pressure.
c. Dividing L P turbine outlet pressure by LP compressor inlet pressure.
d. Subtracting LP compressor inlet pressure from J P turbine outlet pressure.

ENG 68.
A turbocharged piston engine has a rated boost of 10 PSI and a critical altitude of
15000 ft amsl ISA. If the aircraft is at a pressure altitude of 10000 ft climbing at
rated power, what will be its MAP?

a. 50 inches Hg.
b. 30 inches Hg.
C. 10 PSI.
d. Ambient static plus 10 PSI.
ENG 69.
Vibration meters measure?

a. Accelerations in g.
b. Frequency in Hz.
c. Amplitude at a given frequency.
d. Period in seconds.

ENG 70.
What does the vibration measuring system indicate to the pilot?

a. Relative frequency.
b. Relative amplitude.
c. Absolute frequency.
d. Absolute magnitude.

ENG 71.
Vibration is measured using?

1. Accelerometers.
2. Piezo crystals.
3. Inductive coils.
4. Capacitive elements.
5. Strain gauges.

ENG 72.
On what principle does a vibration meter work?

a. High frequency, low amplitude.

b. Accelerometers, frequency filters and amplifiers.
c. Accelerometers, amplitude filters, and comparators.
d. Dynamometers, frequency filters and amplifiers.

ENG 73.
A vibration meter indicates?

a. Frequency.
b. Pitch.
c. Period.
d. Relative amplitude.
ENG 74.
Vibration sensors on a turbofan engine are typically located?

a. Radially pointing on the fan and turbine casings.

b. Longitudinally pointing, on the fan and turbine casings.
c. On the gearboxes and output shafts.
d. On the HP spool and by-pass duct.

ENG 75.
A synchroscope is used to?

a. Coordinate fan RPMs in multi turbofan aircraft.

b. Coordinate the RPM of the high a low speed spools on turbofans.
c. To indicate RPM difference between engines in multi prop aircraft.
d. To ensure that AC generators are properly synchronised before coupling.

ENG 76.
A vibration monitoring system uses ..........to measure ...........,filters out
unwanted ..........,
then indicates ..................,to the pilot?
a. Thermisters, radial movement, frequencies, absolute amplitude.
b. Accelerometers, axial movement, noise, relative amplitude.
c. Radiometers, radial movement, frequencies, absolute frequency.
d. Accelerometers, radial movement, frequencies and noise, relative
amplitude.

ENG 77.
Typical vibration sensors include?

1. Inductive coils.
2. Phonic wheels.
3. Magnetometers.
4. Piezo crystals.
ENG 78.
A tacho-generator RPM measuring system employs?

a. A single phase AC generator, the frequency of which varies With engine

RPM ,and is fed to a single phase synchronous motor driving a drag cup in
the indicator.
b. A phonic wheel producing an AC signal, the frequency of which is fed to a
synchronous motor in the indicator.
c. A DC motor, the frequency of which varies with engine RPM and is fed to a
DC motor in the indicator.
d. A three phase AC generator, the frequency of which varies with engine
RPM, arid is fed to a synchronous motor driving a drag cup in the indicator.

ENG 79.
A system which measures both torque and engine RPM employs?

a. A phonic wheel at each end of the output shaft, coupled to a device which
measures frequency and phase difference between the twp outputs.
b. A phonic wheel and a tacho-generator. The phonic wheel detects torque
and the tacho-generator detects RPM.
c. A phonic wheel at each end of the output shaft, coupled to a device which
measures frequency and voltage differences between the two outputs.
d. A tacho-generator at each end of the output shaft, coupled to a device which
measures frequency and phase difference between the two output signals.

ENG 80.
The drag cup in a tacho-indicator?

a. Overcomes the effects of internal friction within the indicator.

b. Converts rotary motion into limited angular displacement proportional to
the variable being measured.
c. Converts limited angular motion into rotation.
d. Converts AC input into rotary motion.

ENG 81.
The squirrel cage motor in a tacho-indicator?

a. Is driven directly by the engine.

b. Is driven by the output from a DC tacho-generator driven by the engine.
c. Is driven by three phase AC current from a tacho-generator driven by the
.engine.
d. Drives the indicator needle directly.
ENG 82.
The speed of rotation of the motor in a tacho-indicator is?

a. Constant.
b. Proportional to tacho-generator output voltage.
c. Proportional to tacho-generator output current.
d. Proportional to tacho-generator output frequency.

ENG 83.
What is EPR in a turbofan engine?

a. The ratio of compressor inlet pressure to turbine outlet pressure.

b. The ratio to HP turbine outlet pressure to Hp compressor inlet pressure.
c. The ratio of the integrated mean of L P turbine outlet pressure plus fan
outlet pressure to the fan inlet pressure.
d. The ratio of combustion chamber pressure to compressor inlet pressure.

ENG 84.
If the EPR gauge compressor inlet air tapping becomes blocked?

a. The gauge will over read during the take-off run.

b. The gauge will over read in all conditions of flight.
c. The gauge will read zero.
d. The gauge will under read.

ENG 85.
If the EPR gauge over reads during the take-off run?

a. There is a danger that the aircraft will fail to take-off safely.

b. Climb performance will be improved.
c. The engine will exceed its limiting pressures and temperatures.
d. The engines will not start.

ENG 86.
Torque in a turbo-prop engine is indicated in?

1. Newton meters.
2. %.
3. PSI.
4. EPR.
5. Lbf ft.
ENG 87.
Turbo-prop engine torque is commonly measured using?

1. Rotary hydraulic systems.

2. Axial hydraulic systems.
3. Strain gauges.
4. Phase shifting phonic wheel systems.

a. 1,2,3.
b. 2,3,4.
c. 1,3,4.
d. All of the above.

ENG 88.
The squirrel cage tachometer employs?

a. External DC power supply modified by the speed sensor.

b. External AC power supply modified by the speed sensor.
c. A three phase AC generator producing a signal frequency proportional to
RPM.
d. A three phase AC generator producing a voltage proportional to RPM.

ENG 89.
An engine vibration monitoring system employs?

a. Amplitude filters and thermistors.

b. Amplitude filters and amplifiers.
c. Frequency fdters and amplifiers.
d. Frequency fdters and capacitors.

ENG 90.
Which of the following is least affected by variations in power supply voltage?

a. Variometers.
b. Galvanometers.
c. Ratiometers.
d. Rheostats.
TEMP 1.
Total Air Temperature is .......Than ........by an amount which is proportional to
a. Higher Static air temperature CAS.
b. Higher Static air temperature TAS.
c. Lower Dynamic air temperature CAS.
d. Higher Static air temperature LSS.

TEMP 2.
Total air temperature is .................
9

a. SAT plus kinetic heating effect.

b. SAT plus the heating effect caused by shock waves at high mach numbers.
c. SAT plus skin friction heating effect.
d. Dynamic heating effect.

TEMP 3.
What is the ram recovery factor for a Rosemount temperature probe?

TEMP 4.
The formula for TAT is?

a. TAT = SAT(I + (0.2 x K x M ~ ) .

b. TAT = SAT/(l+ 0.2 x K x M2).
c. TAT = SAT/(l - 0.2 M2).
d. TAT = SAT(~-KM~).

TEMP. 5.
The pointer that aligns with the red line in an EGT gauge?

a. Is movable to indicate when temperatures have exceeded the red line limit.
b. Is painted on the glass.
c. Is moved only prior to flight.
d. Is moved to set lower limits when required by ambient conditions.
TEMP 6.
What types of thermometer are used in modern aircraft?

