Keith Williams Instruments[1]
Keith Williams Instruments[1]
OUESTIONS
Subject
Pitot static systems.
Barometric Altimeters.
Radio Altimeters.
Vertical Speed Indicators.
Airspeed Indicators.
Airspeeds.
Mach Meters.
Gyroscopes.
Attitude Indicators.
Turn and Slip Indicators.
INS, IRS and FMS.
EFIS.
Automati:: Flight Systems.
Flight Directors
EICAS and ECAM.
Engine Monitoring Instruments.
Teruperatrrre Indicators.
Fuel System Monitoring.
Compasses.
Warning and Recording S~sterns.
TCAS.
CRYS.
PITOT STATICS 1.
In case of accidental closing- of an aircraft's left static pressure port (rain, birds),
the altimeter?
a. Over reads the altitude in case of a side-slip to the right and displays the
correct information during symmetric flight.
b. Keeps on providing reliable reading in all situations.
c. Under reads the altitude.
d. Over reads the altitude in case of a sideslip to the left and displays the
correct information during symmetric flight.
PITOT STATICS 2.
If an aircraft is equipped with one altimeter which is compensated for position
error and another altimeter which is not, and all other factors being equal?
PITOT STATICS 3.
An Air Data Computer (ADC)?
a. Measures position error in the static system and transmits this information
to ATC to provide correct altitude reporting.
b. Transforms air data measurements into electric impulses driving servo
motors in instruments.
c. Is an auxiliary system that provides altitude information in the event
that the static source is blocked.
d. Converts air data measurements given by ATC from the ground in
order to provide correct altitude and speed information.
PITOT STATICS 4.
In An Air Data Computer (ADC), aeroplane altitude is calculated from?
PITOT STATICS 6.
:The altimcler consists of one or several aneroid capsules located in a sealed
' casing. The pressures in the aneroid capsule (i) and casing (ii) are respectively?
PlTOT STATICS 7.
From the ISA table at page 35, the atmospheric pressure at FL 70 in a "standard +
10" atmosphere is?
PITOT STATICS 8.
The QNH is by definition the value of the?
a. Altimeter setting so that the needles indicate zero when the aircraft
is on ground at the location for which it is provided.
b. Atmospheric pressure at the level of the ground over flown by the
aircraft.
c. Altimeter setting so that the needles of the altimeter indicate the
altitude of the location for which it is given.
d. Atmospheric pressure at the sea level of the location for which it is
given.
PITOT STATICS 9.
During a climb after take-off from a contaminated runway, if the total pressure
probe of the airspeed indicator is blocked, the pilot finds that indicated airspeed?
a. Increasing speed.
b. Fluctuating speed.
c. Decreasing speed.
d. Constant speed.
a. Increases steadily.
b. Decreases abruptly towards zero.
c. Decreases steadily.
d. Increases abruptly towards VNE.
a. Static temperature.
b. Mach number of the aircraft.
c. Deformation of the aneroid capsule.
d. Aircraft altitude.
a. Standard altitude.
b. Pressure altitude.
c. Density altitude.
d. Temperature altitude.
a. Read zero.
b. Continue to indicate the speed applicable to that at the time of the blockage.
c. Under-read.
d. Over-read.
a. Under-read.
b. Over-read.
c. Over-read in a climb and under-read in a descent.
d. Under-read in a climb and over-read in a descent.
a. Differential pressure.
b. Static pressure.
c. Dynamic pressure.
d. . Total pressure.
a. Differential pressure.
b. Static pressure.
c. Dynamic pressure.
d. Total pressure.
a. Kinetic pressure.
b. Static pressure.
c. Dynamic pressure.
d. Total pressure.
AOA.
TAT.
OAT.
Dynamic pressure.
Static pressure.
Total pressure.
AC electrical power.
Autopilot commands.
1. ASI.
2. Altimeter.
3. Radalt.
4. Mach meter.
5. VSI.
a. ASI.
b. VSI.
c. Altimeter.
d. All of the above.
a. ASI.
b. VSI.
c. Altimeter.
d. All of the above.
AOA.
TAT.
OAT.
Dynamic pressure.
Static pressure.
Pitot pressure.
IAS.
Mach number. .
PITOT STATICS 50.
A blocked pitot probe will affect?
a. Mach meter.
b. VSI.
c. Altimeter.
d. All of the above.
ALT 1.
The hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially with the?
ALT 2.
When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the altimeter will?
a. Under read.
b. Be just as correct as before.
c. Show the actus' h e i ~ h above
t ground.
d. 8;7cr read.
ALT 3.
At sea level, on a typical servo altimeter, the tolerance in feet from indicated must
not exceed?
a. +/-60 feet.
b. +/-75 feet.
c. +/-30 feet.
d. +/-70 feet.
ALT 4.
The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all the
atmosphere layers below the aircraft are cold is?
ALT 5.
The purpose of the vibrating device of an altimeter is to?
ALT 6.
The vertical speed indicator of an aircraft flying at a true airspeed of 100 kt, in a
descent with a slope of 3 degrees, indicates?
a. -300 ftlmin.
b. -150 ftlmin.
c. -250 ftlmin.
d. -500 ftlmin.
ALT 7.
The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all
atmosphere layers below the aircraft are warm is?
ALT 8.
The primary factor which makes the servo-assisted altimeter more accurate than
the simple pressure altimeter is the use of?
a. Over read.
b. Under read.
c. No change.
d. Depends on altitude.
ALT 10.
From what is true altitude derived?
a. Pressure altitude.
b. Density altitude.
c. Temperature altitude.
d. Difference between total pressure and static pressure.
ALT.ll.
What is QNH?
ALT 12.
What is QNH?
ALT 13.
What is the true altitude of an aircraft if its altimeter indicated 16000 ft when the
ambient temperature was -30' C?
a. 15200 ft.
b. 15400 ft.
c. 16200 ft.
d. 16400 ft.
ALT 14.
What will happen to the indicated altitude if an aircraft in level flight passes into a
warmer air mass?
a. Over indicate.
b. Under indicate.
c. Not change.
d. Remain constant only if above the tropopanse.
ALT 15.
What is density altitude?
ALT 16.
What will happen if an aircraft has two altimeters, one of which is compensated for
position error, whilst the other is not?
ALT 17.
Why are vibrators sometimes fitted in altimeters?
a. Overcome friction.
b. Overcome inertia.
c. Overcome hysteresis.
d. Reduce lag.
ALT 18.
What will happen to altimeter indication if an aircraft in level flight enters a cold
front?
a. Over indication.
b. Under indication.
c. No change.
d. No change above the tropopause.
ALT 19.
A barometric altimeter comprises of?
ALT 2%
If pressure altitude is 30000 ft, indicated TAT is -10, mach number is 0.82, what is
the density altitude?
a. 31000 ft.
b. 30472 ft.
c. 30573 ft.
d. 30674 ft.
ALT 21.
If QNH is 999 hPa, what is the pressure altitude at an elevation of 25000 ft?
a. 25100 ft.
b. 25200 ft.
c. 25300 ft.
d. 25400 ft.
ALT 22.
If pressure altitude is 22800 ft, at an elevation of 22000 ft, what is QNH?
ALT 23.
If field elevation is 4000 ft amsl and QNH is 900 mb, what is the pressure altitude?
ALT 24.
If field elevation is 3500 ft amsl and QFE is 1020 mb, what is the pressure altitude?
ALT 25.
If pressure altitude is 3700 ft amsl m d QNH is 1000 mb, what is field elevation?
GLT 26.
Density altitude is?
a. The altitude at which the eHiating density would occur in the ISA.
b. The density at which the existing temperature would occur in the ISA.
c. The elevation at which the existing den* would occur in the ISA.
d. The pressure altitude corrected for density deviation.
i&T 27.
The pressure alaitude of the field can be found by?
A $ L
If field pressure altitude is 5080 ft amal and OAT is 2s0c, what is the densiq
altitude?
a. - -
5000 + 118(25 (35 (5 x 1.98))) = 7348.2 ft.
b. - -
5000 118(25 (15 + (5 x 1.98)$) = 4988.2 ft.
C. 5000 + 118(25 + (15 - (5 x 1.98))) = 8551.8 ft.
d. -
5000 118(25 + (15 + (5 x 1.98))) = 10888.2 ft.
ALT 29.
If QFE is 1022 hPa what is the pressure altitude of the field?
a. 270 ft amsl.
b. -270 ft amsl.
c. 30660 ft amsl.
d. 500 ft amsl.
ALT 30.
If QNH is 1000 hPa and field elevation is 4500 ft amsl, what is QFE?
ALT 31.
Pressure altitude is?
ALT 32.
Which of the following cause air density to decrease?
ALT 33.
If QNH changes from 1013 hPa to 1022 hPa this will?
ALT 35.
As pressure altitude increases?
a. Temperature decreases.
b. Temperature increases.
c. Temperature increases then remains constant.
d. Temperature decreases then remains constant.
ALT 36.
At a fixed pressure altitude an increase in temperature will?
ALT 37.
What will happen to the altimeter reading in a right sideslip, if an aircraft has a
static vent at each side of the fuselage, but the right one is blocked?
a. Over read.
b. Under read.
c. No change.
d. Depends on altitude.
ALT 38.
What will a cabin altimeter read with QFE set.
ALT 40.
A servo altimeter is ....it employs an electrical pick-off?
a. More accurate because ........
b. Less accurate because ..........
c. Less reliable because.. .........*
d. More reliable because ..........
ALT 41.
What will happen to the altimeter reading if an aircraft flying at a fixed heading
meets a colder air mass?
ALT 42.
What is the true altitude of an aircraft flying at 16000 ft indicated altitude with an
OAT of -16 degrees C?
a. 13200 ft.
b. 14200 ft.
c. 16050 ft.
d. 16200 ft.
ALT 43.
From where does the ADC obtain a K h & data?
a. Radio Altimeter.
b. OAT sources.
c. Barometric aMbde source.
d. Dynamic m h a s ts-tal pressure.
ALT 44.
True altitude is obtained from ...... on board an aircraft?
a. Density altitude.
b. Temperature altitude.
c. Pressure altitude.
d. International standard altitude.
ALT 45.
What is density altitude?
ALT 46.
How will altimeter readings be affected if the layers of air below an aircraft are
colder than the standard temperature?
ALT 47.
How will altimeter reading be affected if the static vent pipe becomes blocked?
ALT 48.
One definition of pressure altitude is?
ALT 50.
If an aircraft flying at constant height over a level surface meets a hotter air mass,
the altimeter will?
ALT 51.
Servo altimeters are more accurate because?
ALT 52.
The ADC obtains its altitude data from?
a. A barometric altimeter.
b. A radio altimeter.
c. The TAT and OAT probes.
d. A barometric static pressure sensor similar to a servo altimeter.
ALT 53.
A servo altimeter is ........ than a conventional one, because ........9
a. More accurate electrical servos.
b. More accurate electrical pick-off coils.
c. Less accurate electric servos.
d. Less accurate Electrical pick-off coils.
ALT 54.
In a barometric altimeter .......Is fed into the capsule and ....Is fed into the case?
a. Static pressure dynamic pressure.
b. Vacuum static pressure.
c. Dynamic pressure vacuum.
d. Total pressure static pressure.
ALT 55.
If the static pressure source in an un-pressurised aircraft became blocked the
altimeter would ...........
but might be rectified by ...........
3
ALT 56.
If the pitot source becomes blocked the barometric altimeter will?
a. Free'ie.
b. Read zero.
c. Read altitude at which it blocked.
d. Be unaffected.
ALT 57.
If the static vent becomes partly blocked in a descent the indications will?
ALT 58.
A vibrator is sometimes fitted in an altimeter to?
ALT 60.
True a l t k d e is shown from .......on board an aircraft?
a. Density altitude.
b. Pressure altitude.
c. Radio altitude.
d. Temperature altitude.
ALT 61.
Density altitude is?
ALT 62.
If an akeraft has two altimeters, only one of which is corrected for position error?
i%ul&
Some a l h e t e r s employ vibrators in order to?
a. Minimise hysteresis.
b. Miaimise inaccuracies due to internal friction.
c. Provide audible warning of low altitudes.
d. Eliminate instrument error.
ALT 64.
If an aircraft with two static ports, sideslips towards the blocked port, the altitude
indication will?
a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Remain unchanged.
d. Increase or decrease depending on sideslip angle.
ALT 65.
If an aircraft with two sltatic ports, sideslips towards the unblocked port, &e
altitude indication will?
a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Remain unchanged.
d. Increase or decrease depending on sideslip angle.
ALT 66.
Barometric altimeter readings can become erratic during landing because?
ALT 67.
What type of pressure sensor is employed in a barometric altimeter?
a. Aneroid capsule.
b. Differential capsule.
c. Bellows.
d. Bourden tube.
ALT 68.
If the glass of a barometric altimeter in a pressurised aircraft becomes cracked and
the static ports become blocked, the altimeter will?
a. Over read.
b. Under read.
c. Read zero continuously.
d. Read cabin altitude.
ALT 69.
If the pressure feed line to a barometric altimeter becomes detached from the back
of the instrument in flight the instrument will?
RADIO ALTIMETERS 1.
/-
During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of 650 ft. This is
an indication of the true?
a. Height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any time.
b. Height of the aircraft with regard to the ground at any time. - - -
c. Height of the aircraft with regard to the runway.
d. Altitude of the aircraft.
RADIO ALTIMETERS 2.
For most radio altimeters, when a system error occurs during approach the?
RADIO ALTIMETERS 3.
A radio altimeter can be defined as a?
a. Ground radio aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft.
b. Ground radio aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft.
c. Self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true height of the
aircraft.
d. Self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true altitude of the
aircraft.
RADIO ALTIMETERS 4.
The data supplied by a radio altimeter?
RADIO ALTIMETERS 6.
In low altitude radio altimeters, the reading is zero when main landing gear wheels
are on the ground. For this, it is necessary to?
RADIO ALTIMETERS 7.
The operating frequency range of a low altitude radio altimeter is?
RADIO ALTIMETERS 8.
Modern low altitude radio altimeters emit waves in the following frequency band?
a. HF (High Frequency).
b. UHF (Ultra High Frequency).
c. SHF (Super High Frequency).
d. VLF (Very Low Frequency).
RADIO ALTIMETERS 9.
The operation of the radio altimeter of a modern aircraft is based on?
a. Weather radar.
b. Primary radar.
C. Radio altimeter.
d. High altitude radio altimeter.
a. Needle will disappear and an alarm flag will appear, possibly accompanied
by an audio warning.
b. Freeze.
c. Turn red and activate an aural warning.
d. Turn red and activate visual and aural warnings.
a, True Altitude.
b. Pressure altitude.
c. Height above sea level.
d. Height above the ground or water over which the aircraft is flying.
RADIO ALTIMETERS 19.
. A radalt is?
ad Radio altitude.
b. Pressure altitude.
c. Density altitude.
d. Height above terrain.
a, Frequency modulation.
b. Amplitude modulation.
c. Pulse modulation.
d. Pulse and amplitude modulation.
RADIO ALTIMETERS 24.
A RADALT employs .......
waveband?
a. HF.
b. VHF.
c. UHF.
d. SHF.
a. FM.
b. AM.
c. Pulsed FM.
d. Pulse modulation.
a. Zero to 50 ft.
b. Zero to 500 ft.
c. 50 ft to 2700 ft.
d. Zero ft to 2500 ft.
a. 5 GHz.
b. 115 GHz to 750 GHz.
c. 1200 MHz to 1500 MHz.
d. 4200 MHz to 4400 MHz.
RADIO ALTIMETERS 29.
A RADALT system is?
vsr 1.
If the pitot pipe becomes partly blocked?
-
VSI 2.
If the static pipe becomes partly blocked?
VSI 3.
VSI lag is reduced by?
VSI 4.
If the choke in the VSI becomes partly blocked?
VSI 6.
If the casing of a VSI in a pressurised aircraft develops a leak?
VSI 7.
L_I
A VSI?
-
VSI 8.
A VSI indicates increasing ROD by?
VSI 9.
As an aircraft moves close to the ground during a landing the VSI might?
VSI 11.
If the static pipe becomes partly blocked?
VSI 12.
If the pitot pipe becomes partly blocked?
VSI 13.
The response rate of a VSI can be improved by fitting a?
a. Accelerometer system.
b. Choke system.
c. Bi-rnetalic compensator.
d. Return spring.
VSI 14.
If the port static vent of a large aircraft is blocked, what will happen to the VSI
indications when it is side slipping to the left in a descent?
a. Over indicate.
b. Under indicate.
c. Be unaffected.
d. Fluctuate.
-
AS1 1. '
a. MMO.
b. VNE.
c. TAS.
d. Temperature and VMO.
AS1 2.
What speed is VNO?
a. That which may only be exceeded with caution and in still air.
b. That which may never be exceeded.
c. That which may be exceeded only in emergencies.
d. The maximum at which fully control deflection is possible without
overstressing the aircraft structure.
AS1 3.
From what is VMo calculated?
a. TAS.
b. EAS.
c. CAS
d. RAS.
AS1 4.
What will be the effect if the drain hole and pitot tapping in a pitot probe are
blocked, whilst the static source remains open?
AS1 5.
What do the upper and lower limits of the yellow arc on an AS1 represent?
a. VNEand VNo.
b. VNOand VNE.
c. VMo and V N ~ .
d. VNOand VMO.
AS1 6.
If the pitot source and drain become blocked by ice when in cruise flight, how will
the AS1 respond when descending?
AS1 7.
At msl in the ISA?
a. CAS = TAS.
b. IAS =TAS.
c. IAS = EAS.
d. CAS<TAS.
-
AS1 8.
In an AS1 system, what does the pitot probe measure?
a. Total pressure.
b. Dynamic pressure.
c. Static pressure.
d. Ambient pressure.
AS1 9.
What does the blue line on a twin engine piston aircraft AS1 indicate?
AS1 10.
What are indicated by the lower and upper ends of the white arc on an ASI?
a. Maximum speed at which the aircraft is permitted to fly with its flaps
extended.
b. Maximum speed at which the flaps can be extended or retracted.
c. The minimum speed for flaps up flight.
d. The maximum speed for flaps up flight.
AS1 12.
What will be the effect on the AS1 if the pitot tube of an unpressurised aircraft is
fractured and the pitot drain is blocked?
AS1 13.
At any given weight or altitude, an aircraft will always lift-off at the same?
a. CAS.
b. TAS.
c. Ground speed.
d. EAS.
AS1 14.
CAS is?
AS1 15.
When descending from FL400 and attempting to maintain maximum groundspeed,
airspeed will be limited by?
a. VNEthen VMO.
b. VNOthen VNE.
c. MMOthen VMO.
d. VMo then MMO.
AS1 16.
What will happen to TAS when descending through an isothermal layer at constant
CAS?
a. Decrease.
b. Increase.
c. Remain constant.
d. Decrease then increase.
AS1 17.
When descending through an inversion at constant TAS?
AS1 18.
When climbing through an inversion at constant TAS?
AS1 19.
When descending through an inversion at constant CAS?
a. TAS increases.
b. Mach number increases.
c. Mach number remains constant.
d. TAS remains constant.
AS1 20.
When climbing through an inversion at constant CAS?
a. TAS increases.
b. Mach number decreases.
c. Mach number remains constant.
d. TAS decreases.
AS1 21.
When climbing through an inversion at constant mach number?
a. CAS increases.
b. TAS decreases.
C. TAS remains constant.
d. TAS increases.
AS1 22.
When descending through an inversion at constant mach number?
a. TAS increases.
b. TAS decreases.
c. TAS remains constant.
d. CAS decreases.
AS1 23.
When climbing through an inversion at constant mach number?
a. CAS increases.
--
b. LSS decreases.
c. TAS remains constant.
d. TAS increases.
AS1 24.
When descending through an inversion at constant mach number?
a. CAS decreases.
b. LSS increases.
c. LSS remains constant.
d. TAS decreases.
AS1 25.
When climbing through an inversion at constant CAS?
a. TAS increases.
b. TAS decreases.
c. TAS remains constant.
d. Mach number decreases.
AS1 26.
When descending through an inversion at constant CAS?
a. TAS increases.
b. TAS decreases.
c. TAS remains constant.
d. Mach number increases.
AS1 27.
When descending through an isothermal layer at constant TAS?
AS1 28.
When climbing through an isothermal layer at constant TAS?
AS1 29.
Wben descending through an isothermal layer at constant CAS?
a. Mach number increases.
b. Mach number decreases.
c. Mach number remains constant.
d. TAS increases.
AS1 30.
When climbing through an isothermal layer at constant CAS?
a. TAS increases.
b. TAS decreases.
c. TAS remains constant.
d. CAS increases.
AS1 32.
When descending through an isothermal layer at constant mach number?
a. TAS increases.
b. TAS decreases.
c. TAS remains constant.
d. CAS decreases.
AS1 33.
When climbing through an isothermal layer at constant mach number?
a. CAS increases.
b. CAS decreases.
c. CAS remains constant.
d. TAS decreases.
AS1 34.
When descepding through an isothermal layer at constant CAS?
a. LSS increases.
b. LSS decreases.
c. LSS remains constant.
d. TAS increases.
AS1 35.
When climbing through an isothermal layer at constant CAS?
a. TAS increases.
b. TAS decreases.
c. TAS remains constant.
d. Mach number decreases.
AS1 36.
When descending through an isothermal layer at constant CAS?
a. TAS increases.
b. TAS decreases.
c. TAS remains constant.
d. Mach number increases.
AS1 37.
If pressure remains constant as temperature increases?
AS1 38.
If the pitot pipe becomes partly blocked?
AS1 39.
If the pitot pipe becomes partly blocked?
AS1 40.
If the static pipe becomes partly blocked?
AS1 42.
If the pitot pipe becomes partly blocked?
a. The AS1 will over read and the error will be greater when climbing at
constant CAS than when climbing at constant TAS.
b. The AS1 will over read and the error will be greater when climbing at
constant TAS than when climbing at constant CAS.
c. The AS1 will under read and the error will be greater when climbing at
constant CAS than when climbing at constant TAS.
d. The AS1 will under read and the error will be greater when climbing at
constant TAS then when climbing at constant CAS.
AS1 43.
CAS is IAS corrected for?
a. Position error.
b. Instrument error.
c. Compressibility error.
d. Temperature error.
AS1 44.
What does the white arc on an AS1 indicate?
AS1 45.
If the pitot source becomes blocked while the static source remains open, an AS1
will?
a. Dynamic pressure.
b. Static pressure.
c. Kinetic pressure.
d. Total pressure.
AS1 47.
The barber's pole on an AS1 indicates?
a. VNE.
b. VMO.
c. VMo and temperature.
d. VNO.
AS1 48.
If an aircraft is climbed with a constant mach meter indication in the ISA, how
should the AS1 indication respond?
a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Increase then remain constant.
d. Decrease then remain constant.
AS1 49.
The blue line on the AS1 of a twin prop aircraft indicates?
AS1 50.
The yellow arc on an AS1 indicates?
AS1 52.
What is VFE?
AS1 53.
-
What is VLO?
AS1 54.
What does the green arc on an AS1 indicate?
AS1 55.
What is VNO?
AS1 57.
Where on an AS1 is Vpo indicated?
AS1 58.
Where on an AS1 is VMo indicated?
AS1 59.
Where on an AS1 is VNOindicated?
AS1 60.
Where on an twin prop aircraft AS1 is V y s indicated?
~
a. The red radial line at the upper end of the white arc.
b. The red radial line at the lower end of the green arc.
c. The red radi'al line at the upper end of the yellow arc.
d. The blue radial line at the upper end of the yellow arc.
AS1 62.
Where on an AS1 is VLOindicated?
AS1 63.
Where on an AS1 is Vs with flaps up indicated?
AS1 64.
Vm is ........... and is indicated by the ........ on an ASI?
a. Max speed for flap retraction upper end of green arc
b. Max speed for flap down flight upper end of white arc.
c. Min speed for flaps up flight lower end of white arc.
d. Min speed for flap retraction upper end of yellow arc.
AS1 65.
VNOis ..........and is indicated by the .......on an ASI?
a. Min speed for normal operations Lower end of green arc.
b. Max speed for normal operations upper end of green arc.
c. Min speed for night operations lower end of white arc.
d. Min speed for non routine operations red radial line.
AS1 66.
VNEis ......... and is indicated by the ........on an ASI?
a. Minimum night envelope speed upper end of white arc.
b. Maximum night envelope speed lower end of green arc.
c. Never exceed speed red radial line at the upper
end of the yellow arc.
d. Normal endurance speed green radial at the upper end of
the green arc.
AIRSPEEDS 1.
Considering the maximum operational Mach number (MMO) and the maximum
operational speed (VMO), the captain of a pressurized aircraft begins his descent
from a high flight level. In order to meet his scheduled time of arrival, he decides
to use the maximum ground speed at any time of the descent. He will be limited?
a. By the MMO.
b. By the VMO in still air.
c. Initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below a certain flight level.
d. Initially by the VMO, then by the MMO below a certain flight level.
AIRSPEEDS 2.
In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the calibrated airspeed (CAS) is?
AIRSPEEDS 3.
With a constant weight, irrespective of the airfield altitude, an aircraft always takes
off at the same?
a. Calibrated airspeed.
b. Ground speed.
c. True airspeed.
d. Equivalent airspeed.
AIRSPEEDS 4.
The calibrated airspeed (CAS) is obtained by applying to the indicated airspeed
(IAS)?
AIRSPEEDS 6.
The limits of the white scale of an airspeed indicator are?
a. VSI for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit.
b. VSO for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit.
c. VSI for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit.
d. VSO for the lower limit and W E for the upper limit.
AIRSPEEDS 7.
The limits of the green scale of an airspeed indicator are?
a. VS1 for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.
b. VS1 for the lower limit and VLO for the upper limit.
c. VS1 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit.
d. VSO for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit.
AIRSPEEDS 8.
The limits of the yellow scale of an airspeed indicator are?
a. VLO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.
b. VLE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.
c. VFE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.
d. VNO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.
AIRSPEEDS 9.
During a straight and uniform climb, the pilot maintains a constant calibrated
airspeed (CAS)?
a. The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) increases.
b. The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) is constant.
c. The Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS) is constant.
d. The Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS) decreases.
AIRSPEEDS 10.
VLE is the maximum?
AIRSPEEDS 11.
VLO is the maximum?
a. Speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety.
b. Flight speed with landing gear down.
c. Speed with flaps extended in a given position.
d. Cruising speed not to be exceeded except in still air with caution.
AIRSPEEDS 12.
VNE is the maximum speed?
AIRSPEEDS 13.
VNO is the maximum speed?
AIRSPEEDS 14.
For a constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) and a level flight, a fall in ambient
temperature will result in a?
a. Decrease.
b. Increase at a linear rate.
c. Remain constant.
d. Increase at an exponential rate.
AIRSPEEDS 16.
If the outside temperature at 35 000 feet is -40' C, the local speed of sound is?
a. 686 kt.
b. 596 kt.
c. 247 kt.
d. 307 kt.
AIRSPEEDS 17.
When descending through an isothermal layer at a constant Calibrated Airspeed
(CAS), the True Airspeed (TAS) will?
a. Decrease.
b. Increase at a linear rate.
c. Remain constant.
d. Increase at an exponential rate.
AIRSPEEDS 18.
In a steady climb with the auto-throttle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed.
If the total temperature remains constant, the Mach number?
a. Decreases.
b. Remains constant.
c. Decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard
temperature.
d. Increases.
AIRSPEEDS 19.
The airspeed indicator of a twin-engined aircraft comprises different sectors and
color marks. The blue line corresponds to the?
AIRSPEEDS 21.
VFE is the maximum speed?
AIRSPEEEDS 22.
An airplane is in steady descent. The auto-throttle maintains a constant Mach
number. If the total temperature remains constant, the calibrated airspeed?
a. Remains constant.
b. Decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard
temperature, increases if above.
c. Increases.
d. Decreases.
AIRSPEEDS 23.
An aeroplane is in steady descent below the tropopause in the ISA. The auto-
throttle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the total temperature remains
constant, the Mach number?
MACH 1.
How will mach meter indication respond if an aircraft is flying at constant CAS at
FL270 when it experiences a reduction in OAT?
a. No change.
b. Increase.
C. Decrease.
d. Increase or decrease depending on TAT.
MACH 2.
What is the LSS at 30000 ft if ambient temperature is -40' C?
a. 579 Kts.
b. 660 Kts.
c. 584 Kts.
d. 594 Kts.
MACH 3.
Which of the following best defines Mach number?
MACH 4.
A mach meter comprises of?
a. 542 Kts.
b. 660 Kts.
c. 573 Kts.
d. 550 Kts.
MACH 6.
How will mach meter indication vary in a constant CAS climb?
a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Increase then remain constant.
d. remain constant.
MACH 7.
What is the LSS at msl ISA?
a. 600 Kts
b. 550 Kts.
c. 750 Kts.
d. 661 Kts.
MACH 8.
Mach meter indications?
MACH 9.
How will mach meter indication respond if an aircraft passes through a cold front
when flying at constant CAS and altitude?
a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Remain constant.
d. Increase or decrease depending on altitude.
MACH 10.
How will the mach meter respond in a constant CAS climb if the static source
becomes blocked?
a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Remain constant.
d. Increase or decrease depending on airspeed.
MACH 11.
How will the mach meter respond in a constant TAS climb if the static source
becomes blocked?
a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Remain constant.
d. Increase or decrease depending on airspeed.
MACH 12.
How will the mach meter respond in a constant mach number climb if the static
source becomes blocked?
a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Remain constant.
d. Increase or decrease depending on airspeed.
MACH 13.
The indications on a mach meter are independent of?
a. Dynamic pressure.
b. Ambient temperature.
c. Static pressure.
d. Total pressure.
MACH 14.
What happens to mach meter indication in a constant RAS climb?
a. Increases.
b. Decreases.
c. Increases then remains constant.
d. Increases unless in an inversion or isothermal layer.
MACH 15.
What would happen if the static pipe became detached from the back of a mach
meter in a pressurised aircraft at high altitude?
a. Under read.
b. Over read.
c. No effect.
d. Under read or over read depending on temperature.
MACH 16.'
If an aircraft climbs at constant TAS from FL 200 to FL 400 the mach meter
indication will?
a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Increase then reniain constant.
d. Decrease then remain constant.
MACH 17.
A mach meter is made up of?
MACH 18.
VMois calculated based on?
a. TAS.
b. RAS.
c. CAS.
d. EAS.
MACH 19.
Mach number is the ratio of?
MACH 20. . -
If the static source becomes blocked the mach meter will ....... as an aircraft
climbs?
a. Over indicate.
b. Under indicate.
c. Not indicate.
d. Freeze.
MACH 21.
If temperature decreases when flying at constant CAS at FL 200, the mach meter
.........
indication will and the true mach number will .....
?
a. Increase increase.
b. Decrease decrease.
c. Not change not change.
d. Not change increase.
MACH 22.
Mach meter indications?
MACH 23.
The speed of sound at ISA msl is?
a. 550 Kts.
b. 560 Kts.
c. 660 Kts.
d. 670 kts.
MACH 24.
If ambient temperature is -lo0 C, what is the mach number when TAS is 594 Kts?
MACH 25.
The speed of sound at 25000 ft ISA is?
a. 600 Kts.
b. 602 Kts.
c. 604 kts.
d. 606 Kts.
MACH 26.
What is true mach number at 25000 ft ISA if the TAS is 500 Kts?
MACH 27.
A mach meter indicates mach number based on the ratio of?
MACH 28.
How will CAS respond if temperature increases by 5 degrees C when flying at a
constant indicated mach number at FL290?
a. Increases.
b. Decreases.
c. Remains approximately constant.
d. Depends on conditions relative to ISA.
MACH 29.
What happens to TAT when an aircraft descends at constant indicated mach
number?
a. Increases.
b. Decreases.
c. Remain constant.
d. Remains constant then increases.
MACH 30.
What is actually measured by a mach meter?
a. Pitot pressure.
b. The ratio of (pitot pressure - static pressure) : static pressure.
c. The ratio of static pressure to dynamic pressure.
d. The ratio of (static pressure + pitot pressure) : pitot pressure.
MACH 31.
When descending at constant CAS, the TAT and mach meter indications should?
a. Increase increase.
b. Increase decrease.
c. Increase then remain constant decrease.
d. Remain constant remain constant.
MACH 32.
Mach meter indications are derived from?
MACH 33.
If temperature increases by 5 degrees C during a constant mach number descent,
what will happen to CAS?
a. Increase by 5 Kts.
b. Increase by 10 Kts.
c. Remain constant.
d. Increase or decrease depending on whether conditions are above or below
ISA.
MACH 34.
A mach meter compares?
MACH 35.
What does mach number represent?
MACH 36.
What is the local speed of sound at sea level if the ambient temperature is 20' C?
a. 661 Kts.
b. 666 Kts.
c. 677 Kts.
d. 680 Kts.
MACH 37.
If ambient temperature increases by 10 degrees, for an aircraft flying at constant
TAS, the indicated mach number will ........
and the true mach number will ........
7
a. Increase increase
b. Decrease decrease.
c. Not change increase.
d. Not change decrease.
MACH 38.
When climbing at constant mach number below the torpopause in the ISA, the
CAS will?
a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Remain constant.
d. Decrease then remain constant.
MACH 39.
When descending at constant CAS, if temperature remains constant the indicated
mach number will?
a. Remain constant.
b. Increase.
c. Decrease .
d. Increase exponentially.
MACH 40.
What should the mach meter indicate when flying
. . at 500 kts TAS at FL250, if the
GYRO 1.