1. Resistive.
2. Mercury.
3. Capacitive.
4. Inductive.
5. Thermocouples.

TEMP 7.
TAT is?

a. SAT plus ram rise due to skin friction.

b. SAT plus ram rise due to adiabatic compression.
c. SAT plus ram rise due to shock wave formation.
d. Sat plus gauge error.

TEMP 8.
The advantages of a thermocouple temperature gauging system are?

1. Self powered.
2. No moving parts in sensors.
3. Low voltages.
4. Not susceptible to resistance losses.
5. Suitable for high temperatures.

a. 1,2,3,4.
b. 1,2,3, 5.
c. 2,3,4,5.
d. All of the above.

TEMP 9.
A thermocouple circuit can be graduated to read temperature if?

a. The hot junction is kept at a constant temperature.

b. The cold junction is kept at a constant temperature.
c. The cold junction is kept at ambient temperature.
d. The cold junction is kept at the same temperature as the hot junction.
TEMP 10.
What is used to sense temperature in a jet engine turbine and how are they
connected?

a. Thermisters in series.
b. Thermocouples in parallel.
c. Thermocouples in series.
d. Rosemount probes in parallel.

TEMP 11.
An aircraft is flying at Mach 1at 36000 ft in the ISA. What TAT will a Rosemount
probe indicate?

TEMP 12.
The formula for total ait temperature is?

a. TAT = SAT+ 0.2 M ~ ) .

b. TAT = SAT/( 1+ 0.2 M ~ ) .
c. TAT = SAT(1- 0.2 K ~ M ~ ) .
d. TAT = SAT/(^-K~M~).

TEMP 13.
A TAT probe measures using the relationship?

a. TAT = SAT + heating to compressibility.

b. TAT - SAT + Kinetic heating.
c. -
TAT = SAT + friction heating.
d. TAT = SAT + convection cooling.

TEMP 14.
A thermocouple system employs?

a. Two dissimilar metals joined at one end and a wheatstone bridge at the
other.
b. Two dissimilar metal joined at one end and a ratio meter at the other.
c. Two dissimilar metals joined at both ends and a moving coil instrument.
d. Tow dissimilar metals separated by a dielectric substance at one end and a
capacitive gauge at the other.
TEMP 15.
The resistive temperature sensing system is based on the fact that?

a. Electrical resistance of metals is constant.

b. Electrical resistance of metals increases with increasing temperature.
c. Electrical resistance of metals decreases with increasing temperature.
d. Electrical resistance causes temperature to change.

TEMP 16.
The bi-metalic temperature sensing system is employed?

a. Only in low temperature systems.

b. To measure jet pipe temperature.
c. In thermostatic switches.
d. In thermistors.

TEMP 17.
Methods employed in sensing temperature in aircraft include?

1. Resistive.
2. Inductive.
3. Capacitive.
4. Expansive.
5. Seebeck effect.

TEMP 18.
At mach 2 a TAT probe will indicate +45' K in an ambient temperature of?
(assume K = 0.85).

TEMP 19.
Temperature sensing based on varying ... are ...than those using varying ..........7.
a. Current more accurate voltage.
b. Current less accurate voltage.
c. Voltage as accurate current.
d. Voltage less accurate resistance.
TEMP 20.
A Rosemount probe employs an electrical heater to?

a. Maintain constant temperature.

b. Prevent corrosion of the sensing elements.
c. Prevent icing.
d. Maintain constant electrical resistance.

FUEL 1.
The disadvantages of a float type fuel gauging system include inaccuracies due to?

1. Changes in aircraft attitude.

2. Acceleration.
3. Ambient pressure changes.
4. Ambient temperature changes.

FUEL 2.
A capacitive fuel gauging system measures?

a. Changes in capacitance of the fuel.

b. Changes in capacitance due to variations in the proportion of sensors
immersed in fuel.
c. Changes in capacitance of fuel due to density changes.
d. Changes in dielectric constant of fuel.

FUEL 3.
What type of sensor if used to measure pressure output of a fuel booster pump?

a. Bourden tube.
b. Capacitor.
c. Aneroid capsule.
d. Bellows.

FUEL 4.
A capacitive fuel gauging system can calculate the mass of fuel by using the fact
that?

a. Fuel dielectric constant is proportional to p and twice that of air.

b. Fuel dielectric constant is equal to l l p and proportional to that of air.
c. Fuel dielectric constant is equal to p and proportional to that of air.
d. Fuel dielectric constant is proportional to l l p and equal to that of air.
FUEL 5.
The fundamental principle of a capacitive fuel gauging system is?

a. Changes in capacitive reactance.

b. Changes in reactive capacitance.
c. Constant reactive capacitance.
d. Variations in dielectric constant of fuel.

FUEL 6.
A volumetric fuel flow meter differs from mass flow meter in that only the latter
compensates for?

a. Changes in density.
b. Changes in fuel dielectric constant.
c. Changes in mass of fuel.
d. Changes in fuel pressure.

FUEL 7.
An aircraft with a compensated capacitive fuel gauging system is refuelled to a fuel
load of 45000 Kg. If the temperature of the fuel then falls from 15' C to -40' C in
flight, how will the indications vary? (ignore fuel usage in flight)

a. No change.
b. Increase.
c. Decrease.
d. Depends upon density and type of fuel.

FUEL 8.
A fuel flow meter measures?

a. The mass flow of fuel.

b. The volumetric flow of fuel.
c. The density of fuel.
d. The mass flow or volumetric flow of fuel depending on type of system.

FUEL 9.
The disadvantages of a float type fuel gauging system include?

1. Errors due to acceleration.

2. Errors due to changes in aircraft attitude.
3. I t requires an AC power supply.
4. I t requires a DC power supply.
5. Errors due to thermal expansion and contraction of fuel.
6. Errors due to refuelling with different fuel grades.
FUEL 10.
A mass flow meter is better than a volumetric flow meter because it is able to?

a. Compensate for density changes.

b. Compensate for pressure changes.
c. Compensate for changes in fuel calorific value.
d. Compensate for changes in fuel viscosity.

FUEL 11.
Fuel mass flow rate is more important than volumetric flow rate because?

a. Fuel costs are calculated by mass.

b. Calorific value is proportional to mass.
c. Calorific value is proportional to volume.
d. Fuel air ratio is based on mass.

FUEL 12.
Modern turbojet or turboprop aircraft are likely to employ?

a. Volumetric fuel flow gauges.

b. Mass fuel flow meters.
c. Spectrometric fuel flow meters.
d. Capacitive fuel flow meters.

FUEL 13.
Modern turbojet and turboprop aircraft are likely to employ?

a. Capacitive mass fuel flow meters.

b. Venturi type fuel flow meters.
c. Variable orifice fuel flow meters.
d. Turbine impeller type fuel flow meters.

FUEL 14.
If the tanks of an aircraft employing a capacitive fuel gauging system contain only
water, the gauge will?

a. A mass equal to the same mass of water.

b. Read the exact mass of water contained in the tank.
c. A mass equal to zero.
d. A mass of water different from zero but inaccurate.
FUEL 15.
The advantages of a float type fuel gauging system include?

1. Automatically compensates for density changes.

2. I t is simple and cheap.
3. Compensates for thermal expansion and contraction.
4. Compensates for attitude changes.

FUEL 16.
A float type fuel gauging system?

a. Is sensitive to variations in system voltage if it employs a galvanometer.

b. Is sensitive to variations in system voltage if it employs a ratiometer.
c. Depends upon changes in system voltage.
d. Is independent of variations in system voltage.