The building principle of a gyroscope, the best efficiency is obtained through the
concentration of the mass?
GYRO 2.
A Standby horizon or emergency attitude indicator?
GYRO 3.
The basis properties of a gyroscope are?
GYRO 5.
The characteristics of the directional gyro @G) used in a gyro stabilised compass
system are?
a. One degree of freedom, whose vertical axis, aligned with the real
vertical to the location is maintained in this direction by an automatic
erecting system.
b. Two degrees of freedom, whose horizontal axis corresponding to the
reference direction is maintained in the horizontal plane by an
automatic erecting system.
c. Two degrees of freedom, whose axis aligned with the vertical to the
location is maintained in this direction by an erecting system.
d. One degree of freedom, whose horizontal axis is maintained - in the
horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system.
GYRO 6.
A gravity type erector is used in a vertical gyro device to correct errors
on?
a. An artificial horizon
b. A directional gyro unit.
c. . A turn indicator.
d. A gyro-magnetic indicator.
GYRO 7.
When an aircraft has turned 360 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the
pilot observes the following on a classic artificial horizon?
GYRO 8.
When an aircraft has turned 270 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the
pilot observes the following on a classic artificial horizon?
GYRO 9.
Note: in this question, the degrees of freedom of a gyro are determined by the
number of gimbal rings it comprises. Among the flight control instruments, the
artificial horizon plays an essential part. I t uses a gyroscope with?
GYRO 10.
A slaved directional gyro derives it's directional signal from?
a. 1degree of freedom.
b. 3 degrees of freedom.
c. 2 degrees of fkeedom.
d. 0 degree of freedom.
GYRO 12.
The diagram below shows three gyro assemblies: A, B and C. Among these gyros,
1. Rotation of Earth.
2. Aeroplane motion on Earth.
3. Lateral and transversal aeroplane bank angles.
4. North change.
5. Mechanical defects.
GYRO 14.
At a low bank angle, the measurement of rate-of-turn actually consists in
measuring the?
GYRO 15.
An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom and a
horizontal spin axis is?
GYRO 16.
When, in fight, the needle of a needle and ball indicator is on the left and the ball
on the right, the aircraft is?
GYRO 18.
When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle and ball indicator are on the
right, the aircraft is?
GYRO 19.
When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle-and-ball indicator are on the left,
the aircraft is?
GYRO 20.
On the ground, during a left turn, the turn indicator indicates?
GYRO 21.
The rate-of-turn is the?
GYRO 23.
In a turn at constant rate, the turn indicator reading is?
GYRO 24.
An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom and a
horizontal spin axis is?
a. A directional gyro.
b. An artificial horizon.
c. A turn indicator.
d. A flux gate compass.
GYRO 25.
An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 1 degree of freedom and a
horizontal spin axis is a?
a. Pluxgate compass.
b. Directional gyro.
c. Turn indicator.
dl Gyro-magnetic compass.
GYRO 26.
The vertical reference unit of a three-axis data generator is equipped with a gyro
with?
GYRO 28.
On the ground, during a right turn, the turn indicator indicates?
GYRO 29.
The heading reference unit of a three-axis data generator is equipped with a gyro
with?
GYRO 30.
Following 180° stabilized turn with a constant attitude and bank, the artificial
horizon indicates?
GYRO 31.
The gyro-magnetic compass torque motor?
a. Error detector.
b. Erector system.
c. Heading indicator.
d. Amplifier.
GYRO 33.
The input signal of the amplifier of the gyro-magnetic compass resetting device
originates from the?
GYRO 34.
A rate integrating gyro is a detecting element used in?
GYRO 35.
Under normal operating conditions, when an aircraft is in a banked turn, the rate-
of-turn indicator is a valuable gyroscopic flight control instrument ;when it is
associated with an attitude indicator it indicates?
GYRO 37.
The pendulum type detector system of the directional gyro feeds?
GYRO 38.
The directional gyro axis spins about the local vertical by 15'/hour?
GYRO 39.
Compared with a conventional gyro, a laser gyro?
GYRO 41.
A turn indicator is an instrument which indicates rate of turn. Rate of turn
depends upon:
GYRO 42.
During an acceleration phase at constant attitude, the reseh, gprinciple of the
artificial horizon results in the horizon bar indicating a?
a. Nose-down attitude.
b.. Constant attitude.
c. Nose-down followed by a nose-up attitude.
d. Nose-up attitude.
GYRO 43.
Heading information given by a gyro platform, is given by a gyro at?
GYRO 44.
Among the systematic errors of the "directional gyro", the error due to the earth
rotation make the north reference turn in the horizontal plane. At a mean latitude
of 45' N, this reference turns by?
GYRO 45.
The diagram which shows a 40° left bank and 15O nose down attitude is?
GYRO 46.
The heading read on the dial of a directional gyro is subject to errors, one of which
is due to the movement of the aircraft. This error?
GYRO 47.
A gravity erector system is used to correct the errors on?
Artificial horizon.
A directional gyro.
A turn indicator.
, A gyro-magnetic compass.
GYRO 48.
The maximum directional gyro error due to the earth rotation is?
GYRO 49.
A directional gyro is:
GYRO 50.
- - a true track of 360° between the 005O S and OOSON parallels,
For an aircraft flying
the precession error of the directional gyro due to apparent drift is equal to?
GYRO 51.
What is the maximum gyro drift rate that can be caused by earth rotation?
a. 5' er hour.
b. 15 l' per hour.
c. 20' per hour.
d. 90' per hour.
GYRO 52.
A DGI has ....... degrees of freedom and a ......spin axis?
a. 1 vertical.
b. 2 horizontal.
c. 3 horizontal.
d. 2 vertical.
GYRO 93.
Which instrument uses a vertical gyroscope fitted with a gravity erection device?
a. Artificial horizon.
b. DGI.
c. Turn indicator.
d. Rate gyro.
GYRO 54.
Integrating gyroscopes are used?
1. Attitude indicators.
2. Inertial attitude units.
3. Rate of turn indicators.
4. Inertial navigation platforms.
5. Autopilots.
a. 3 and 4.
b. 4 and 5.
c. 2,3,and 5.
d. 2 and 4.
GYRO,55.
How many degrees of freedom and what spin axis will a two axis gyro measuring
vertical changes use?
a. 2 Vertical.
b. 2 Lateral.
c. 2 Longitudinal.
d. 1 Vertical.
GYRO 56.
The properties that are peculiar to a gyroscope are?
1. Inertia.
2. Precession.
3. Rigidity.
4. Angular momentum.
a. 1and 2.
. 2 and 4.
c. 2,3, and 4
d. 2 and 3.
GYRO 57.
Rigidity increases with?
GYRO 58.
A gravity erection device would be used on?
a. VSI.
b. DGI.
c. Artificial horizon.
d. Turn and slip indicator.
GYRO 59.
The yaw damper system, uses a ...... gyro and produces rudder inputs
proportional to ............
3
-GYRO60.
To obtain heading information a gyro-stabilised platform requires?
GYRO 61.
What will be the apparent wander on gyroscope when flying on a northerly track
from 05' S to 05' N.
1
GYRO 63.
A directional gyro requires?
GYRO 64.
What type of gyro has a horizontal spin axis and one degree of freedom?
a. Rate gyro.
b. Displacement gyro.
c. Rate integrating gyro.
d. Space gyro.
GYRO 65.
The properties of a gyro are?
1. Mass.
2. Rigidity in space.
3. Inertia.
4. Precession.
5. Rigidity with reference to the earth.
GYRO 66.
Gyro rigidity improves with?
GYRO 68.
When viewed from above a gyro is seen to rotate on a vertical spin axis, as
illustrated in the diagram. If a force tends to push the right side downwards?
Front
a. It will tilt upwards at the front.
b. It will tilt upwards at the left.
c. It wiU tilt upwards at the right. Right
d. It will tilt upwards at the back.
/
View from abov u d Rotation
Back
GYRO 69.
A 2 axis gyro measuring vertical changes will have?
GYRO 70.
The properties unique to a gyro include?
1. Mass.
2. Inertia.
3. Rigidity.
4. Precession.
5. Rotational velocity.
. .
a. 1,2.
b. 2,3.
C. 3,4.
d. All of the above.
GYRO 71.
The gyro in a DGI has.
GYRO 72.
The gyro in a vertical reference data generator has?
GYRO 73.
The purpose of the torque motor in a gyro stabilised magnetic compass is to?
GYRO 74.
Where would a rate integrating gyro be used?
GYRO 75,
DGI errors are caused by?
1. Mechanical imperfections.
2. Earth rate.
3. Transport wander.
4. Banking when pitching.
5. Annual migration of the poles.
GYRO 76.
To indicate true heading, the gyros in a gyro stabilised platform require?
GYRO 77.
A gravity erector system is used to correct errors in?
a. A ROT indicator.
b. A DGI.
C. An artificial horizon.
d. An inertial platform.
GYRO 78.
What error is caused by movement of the gyro relative to the earth in a DGI?
a. Transport wander.
b. Earth rate.
c. Real wander.
d. Longitude latitude error.
GYRO 79.
The gyro in an artificial horizon requires.
GYRO 80.
Gyroscope rigidity is increased by .......RPM and concentrating the mass at the
........
of the rotor?
a. Increasing hub.
b. Increasing rim.
c. Decreasing hub.
d. Decreasing rim.
GYRO 81.
Which instrument employs a gravity erecting device on its gyro?
a. ASI.
b. Directional gyro unit.
c. Turn indicator.
d. Artificial horizon.
GYRO 82.
A gyro with one degree of freedom is used in a?
GYRO 84.
Transport wander when flying east at 300 Kts at 40 degrees south is?
GYRO 85.
Transport wander when flying west at 300 Kts at 25 degrees south is?
GYRO 86.
Transport wander when flying west at 300 Kts at 25 degrees north is?
GYRO 87.
Earth rate at 25 degrees south is?
GYRO 89.
Earth rate at the equator is?
a. Zero.
b. 15' per hour.
c. -15' er hour
d. 6.34 (Pper hour.
ATTITUDE 1.
How pany degrees of freedom and what is the spin axis of an attitude indicator?
ATTITUDE 2.
What would be the indication on an attitude indicator in a right turn?
ATTITUDE 3.
What will a classic artificial horizon indicate when turning through 90 degrees at
constant attitude and bank angle?
ATTITUDE 5.
How will a basic A1 respond if an aircraft performs a 270 degree turn at constant
bank angle and ROT?
ATTITUDE 6.
Aircraft attitude is indicated on?
ATTITUDE 7.
When turning through 90' at constant AOB and pitch attitude, what will a classic
artificial horizon indicate?
ATTITUDE 8.
When turning through 270' at constant AOB and pitch attitude, what will a classic
artificial horizon indicate?
ATTITUDE 10.
The latitude nut ...........an artificial horizon?
a. Compensates for transport error.
b. Is not fitted to.
c. Compensates for latitude error.
d. Compensates for earth rate errors.
ATTITUDE 11.
The gravity sensing unit in an artificial horizon is used to?
ATTITUDE 12.
Classic artificial horizon indications turning through 180' at constant AOB?
ATTITUDE 13.
An artificial horizon has .....degrees of freedom in the ........axis?
a. Two vertical.
b. Two horizontal.
c. One vertical.
d. One horizontal.
ATTITUDE 14.
Which or the following properties are possessed by a standby artificial horizon?
ATTITUDE 15.
If an aircraft turns through 270' at a constant rate of turn and AOB, the
indications on its classic artificial horizon will be?
TURNJSLIP 1.
The ball in a serviceable slip indicator is ..........by ...........and ..........Indicatels
the state of slip?
TURNJSLIP 2.
The turn indicator is affected by?
1. AOB.
2. Airspeed.
3. Weight.
4. Altitude.
TURNISLIP 3.
A turn indicator used in conjunction with an attitude indicator.will show?
1. Turn direction.
2. Rate of turn.
3. Angular velocity about the true vertical axis.
4. Angular velocity about the aircraft vertical axis.
5. Angular velocity about the longitudinal axis.
TURNISLIP 4.
ROT indications are?
a. Proportional to TAS.
b. Proportional to CAS.
c. Proportional to mass.
d. Proportional to EAS.
TURNISLIP 5.
A turn indicator has?
TURNISLIP 6.
When both the needle and ball of a turn and slip indicator are displaced to the
right the aircraft is?
TURNISLIP 8.
When the needle is displaced right and the ball displaced left, in a turn and slip
indicator, the aircraft is?
TURNISLIP 9.
The turn needle indicates ......in a slightly banked turn?
a. Angular velocity about the vertical axis.
b. Angular acceleration about the vertical axis.
c. Angular velocity about the lateral axis.
d. Yaw displacement.
TURNISLIP 10.
A rate 1turn at 120 kts requires?
a* 10' AOB.
b. 20°AOB.
c. 30' AOB.
d. 40°AOB.
TURNISLIP 11.
The correct turn and slip indications when turning right on the ground are?
1. Airspeed.
2. Mass.
3. AOB.
TURNISLIP 13.
For a rate one turn at 150 Kts the AOB must be?
TURNISLIP 14.
Following a left engine failure the pilot of a multi-engine aircraft uses rudder to
arrest the yaw, whilst side slipping down track with the wings held level by the
ailerons. What will the turn and slip indicator show in this condition.
TURNISLIP 15.
Following a left engine failure the pilot of a multi-engine aircraft uses rudder to
oppose yaw and keep the aircraft on heading, whilst using bank to prevent side slip.
What will the turn and slip indicator show?
TURNISLIP 17.
What does it indicate ifboth the needle and ball in a turn and slip indicator move
out to the right?
TURNISLIP 18.
When turning at constant bank angle the rate of turn is?
TURN/SLIP 19.
A turn indicator used in conjunction with an attitude indicator can show?
1. TAS in a turn.
2. Direction of turn.
3. Angular velocity about the vertical axis of the aircraft.
4. Angular velocity about the true vertical axis.
TURNISLIP 20.
What factors affect the turn indicator?
1. AofA.
2. AOB.
3. TAS.
4. Weight.
TURNISLIP 21.
What are the essential properties of a turn indicator?
TURNISLIP 22.
What angle of bank would give a rate 1 turn at 120 Kts?
a. 10 degrees.
b. 14 degrees.
c. 18 degrees.
d. 22 degrees.
TURNISLIP 23.
What does it indicate when the turn needle is out to the left and the ball out to the
right?
TURNISLIP 24.
What should a turn and slip indicator show in a right turn on the ground?
a. Yaw rate.
b. Roll rate.
c. Pitch rate.
d. Angular velocity about the vertical axis.
TURNISLIP 26.
What corrective action is required if the ball is out to the right in a left turn?
TURNISLIP 27.
If both the ball and needle are out to the left in a turn, the ball can be centralised
by?
TURNISLIP 28.
How should the turn and slip indicator respond in a right turn when taxiing?
TURNISLIP 29.
For a coordinated rate 1 right turn at 250 Kts TAS, the correct AOB is
approximately?
a. 32 degrees.
b. 23 degrees.
c. 16 degrees.
d. 25 degrees.
TURNISLIP 30.
For a coordinated 300 Kts TAS rate 1 right turn the AOB should be?
a. 17 degrees.
b. 27 degrees.
c. 37 degrees.
d. 47 degrees.
TURNISLIP 31.
For a coordinated rate 1 left turn at an AOB of 27 degrees, the TAS should be?
a. 200 Kts.
b. 250 kts.
c. 270 Kts.
d. 300 Kts.
TURNISLIP 32.
The gyro in a turn indicator must have ......gimbal and .......degrees of freedom?
a. One one.
b. Two one.
c. Two two.
d. Three two.
TURNISLIP 33.
If the turn indicator needle is out to the right and the ball is out to the left, it
indicates?
TURNISLIP 34.
What angle of bank is required to conduct a balanced rate 1 turn in an aircraft at
125 kts TAS at a mass of 55000 Kg?
a. 15.5 degrees.
b. 17.5 degrees.
c. 19.5 degrees.
d. 21.5 degrees.
TURNBLIP 35.
If the mass of the aircraft in question 34 above, was decreased to 45000 Kg?
TURNISLIP 36.
The correct indications when taxiing to the left are?
TURNISLIP 37.
If the turn and slip indicator shows needle left and ball left in a banked turn, the
aircraft is..........
and the required corrective action is ........
3
TURNISLIP 38.
If the turn and slip indicator shows needle left and ball right in a banked turn, the
aircraft is..........
and the required corrective action is ........
7
TURNISLIP 39.
If the turn and slip indicator shows needle right and ball right in a banked turn,
the aircraft is..........
and the required corrective action is ........
7
INSIIRSIFMS 1.
What is the Schuler period?
a. 48 minutes.
b. 84 seconds.
c. 48 seconds.
d. 84 minutes.
INS/IRS/FMS 2.
To obtain heading information from a gyro-stabilised platform, the gyros should
be?
INSIIRSIFMS 3.
While inertial platform system is operating on board an aircraft, it is necessary to
use a device with the following characteristics, in order to keep the vertical line
with the pendulous system?
INSIIRSIFMS 4.
Heading information given by a gyro platform is given by a gyro with?
INSIIRSIFMS 6.
At the second state of integration E N speed is converted into E N distance gone.
To convert this departure into change of longitude it has to?
INSIIRSIFMS 7.
An INS with the accelerometers aligned NIS and E/W is limited to use at latitudes
below about 82'. This is because?
INSIIRSIFMS 8.
The diagram below shows a gyro-stabilised platform. 1is a ....gyro gimbal and 2
is a ......
gimbal?
a. Roll Pitch.
b. Pitch Roll.
c. Roll Yaw.
d. Pitch Roll.
NIS ACCELEROMETER
Wn/ ACCELEROMETER
NIS TILT SENSING GYRO
PLATFORM
AZIMUTH GYRC
ROLL MOTOR
INS/IRS/FMS 9.
The vertical reference unit of a three axis data generator is equipped with a gyro
with?
INSJIRSIFMS 10.
With reference to Inertial Navigation Systems, the functions of the integrator are?
INSIIRSIFMS 12.
The product of the first integration of the E/W acceleration sensed by an INS
system is?
a. Departure.
b. Speed along the local parallel.
c. Speed along the local horizontal.
d. Distance.
INSJIRSIFMS 13.
Why is an INS platform virtually unusable at very high latitudes?
a. The value of the earth rate affecting the EIW accelerometer is a component
dependent on the sine lat. At high latitudes this component is nearly zero
and makes alignment to true north virtually impossible.
b. The value of the earth rate affecting the EIW accelerometer is a component
dependent on the sine lat. At high latitudes this component is nearly zero
and makes alignment to true magnetic virtually impossible.
c. The value of the earth rate affecting the E/W accelerometer is a component
dependent on the cosine lat. At high latitudes this component is nearly zero
and makes alignment to magnetic north virtually impossible.
d. The value of the earth rate affecting the EIW accelerometer is a component
dependent on the cosine lat. At high latitudes this component is nearly zero
and makes alignment to true north virtually impossible.
INSIIRSIFMS 14.
A longitude error in an INS will cause:
a. A failure to align.
b. Poor alignment and degraded accuracy.
c. Will be corrected for once the E/W accelerometer has aligned to true north.
d. Will cause no problems at all.
INS/IRS/FMS 15.
When using an INS platform coriolis affects?
INS/IRS/FMS 16.
The errors of an INS fall into three categories?
INS/IRS/FMS 17.
The fundamental difference between INS and IRS is that?
INS/IRS/FMS 18.
The position accuracy of an RLG INS is?
The control and display unit of an inertial navi ation system indicates a position of
4810.9'~ 0 0 0 1 2 . 2 ~on~ a ramp position 4807.5 ,!?
N 0 0 0 0 5 . 1 ~ ~What
. is the radial
error rate of the system if it has been in NAV mode for 8 hours 20 minutes?
INSIIRSIFMS 20.
In an INS a TAS input is?
a. Not required.
b. Required for polar navigation.
c. Required for great circle navigation.
d. Required in order to provide a wind velocity read out.
INSIIRSIFMS 21.
In an INS which is Schuler tuned, the largest unbounded errors are?
INSIIRSIFMS 22.
During initialisation of an INS the aircraft must not be moved until?
INSITRSIFMS 23.
An INS in the ALIGN mode will?
a. Not accept an error on 10' latitude and 10' longitude of the inserted initial
-position.
b. Accept an error of 10' latitude and 10' of longitude of the inserted position.
c. Accept an error of 10' latitude but not an error of 10' longitude of the
inserted initial position.
d. Accept an error of 10' longitude but not one of 10' of latitude in the inserted
initial position.
INSIIRSIFMS 24.
An IRS with laser gyros should (i). ......be Schuler tuned, and (ii). ....be strapped
down?
INSIIRSIFMS 26.
The triangular cavity in a RLG is filled with which combination of gasses?
INSIIRSIFMS 27.
Alignment of a RLG INS takes?
INSIIRSIFMS 28.
In an INS the gyros should .....be strap down. In an IRS the gyros should ....be
strapped down?
a. always never.
b. always always.
c. never always.
d. never never.
INSIIRSIFMS 29.
In order to align a strap-down inertial unit, it is required to insert the local
geographical coordinates. This is necessary to?
a. Its strapped down accelerometers are not rotated with the aircraft and
hence do not suffer schuler errors.
b. It requires no corrections for central accelerations or coriolis effects.
c. It suffers laser lock but spins up faster.
d. It is not affected by vertical accelerations due to gravity, but it requires a
longer spin-up time.
a. 7 days.
b. 28 days.
c. 56 days.
d. It depends upon operational area.
INSIIRSJFMS 33.
In an IRS system?
INS/IRS/FMS 34.
The JAR 25 standard colour for an FMS active planned route is?
a. Cyan.
b. Magenta.
c. Red.
d. White.
INSIIRSIFMS 35.
The sequences for switching on INS is?
INSIIRSIFMS 36.
The correct latitude must be put into INS?
INSIIRSIFMS 37.
During initial alignment the IRS must be given coordinates to?
INSIIRSIFMS 38.
The schuler period is?
a. 12 minutes.
b. 20 minutes.
c. 84 minutes.
d. 98 minutes.
INSIIRSIFMS 39.
The inputs to the FMS include?
INSIIRSIFMS 41.
What is the first page on an FMS CDU?
a. INDEX.
b. IDENT.
C. TAKE-OFF.
d. PRE-START.
INSIIRSIPMS 42.
Setting zero cost index on an FMS gives?
a. Best range.
b. Best time.
c. Best endurance.
d. Lowest total costs.
INSIIRSIFMS 43.
Valid FMS CDU waypoint entries include?
1. Runway number.
2. Navaid limitations.
3. Airport ICAO identifier.
4. Navaid identifier.
5. Waypoint name.
6. Country code.
INSIIRSIFMS 44.
Where would a rate integrating gyro be used?
a. Gives heading.
b. Gives yaw displacement.
c. Gives yaw acceleration rate.
d. Gives track.
a. 1oscillation in azimuth.
b. 22 minutes.
c. 66 minutes.
d. 84 minutes.
INSIIRSIFMS 47.
Why is the inertial strapdown unit in an IRS programmed with coordinates during
alignment?
INSJIRSIFMS 50.
The inputs to an FMS include?
1. Operating data.
2. Terminal data.
3. Air data.
4. Route data.
5. Engine data.
6. Radio aids data.
a. 1,2,3,4.
b. 2,3,4,5.
c. 3,4, 5,6.
d. All of the above.
INS/IRS/FMS 51.
Which of the following is closest to the schuler period?
a. 48 seconds.
b. 84 seconds.
c. 48 minutes.
d. 84 minutes.
INS/IRS/FMS 52.
Modern systems employ ring laser gyros because they offer?
a. Artificial horizon.
b. Plight Director.
c. Inertial navigation system.
d. Turn and slip indicator.
With reference to an FMS, what does the term managed guidance mean?
INS/IRS/FMS 55.
What would be the FMC displayed position in an aircraft equipped with a twin
inertial system and DME?
INS/IRS/FMS 56.
What happens if an PMC that autotunes to DME stations for fming purposes, does
not receive a satisfactory decode?
INS/IRS/FMS 58.
What happens if an FMC operating in VNAV and LNAV modes reaches a
waypoint beyond which no route has been input?
INS/IRS/FMS 59.
The flight control unit in an FMS?
INS/IRS/FMS 60.
When an INS is turned on it is aligned in order to?
EFIS 1.
Cautionary information on an EHSI is displayed in?
a. Cyan.
b. Red orMagenta.
c. Yellow or Amber.
d. White.
EFIS 6.
Regarding the Electroni~Flight Instruments System (EFIS).
EFIS 7.
Below which altitude dues the radio altitude indication on an EADI appear within
the circular scale as a digital readout?
a. The Weather Radar display data is available on all modes of the EFSI.
b. In PLAN mod:, the Weather Radar data is inhibited on the EHSI.
c. The weather radar data is inhibited on the full and expanded NAV modes of
the EHSI. I
d. The weather Radar data is only available on the PLAN mode of the EHSI.
EFIS 9.
Radio altitude is shown on the EADI and changes from a digital display to a
circular scale? I
a. At 2500 ft.
b. At 1000 ft and bellow AGL.
c. Below 1000 ft AGL.
d. At DH. I
EFIS 10.
Weather Radar returns show as areas of precipitation in the following colours?
EFIS 11.
In the diagram below the next waypoint to be overflown is ... and the estimated
.....is .....?
EFIS 12.
The symbol shown appears in white on the EHSI display. I t represents?
a. An off-route waypoint.
b. The aeroplane.1
c. An inactive waypoint.
d. AVORDME.
EFIS 13.
On an EHSI display, wind velocity can be displayed in which of the following
modes?
EFIS 14.
Command information is displayed in ...... on the EHSI?
a. White.
b. Green.
c. Red.
d. Magenta.
EFIS 15.
In which of the following EHSI modes are the Weather Radar returns visible?
EFIS 16.
Decision height is displayed on the?
a. EADI, and below 2500 ft the display changes to a circular scale with
magenta coloured marker.
b. EADI,. and below 1000 ft is shown as a circular scale which is erased anti-
clockwise as tpe aircraft descends.
c. EHSI, in Map mode, and below 1000 ft is shown as a circular display, which
is erased, anti~clockwiseas the aircraft descends.
d. EADI, and below 800 ft changes to a circular scale which is white with a
magenta DH marker.
EFIS 17.
The heading reference used on the EHSI is?
True.
True or Magnetic.
Magnetic.
Compass.
EFIS 18.
On the FMA, engaged flight automatic flight modes are displayed in?
Blue.
Green.
Red.
Magenta.
EFIS 19.
The EFIS control panel allows selection of?
EFIS 20.
Which colours are typically used on an EHSI?
EFIS 22.
In PLAN mode?
The active flight path appears as a red line joining successive waypoints.
The Weather Radar display data is inhibited.
The display may be oriented to Grid North.
The wind arrow is oriented to True North.
EFIS 23.
At what height does the DH, on the EADI display, start flashing yellow?
EFIS 25.
The green symbol of a circle with T/D on the EHSI display below represents?
EFIS 26.
The EHSI mode in which the whole compass ro.se is not visible and upon which the
relative bearing to the active waypoint iishown although the waypoints themselves
are not, is the?
EFIS 28.
Aircraft electronic display systems normally incorporate?
EFIS 29.
The speed tape on an EADI is located?
EFIS 30.
An EFIS installation in a Boeing 737 consists of?
EFIS 31.
Which of the following displays are part of the Electronic Flight Instrumentation
System (for Boeing Aircraft)?
VOR I
1
Expanded VOR mode.
Expanded ILS mode.
Full VOR mode.
Map Mode.
EFIS 33.
The decision Height (DH) warning light illuminates when the aircraft?
EFIS 34.
The wind direction symbol displayed in all EHSI modes except PLAN is oriented?
EFIS 36.
.In order to know which mode of the auto-throttle is engaged the crew must check
the?
a. ND (Navigation Display).
b. TCC (Thrust Control Computer).
c. Throttle position.
d. PFD (Primary Flight Display).
EFIS 37.
The white arrow in the lower left corner in the diagram below indicates?
After passing BODAL waypoint in 8 minute lhe next heading will be 305~:
The current wind of 305~18kts is being experienced.
The active waypoint (BODAL) is located on radial 305' and 8 nm from VOR
tuned in the active NAVreceiver.
The active waypoint (TID) is located on radial 305' and 8 nm from a VOR
tuned in the active NAV receiver.
EFIS 38.
An aircraft is under uidance mode following a VOR radial. From the AD1 and
HSI represented in th diagram below, it is possible to deduce that the aircraft is?
a.
b.
c.
d.
I
Located to the eft side of the selected radial.
Located to the ight side of the selected radial.
Experiencing I$t side crosswind.
Experiencing rikht
I
side crosswind.
EFIS 39.
Which of the diagrards below illustrates a*30° right bank and 15' nose down
attitude?
I
EFIS 40. I
With reference to the diagram is question EFIS 38, it is possible to deduce that the
aircraft is? 1
EFIS 41.
In the diagram below the TIC is a .......and it will be reached at approximately.......?
a. FMC calcualted top of climb: 5 nm from present position.
b. Actual top of climb speed: 15.082.
c. FMC waypoint: 15.082.
d. TCAS traffic: 10 nm from present position.
EFIS 42.
What is the current active waypoint in the diagram below is?
ILB.
VIW.
TIC.
TRA.
EFIS 43.
In the diagram below, what is the meaning of the white circle with (INTC) next to
it?
EFIS 45.
What value is selected by the heading selector (heading bug) in the diagram in
question EFIS 44 above?
EFIS 46.
On what track is the aircraft currently flying in the diagram in quiestion EFIS 44
on the previous page?
EFIS 47.
Which mode is selected on the Navigation Display (EHSI) in diagram below?
Map mode.
Centre Map mode.
Plan mode.
Centre plan mode.
EFIS 48.
Which mode is selected on the Navigation Display (EHSI) in the diagram below?
Map mode.
Centre Map mode.
Plan mode:
Full NAV mode.
EFIS 51.
When using the EHSI, the weather radar may be displayed on the 3 following
settings?
Map, VOMLS.
VOR/ILS, Map, Expalnded plan.
Expanded Map, VOWILS, Plan.
Map, Expanded VOWILS.
EFIS 52.
What is the current active waypoint in the diagram below?
AMLON.
ANC10.
ILB.
TRA.
EFIS 53.
Decision height is adjusted and set on the?
EFIS 54.
The WXR display is controlled from?
EFIS 56.
Airspeed is shown on?
EFIS 57.
In addition to a control panel, symbol generators and a remote light sensor, an
EFIS also has?
EFIS 58.
Modes available for (EFIS) HSI on some units are?
EFIS 59.
With an EFIS Flight director using EFIS guidance, reference North can be?
EFIS 61.
The symbol below appears in yellow in place of the normal radio altitude display
when?
EFIS 62.
In the diagram below the symbols A, C and E respectively are best described as?
EFIS 65. d.
In the diagrams in question EFIS 64, on which of the displays can weather be
displayed?
a. B, D and E.
b. A, C and F.
c. B and D.
d. C, E and F.
EFIS 66.
In the diagrams in question EFIS 64, what would be the display which would result
from the selections as shown in the diagram below?
MSI
NAV VOR/ILS
EFIS 67.
In the display below, what is the correct statement?
a. The aircraft is closing the localiser from the right, heading 1 3 0 ' ~and is
approaching the glide path from above.
b. When established on the localiser the inbound heading will be 1 6 5 ' ~ .
c. The localiser track is 1 6 5 ' ~ .
d. The localiser centre line is 1 3 3 ' ~ .
EFIS 68.
In the display below, the track from ZAPPO to BANTU is?
EFIS 69.
In the display below, the centre weather returns are?
EFIS 70.
The groundspeed is indicated in which of the following colours?
a. Magenta.
b. White.
c. Green.
d. Yellow.
EFIS 71.
With APP selected on the MCP below 500 ft AGL, if more than one dot for one
second in glideslope deviation or more than 115th dot for one second in localiser
deviation occurs?
EFIS 72.
On a HSI map mode, distance to go is displayed in the?
EFIS 73.
Weather radar data can not be displayed on the EHSI in which of the following
maodes?
a. VOR.
b. ILS.
c. MAP.
d. PLAN.
AUTOFLIGHT 1.
The purpose of Auto Trim function in autopilot is to?
AUTOFLIGHT 3.
In order to know in which mode the auto-throttles are engaged, the crew will
check the?
a. ND (Navigation Display).
b. TCC (Thrust Control Computer).
c. Throttles position.
d. PFD (Primary Flight Display).
AUTOFLIGHT 4.
Mode "Localizer ARM" active on Flight Director means?
AUTOFLIGHT 5.
The Altitude Select System?
AUTOFLIGHT 6.
The correction of the control surface deflection made by the automatic pilot
calculator in order to stabilize the longitudinal attitude will be all the more
significant as the?
AUTOFLIGHT 7.
The correction of the control surface deflection made by the auto-pilot calculator in
order to keep a given altitude will be all the more significant when the?
a. 1 , 2 , 3 and 4.
b. 1 and 2.
c. 3 and 4.
d. 1 , 2 and 3.
AUTOFLIGHT 8.
An automatic landing is carried out when the automatic pilot?
a. Heading.
b. Altitude.
c. Heading, to hold the altitude and to have a radio axis tracking function.
d. Heading and to hold the altitude.
AUTOFLIGHT 10.
The block diagram of an autopilot is shown below.
Control surface
Detectors
6 control su&ace feedback
AUTOFLIGHT 11.
In the automatic trim control system of an autopilot, automatic trimming is
normally effected about the?
a. An amplifier.
b. A feedback control circuit.
c. An autopilot.
d. A servomechanism.