FUEL 17.
A paddle-wheel placed in the fuel circuit of a gas turbine engine initially measures?

a. Mass flow by tally of the impulses.

b. Volumetric flow by tally of the impulses.
c. Volumetric flow by measure of a voltage proportional to the rotational
speed.
d. Mass flow by measure of a voltage proportional to the rotational speed.

COMPASS 1.
A direct reading magnetic compass will be affected by?

a. Soft iron.
b. Hard iron.
c. Aluminium.
d. Soft iron effect hard iron, and hard iron.

COMPASS 2.
The purpose of the torque motor in a gyro stabilised magnetic compass is to?

a. Precess the directional gyro.

b. Adjust the selsyn stator.
c. Calibrate the pointer.
d. Convert flux valve electrical output into pointer movement.
COMPASS 3.
When landing on a northerly heading a direct reading magnetic compass will
indicate?

a. A westerly turn.
b. An easterly turn.
c. No turn.
d. Rapidly increasing oscillations.

COMPASS 4.
Magnetic heading can be calculated from true heading using?

a. A compass and a map indicating isogonal lines.

b. A compass and a calibration card.
c. A calculator and a deviation card.
d. A compass and a deviation card.

COMPASS 5.
A direct reading compass will not be affected by?

a. Ferrous metals.
b. Transformers.
c. Magnetic fields.
d. Non-ferrous metals.

COMPASS 6.
The purpose of a compass swing is to?

a. Align the lubber lines with true north.

b. Confirm the accuracy of the schuler tuning.
c. Align compass north with magnetic north.
d. Align compass north with true north.

COMPASS 7.
When landing in a southerly direction a direct reading magnetic compass will
indicate?

a. Easterly turn.
b. Westerly turn.
c. No turn.
d. Rapidly increasing oscillations.
COMPASS 8.
Permanent magnetism in aircraft is caused by?

a. The hammering of rivets during construction.

b. Large changes in latitude.
c. Large changes in longitude.
d. Strong electrical fields and lightening strikes.

COMPASS 9.
A magnetic compass must be swung?

a. After long term changes in latitude.

b. After long term changes in longitude.
c. Short term changes in longitude.
d. Change of base airfield.

COMPASS 10.
The greatest cause of errors in a direct reading magnetic compass is?

a. Turning.
b. Latitude changes.
c. Parallax.
d. Changes in magnetic deviation.

COMPASS 11.
The sensitivity of a magnetic compass can be affected by?

a. The H component of the earth's magnetic field.

b. The Z component of the earth's magnetic field.
c. Both of the above.
d. None of the above.

COMPASS 12.
When cruising on a westerly heading a direct reading magnetic compass will
indicate?

a. Northerly turn.
b. Southerly turn.
c. No turn.
d. Rapidly increasing oscillations.
COMPASS 13.
When taking-off on a calm day on heading of 45' in the northern hemisphere, the
compass will indicate .......
If the field is on an agonic line?

a. 45'.
b. More than 45'.
c. Less than 45'.
d. 45' only if the wings are level.

COMPASS 14.
The flux gate of a gyro magnetic compass transmits data to?

a. The error detector.

b. The amplifier.
c. The erecting system.
d. The annunciator.

COMPASS 15.
Magnetic heading can be found from true heading using?

a. A compass and a map showing isoclinal lines.

b. A compass and a map showing isogonal lines.
c. A compass and compass calibration chart.
d. A compass and deviation card.

COMPASS 16.
In a remote indicating magnetic compass the flux valve?

a. Uses a DC power supply.

b. Uses an AC power supply.
c. Requires no power supply because it uses its own self-exciter unit..
d. Is manufactured from perm-alloy steel.

COMPASS 17.
The output of the flux valve is fed to the?

a. Feed back loop.

b. Compass card.
c. Amplifier.
d. Error detector.
COMPASS 18. a.
What is the strength of the H component of the earths magnetic field (in micro
teslas) at the Norfh pole?

COMPASS 19.
A direct reading magnetic compass will be affected by?

1. Adjacent electrical equipment.

2. Ferrous metals.
3. Non-ferrous metals.

COMPASS 20.
Upon landing on a northerly heading a DRMC will indicate?

a. A turn to the east.

b. A turn to the west.
c. No turn.
d. Oscillations about north.

COMPASS 21.
The principal cause of errors in a direct reading magnetic compass is?

a. Latitude.
b. Magnetic deviation.
c. Parallax.
d. Turning.

COMPASS 22.
The function of the torque motor in a gyro stabilised magnetic compass is to?

a. Move the selsyn stators.

b. Move the heading pointer.
c. Precess the directional gyro.
d. Receive the input from the flux valve.
COMPASS 23.
Errors in direct reading magnetic compasses can be caused by?

a. Turns through 90 degrees East and 270 degrees west.

b. Acceleration son eastlwest headings.
c. Crosswinds when on eastlwest headings.
d. Parallax.

COMPASS 24.
In an aircraft taking-off on a westerly heading in the northern hemisphere, what
will its DRMC indicate?

a. Southerly turn.
b. Northerly turn.
c. OsciNations about west.
d. No turn.

COMPASS 25.
To what does the flux valve of a gyro magnetic compass transmit information?

a. Errecting system
b. Error detector.
c. Amplifier.
d. Heading indicator card.

COMPASS 26.
he purpose of a compass swing is to?
a. Align compass north with true north.
b. Align compass north with magnetic north.
c. Align true north with the lubber line.
d. Draw up a compass correction card.

COMPASS 27.
From what does the flux valve in a IUMC get its power supply?

a. DC busbar.
b. AC busbar.
c. Internal self-exciter system.
d. It does not require one because it is made of perm-alloy material.
COMPASS 28.
A runway in the northern hemisphere is on an agonic line and heading 045 degrees.
If an aircraft with zero compass deviation takes off in still air, what will the
northerly turning errors be?

a. The compass will remain on 045.

b. The compass will move to less than 045.
c. The compass will move to more than 045.
d. If the wings remain level the compass will remain on 045.

COMPASS 29.
In order to convert true heading into magnetic heading a compass card and ......
are required?

a. Deviation card.
b. Error card.
c. Map with isogonal lines.
d. Map with isoclinal lines.

COMPASS 30.
What will the DRMC indicate when an aircraft lands in a southerly direction in the
southern hemisphere?

a. Westerly turn.
b. Easterly turn.
c. No turn.
d. Oscillations about north.

COMPASS 31.
To improve the horizontality of a compass, the magnet assembly is suspended from
a point?

a. On the centre line of the magnet.

b. Below the centre of gravity.
c. Above the centre of gravity.
d. Varying with magnetic latitude.

COMPASS 32.
A DRMC can be affected by?

a. Hard iron.
b. Mild iron.
c. Soft iron.
d. Northerly accelerations.
COMPASS 33.
The maximum gyro drift rate due to earth rate is?

a. 5 degrees per hour.

b. 15 degrees per hour.
c. 90 degrees per hour.
d. 180 degrees per hour.

COMPASS 34.
At what DRMC heading is roll out required when conducting a turn from south-
west to south-east at 45degrees north?

'a. 115 degrees.

b. 135 degrees.
c. 140 degrees.
d. 145 degrees.

COMPASS 35.
At what point on the earth would earth rate wander and transport wander be zero?

a. North pole.
b. Equator.
c. South pole.
d. 45 degrees north and south.

COMPASS 36.
From what does a gyro magnetic compass torque motor obtain its information?

a. Error detector.
b. Flux valve.
c. Amplifier
d. Rotor gimbal tilt unit.