AUTOFLIGHT 13.
Mach Trim is a device to compensate for?
AUTOFLIGHT 14.
Which one of the following statements is true with regard to the operation of a
Mach trim system?
AUTOFLIGHT 15.
A landing will be considered to be performed in the SEMI-AUTOMATIC
mode when?
1. The autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the decision
height is reached then is disengaged automatically.
2. The auto-throttle maintains a constant speed until the decision height is
reached then is disengaged automatically.
3. The autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the flare.
4. The auto-throttle decreases the thrust when the height is approximately
1
30 ft.
5. The flare and the ground roll are performed automatically.
AUTOFLIGHT 16.
When using the autopilot, the function of the pitch channel automatic trim is to?
a. 1and 2.
b. 1,2 and 3.
C. 3.
d. 1and 3.
AUTOFLIGHT 17.
Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the airplane
guidance are?
AUTOFLIGHT 18.
Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the airplane
stabilization are?
a. 2,4, and 5.
b. 1,2 and 5.
c. 1,2,3 and 6.
d. 3,4,5 and 6.
AUTOFLIGHT 19.
The interception of a localizer beam by the autopilot takes place?
AUTOFLIGHT 20.
The yaw damper, which suppresses Dutch roll?
a. Controls the ailerons, with the angular rate about the vertical axis as the
input signal.
b. Controls the rudder, with the angular rate about the vertical axis as the
input signal.
c. Controls the ailerons, with Mach Number as the input signal.
d. Controls the rudder, with Mach Number as the input signal.
AUTOFLIGHT 21.
Landing shall be considered as having been carried out automatically when the
autopilot and the auto-throttle of an aircraft are disengaged by flight crew?
AUTOFLIGHT 22.
The yaw damper indicator supplies the pilot with information regarding the?
a. Decreases.
b. Increases if the static temperature is higher than the standard
temperature, decreases if lower.
c. Remains constant.
d. Increases.
AUTOFLIGHT 24.
The calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach holding mode is carried out by:
a. 2 and 4.
b. 1 and 3.
c. 2 and 3.
d. 1 and 4.
AUTOFLIGHT 25.
When an automatic landing is interrupted by a go-around:
1. The auto-throttle reacts immediately upon the pilot action on the TO/GA
(TakeoffIGo-around) switch in order to recover the maximum thrust.
2. The autopilot monitors the climb and the rotation of the airplane.
3. The autopilot retracts the landing gear and reduces the flap deflection in
order to reduce the drag.
4. The pilot performs the climb and the rotation of the airplane.
5. The pilot retracts the landing gear and reduces the flap deflection in order
to reduce the drag.
a. 1 , 3 and 4.
b. 1 , 2 and 3.
c. 1 , 2 and 5.
d. 1 , 4 and 5.
AUTOFLIGHT 26.
A landing will be considered to be performed in the AUTOMATIC mode
when:
1. The autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the decision
height is reached then is disengaged automatically.
2. The auto-throttle maintains a constant speed until the decision height is
reached then is disengaged automatically.
3. The autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the flare.
4. The auto-throttle decreases thrust when the height is approximately 30 ft.
5. The flare and the ground roll are performed automatically.
a. 1 and 2.
b. 2,3 and 5.
c. 1 and 4.
d. 3,4 and 5.
AUTOFLIGHT 27.
An autopilot capable of holding at least altitude and heading mode is compulsory?
AITTOFLIGHT 28.
The automatic power control system (auto-throttle) of a transport airplane has
the following mode(s):
AUTOFLIGHT 30.
The functions of an autopilot (basic modes) consist of?
AZTTOFLIGHT 31.
A pilot engages the control wheel steering (CWS) of a conventional autopilot
and carries out a manoeuvre in roll. When the control wheel is released, the
autopilot will?
a. Restore the flight attitude and the rate of turn selected on the autopilot
control display unit.
b. Maintain the flight attitude obtained at that moment.
c. Roll wings level and maintain the heading obtained at that moment.
d. Maintain the track and the flight attitude obtained at that moment.
AUTOFLIGHT 32.
During a Category I1 automatic approach, the height information is supplied by
the?
a. Altimeter.
b. Radio altimeter.
c. GPS (Global Positioning System).
d. Encoding altimeter.
AUTOFLIGHT 33.
The purpose of an airplane automatic trim system is to trim out the hinge moment
of the?
a. Rudder(s).
.b. Elevator(s) and rudder(s).
c. Elevator(s), rudder(s) and ailerons.
d. Elevator(s).
AUTOFLIGHT 34.
An automatic pilot is a system which can ensure the functions of?
a. Piloting from take-off to landing without any action from the human
pilot.
b. Piloting and guidance of an aircraft in both the horizontal and vertical
planes.
c. Piloting only.
d. Navigation.
AUTOFLIGHT 35.
When being engaged, and without selecting a particular mode, an automatic pilot
enables?
AUTOFLIGHT 36.
On an autopilot coupled approach, GO AROUND mode is engaged?
1. Airflow valve.
2. Sensors.
3. Comparators.
4. Computers.
5. Amplifiers.
6. Servo-actuators.
AUTOFLIGHT 38.
The engagement of an autopilot is not possible when:
AUTOFLIGHT 39.
The purpose of the automatic trim is to:
1. Reduce to zero the hinge moment of the entire control surface in order to
relieve the load on the servo-actuator.
2. Ensure the aeroplane is properly trimmed when the autopilot is disengaged.
3. Maintain the same stability/manoeuverablity trade-off within the whole
flight envelope.
AUTOFLIGHT 41.
In automatic landing mode, when the 2 autopilots are used, the system is
considered?
AUTOFLIGHT 42.
When only one autopilot is used for climbing, cruising and approach, the system is
considered?
AUTOFLIGHT 43.
The autopilot basic modes include, among other things, the following functions?
AUTOFLIGHT 45.
Four scenarios of VOR axis interception are represented below. The one
corresponding to the optimal interception pathcalculated by a flight director is
number?
AUTOFLIGHT 46.
When an aircraft, operating in the VOR coupled mode, approaches the "cone
of confusion" over a VOR station, the roll channel of the autopilot?
AUTOFLIGHT 47.
A landing is performed automatically when the autopilot and auto-throttle
ensure good performance from the final approach?
AUTOFLIGHT 48.
A semi-automatic landing system disconnects itself automatically?
a. On ground.
b. When going around.
c. At approximately 100 ft.
d. At the decision height.
AUTOFLIGHT 49.
An automatic landing system necessitating that the landing be continued manually
in the case of a system failure during an automatic approach is
Called "FAIL...."?
a. "OPERATIONAL".
b. "SAFE".
c. "REDUNDANT".
d. "PASSIVE".
AUTOFLIGHT 50.
An automatic landing system which can keep on operating without deterioration of
its performances following the failure of one of the autopilots is called "FAIL...:?
a. "REDUNDANT".
b. "OPERATIONAL".
c. "PASSIVEw.
d. "SAFE " .
AUTOFLIGHT 51.
During an automatic landing, from a height of about 50 ft the?
AUTOFLIGHT 52.
Automatic trim is a component of the autopilot pitch channel. Its function is to?
AUTOFLIGHT 53.
The auto-throttle:
a. 1 and 3.
b. 2 and 3.
c. 1 and 4.
d. 1,3 and 4.
AUTOFLIGHT 54.
When the altitude acquisition mode is engaged on a jet transport airplane equipped
with autopilot (AP) and auto-throttle (ATS) systems the?
AUTOFLIGHT 55.
The synchronization of the autopilot control channel system:
AUTOFLIGHT 56.
In a selected axis capture mode, the autopilot gives a bank attitude input?
a. Proportional to the deviation between the selected heading and the current
heading but not exceeding a given value.
b. Of a fixed value equal to 27O.
c. Of a fixed value equal to 20°.
c. Proportional to the aircraft true airspeed but not exceeding a given value.
AUTOFLIGHT 57.
The computers of the electrical flight controls system comply with programs
defined by attitude control laws such as:
1. On the longitudinal axis, the law may combine the load factor and the
changes in the pitch rate as control data sources.
2. The trimming is automatic and ensures stability.
3. The protections apply to pitch and bank attitudes depending on the speed.
4. These laws do not apply to the whole flight envelope.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is?
AUTOFLIGHT 58.
An autopilot is selected "ON" in mode "altitude hold," the pilot alters the
barometric pressure set on the sub-scale of his altimeter the?
a. Aircraft will remain at the same altitude, the autopilot takes its pressure
information from the altimeter corrected to standard pressure, 1013.25 hPa.
b. Aircraft will climb or descend in the sense of the change, the autopilot takes
its pressure information from the altimeter.
c. Mode altitude hold will disengage.
d. Aircraft will remain at the same altitude, the autopilot takes its pressure
information from the static source.
AUTOFLIGHT 59.
In an auto-pilot slaved powered control circuit, the system which ensures
Synchronization?
AUTOFLIGHT 60.
The command functions of an autopilot include, among others, the holding of:
1. Vertical speed.
2. Altitude.
3. Attitude.
4. Bank.
5. Heading.
a. Relieve the pressure on the control column and return, the aircraft in trim
at A.P. disconnect.
b. React to altitude changes in Altitude Hold mode.
c. Synchronize the longitudinal loop.
d. Relieve the A.P. servo motor and return the aircraft in-trim at A.P.
disconnection.
AUTOFLIGHT 62
What happens to the glideslope signal at 50 ft agl in an autoland?
AUTOFLIGHT 63.
When is the autoland considered to have been completed and the autopilot
disconnected in an automatic landing?
a. At 100 ft agl.
b. At roll out.
c. At the flare.
d. At decision height.
AUTOPLIGHT 64.
Which of the following prevent engagement of the autopilot?
a. Central ADC.
b. Radalt.
c. Baralt.
d. Glideslope signal.
AOTUFLIGHT 66.
What is the term used for an autopilot system that can still conduct an automatic
landing safely following a single system failure?
a. Fail active.
b. Fail passive.
c. Fail safe.
d. Fail operational.
AUTOFLIGHT 67.
What is the term used for an autopilot system that cannot conduct an automatic
landing safely but does not endanger the aircraft following a single system failure?
a. Fail active.
b. Fail passive.
c. Fail safe.
d. Fail operational.
AUTOFLIGHT 68.
For what type of operations is an autopilot with heading hold and altitude hold the
minimum requirement?
AUTOFLIGHT 69.
What happens if an aircraft flies over the cone of confusion with its autopilot set to
VOR hold?
a. Rudder position.
b. Rudder movements caused by the damper.
c. Nothing until the system fails.
d. Nothing until the system becomes active.
AUTOFLIGHT 71.
Localiser beam interception by the autopilot?
AUTOFLIGHT 72.
A yaw damper system?
AUTOFLIGHT 73.
When conducting an automatic landing the autopilot?
AUTOFLIGdT 74.
The roll commands generated by an autopilot system?
AUTOFLIGHT 76.
Fly by wire system employ control laws which?
a. Determines how pilot input demands are translated into control surface
movement.
b. Determines how controls must move to maintain steady state conditions.
c. Analyses error signals between pick-offs on the ailerons and rudder.
d. Maintains constant aircraft attitude.
ALTTOFLIGHT 77.
The device in a closed loop that converts a small input signal into a large output in
a proportionate manner is?
a. An autostab module.
b. An amplifier.
c. A servomechanism.
d. A negative feedback loop.
AUTOFLIGHT 78.
Autotrim is employed in an autopilot system in order to?
a. 1,6.
b. 2,4.
c. 3,5, and 6.
d. 2,3, and 5.
AUTOFLIGHT 79.
During a semi-automatic landing the autopilot?
AUTOFLIGHT 80.
At 50 ft agl in an automatic landing?
AUTOFLIGHT 81.
An autoland procedure is complete when?
AUTOFLIGHT 82.
The mach trimmer system?
AUTOLFLIGHT 83.
The autopilot causes an aircraft to pitch, roll and yaw?
AUTOFLIGHT 85.
Which of the following best describes what happens when the TOGA switch is
pressed during a missed approach?
AUTOFLIGHT 86.
Under what conditions is a landing considered to be fully automatic?
AUTOFLIGHT 87.
A Category 3A autoland procedure is complete when?
a. At the flare.
b. At the end of the ground roll.
c. At the start of the ground roll.
d. At decision height.
AUTOFLIGHT 88.
When a go around is initiated from an automatic approach?
AUTOFLIGHT 89.
In straight and level cruising flight, ........holds speed and ........holds height?
a. Autostab autopilot.
b. Auto-throttle autopilot.
c. Autopilot autopilot.
d. Autopilot auto-throttle.
AUTOFLIGHT 90.
What type of autopilot system prevents the continuation of an automatic landing to
continue after one autopilot fails?
a. Fail safe.
b. Fail passive.
c. Fail active.
d. Duplex.
AUTOFLIGHT 91.
What are the minimum autopilot requirements for single pilot IFR flight?
AUTOFLIGHT 92.
Auto-throttle modes are typically annunciated?
a. On EICAS. O r ECAM
b. On EFIS ND.
c. On EFIS PFD.
d. Thrust computation system control panel.
AUTOFLIGHT 93.
Turning the barometric setting knob clockwise when ALT HOLD is engaged will?
AUTOFLIGHT 94.
The rate at which an autopilot system moves the control surfaces?
AUTOFLIGHT 95.
A yaw damper?
AUTOFLIGHT 96.
If only one autopilot is employed to control climb, cruise and approach, it must be?
AUTOFLIGHT 97.
The pilot can check which auto-throttle mode is engaged by looking at?
a. 1000 ft agl.
b. 400 ft agl.
c. 100 ft agl.
d. 50 ft agl.
AUTOFLIGHT 99.
A pilot can check auto-throttle mode on the?
AUTOFLIGHT 100.
At what height will the autopilot be disengaged during a semi-automatic landing?
a. 400 ft.
b. 100 ft.
c. 50 ft.
d. Decision height.
AUTOFLIGHT 101.
What is the minimum acceptable autopilot facility for single pilot fight at night or
in IFR conditions?
a. Two axis autopilot providing altitude hold, heading hold, and VOR
tracking.
b. Two axis autopilot providing altitude hold and heading hold.
c. Single axis autopilot providing altitude hold.
d. Single axis autopilot providing heading hold.
AUTOFLIGHT 102.
An autopilot capable of providing heading hold and altitude hold is the minimum
requirement for?
a. Automatic landings.
b. Single pilot IMC and VMC operations.
c. Single pilot night and IFR operations.
d. Class A aircraft.
AUTOFLIGHT 103.
What is the meaning of an illuminated "LOC ARMED" caption on the
annunciator?
a. ILS captured.
b. Localiser is armed and awaiting capture.
c. Localiser has been captured.
d. Localiser beam has failed.
AUTOFLIGHT 104.
An automatic landing is one in which?
AUTOFLIGHT 105.
What is the purpose of automatic trim in an autopilot system?
AUTOFLIGHT 106.
If an aircraft is provided with only a single autopilot to control climb, cruise and
descent, the failure of this system will?
AUTOFLIGHT 107.
Which of the following can be held by the auto-throttle system?
1. Mach number.
2. IAS.
3. Altitude.
4. NlandEPR.
5. VOR tracking.
6. Vertical speed.
AUTOFLIGHT 108.
The purpose of the automatic trim facility is to?
AUTOFLIGHT 109.
In the heading select mode the autopilot banks the aircraft by inputting control
signal that are?
AUTOFLIGHT 110.
The most basic autopilot function is to?
AUTOFLIGHT 111.
The effects of an automatic trim function in an autopilot system are to?
AUTOFLIGHT 113.
Initiating a go-around during an automatic approach?
AUTOFLIGHT 114.
A fully automatic landing is one in which?
a. The autopilot and auto-throttle control the aircraft until at least the roll out.
b. The autopilot and auto-throttle control the aircraft down to the flare.
c. The autopilot and auto-throttle control the aircraft until it stops.
d. The autopilot and auto-throttle control the aircraft down to decision height.
AUTOFLIGHT 115.
The term used to describe an autopilot system that is unable to continue an
automatic landing after a single autopilot failure is?
a. Fail safe.
b. Fail passive.
c. Duplexed.
d. Fail operational.
AUTOFLIGHT 116.
What happens if the barometric altimeter pressure setting is adjusted when the
autopilot is flying the aircraft altitude hold mode?
AUTOFLIGHT 117.
The autopilot rotates the aircraft around?
a. Its C of P.
b. Its C of G.
c. Its aerodynamic centre.
d. Only when defective.
AUTOFLIGHT 118.
A single pilot flying IFR must have an autopilot providing at least?
a. Horizontal hold.
b. Attitude hold.
c. Altitude and heading hold.
d. Attitude hold and altitude hold employing some form of radio navigation
aid.
AUTOFLIGHT 119.
What is the name for a closed loop system in which a small input controls a much
larger output in accordance with a set proportionality law?
a. Autopilot.
b. Amplifier.
c. Servo mechanism.
d. Positive feedback loop.
AUTOFLIGHT 120.
What is controlled by an auto flight system?
AUTOFLIGHT 122.
How is the go around mode selected?
AUTOFLIGHT 123.
At 50 ft agl during a n auotland?
AUTOFLIGHT 124.
The yaw damper indicator?
AUTOFLIGHT 125.
If the autopilot is engaged without selecting any modes it will provide?
a. Nothing.
b. Automatic stabilisation and in some cases automatic trim.
c. Wings level only.
d. Pitch attitude hold only.
AUTOFLIGH 126.
The "LOC ARMED" caption indicates that?
AUTOFLIGHT 127.
When an aircraft has both autopilot and auto-throttle?
a. When climbing the auto-throttle holds IAS or mach number in the speed
mode and the autopilot holds attitude in the climb mode.
b. When climbing the auto-throttle holds thrust or EPR while the autopilot
holds IAS or mach number is the LVL CHG mode.
c. When cruising the auto-throttle holds altitude in the ALT hold mode and
the autopilot holds IAS or mach number in the speed hold mode.
d. When descending, the auto-throttle holds vertical speed while the autopilot
holds IAS or mach number.
AUTOFLIGHT 128.
What happens at 50 ft agl during an autoland?
AUTOFLIGHT 129.
If an aircraft climbs with its auto-throttle system in mach hold?
FLIGHT DIRECTOR 1.
On a modern aircraft, the flight director modes are displayed on the?
1. A computer.
2. An automatic pilot.
3. An autothrottle.
4. Command bars.
FLIGHT DIRECTOR 3.
The aim of the flight director is to provide information to the pilot?
FLIGHT DIRECTOR 4.
Flight Director Information supplied by an FD computer is presented in the form
of command bars on the following instrument?
FLIGHT DZRECTOR 5.
The "heading hold" mode is selected on the flight director (FD) with a course to
steer of 180°. Your aircraft holds a heading of 160°. The vertical bar of the FD?
a. Cannot be centreed.
b. Is centreed if the aircraft is on optimum path to join heading 180°.
c. Is centreed if the aircraft has a starboard drift of 20°.
d. Is centreed if the aircraft has a port drift of 20°.
FLIGHT DIRECTOR 6.
The Flight Director bars are?
FLIGHT DIRECTOR 7.
After having programmed your flight director, you see that the indications of your
AD1 (Attitude Director Indicator) are as represented in diagram below. On this
instrument, the command bars indicate that you must bank your airplane to the
left and?
a. Increase the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the symbolic
airplane.
b. Decrease the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the
symbolic airplane.
c. Increase the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the horizon.
d. Decrease the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the horizon.
FLIGHT DIRECTOR 8.
The command bars of a flight director are generally represented on an?
a. Deviates to its right stop as long as the aeroplane is more than 10° off the
new selected heading.
b. Deviates to the right and will be centred as soon as you roll the aircraft to
the bank angle calculated by the flight director.
c. Deviates to the right and remains in that position until the aircraft has
reached heading 360°.
d. Disappears, the new heading selection has deactivated the HDG mode.
a. The roll bar will move to the right until the AFDS angle of bank required to
intercept is achieved. The bar will then centralise.
b. Roll bar moves hard right then gradually centralises as the difference
between actual heading and selected heading reduces.
c. Roll bar moves left until the actual heading matches the selected heading.
d. The roll bar does not move, but the system automatically regains the
selected heading.
a. Go up and right.
b. Go up and left.
c. Go down and right.
d. Go down and left.
a. EFIS ND.
b. EFIS PFD.
c. EICAS or ECAM.
d. PPI.
FLIGHT DIRECTOR 20.
When will the AD1 vertical bar become centralised with 180 degrees is selected
when flying on a heading of 160 degrees?
a. Bank left and increase nose up attitude until the bars centralise.
b. Bank left and decrease nose up attitude until the bars centralise.
c. Bank right and increase nose up attitude until the bars centralise.
d. Bank right and decrease nose up attitude until the bars centralise.
a. Move left.
b. Move right.
c. Move down.
d. Remain central.
a. EFIS ND.
b. EFIS PFD.
c. EICASIECAM.
d. FD controller.
FLIGHT DIRECTOR 24.
How will the FD bars respond if a heading of 350 degrees is selected, when the
aircraft with heading hold engaged is in steady flight on a heading of 270 degrees?
a. Move right until the turn command is executed, then centralise until a
heading of about 340 degrees is reached, when it will move left to execute a
roll out.
b. Move right until on 350 degrees then centralise.
c. Move right until on heading 260 degrees then move left to regain 350
degrees.
d. Move right temporarily then quickly centralise.
EICASIECGM 1.
Ia a basic ECAM system?
a. The left screen show information in checklist and memo form, whilst the
right screen shows relevant diagrams.
b. The right screen shows information in checklist or memo form, whilst the
left screen shows the relevant diagrams.
c. The left screen is normally blank with the right showing primary engine
data.
d. The right screen is normally blank with the left showing primary engine
data.
EICASECAM 2.
The basic ECAM system has?
EICASECAM 3.
A message enclosed within a box?
EICASIECAM 5.
If a screen fails in a basic (non-EFIS equipped) ECAM system?
EICASECAM 6.
If a screen fails in an advanced (EFIS equipped) ECAM system?
EICASIECAM 7.
If a screen fails in a basic (non EFIS equipped) EICAS system?
EICASIECAM 9.
If an emergency occurs in an aircraft employing advanced ECAM?
a. The nature of the problem is indicated in red a t the bottom left of the upper
display, together with corrective instructions in blue.
b. The nature of the problem is indicate in amber at the bottom left of the
upper display, together with corrective instructions in white.
c. The nature of the problem is indicated in red at the top left of the upper
display.
d. The nature of the problem is indicated in red on the lower display.
EICASECAM 10.
If an emergency occurs in an aircraft employing advanced EICAS?
a. The nature of the problem is indicated in red at the bottom left of the upper
display, together with corrective instructions in blue.
b. The nature of the problem is indicate in amber at the bottom left of the
upper display, together with corrective instructions in white.
c. The nature of the problem is indicated in red at the top left of the upper
display.
d. The nature of the problem is indicated in red on the lower display.
EICASECAM 11.
In EICAS?
a. Engine primary data such as N1, EGT and EPR are displayed constantly on
the lower screen, the upper screen remaining blank in normal flight.
b. Engine primary and secondary data plus flap, slat and flying control
positions are displayed constantly on the upper screen, the lower screen
remaining blank throughout normal flight.
c. Engine primary and secondary data plus flap, slat and flying control
positions are displayed constantly on the lower screen, the upper screen
remaining blank throughout normal flight.
d. Engine primary data such as N1, EGT and EPR are displayed constantly on
the upper screen, the lower screen remaining blank in normal flight.
EICASIECAM 12.
The EICAS display modes are?
EICAS.ECAM 13.
A red message on an upper EICAS display?
EICAS.ECAM 14.
An amber message on an upper EICAS display?
EICASECAM 16.
The main advantages of EICAS and ECAM are?
EICASECAM 17.
How will a single EICAS failure be displayed.
1. If one screen of a basic EICAS system fails the other will go into compacted
display mode.
2. If one computer of an EICAS system fails an amber caption will appear on
the upper display but the system will continue to function.
3. If one screen of an advanced EICAS system fails the information from that
screen will be automatically transferred to one of the EFIS navigation
displays, and an amber caption will appear on the screen depicting EICAS
primary data.
a. 1,2.
b. 1,3.
c. 2,3.
d. All of the above.
EICASECAM 18.
If both displays fail on a basic EICAS system?
a. Limited engine primary data (Nl, N2, EGT) are displayed on an EFIS
screen.
b. Limited engine primary data (Nl, N2, EGT) are displayed on analogue
gauges.
c. Limited engine primary data (Nl, N2, EGT) are displayed on the standby
engine LED indicator.
d. All data becomes unavailable.
EICASECAM 19.
An EICAS advisory message?
Appears in amber on the upper display, indented one digit to the left.
Appears in amber on the upper display, indented one digit to the right.
Appears in green on the lower display, indented one digit to the right.
Appears in amber on the lower screen, indented one digit to the right.
EICASECAM 20.
For what is the colour red used in EICAS and ECAM displays?
EICASECAM 21.
How must a pilot react to an amber EICAS or ECAM indication?
EICASECAM 22.
What indication is given for an ECAM system failure?
a. Light only.
b. Light and aural.
c. A button is illuminated to indicate how to switch off warning.
d. Amber message.
EICASECAM 23.
What is the purpose of the cancel and recall buttons on an EICAS or ECAM
system?
EICASECAM 25.
When the ECAM T I 0 button is pushed?
EICASECAM 26.
When the Take-off button on an ECAM system is pushed?
EICSECAM 27.
The basic ECAM system displays?
EICSIECAM 28.
Both ECAM and EICAS?
EICASIECAM 30.
The correct response to an EICAS red message is to?
EICASECAM 31.
The correct response to an EICAS amber and aural message is?
a. Take the immediate corrective actions listed on the bottom of the upper
display.
b. Take no immediate action but be aware of the situation.
c. Take immediate corrective actions listed on the lower display.
d. Press the recall button to obtain a list of corrective actions required.
EICASECAM 32.
The correct response to an EICAS amber without aural message is?
a. Take the immediate corrective actions listed on the bottom of the upper
display.
b. Take no immediate action but be aware of the situation.
c. Take immediate corrective actions listed on the lower display.
d. Press the recall button to obtain a list of corrective actions required.
EICASECAM 33.
The correct response to an ECAM red message is?
EICASECAM 35.
Where are the flap and slat positions indicated on an advanced ECAM system?
EICAS/ECAM 36.
When an aircraft system failure occurs on an aircraft with a basic ECAM system?
a. The left display will indicate the situation in red or amber, together with the
required corrective actions in blue. The right display will show a diagram of
the faulty system.
b. The left display will indicate the situation in red or amber, together with the
required corrective actions in green. The right display will show a diagram
of the faulty system.
c. The right display will indicate the situation in red or amber, together with
the required corrective actions in blue. The left display will show a diagram
of the faulty system.
d. The right display will indicate the situation in red or amber, together with
the required corrective actions in green. The left display will show a
diagram of the faulty system. I
EICASECAM 37.
When the required corrective actions have been taken to remedy an aircraft system
fault, an ECAM system will?
a. The upper screen will continue to display the original fault statement
together with the blue corrective action list, but the lower screen will go
blank.
b. The upper screen will briefly continue to display the original fault
statement, but the list of corrective actions will become green. Both screens
will then revert to normal.
c. The fault indications will immediately disappear as the screens return to
normal.
d. The original fault statement will remain but the corrective actions list will
turn green. The lower display will return to normal.
EICASECAM 38.
In normal flight conditions an EICAS system display is?
EICASECAM 39.
An engine fire on an EICAS equipped aircraft would be indicated by?
a. Red caption on the upper display and engine secondary data on the lower
display.
b. Red caption on the upper display, aural warning, engine secondary data on
the lower display.
c. Amber caption on the upper display and engine secondary data on the lower
display.
d. Amber caption on the upper display, aural warnings, engine secondary data
on the lower display.
EICASECAM 40.
In an EICAS system, excessive EGT is indicated by?
EICASECAM 41.
If the lower EICAS display fails but the EICAS system does not detect the failure?
a. The lower display will remain blank, but the upper will show a series of
\/ Signs whenever data should be on the lower display.
b. Display failures are always detected by EICAS.
he lower display will remain blank, but the upper will show a series of
C.
d.
T Signs whenever data should be on the lower display.
The system will automatically go into compacted display mode.
EICASECAM 42.
The message on an ECAM display indicates?
EICASECAM 43.
How is the lower screen in an EICAS system cleared when in status mode?
EICAIECAM 44.
Modern commercial transport aircraft will employ?
EICASECAM 45.
The advantages of EICAS and ECAM include?
a. 1,2,3,4.
b. 2,3,4,63
c. 3,4,5,6.
d. All of the above.
ENGINE 1.
The temperature measured by the CHT (Cylinder Head temperature) probe is
The?
ENGINES 2.
The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a 3-phase AC generator, connected
to RPM indicator, is a DC voltage varying with the RPM?
ENGINES 3.
The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a magnetic sensor, connected to an
RPM indicator is a three-phase voltage frequency varies with the RPM?
ENGINES 4.
A vibration indicator receives a signal from different sensors (accelerometers). I t
indicates the?
ENGINES 6.
The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is computed by?
ENGINES 7.
The principle of detection of a vibration monitoring system is based on the use of?
a. 2 accelerometers.
b. 2 high and low frequency amplifiers.
c. 2 high and low frequency filters.
d. A frequency converter.
ENGINES 8.
The green sector of the arc of a temperature gauge corresponds to?
ENGINES 9.
A synshroscope is used on aircraft to?
ENGINES 11.
The yellow sector of the temperature gauge corresponds to?
ENGINES 12.
In an engine vibration monitoring system for a turbojet any vibration produced by
the engine is?
ENGINES 13.
Different pressure sensors are used according to the intensity of the pressure
measured (low, medium or high). Classify the following sensors by order of
increasing pressure for which they are suitable?
1. Bellows type.
2. Bourdon tube type.
3. Aneroid capsule type.
ENGINES 14.
The RPM indicator (or tachometer) of a piston engine can include a small red arc
within the arc normally used (green arc). In the RPM range corresponding to this
small red arc the?
ENGINES 15.
In order to measure temperature the cylinder head temperature (CHT) gauge
utilises a?
ENGINES 16.
A manifold pressure gauge of a piston engine measures?
ENGINES 17.
If a manifold pressure gauge consistently registers atmospheric pressure, the cause
is probably?
ENGINES 18.
A millivoltmeter measuring the electromotive force between the "hot junction" and
the "cold junction" of a thermocouple can be directly graduated in temperature
values provided that the temperature of the?
a. Is simple.
b. Can operate without an electrical power supply.
c. Is very accurate.
d. Carries out an independent measurement of the supply voltage.
ENGINES 20.
The probe used to measure the air intake pressure of a gas turbine engined
powerplant is?
a. A differential capsule.
b. A Bourdon tube.
c. A bellows sensor.
d. An aneroid capsule.
ENGINES 21.
The pressure probe used to measure the pressure of a low pressure fuel pump is?
a. An aneroid capsule.
b. A bellows sensor.
c. A Bourdon tube.
d. A differential capsule.
ENGINES 22.
The disadvantages of a single-phase A.C. generator tachometer are:
ENGINES 23.
The advantages of single-phase A.C. generator tachometer are:
ENGINES 24.
The advantages of a D.C. generator tachometer are:
ENGINES 25.
The electronic tachometer sensor is composed of?
ENGINES 26.
The advantages of an electrical induction tachometer are:
ENGINES 28.
The sensors used to measure the exhaust gas temperature on an aircraft equipped
with turbojets are?
a. Thermocouples.
b. Based on metallic parts whose expansion/contraction is measured.
c. Based on metallic conductors whose resistance increases linearly with
temperature.
d. Capacitors whose capacity varies proportionally with temperature.
ENGINES 29.
The red pointer which is normally on the red line on the EGT (Exhaust Gas
Temperature) indicators?
ENGINES 30.
A Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) has the following functions:
ENGINES 32.
The operating principle of an "electronic" tachometer is to measure the?
ENGINES 33.
In a 3-phase synchronous motor type tachometer indicator:
ENGINES 34.
The two main sources of information used to calculate turbojet thrust are the?
a. Fan rotation speed (or N1) or the total pressure at the low pressure turbine
outlet.
b. Fan rotation speed (or N1) or the EPR (Engine Pressure Ratio).
c. High pressure turbine rotation speed or the EPR (Engine Pressure
Ratio).
d. Fan rotation speed (or N1) or the total pressure a t the high pressure
compressor outlet.
ENGINES 35.
To permit turbine exit temperatures to be measured, gas turbines are equipped
with thermometers which work on the following principle?
a. Gas pressure.
b. Thermocouple.
c. Bi-metallic strip.
d. Liquid expansion.
ENGINES 36.
On an aeroplane equipped with a constant speed propeller, the RPM indicator
enables?
a. Control of power.
b. Selection of engine RPM.
c. On a twin-engine aeroplane, automatic engine synchronisatim.
d. Control of the propeller regulator and the display of propeller RPM.
ENGINES 37.
Torque can be determined by measuring the?
a. Oil pressure at the fixed crown of an epicycloidal reducer of the main engine
gearbox.
b. Phase difference between 2 impulse tachometers attached to a transmission
shaft.
c. Frequency of an impulse tachometer attached to a transmission shaft.
d. Quantity of light passing through a rack-wheel attached to a transmission
shaft.
ENG 38.
What type of sensor is employed to measure compressor air inlet temperature in a
typical turbojet engine fuel system?
a. Temperature probe.
b. Mercury thermometer.
c. Alcohol thermometer.
d. Optical pyrometer.
ENG 39.