COMPASS 37.
What is the maxiium drift error that can be sensed by an uncompensated DGI?

a. 5 degrees per hour.

b. 10 degrees per hour.
c. 15 degrees per hour.
d. 20 degrees per hour.
-

COMPASS 38.
Magnetic dip angle at the south pole is?

a. Zero.
b. 45 degrees.
c. 60 degrees.
d. 90 degrees.

COMPASS 39.
Earth rotation at 45 degrees north will cause the spin axis of a directional gyro to
move?

a. 7.6 degrees clockwise.

b. 6.7 degrees anti-closkwise.
c. 10.6 degrees clockwise.
d. 10.6 degrees anti-clockwise.

COMPASS 40.
The DRMC in an aircraft accelerating for take-off on a runway with QDM 45
degrees, in the northern hemisphere, will indicate?

a. 45 degrees.
b. More than 45 degrees.
c. Less than 45 degrees.
d. 45 degrees as long as the wings are level.

COMPASS 41.
When turning right through 90 degrees to north, in the northern hemisphere, roll
out should be conducted on a heading of?

a. 10 degrees.
b. 20 degrees.
c. 330 degrees.
d. 350 degrees.

COMPASS 42.
A magnetic compass must be swung after?

a. A short term change in latitude.

b. Long term change in latitude.
c. Short term change in longitude.
d. Long term change in longitude.
COMPASS 43.
To what is the output of the flux valve in a remote indicating compass initially fed?

a. Amplifier.
b. Gyro precessing torque motor.
c. Error detector.
d. Indicator.

COMPASS 44.
When turning from SE to SW at 50 degrees north, the roll out should occur at?

a. 180 degrees.
b. 210 degrees.
c. 225 degrees.
d. 245 degrees.

COMPASS 45.
When turning from SW to SE at 45 degrees north, the roll out should occur at?

a. 115 degrees.
b. 135 degrees.
c. 140 degrees.
d. 150 degrees.

COMPASS 46.
What will the compass indicate as an aircraft lands and decelerates on a westerly
heading on the magnetic equator?

a. Turn to south.
b. Turn to west.
c. Oscillations.
d. No turn.

COMPASS 47.
If the ADF pointer indicates 270 degrees when the RMI rose is stuck at 075
degrees, what is the relative bearing of the beacon?

a. 290 degrees.
b. 110 degrees.
c. 195 degrees.
d. It cannot be determined from this information.
COMPASS 48.
What are the errors in a DGI?

1. Transport wander.
2. Earth rate.
3. Heading errors when banking and pitching.
4. Mechanical imperfections.

a. 1,2,3.
b. 1,2,4.
c. 2,3,4.
d. All of the above.

COMPASS 49.
What is the function of the latitude nut on a DI?

a. To correct coriolis effect.

b. To compensate for earth rate error.
c. To compensate for latitude error.
d. To compensate for transport error.

COMPASS 50.
What error is introduced into a DGI due to movement of the gyro relative to the
earth?

a. Transport wander.
b. Earth rate error.
c. Altitude error.
d. Latitude error.

COMPASS 51.
One of the factors causing error in a DRMC is?

a. Turning though eastlwest headings.

b. Crosswinds on westleast headings.
c. Parallax due to compass card oscillations.
d. Accelerations on eastlwest headings.

COMPASS 52.
The flux valve in a RIMC requires?

a. DC power supply.
b. AC power supply.
c. No external power supply.
d. AC and DC power supply.
COMPASS 53.
In the northern hemisphere, the direct reading compass card of an aircraft
decelerating on an easterly heading will turn .......
and will ...........
3

a. Clockwise over read.

b. Clockwise under read.
c. Anti-clockwise over read.
d. Anti-clockwise under read.

COMPASS 54.
If an aircraft in the northern hemisphere accelerates on a westerly heading, the
compass needle moves ..........
indicating a turn to the ..........
3

a. Clockwise north.
b. Clockwise south.
c. Anti-clockwise north.
d. Anti-clockwise south.

COMPASS 55.
A perfectly frictionless DI is corrected to give zero drift at 30 degrees north, and its
DI is set to indicate 100 degrees. If it remains stationary on the ground for 1 hour
what will the indication be?

a. 100 degrees.
b. 92.5 degrees.
c. 107.5 degrees.
d. 75 degrees.

COMPASS 56.
If the ADF pointer indicates 240 degrees when the RMI rose is stuck at 090
degrees, what is the relative bearing of the beacon?

a. Zero degrees.
b. 150 degrees.
c. 180 degrees.
d. I t cannot be determined from this information.

COMPASS 57.
When an aircraft lands on a southerly heading in the southern hemisphere, the
DRMC will indicate?

a. 180 degree turn to the west.

b. 180 degree turn to the east.
c. No apparent turn.
d. Oscillations.
COMPASS 58.
How can deviation be determined using a magnetic compass?

a. By referring to the compass card.

b. By reference to a map of isoclinal lines.
c. By reference to a map of isogonal lines.
d. By reference to a compass deviation card.

COMPASS 59.
What will a DRMC indicate when taking-off on a runway with QDM 045 in the
southern hemisphere?

a. Turn north.
b. Turn south
c. No turn.
d. Oscillations.

COMPASS 60.
The roll out must be performed at ........when turning from SW to SE in the
northern hemisphere?

a. 135 degrees.
b. 115 degrees.
c. 145 degrees.
d. 160 degrees.

COMPASS 61.
The roll out must be performed at ........when turning from NW to NE in the
southern hemisphere?

a. 025 degrees.
b. 045 degrees.
c. 055 degrees.
d. 035 degrees.

COMPASS 62.
The roll out must be performed at ........when turning from NW to SE in the
northern hemisphere?

a. 145 degrees.
b. 125 degrees.
c. 155 degrees.
d. 135 degrees.
COMPASS 63.
The roll out must be performed at ........when turning from NW to SE in the
southern hemisphere?

a. 115 degrees.
b. 125 degrees.
c. 135 degrees.
d. 145 degrees.

COMPASS 64.
If the ADF pointer indicates 200 degrees when the RMI rose is stuck at 090
degrees, what is the relative bearing of the beacon?

a. 290 degrees.
b. 110 degrees.
c. 180 degrees.
d. It cannot be determined from this information.

COMPASS 65.
If the ADP pointer indicates 270 degrees when the RMI rose is stuck at 090
degrees, what is the relative bearing of the beacon?

a. 290 degrees.
b. 110 degrees.
c. 180 degrees.
d. It cannot be determined from this information.

COMPASS 66.
If the ADP pointer indicates 120 degrees when the RMI rose is stuck at 080
degrees, what is the relative bearing of the beacon?

a. 200 degrees.
b. 80 degrees.
c. 40 degrees.
d. It cannot be determined from this information.

COMPASS 67.
What will the compass indicate as an aircraft lands and decelerates on a westerly
heading in the northern hemisphere?

a. Turn to south.
b. Turn to west.
c. Oscillations.
d. No turn.
WARN/REC 1.
The FDR in a JAR certificated aircraft must be located in ?

a. The front.
b. The back
c. The undercarriage bay.
d. The outer wings.

WARNIREC 2.
In an aircraft certificated under JAR since 1 April 1998 the CVR must record for?

a. 30 minutes.
b. 2 hours.
C. 8 hours.
d. 72 hours.

WARNIREC 3.
A basic stall warning system monitors?

a. A of A.
b. CAS.
c. Mach number.
d. Slat and flap position.

WARN/REC 4.
In an aircraft of more than 5700 Kg mass certificated under JAR after April 1998,
the FDR must record for?

a. 30 minutes.
b. 60 minutes.
c. 10 hours.
d. 25 hours.

WARNIREC 5.
Between what heights is GPWS active?

a. Zero and 500 ft.

b. Zero and 2500 ft.
C. 50 ft and 500 ft.
d. 50 ft and 2450 ft.
WAIPN/REC 6.
A CVR records?

a. Radio conversations.
b. Cabin crew conversations.
c. Crew conversations on intercom.
d. Public address announcements and cockpit discussions.

WARN/REC 7.
GPWS must provide?

a. Visual warnings.
b. Aural and visual warnings.
c. Aural warnings which may be supplemented by visual warnings.
d. Visual and aural warnings, which may be supplemented by tactile warnings.

WARN/REC 8.
A stall warning system in a large JAR certificated aircraft must include?

a. Stick shaker and stick pusher.

b. Monitoring of speed brake position and angle of attack, a warning module,
and visual or aural warning system.
c. Monitoring of landing gear squat switch and A of A, a warning module and
an aural warning.
d. Monitoring of A of A and TAS, plus aural and visual warnings.

WARNIREC 9.
An altitude warning system?

a. Automatically disengages autotrim at 500 ft.

b. Automatically engages autotrim at 500 ft.
c. Provides visual alerts when approaching a selected altitude.
d. Activates a warning light and bell when approaching a selected altitude.

WARN/REC 10.
A combined FDR and CVR records?

1. Cockpit voice discussions.

2. Cabin voice discussions.
3. Radio discussions.
4. All Public address messages from the cockpit.
WARN/REC 11.
An altitude alert system?

a. Alerts the pilot if the aircraft deviates from selected altitude.

b. Alerts the pilot when decision height is reached.
c. Alerts the pilot when the selected height is reached.
d. Alerts the pilot when the actual altitude is equal to the reference altitude.

WARNIREC 12.
The FDR starts recording when?

a. Before the aircraft starts to move under its own power.

b. When the brakes are released.
c. When the landing gear squat switch detects lift-off.
d. When the undercarriage retract button is pressed.

WARN/REC 13.
For certification of a heavy aircraft after 1 April 1998 the FDR and CVR must
record for.......and ......respectively.

a 10 hours 1 hour.
b. 10 hours 2 hours.
c. 25 hours 1 hour.
d. 25 hours 2 hours.

W&&NIREC 14.
GPWS modes include?

StaU.
Inearrect flap pasition.
High a1titad.e- descents.
High ROC.
Excessive glideslope deviations.
Loss of altitude after take-off and go-around.
Excessive sink rate.
WARN/REC 15.
GPWS can indicate?

1. Excessive bank angle.

2. Excessive terrain closure rate.
3. Excessive sink rate after lift-off.
4. Excessive glideslope deviations.
5. Too close to ground when not in landing configuration.
6. Excessive rate of descent.
7. Altitude call-outs.

a. All of the above.

b. 1,2,3,5,6,7.
c. 2,3,4,5,6,7.
d. 1,4,5,6,7.

WARNIREC 16.
JAR OPS require a CVR to start and stop recording?

a. From when the aircraft is first able to move under its own power to the time
of engine shut down.
b. From when the aircraft is first able to move under its own power to the time
at which it is next unable to do so.
c. From engine start up to engine shut down.
d. From when the APU or first engine is started to when the APU or last
engine is shut down.

WARNIREC 17.
The GPWS mode 3 audible alert is?

a. Repeated "Don't sink, Don't sink".

b. Repeated "Whoop, Whoop, Don't sink, Don't sink".
c. Repeated "Pull up, Pull up".
d. Repeated "Sink rate, Sink rate, Whoop, Whoop".

WARN/REC 18.
A CVR system includes?

1. Microphones.
2. FDR.
3. Independent battery power supply.
4. Crash and fire resistant construction.
WARNlREC 19.
A JAR certificated altitude alerting system must be capable of warning of at least?

1. Deviation from selected altitude.

2. Approaching selected altitude.
3. Excessive vertical speed.
4. excessive terrain closure rate.
5. Abnormal flap and landing gear configuration for current height.

WARNmEC 20.
JAR OPS requires a 50 seat turbo-prop aircraft CVR to record.

a. From battery master switch on to off.

b. From BRP to touch-down.
c. Whenever the aircraft is able to move under its own power.
d. Before starting to taxi to when the parking brake is applied.

WARN/REC 21.
A FDR must be fitted?

a. At the front of an aircraft.

b. At the back of an aircraft.
c. In the cockpit.
d. Close to the engines.

WARN/REC 22.
The altitude alerting system?

a. Alerts pilot upon reaching selected altitude.

b. Alerts pilot when approaching selected altitude.
c. Alerts pilot at decision height.
d. Alerts pilot of all changes in altitude.
WARNmEC 23.
GPWS operates between?

a. Zero and 500 ft.

b. Zero and 5000 ft.
c. Zero and 1500 ft.
d. 50 ft and 2450 ft.

WARNIREC 24.
A JAR certificated CVR must record?

1. All voce communications within the aircraft.

2. All crew voice communications within the aircraft.
3. All PA announcements.
4. All discussions between crew and ATC.
5. All signals from navigation aids.

WARNmEC 25.
If sink rate is excessive the GPWS indication will be?

a. Too low, Too low, Whoop, Whoop, Pull up.

b. Too low gear, Too low gear, Whoop, Whoop, Pull up, Pull up.
c. Don't sink, Whoop, Whoop, Pull up.
d. Sink rate, Whoop, Whoop, Pull up.

WARNIREC 26.
What level of voice recording is required in multi-turbine engined aircraft with 9
or more passenegre seats, certificated after January 1998?

1. Flight deck crew calls on intercom.

2. Flight deck crew calls on public address.
3. Internal cockpit communications.
4. External cockpit communications.
5. Cockpit environmental noises.

a. 1,2,3.
b. 2,3,4.
C. 3,4, 5.
d. All of the above.
WARNIREC 27.
GPWS modes include?

1. Stall.
2. High alpha.
3. Excessive ROD.
4. Excessive terrain closure rate.
5. Incorrect flap position.

a. 1,2,3.
b. 2,3,4.
C. 3,4,5.
d. All of the above.

WARNJREC 28.
GPWS modes include?

1. Incorrect gear position.

2. Altitude loss after lift-off or during Go-around.
3. High altitude descent.
4. Excessive glide slope deviation.
5. Excessive AOB.

a. 1, 2,4.
b. 2,3,4.
C. 3,4, 5.
d. All of the above.

WARN/REC 29.
GPWS will give an altitude alert warning when?

a.. AOB is excessive at low altitude.

b. The angle of attack approaches the stalling angle.
c. The aircraft loses glideslope signal.
d. Decision height is reached in a cat 2 or 3 ILS approach.

WARNIREC 30.
From what does the GPWS obtain its height information?

a. Barometric altimeter.
b. RADALT.
c. INS.
d. IRS.
. WARN/REC31.
In the altitude alerting system what lights indicate a deviation of more than 300 ft
from selected altitude?

a. Steady amber.
b. Flashing amber.
c. . Steady red.
d. Flashing red.

WARNIREC 32.
Over what range is GPWS operative?

a. 50 to 2450 ft agl.
b. 50 to 2450 m.
c. 50 to 2450 ft pressure altitude.
d. Zero to 2500 radio altitude.

WARN/REC 33.
The inputs to a modern jet aircraft stall warning system include?