A millimetric voltmeter measuring the PD across the hot and cold junctions of a
thermocouple, can be calibrated to indicate temperature by?
ENG 41.
Cyllinder head temperature on a piston engine is measured using a ........on the
..........
9
ENG 42.
Temperature is measured in aircraft engines by means of?
1. Thermocouples.
2. Mercury.
3. Resistive elements.
4. Capacitive elements.
ENG 43.
If one of the probes in a typical gas turbine engine EGT system becomes defective,
the indications would be?
a. Too high.
b. Too low.
c. Not significantly affected.
d. Lost.
ENG 44.
Cylinder head temperature measurement systems typically work on the ......
principle?
a. Thermocouple.
b. Resistive.
c. Capacitive.
d. Thermal expansion (bi-metal strip).
ENG 45.
Thermocouples are?
ENG 46.
Jet engine exhaust gas temperature is measured using?
a. A thermocouple.
b. A number of thermocouples connected in series.
c. A number of thermocouples connected in parallel.
d. A thermistor.
ENG 47.
The pointer that aligns with the red line on a EGT gauge?
ENG 48.
A temperature gauging system employing thermocouples can be graduated to
indicate temperature by?
ENG 50.
A cylinder head temperature gauge measures?
ENG 51.
Where is EGT measured?
ENG 52.
Where is EGT measured?
ENG 53.
If a ratiometer is used in the indicator of temperature measuring system rather
than an ameter?
a. Resistive probe.
b. Capacitive probe.
c. Thermocouple probe.
d. Bi-metal strip.
ENG 55.
What type of sensors are used in an EPR gauge?
a. Bourden tubes.
b. Bellows.
c. Aneroid capsules
d. Differential capsules.
ENG 56.
What type of sensors are typically used to measure carburettor inlet temperatures?
a. Thermocouples.
b. Resistive probes.
c. Reactive probes.
d. Capacitive probes.
ENG 57.
What type of sensors are typically used to measure engine oil temperature?
a. Thermocouples.
b. Resistive probes.
c. Reactive probes.
d. Capacitive probes.
ENG 58.
What type of sensor is normally used to measure inlet air temperature where the
signal is to be employed for altitude compensation in a conventional (non FADEC)
engine fuel system?
a. Liquid expansion.
b. Resistive.
c. Bi-metalic.
d. Capacitive.
ENG 59.
What does the amber arc on an EGT gauge indicate?
ENG 60.
If a remote sensing pressure measurement system uses a ratiometer rather than an
ammeter as its indicator, it will be?
ENG 61.
What measures inlet pressure?
a. Bourden tube.
b. Bellows.
c. Differential capsule.
d. Aneroid capsule.
ENG 62.
Arrange the following sensors in increasing order of the pressures they would be
used to sense?
1. Capsule.
2. Bellows.
3. Bourden tube.
ENG 63.
A capsule stack would be used to measure ....
pressure when a ...... mechanical
output for a given pressure change was required?
a. High large.
b. High small.
c. Low large.
d. Low small.
ENG 64.
What is a bellows used to measure?
a. Low pressures.
b. High pressures.
c. Low temperatures.
d. Density.
ENG 65,
Turbine outlet pressure is detected by?
a. Aneroid capsule.
b. Bellows.
c. Differential capsule.
d. Bourden tube.
ENG 66.
A remote sensing pressure gauging system measuring low pressures, typically
employs a ........ ..............
to move ........
The variations in are then measured
using a .................or ..............
7
ENG 67.
EPR is calculated by?
ENG 68.
A turbocharged piston engine has a rated boost of 10 PSI and a critical altitude of
15000 ft amsl ISA. If the aircraft is at a pressure altitude of 10000 ft climbing at
rated power, what will be its MAP?
a. 50 inches Hg.
b. 30 inches Hg.
C. 10 PSI.
d. Ambient static plus 10 PSI.
ENG 69.
Vibration meters measure?
a. Accelerations in g.
b. Frequency in Hz.
c. Amplitude at a given frequency.
d. Period in seconds.
ENG 70.
What does the vibration measuring system indicate to the pilot?
a. Relative frequency.
b. Relative amplitude.
c. Absolute frequency.
d. Absolute magnitude.
ENG 71.
Vibration is measured using?
1. Accelerometers.
2. Piezo crystals.
3. Inductive coils.
4. Capacitive elements.
5. Strain gauges.
ENG 72.
On what principle does a vibration meter work?
ENG 73.
A vibration meter indicates?
a. Frequency.
b. Pitch.
c. Period.
d. Relative amplitude.
ENG 74.
Vibration sensors on a turbofan engine are typically located?
ENG 75.
A synchroscope is used to?
ENG 76.
A vibration monitoring system uses ..........to measure ...........,filters out
unwanted ..........,
then indicates ..................,to the pilot?
a. Thermisters, radial movement, frequencies, absolute amplitude.
b. Accelerometers, axial movement, noise, relative amplitude.
c. Radiometers, radial movement, frequencies, absolute frequency.
d. Accelerometers, radial movement, frequencies and noise, relative
amplitude.
ENG 77.
Typical vibration sensors include?
1. Inductive coils.
2. Phonic wheels.
3. Magnetometers.
4. Piezo crystals.
ENG 78.
A tacho-generator RPM measuring system employs?
ENG 79.
A system which measures both torque and engine RPM employs?
a. A phonic wheel at each end of the output shaft, coupled to a device which
measures frequency and phase difference between the twp outputs.
b. A phonic wheel and a tacho-generator. The phonic wheel detects torque
and the tacho-generator detects RPM.
c. A phonic wheel at each end of the output shaft, coupled to a device which
measures frequency and voltage differences between the two outputs.
d. A tacho-generator at each end of the output shaft, coupled to a device which
measures frequency and phase difference between the two output signals.
ENG 80.
The drag cup in a tacho-indicator?
ENG 81.
The squirrel cage motor in a tacho-indicator?
a. Constant.
b. Proportional to tacho-generator output voltage.
c. Proportional to tacho-generator output current.
d. Proportional to tacho-generator output frequency.
ENG 83.
What is EPR in a turbofan engine?
ENG 84.
If the EPR gauge compressor inlet air tapping becomes blocked?
ENG 85.
If the EPR gauge over reads during the take-off run?
ENG 86.
Torque in a turbo-prop engine is indicated in?
1. Newton meters.
2. %.
3. PSI.
4. EPR.
5. Lbf ft.
ENG 87.
Turbo-prop engine torque is commonly measured using?
a. 1,2,3.
b. 2,3,4.
c. 1,3,4.
d. All of the above.
ENG 88.
The squirrel cage tachometer employs?
ENG 89.
An engine vibration monitoring system employs?
ENG 90.
Which of the following is least affected by variations in power supply voltage?
a. Variometers.
b. Galvanometers.
c. Ratiometers.
d. Rheostats.
TEMP 1.
Total Air Temperature is .......Than ........by an amount which is proportional to
a. Higher Static air temperature CAS.
b. Higher Static air temperature TAS.
c. Lower Dynamic air temperature CAS.
d. Higher Static air temperature LSS.
TEMP 2.
Total air temperature is .................
9
TEMP 3.
What is the ram recovery factor for a Rosemount temperature probe?
TEMP 4.
The formula for TAT is?
TEMP. 5.
The pointer that aligns with the red line in an EGT gauge?
a. Is movable to indicate when temperatures have exceeded the red line limit.
b. Is painted on the glass.
c. Is moved only prior to flight.
d. Is moved to set lower limits when required by ambient conditions.
TEMP 6.
What types of thermometer are used in modern aircraft?
1. Resistive.
2. Mercury.
3. Capacitive.
4. Inductive.
5. Thermocouples.
TEMP 7.
TAT is?
TEMP 8.
The advantages of a thermocouple temperature gauging system are?
1. Self powered.
2. No moving parts in sensors.
3. Low voltages.
4. Not susceptible to resistance losses.
5. Suitable for high temperatures.
a. 1,2,3,4.
b. 1,2,3, 5.
c. 2,3,4,5.
d. All of the above.
TEMP 9.
A thermocouple circuit can be graduated to read temperature if?
a. Thermisters in series.
b. Thermocouples in parallel.
c. Thermocouples in series.
d. Rosemount probes in parallel.
TEMP 11.
An aircraft is flying at Mach 1at 36000 ft in the ISA. What TAT will a Rosemount
probe indicate?
TEMP 12.
The formula for total ait temperature is?
TEMP 13.
A TAT probe measures using the relationship?
TEMP 14.
A thermocouple system employs?
a. Two dissimilar metals joined at one end and a wheatstone bridge at the
other.
b. Two dissimilar metal joined at one end and a ratio meter at the other.
c. Two dissimilar metals joined at both ends and a moving coil instrument.
d. Tow dissimilar metals separated by a dielectric substance at one end and a
capacitive gauge at the other.
TEMP 15.
The resistive temperature sensing system is based on the fact that?
TEMP 16.
The bi-metalic temperature sensing system is employed?
TEMP 17.
Methods employed in sensing temperature in aircraft include?
1. Resistive.
2. Inductive.
3. Capacitive.
4. Expansive.
5. Seebeck effect.
TEMP 18.
At mach 2 a TAT probe will indicate +45' K in an ambient temperature of?
(assume K = 0.85).
TEMP 19.
Temperature sensing based on varying ... are ...than those using varying ..........7.
a. Current more accurate voltage.
b. Current less accurate voltage.
c. Voltage as accurate current.
d. Voltage less accurate resistance.
TEMP 20.
A Rosemount probe employs an electrical heater to?
FUEL 1.
The disadvantages of a float type fuel gauging system include inaccuracies due to?
FUEL 2.
A capacitive fuel gauging system measures?
FUEL 3.
What type of sensor if used to measure pressure output of a fuel booster pump?
a. Bourden tube.
b. Capacitor.
c. Aneroid capsule.
d. Bellows.
FUEL 4.
A capacitive fuel gauging system can calculate the mass of fuel by using the fact
that?
FUEL 6.
A volumetric fuel flow meter differs from mass flow meter in that only the latter
compensates for?
a. Changes in density.
b. Changes in fuel dielectric constant.
c. Changes in mass of fuel.
d. Changes in fuel pressure.
FUEL 7.
An aircraft with a compensated capacitive fuel gauging system is refuelled to a fuel
load of 45000 Kg. If the temperature of the fuel then falls from 15' C to -40' C in
flight, how will the indications vary? (ignore fuel usage in flight)
a. No change.
b. Increase.
c. Decrease.
d. Depends upon density and type of fuel.
FUEL 8.
A fuel flow meter measures?
FUEL 9.
The disadvantages of a float type fuel gauging system include?
FUEL 11.
Fuel mass flow rate is more important than volumetric flow rate because?
FUEL 12.
Modern turbojet or turboprop aircraft are likely to employ?
FUEL 13.
Modern turbojet and turboprop aircraft are likely to employ?
FUEL 14.
If the tanks of an aircraft employing a capacitive fuel gauging system contain only
water, the gauge will?
FUEL 16.
A float type fuel gauging system?
FUEL 17.
A paddle-wheel placed in the fuel circuit of a gas turbine engine initially measures?
COMPASS 1.
A direct reading magnetic compass will be affected by?
a. Soft iron.
b. Hard iron.
c. Aluminium.
d. Soft iron effect hard iron, and hard iron.
COMPASS 2.
The purpose of the torque motor in a gyro stabilised magnetic compass is to?
a. A westerly turn.
b. An easterly turn.
c. No turn.
d. Rapidly increasing oscillations.
COMPASS 4.
Magnetic heading can be calculated from true heading using?
COMPASS 5.
A direct reading compass will not be affected by?
a. Ferrous metals.
b. Transformers.
c. Magnetic fields.
d. Non-ferrous metals.
COMPASS 6.
The purpose of a compass swing is to?
COMPASS 7.
When landing in a southerly direction a direct reading magnetic compass will
indicate?
a. Easterly turn.
b. Westerly turn.
c. No turn.
d. Rapidly increasing oscillations.
COMPASS 8.
Permanent magnetism in aircraft is caused by?
COMPASS 9.
A magnetic compass must be swung?
COMPASS 10.
The greatest cause of errors in a direct reading magnetic compass is?
a. Turning.
b. Latitude changes.
c. Parallax.
d. Changes in magnetic deviation.
COMPASS 11.
The sensitivity of a magnetic compass can be affected by?
COMPASS 12.
When cruising on a westerly heading a direct reading magnetic compass will
indicate?
a. Northerly turn.
b. Southerly turn.
c. No turn.
d. Rapidly increasing oscillations.
COMPASS 13.
When taking-off on a calm day on heading of 45' in the northern hemisphere, the
compass will indicate .......
If the field is on an agonic line?
a. 45'.
b. More than 45'.
c. Less than 45'.
d. 45' only if the wings are level.
COMPASS 14.
The flux gate of a gyro magnetic compass transmits data to?
COMPASS 15.
Magnetic heading can be found from true heading using?
COMPASS 16.
In a remote indicating magnetic compass the flux valve?
COMPASS 17.
The output of the flux valve is fed to the?
COMPASS 19.
A direct reading magnetic compass will be affected by?
COMPASS 20.
Upon landing on a northerly heading a DRMC will indicate?
COMPASS 21.
The principal cause of errors in a direct reading magnetic compass is?
a. Latitude.
b. Magnetic deviation.
c. Parallax.
d. Turning.
COMPASS 22.
The function of the torque motor in a gyro stabilised magnetic compass is to?
COMPASS 24.
In an aircraft taking-off on a westerly heading in the northern hemisphere, what
will its DRMC indicate?
a. Southerly turn.
b. Northerly turn.
c. OsciNations about west.
d. No turn.
COMPASS 25.
To what does the flux valve of a gyro magnetic compass transmit information?
a. Errecting system
b. Error detector.
c. Amplifier.
d. Heading indicator card.
COMPASS 26.
he purpose of a compass swing is to?
a. Align compass north with true north.
b. Align compass north with magnetic north.
c. Align true north with the lubber line.
d. Draw up a compass correction card.
COMPASS 27.
From what does the flux valve in a IUMC get its power supply?
a. DC busbar.
b. AC busbar.
c. Internal self-exciter system.
d. It does not require one because it is made of perm-alloy material.
COMPASS 28.
A runway in the northern hemisphere is on an agonic line and heading 045 degrees.
If an aircraft with zero compass deviation takes off in still air, what will the
northerly turning errors be?
COMPASS 29.
In order to convert true heading into magnetic heading a compass card and ......
are required?
a. Deviation card.
b. Error card.
c. Map with isogonal lines.
d. Map with isoclinal lines.
COMPASS 30.
What will the DRMC indicate when an aircraft lands in a southerly direction in the
southern hemisphere?
a. Westerly turn.
b. Easterly turn.
c. No turn.
d. Oscillations about north.
COMPASS 31.
To improve the horizontality of a compass, the magnet assembly is suspended from
a point?
COMPASS 32.
A DRMC can be affected by?
a. Hard iron.
b. Mild iron.
c. Soft iron.
d. Northerly accelerations.
COMPASS 33.
The maximum gyro drift rate due to earth rate is?
COMPASS 34.
At what DRMC heading is roll out required when conducting a turn from south-
west to south-east at 45degrees north?
COMPASS 35.
At what point on the earth would earth rate wander and transport wander be zero?
a. North pole.
b. Equator.
c. South pole.
d. 45 degrees north and south.
COMPASS 36.
From what does a gyro magnetic compass torque motor obtain its information?
a. Error detector.
b. Flux valve.
c. Amplifier
d. Rotor gimbal tilt unit.
COMPASS 37.
What is the maxiium drift error that can be sensed by an uncompensated DGI?
COMPASS 38.
Magnetic dip angle at the south pole is?
a. Zero.
b. 45 degrees.
c. 60 degrees.
d. 90 degrees.
COMPASS 39.
Earth rotation at 45 degrees north will cause the spin axis of a directional gyro to
move?
COMPASS 40.
The DRMC in an aircraft accelerating for take-off on a runway with QDM 45
degrees, in the northern hemisphere, will indicate?
a. 45 degrees.
b. More than 45 degrees.
c. Less than 45 degrees.
d. 45 degrees as long as the wings are level.
COMPASS 41.
When turning right through 90 degrees to north, in the northern hemisphere, roll
out should be conducted on a heading of?
a. 10 degrees.
b. 20 degrees.
c. 330 degrees.
d. 350 degrees.
COMPASS 42.
A magnetic compass must be swung after?
a. Amplifier.
b. Gyro precessing torque motor.
c. Error detector.
d. Indicator.
COMPASS 44.
When turning from SE to SW at 50 degrees north, the roll out should occur at?
a. 180 degrees.
b. 210 degrees.
c. 225 degrees.
d. 245 degrees.
COMPASS 45.
When turning from SW to SE at 45 degrees north, the roll out should occur at?
a. 115 degrees.
b. 135 degrees.
c. 140 degrees.
d. 150 degrees.
COMPASS 46.