1. Alpha.
2. Configuration.
3. Engine RPM.
4. Pitch attitude.
5. AOB.

a. 1,2.
b. 2,3,4.
C. 3,4,5.
d. All of the above.

WARN/REC 34.
The components of a modern jet aircraft stall warning system include?

1. Angle of attack sensors.

2. Bank rate sensors.
3. Control surface position sensors.
4. Stick shaker.
5. Gear and flap sensors.

a. 1,2,3.
b. 2, 3,4.
C. 1, 4, 5.
d. All of the above.
WARN/REC 35.
GPWS may give warnings of?

1. Deviations from selected altitude.

2. Excessive deviations from glideslope.
3. Excessive sink rate after lift-off.
4. Excessive ROD.

a. 1,2.
b. 2,3,4.
C. 3,4.
d. All of the above.

WARNIREC 36.
GPWS may give warnings of?

1. Excessive sink rate.

2. Excessive closure with terrain.
3. Excessive proximity with ground when not in landing configuration.
4. Excessive GOB.

a. 1,2,3.
b. 2,3,4.
c. 1,3,4.
d, All of the above.

WARN/REC 37.
GPWS operates between?

a. Zero and 3450 ft.

b. Zero and 2500 ft.
c. 50 ft and 2450 ft.
d. 50 ft and 2500 ft.

WARNIREC 38.
The CVR in a 50 seat turbo-prop aircraft must record?

a. From switching on to switching off electrical power.

b. From commencing pre take-off taxi to turning of the runway after landing.
c. From lift-off to touch-down.
d. From first being able to move under its own power to next becoming unable
to do so.
WARNIREC 39.
The GPWS mode 3 audible alert is?

a. "Sink rate, sink rate".

b. Continuous "don't sink, don't sink".
c. "Don't sink, don't sink, whoop, whoop, pull up".
d. Initially "don't sink, don't sink", which is followed by "Whoop, whoop, pull
up", if the maximum allowable sink rate is exceeded.

WARNIREC 40.
An altitude alerting system is required to alert the crew of a t least the following?

1. Abnormal flap and gear configurations.

2. Excessive closure with terrain.
3. Excessive vertical speed.
4. Excessive deviation from selected altitude.
5. Approaching selected altitude.

WARN/REC 41.
The flight deck FDR and CVR must be capable of recording for at least?

a. 15 hrs, 60 mins.
b. 24 hrs, 60 mins.
c. 25 hrs, 30 mins.
d. 48 hrs, 45 mins.

WARNIREC 42.
Which of the following are GPWS modes?

1. Approaching stall.
2. Excessive glideslope deviation.
3. Excessive ROC.
4. Excessive ROD. '
5. Incorrect flap position.
6. Sinking after lift-off and during go-around.
7. High altitude descent.
WARNREC 43.
The FDR must start running when?

a. Before the aircraft starts moving under its own power.

b. When lined up for take-off.
c. At brake release for take-off.
d. When the gear up button is pushed.

WARNIREC 44.
What type of warning must be provided by a basic GPWS?

a. Light.
b. Aural.
c. Aural and light.
d. Tactile, aural and light.

WARNREC 45.
A basic stall warning system in a light aircraft senses?

a. MNO.
b. IAS.
c. Slat and flap positions.
d. Alpha.

WARNIREC 46.
The FDR in an aircraft of mass exceeding 5700 Kgs, certificated after April 1998
must be capable of recording for at least?

a. 30 minutes.
b. 60 minutes.
c. 24 hours.
d. 25 hours.

WARN/REC 47.
JAR OPS requires that the FDR must be located at?

a. The front of an aircraft.

b. The back of an aircraft.
c. The top of an aircraft.
d. The bottom of an aircraft.
WARN/REC 48.
The function of the altitude alert system is to?

a. Upon sensing an unacceptable situation, it is to engage autopilot and fly the

aircraft into a safe condition.
b. Engage auto-trim when the aircraft reaches its selected altitude.
c. Disengage auto-trim when reaching selected altitude.
d. Illuminate a warning light as the aircraft approaches the selected altitude.

WARN/REC 49.
A cockpit voice recorder must be capable of recording?

1. Flight deck and cabin crew intercom discussions.

2. Radio discussions.
3. Public address system announcements.
4. Flight deck noise environment.
5. ~ a v i g a t i ~aid
n indents.

WARNiREC 50.
A flight data recorder is required in.. .....aircraft weighing more than 5700 Kg?
1. Turbojets.
2. Turboprops.
3. Pistonprops.

a. 1,2.
b. 2,3.
C. 3,4.
d. All of the above.

TCAS 1.
The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) is ,a proxiwty alarm system which
detects a "traffic" when the conflicting traffic is equipped with a?

a. Serviceable SSR transponder.

b. Serviceable weather radar.
c. SELCAL system.
d. DME system.
TCAS 2.
Concerning the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System)?

a. Resolution Advisory (RA) must not be followed without obtaining

clearance from ATC.
b. No protection is available against aircraft not equipped with a serviceable
SSR transponder.
c. In cme of the system modes, the warning, "TOO LOW TERRAIN" is
generated.
d. In one of the system modes, the warning, "PULL UP" is generated.

TCAS 3.
The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) gives avoidance resolutions?

a. In horizontal and vertical planes.

b. Based on speed control only.
c. In the vertical plane only.
d. In the horizontal plane.

TCAS 4.
In the event of a conflict, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) will
give information such as?

a. Turn leftlturn right.

b. Too low terrain.
c. Glide slope. C

d. Climbfdescent.

TCAS 5.
The principle of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems) is based on the
use of?

a. F.M.S. (Flight Management System).

b. Air traffic control radar systems.
c. Transponders fitted in the aircraft.
d. Airborne weather radar system.

TCAS 6.
The use of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) for avoiding an aircraft
in flight is now general. TCAS uses for its operation?

a. Both the replies from the transponders of other aireraft and the ground-
based radar echoes.
b. The replies from the transponders of other aircraft.
c. The echoes from the ground air traffic control radar system.
d. Echoes of collision avoidance radar system especially installed on board.
TCAS 7.
A "TCAS 11" (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides?

a. The intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision

avoidance manoeuvre within both the vertical and horizontal planes.
b. The intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision
avoidance manoeuvre within the horizontal plane only.
c. The intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision
avoidance manoeuvre within the vertical plane only.
d. A simple intruding airplane proximity warning.

TCAS 8.
The TCAS I1 data display devices can be in the form of:

1. A specific dedicated screen.

2. A screen combined with the weather radar.
3. A variometer represented on a liquid crystal screen which allows the
display of Traffic Advisory (TA) and Resolution Advisory (RA).
4. An EFIS (Electronic Flight Instrument System) screen.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is?

a. 1, 2 and 3.
b. 3 and 4.
c. 1 and 3.
d. 1 , 2 , 3 and 4.

TCAS 9.
A "close traffic advisory" is displayed on the display device of the TCAS 2 (Traffic
Collision Avoidance System) by?

a. A blue or white full lozenge.

b. A red full square.
c. A blue or white empty lozenge.
d. An orange full circle.

TCAS 10.
A "resolution advisory" (RA) is represented on the display system of
the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by a?

a. Blue or white empty lozenge.

b. Red full circle.
c. Red full square.
d. Blue or white full lozenge.
TCAS 11.
An "intruding traffic advisory" is represented on the display system of the
TCAS 2 ( ~ r a f f i cCollision Avoidance System) by displaying?

a. A red full square.

b. A yellow full circle.
c. A blue or white empty lozenge.
d. A blue or white full lozenge.

TCAS 12.
On a TCAS2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System), a corrective "resolution
advisory" (RA) is a "resolution advisory"?

a. Asking the pitot to modify effectively the vertical speed of his aircraft.
b. Which does not require any action from the pilot but on the contrary
asks him not to modify his current vertical speed rate.
c. Asking the pilot to modify the heading of his aircraft.
d. Asking the pilot to modify the speed of his aircraft.

TCAS 13.
When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a serviceable mode C transponder,
the TCAS I1 (Traffic ColIisio~Avoidance System) generates a?

a. " T r a f f ~advisory", vertical and horizontal "resolution advisory".

b. "Traffic advisory" and vertical "resolution advisory".
c. "Traffic advisory" and horizontal "resolution advisory".
d. "Traffic advisory" only.

TCAS 14.
When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a transponder without altitude
reporting capability, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) issues a?

a. "Traffic advisory" and horizontal "resolution advisory".

b. "Traffic advisory", vertical and horizontal "resolution advisory".
c. "Traffic advisory" only.
d. "Traffic advisory" and vertical "resolution advisory".

TCAS 15.
The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) computer receives information:

1. About the pressure altitude through the mode S transponder.

2. From the radio altimeter.
3. Specific to the airplane configuration.
4. From the inertial units.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is?

TCAS 16.
The TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides:

1. Traffic information @A: Traffic Advisory).

2. Horizontal resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory).
3. Vertical resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory).
4. Ground proximity warning.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is?

TCAS 17.
The TCAS 1(Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides:

1. Traffic information.
2. Horizontal resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory).
3. Vertical resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory).
4. Ground proximity warning.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is?

TCAS 18.
On a TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) the preventive "resolution
advisory" (RA) is a "resolution advisory"?

a. That advises the pilot to avoid certain deviations from the current vertical
rate but does not require any change to be made to that rate.
b. Asking the pilot to modify effectively the vertical speed of his aircraft.
c. Asking the pilot to modify the heading of his aircraft.
d. Asking the pilot to modify the speed of his aircraft.
TCAS 19.
What information will TCAS provide to indicate an intruder aircraft with no
altitude reporting facility?

a. TA.
b. TO plus preventative RA.
c. Preventative RA.
d. Corrective RA.

TCAS 20.
Where is the TCAS information displayed?

1. On a dedicated TCAS display.

2. On the weather radar screen.
3. On EFIS.
4. On an LCD variometer.

a. 1,2.
b. 1,3.
c. 2,4.
d. All of the above.

TCAS 21.
Inputs to TCAS 2 include?

a. Mode S transponders to coordinate avoidance manoeuvres.

b. Mode A transponders providing TA and RA data.
c. Mode C transponders coordinating avoidance maBoeuvres.
d. Mode C and s transponders giving R A and TA data and coordinating
avoidance manoeuvres.

TCAS 22.
The correct response to a TCAS R A is?

a. Immediately Turn 45' left and comply with the descentlclimb commands.
b. Do nothings because ATC instruction override RA.
c. Comply with descentlclimb commands immediately and smoothly.
d. Seek ATC approval before changing altitude, speed or track

TCAS 23.
TCAS is based on?

a. Ground-based radar.
b. Primary radar. .
c. Airborne transponders.
d. RT communications and direction finding.
TCAS 24.
TCAS 2 data is obtained from?

1. Radio altimeters.
2. INS/IRS.
3. Pressure altitude data from mode s transponders.
4 Additional equipment specific to each aircraft type.

a. 1,2,3.
b. 1,2,4.
c. 2,3,4.
d. All of the above.

TCAS 25.
Preventative RA's include?

a. Turn right.
b. Monitor vertical speed.
c. Climb now.
d. Traffic, traffic.

TCAS 26.
A preventative RA is represented by a .......On a TCAS PPI?
a. Red square.
b. Red circle.
c. Red lozenge.
d. Amber square.

TCAS 27,
When fitted with mode e transponders a TCAS 2 system may provide?

a. RA only.
b. TA only.
c. Horizontal plane TA and RA.
d. Vertical plane TA and RA.

TCAS 28.
What level of warning does TCAS provide to indicate aircraft not equipped with
TCAS?

a. TA.
b. RA.
c. None.
d. TAandRA.
TCAS 29.
TCAS will give.. .... warning of an aircraft without transponders fitted?
a. No warning.
b. Bearing only.
c. Altitude only.
d. Range and bearing.

TCAS 30.
Non-conflicting traffic is indicated by?

a. Red.
b. Yellow.
c. Solid cyan.
d. Hollow cyan.

TCAS 31.
TCAS 2 gives RA in?

a. Vertical plane only.

b. Horizontal plane only.
c. Both vertical and horizontal planes.
d. None of the above.

TCAS 32.
TCAS RA is indicated by?

a. Amber circle.
b. Amber square.
c. Red square.
d. Red circle.

TCAS 33.
TCAS 2 display may be provided on?

a. Dedicated PPI.
b. Weather radar display.
c. EFIS display.
d. Any of the above depending on aircraft type.
TCAS 34.
TCAS 2 fitted with mode C transponders only can provide?

a. Ra only.
b. TA only.
c. Vertical TA and RA.
d. Horizontal TA and RA.

TCAS 35.
Other traffic not constituting a threat is indicated by ...... on TCAS?
a. Solid red square.
b. Solid yellow circle.
c. Solid cyan or white diamond.
d. Hollow cyan or white diamond.

TCAS 36.
Corrective actions given by TCAS include?

I. Turn right or left.

2. Descend or climb.
3. Increase rate of descent or climb.
4. Stop climb or descent.
5. Monitor vertical speed.
6. Contact ATC.

TCAS 37.
How should a pilot respond to a TCAS RA?

a. Visually identify the intruder to before taking corrective action.

b. Disengage the autopilot the immediately comply with climb and descent
commands in a smooth manner.
c. Contact ATC before manoeuvring.
d. Allow autopilot to follow TCAS commands, and advise ATC of situation as
soon as it is safe to do so.
TCAS 38.
How should a pilot respond to a TCAS TA?

Visually identify the intruder to before taking corrective action.

Disengage the autopilot the immediately comply with climb and descent
commands in a smooth manner.
c. Contact ATC before manoeuvring.
d. Allow autopilot to follow TCAS commands, and advise ATC of situation as
soon as it is safe to do so.

TCAS 39.
What corrective action is given by TCAS?

Contact ATC.
Climbing or descending right turn.
Climbing or descending left turn.
Climb or descend.

TCAS 40.
What does the TCAS indication (in red) at the right mean?

An aircraft 300 ft below is climbing at 500 fprn or more.

An aircraft 300 ft above is descending at more than 1000 fpm.
An aircraft 300 ft above is climbing at 500 fprn or more.
An aircraft 300 ft below is descending at more than 1000 fpm. -300

TCAS 41.
What does the TCAS indication (in red) at the right mean?

An aircraft 300 ft below is climbing at 1000 fprn or more.

An aircraft 300 ft above is descending at 500 fprn or more.
An aircraft 300 ft above is climbing at 1000 fpm.
An aircraft 300 ft below is descending at 500 fprn or more.

TCAS 42.
An intruder 250 ft above, climbing at 500 fprn or more, will be indicated by?

(Amber) -250 (Cyan)

 TCAS 43.
Proximity traffic is defined as?

a. Traffic with a 6 nm radius and within 1200 ft above or below.

' b. Traffic within 10 nm and within 1000 ft above or below.
c. Traffic within thk selected range and within 1000 ft above o r below.
d. Traffic within the selected range and within 1200 ft above or below.

TCAS 44.
Other traffic is defined as?

a. Traffic not qualifying as proximity or intruder but within the display range
and within 2700 ft above or below.
b. Traffic not qualifying as proximity but within 16 nm and within 2500 ft
above or below.
c. All traffic other than proximity and intruder traffic.
d. All non intruder traffic within the range sale and within 2700 ft above or
below.

TCAS 45.
A TCAS TA is?

a. A traffic advisory message indicating aircraft in the vicinity which may

become a threat.
b. A traffic advisory message indicating aircraft within the vicinity which
constituted an immediate threat.
c. A traffic advisory message indicating aircraft within the vicinity but moving
away. ,
d. A traffic advisory message indicating aircraft in the vicinity which are on a
parallel course.

TCAS 46.
A TCAS RA is?

a. A resolution advisory is an aural and visual indication of aircraft in the

vicinity which constitute an immediate threat.
b. A resolution advisory is an aural and visual recommendation of the
manoeuvres or manoeuvre restrictions in the vertical plane, to resolve
conflicts with mode C SSR capable aircraft.
c. A resolution advisory is an aural and visual recommendation of the
manoeuvres o r manoeuvre restrictions in the vertical plane, to resolve
conflicts with made S SSR capable aircraft.
d. A resolution advisory is a visual indication of the intentions of immediate
threat traffic.
TCAS 47.
A corrective advisory is?

a. A resolution advisory which tells the pilot which rates of climb or descent to
use to resolve conflicts.
b. A resolution advisory which tells the pilot which rates of turn to use to
resolve conflicts.
c. A resolution advisory which tells the pilot which rates of climb or descent to
avoid to resolve conflicts.
d. A resolution advisory which tells the pilot which way to turn to resolve
conflicts.

TCAS 48.
When TCAS indications are provided on the VSI they will include?

1. Symbols to indicate the vertical positions of intruder and proximate traffic.

2. Arrows to indicate the vertical motion of intruder and proximate traffic.
3. The rates of climb or descent to be avoided to resolve conflicts.
4. The recommended rate of climb or decent to resolve conflicts.
5. The track and CAS of intruder and proximate traffic.

TCAS 49.
How does TCAS indicate other traffic that is not assessed as a threat?

a. A cyan lozenge.
b. A cyan hollow diamond.
c. A white solid diamond.
d. An amber solid square.

TCAS 50.
On what principle is TCAS I1 based?

a. Radio altimeters.
b. Two S mode transponders.
c. IRSIINS inputs to the autopilot.
d. Ground based radars.
TCAS 51.
TCAS gives RA's in the ........plane?
a. Horizontal.
b. Vertical.
C. Lateral and vertical.
d. All of the above.

TCAS 52.
A TCASZ RA is indicated by ?

a. Red circle.
b. Red square.
C. Amber circle.
d. Amber square.

TCAS 53.
TCASZ RA's are?

a. Vertical only.
b. Vertical and directional.
c. Directional only.
d. Directional only on mode C SSR.

TCAS 54.
Corrective actions given by TCAS include?

a. Descend or climb.
b. Turn right or left.
C. Accelerate or decelerate.
d. Inform ATC.

TCAS 55.
TCAS uses?

a. Transponders.
b. Radio.
c. Barometric altimeters.
d. Autopilots.
TCAS 56.
TCAS is displayed?

1. EFIS.
2. EICAS.
3. ECAM.
4. Dedicated TCAS displays.
5. Weather radar display.

TCAS 57.
From what does TCAS obtain its data?

1. Inertial reference unit.

2. Barometric altimeter.
3. RADALT.
4. Mode S transponders.
5. Additional equipment specific to each aircraft type.

TCAS 58.
The symbol for a TCAS RA is?

a. Red circle.
b. Red square.
c. Red diamond.
d. Red lozenge.

TCAS 59.
TCAS corrective RA's include?

a. Climb.
b. Turn left.
c. Traffic.
d. Monitor vertical speed.
TCAS 60.
If an intruder aircraft has a mode C transponder, TCAS 2 can give?

a. TA and RA in the horizontal plane only.

b. TA only.
c. RA only.
d. TA and RA in the vertical plane only.

TCAS 61.
TCAS indicates proximate traffic as a?

a. Red solid square.

b. Red hollow square.
c. Cyan solid diamond.
d. Cyan solid circle.

TCAS 62.
TCAS indicates relative height as?

a. Vertical arrow.
b. Horizontal arrow.
c. The position of the symbol.
d. A + or - sign and numbers.

TCAS 63.
TCAS indicates other non-threat traffic as a?

a. Red hollow circle.

b. Red hollow square.
c. Yellow hollow square.
d. Cyan or white hollow diamond.

CRP5 1.
An aircraft is flying at an indicated altitude of 16000 ft. The outside air
temperature is -30'~. What is the true altitude?

a. 16200 ft.
b. 15200 ft.
c. 18600 ft.
d. 13500 ft.
cws 2.
What is the TAS when pressure altitude = 15000 ft, OAT = - l s O c ,CAS = 145 Kts?

a. 133 Kts.
b. 148 Kts.
c. 183 Kts.
d. 198 Kts.

c w 5 3.
What is the TAS when pressure altitude = 20000 ft, OAT = -20°c, CAS = 200 Kts?

a. 194 Kts.
b. 273 Kts.
c. 239 kts.
d. 296 Kts.

CRP5 4.
Cruising at FL390, M0.84, is found to give a TAS of 499 Kts. The ISA deviation at
this level is?

c w 5 5.
The velocity of the speed of sound at sea level in the standard atmosphere is?

a. 644 kts.
b. 1059 Kts.
c. 661 Kts.
d. 332 kts.

C W 5 6.
If outside air temperature at 35000 ft is -40°c, the local speed of sound is?

a. 307 kts.
b. 247 Kts.
c. 596 Kts.
d. 686 Kts.
ClW5 7.
An aircraft is flying at 310 Kts TAS at PL290, Temperature deviation is - 6 ' ~ . The
local speed of sound is?

a. 570 Kts.
b. 583 Kts.
c. 596 Kts.
d. 563 Kts.

ClW5 8.
An aircraft flying at FL310 is cruising at a CAS of 280 Kts. If the correct outside
air temperature is -4s0c, this will give a mach number of?

CRP5 9.
The temperature at the airport is 2 3 ' ~ ,what is the local speed of sound?

a. 615 Kts,
b. 644 Kts.
c. 671 Kts.
d. 694 Kts.

CRPS 10.
An aircraft is flying at 1100 Kts TAS at FL650. A change of 0.1M gives a change of
57 Kts TAS. The temperature deviation at FL650 assuming an ISA atmosphere is?

CRPS 11.
An aircraft is flying at FL290 at 500 Kts TAS, 0.86M, the temperature deviation is?
CRPS 12.
An increase of 0.15 in mach number results in an increase of 93 Kts TAS. If
temperature deviation from ISA is +~OC,the FL is?

CRPS 13.
An aircraft is flying at FL390, temperature is - 5 6 . 5 ' ~at mach 0.85. The TAS is?

a. 561 Kts.
b. 476 Kts.
c. 485 Kts.
d. 472 Kts.

CRPS 14.
An increase of 0.15 mach results in an increase of 93 Kts TAS. The local speed of
sound is?

a. 560 Kts.
b. 685 Kts.
c. 620 Kts.
d. 580 Kts.

CRPS 15.
An increase of 0.15 mach results in an increase of 93 Kts TAS. If temperature
deviation from ISA is +~OC,the approximate flight level is?