What will the compass indicate as an aircraft lands and decelerates on a westerly
heading on the magnetic equator?
a. Turn to south.
b. Turn to west.
c. Oscillations.
d. No turn.
COMPASS 47.
If the ADF pointer indicates 270 degrees when the RMI rose is stuck at 075
degrees, what is the relative bearing of the beacon?
a. 290 degrees.
b. 110 degrees.
c. 195 degrees.
d. It cannot be determined from this information.
COMPASS 48.
What are the errors in a DGI?
1. Transport wander.
2. Earth rate.
3. Heading errors when banking and pitching.
4. Mechanical imperfections.
a. 1,2,3.
b. 1,2,4.
c. 2,3,4.
d. All of the above.
COMPASS 49.
What is the function of the latitude nut on a DI?
COMPASS 50.
What error is introduced into a DGI due to movement of the gyro relative to the
earth?
a. Transport wander.
b. Earth rate error.
c. Altitude error.
d. Latitude error.
COMPASS 51.
One of the factors causing error in a DRMC is?
COMPASS 52.
The flux valve in a RIMC requires?
a. DC power supply.
b. AC power supply.
c. No external power supply.
d. AC and DC power supply.
COMPASS 53.
In the northern hemisphere, the direct reading compass card of an aircraft
decelerating on an easterly heading will turn .......
and will ...........
3
COMPASS 54.
If an aircraft in the northern hemisphere accelerates on a westerly heading, the
compass needle moves ..........
indicating a turn to the ..........
3
a. Clockwise north.
b. Clockwise south.
c. Anti-clockwise north.
d. Anti-clockwise south.
COMPASS 55.
A perfectly frictionless DI is corrected to give zero drift at 30 degrees north, and its
DI is set to indicate 100 degrees. If it remains stationary on the ground for 1 hour
what will the indication be?
a. 100 degrees.
b. 92.5 degrees.
c. 107.5 degrees.
d. 75 degrees.
COMPASS 56.
If the ADF pointer indicates 240 degrees when the RMI rose is stuck at 090
degrees, what is the relative bearing of the beacon?
a. Zero degrees.
b. 150 degrees.
c. 180 degrees.
d. I t cannot be determined from this information.
COMPASS 57.
When an aircraft lands on a southerly heading in the southern hemisphere, the
DRMC will indicate?
COMPASS 59.
What will a DRMC indicate when taking-off on a runway with QDM 045 in the
southern hemisphere?
a. Turn north.
b. Turn south
c. No turn.
d. Oscillations.
COMPASS 60.
The roll out must be performed at ........when turning from SW to SE in the
northern hemisphere?
a. 135 degrees.
b. 115 degrees.
c. 145 degrees.
d. 160 degrees.
COMPASS 61.
The roll out must be performed at ........when turning from NW to NE in the
southern hemisphere?
a. 025 degrees.
b. 045 degrees.
c. 055 degrees.
d. 035 degrees.
COMPASS 62.
The roll out must be performed at ........when turning from NW to SE in the
northern hemisphere?
a. 145 degrees.
b. 125 degrees.
c. 155 degrees.
d. 135 degrees.
COMPASS 63.
The roll out must be performed at ........when turning from NW to SE in the
southern hemisphere?
a. 115 degrees.
b. 125 degrees.
c. 135 degrees.
d. 145 degrees.
COMPASS 64.
If the ADF pointer indicates 200 degrees when the RMI rose is stuck at 090
degrees, what is the relative bearing of the beacon?
a. 290 degrees.
b. 110 degrees.
c. 180 degrees.
d. It cannot be determined from this information.
COMPASS 65.
If the ADP pointer indicates 270 degrees when the RMI rose is stuck at 090
degrees, what is the relative bearing of the beacon?
a. 290 degrees.
b. 110 degrees.
c. 180 degrees.
d. It cannot be determined from this information.
COMPASS 66.
If the ADP pointer indicates 120 degrees when the RMI rose is stuck at 080
degrees, what is the relative bearing of the beacon?
a. 200 degrees.
b. 80 degrees.
c. 40 degrees.
d. It cannot be determined from this information.
COMPASS 67.
What will the compass indicate as an aircraft lands and decelerates on a westerly
heading in the northern hemisphere?
a. Turn to south.
b. Turn to west.
c. Oscillations.
d. No turn.
WARN/REC 1.
The FDR in a JAR certificated aircraft must be located in ?
a. The front.
b. The back
c. The undercarriage bay.
d. The outer wings.
WARNIREC 2.
In an aircraft certificated under JAR since 1 April 1998 the CVR must record for?
a. 30 minutes.
b. 2 hours.
C. 8 hours.
d. 72 hours.
WARNIREC 3.
A basic stall warning system monitors?
a. A of A.
b. CAS.
c. Mach number.
d. Slat and flap position.
WARN/REC 4.
In an aircraft of more than 5700 Kg mass certificated under JAR after April 1998,
the FDR must record for?
a. 30 minutes.
b. 60 minutes.
c. 10 hours.
d. 25 hours.
WARNIREC 5.
Between what heights is GPWS active?
a. Radio conversations.
b. Cabin crew conversations.
c. Crew conversations on intercom.
d. Public address announcements and cockpit discussions.
WARN/REC 7.
GPWS must provide?
a. Visual warnings.
b. Aural and visual warnings.
c. Aural warnings which may be supplemented by visual warnings.
d. Visual and aural warnings, which may be supplemented by tactile warnings.
WARN/REC 8.
A stall warning system in a large JAR certificated aircraft must include?
WARNIREC 9.
An altitude warning system?
WARN/REC 10.
A combined FDR and CVR records?
WARNIREC 12.
The FDR starts recording when?
WARN/REC 13.
For certification of a heavy aircraft after 1 April 1998 the FDR and CVR must
record for.......and ......respectively.
a 10 hours 1 hour.
b. 10 hours 2 hours.
c. 25 hours 1 hour.
d. 25 hours 2 hours.
W&&NIREC 14.
GPWS modes include?
StaU.
Inearrect flap pasition.
High a1titad.e- descents.
High ROC.
Excessive glideslope deviations.
Loss of altitude after take-off and go-around.
Excessive sink rate.
WARN/REC 15.
GPWS can indicate?
WARNIREC 16.
JAR OPS require a CVR to start and stop recording?
a. From when the aircraft is first able to move under its own power to the time
of engine shut down.
b. From when the aircraft is first able to move under its own power to the time
at which it is next unable to do so.
c. From engine start up to engine shut down.
d. From when the APU or first engine is started to when the APU or last
engine is shut down.
WARNIREC 17.
The GPWS mode 3 audible alert is?
WARN/REC 18.
A CVR system includes?
1. Microphones.
2. FDR.
3. Independent battery power supply.
4. Crash and fire resistant construction.
WARNlREC 19.
A JAR certificated altitude alerting system must be capable of warning of at least?
WARNmEC 20.
JAR OPS requires a 50 seat turbo-prop aircraft CVR to record.
WARN/REC 21.
A FDR must be fitted?
WARN/REC 22.
The altitude alerting system?
WARNIREC 24.
A JAR certificated CVR must record?
WARNmEC 25.
If sink rate is excessive the GPWS indication will be?
WARNIREC 26.
What level of voice recording is required in multi-turbine engined aircraft with 9
or more passenegre seats, certificated after January 1998?
a. 1,2,3.
b. 2,3,4.
C. 3,4, 5.
d. All of the above.
WARNIREC 27.
GPWS modes include?
1. Stall.
2. High alpha.
3. Excessive ROD.
4. Excessive terrain closure rate.
5. Incorrect flap position.
a. 1,2,3.
b. 2,3,4.
C. 3,4,5.
d. All of the above.
WARNJREC 28.
GPWS modes include?
a. 1, 2,4.
b. 2,3,4.
C. 3,4, 5.
d. All of the above.
WARN/REC 29.
GPWS will give an altitude alert warning when?
WARNIREC 30.
From what does the GPWS obtain its height information?
a. Barometric altimeter.
b. RADALT.
c. INS.
d. IRS.
. WARN/REC31.
In the altitude alerting system what lights indicate a deviation of more than 300 ft
from selected altitude?
a. Steady amber.
b. Flashing amber.
c. . Steady red.
d. Flashing red.
WARNIREC 32.
Over what range is GPWS operative?
a. 50 to 2450 ft agl.
b. 50 to 2450 m.
c. 50 to 2450 ft pressure altitude.
d. Zero to 2500 radio altitude.
WARN/REC 33.
The inputs to a modern jet aircraft stall warning system include?
1. Alpha.
2. Configuration.
3. Engine RPM.
4. Pitch attitude.
5. AOB.
a. 1,2.
b. 2,3,4.
C. 3,4,5.
d. All of the above.
WARN/REC 34.
The components of a modern jet aircraft stall warning system include?
a. 1,2,3.
b. 2, 3,4.
C. 1, 4, 5.
d. All of the above.
WARN/REC 35.
GPWS may give warnings of?
a. 1,2.
b. 2,3,4.
C. 3,4.
d. All of the above.
WARNIREC 36.
GPWS may give warnings of?
a. 1,2,3.
b. 2,3,4.
c. 1,3,4.
d, All of the above.
WARN/REC 37.
GPWS operates between?
WARNIREC 38.
The CVR in a 50 seat turbo-prop aircraft must record?
WARNIREC 40.
An altitude alerting system is required to alert the crew of a t least the following?
WARN/REC 41.
The flight deck FDR and CVR must be capable of recording for at least?
a. 15 hrs, 60 mins.
b. 24 hrs, 60 mins.
c. 25 hrs, 30 mins.
d. 48 hrs, 45 mins.
WARNIREC 42.
Which of the following are GPWS modes?
1. Approaching stall.
2. Excessive glideslope deviation.
3. Excessive ROC.
4. Excessive ROD. '
5. Incorrect flap position.
6. Sinking after lift-off and during go-around.
7. High altitude descent.
WARNREC 43.
The FDR must start running when?
WARNIREC 44.
What type of warning must be provided by a basic GPWS?
a. Light.
b. Aural.
c. Aural and light.
d. Tactile, aural and light.
WARNREC 45.
A basic stall warning system in a light aircraft senses?
a. MNO.
b. IAS.
c. Slat and flap positions.
d. Alpha.
WARNIREC 46.
The FDR in an aircraft of mass exceeding 5700 Kgs, certificated after April 1998
must be capable of recording for at least?
a. 30 minutes.
b. 60 minutes.
c. 24 hours.
d. 25 hours.
WARN/REC 47.
JAR OPS requires that the FDR must be located at?
WARN/REC 49.
A cockpit voice recorder must be capable of recording?
WARNiREC 50.
A flight data recorder is required in.. .....aircraft weighing more than 5700 Kg?
1. Turbojets.
2. Turboprops.
3. Pistonprops.
a. 1,2.
b. 2,3.
C. 3,4.
d. All of the above.
TCAS 1.
The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) is ,a proxiwty alarm system which
detects a "traffic" when the conflicting traffic is equipped with a?
TCAS 3.
The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) gives avoidance resolutions?
TCAS 4.
In the event of a conflict, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) will
give information such as?
d. Climbfdescent.
TCAS 5.
The principle of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems) is based on the
use of?
TCAS 6.
The use of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) for avoiding an aircraft
in flight is now general. TCAS uses for its operation?
a. Both the replies from the transponders of other aireraft and the ground-
based radar echoes.
b. The replies from the transponders of other aircraft.
c. The echoes from the ground air traffic control radar system.
d. Echoes of collision avoidance radar system especially installed on board.
TCAS 7.
A "TCAS 11" (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides?
TCAS 8.
The TCAS I1 data display devices can be in the form of:
a. 1, 2 and 3.
b. 3 and 4.
c. 1 and 3.
d. 1 , 2 , 3 and 4.
TCAS 9.
A "close traffic advisory" is displayed on the display device of the TCAS 2 (Traffic
Collision Avoidance System) by?
TCAS 10.
A "resolution advisory" (RA) is represented on the display system of
the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by a?
TCAS 12.
On a TCAS2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System), a corrective "resolution
advisory" (RA) is a "resolution advisory"?
a. Asking the pitot to modify effectively the vertical speed of his aircraft.
b. Which does not require any action from the pilot but on the contrary
asks him not to modify his current vertical speed rate.
c. Asking the pilot to modify the heading of his aircraft.
d. Asking the pilot to modify the speed of his aircraft.
TCAS 13.
When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a serviceable mode C transponder,
the TCAS I1 (Traffic ColIisio~Avoidance System) generates a?
TCAS 14.
When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a transponder without altitude
reporting capability, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) issues a?
TCAS 15.
The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) computer receives information:
TCAS 17.
The TCAS 1(Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides:
1. Traffic information.
2. Horizontal resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory).
3. Vertical resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory).
4. Ground proximity warning.
TCAS 18.
On a TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) the preventive "resolution
advisory" (RA) is a "resolution advisory"?
a. That advises the pilot to avoid certain deviations from the current vertical
rate but does not require any change to be made to that rate.
b. Asking the pilot to modify effectively the vertical speed of his aircraft.
c. Asking the pilot to modify the heading of his aircraft.
d. Asking the pilot to modify the speed of his aircraft.
TCAS 19.
What information will TCAS provide to indicate an intruder aircraft with no
altitude reporting facility?
a. TA.
b. TO plus preventative RA.
c. Preventative RA.
d. Corrective RA.
TCAS 20.
Where is the TCAS information displayed?
a. 1,2.
b. 1,3.
c. 2,4.
d. All of the above.
TCAS 21.
Inputs to TCAS 2 include?
TCAS 22.
The correct response to a TCAS R A is?
a. Immediately Turn 45' left and comply with the descentlclimb commands.
b. Do nothings because ATC instruction override RA.
c. Comply with descentlclimb commands immediately and smoothly.
d. Seek ATC approval before changing altitude, speed or track
TCAS 23.
TCAS is based on?
a. Ground-based radar.
b. Primary radar. .
c. Airborne transponders.
d. RT communications and direction finding.
TCAS 24.
TCAS 2 data is obtained from?
1. Radio altimeters.
2. INS/IRS.
3. Pressure altitude data from mode s transponders.
4 Additional equipment specific to each aircraft type.
a. 1,2,3.
b. 1,2,4.
c. 2,3,4.
d. All of the above.
TCAS 25.
Preventative RA's include?
a. Turn right.
b. Monitor vertical speed.
c. Climb now.
d. Traffic, traffic.
TCAS 26.
A preventative RA is represented by a .......On a TCAS PPI?
a. Red square.
b. Red circle.
c. Red lozenge.
d. Amber square.
TCAS 27,
When fitted with mode e transponders a TCAS 2 system may provide?
a. RA only.
b. TA only.
c. Horizontal plane TA and RA.
d. Vertical plane TA and RA.
TCAS 28.
What level of warning does TCAS provide to indicate aircraft not equipped with
TCAS?
a. TA.
b. RA.
c. None.
d. TAandRA.
TCAS 29.
TCAS will give.. .... warning of an aircraft without transponders fitted?
a. No warning.
b. Bearing only.
c. Altitude only.
d. Range and bearing.
TCAS 30.
Non-conflicting traffic is indicated by?
a. Red.
b. Yellow.
c. Solid cyan.
d. Hollow cyan.
TCAS 31.
TCAS 2 gives RA in?
TCAS 32.
TCAS RA is indicated by?
a. Amber circle.
b. Amber square.
c. Red square.
d. Red circle.
TCAS 33.
TCAS 2 display may be provided on?
a. Dedicated PPI.
b. Weather radar display.
c. EFIS display.
d. Any of the above depending on aircraft type.
TCAS 34.
TCAS 2 fitted with mode C transponders only can provide?
a. Ra only.
b. TA only.
c. Vertical TA and RA.
d. Horizontal TA and RA.
TCAS 35.
Other traffic not constituting a threat is indicated by ...... on TCAS?
a. Solid red square.
b. Solid yellow circle.
c. Solid cyan or white diamond.
d. Hollow cyan or white diamond.
TCAS 36.
Corrective actions given by TCAS include?
TCAS 37.
How should a pilot respond to a TCAS RA?
TCAS 39.
What corrective action is given by TCAS?
Contact ATC.
Climbing or descending right turn.
Climbing or descending left turn.
Climb or descend.
TCAS 40.
What does the TCAS indication (in red) at the right mean?
TCAS 41.
What does the TCAS indication (in red) at the right mean?
TCAS 42.
An intruder 250 ft above, climbing at 500 fprn or more, will be indicated by?
TCAS 44.
Other traffic is defined as?
a. Traffic not qualifying as proximity or intruder but within the display range
and within 2700 ft above or below.
b. Traffic not qualifying as proximity but within 16 nm and within 2500 ft
above or below.
c. All traffic other than proximity and intruder traffic.
d. All non intruder traffic within the range sale and within 2700 ft above or
below.
TCAS 45.
A TCAS TA is?
TCAS 46.
A TCAS RA is?
a. A resolution advisory which tells the pilot which rates of climb or descent to
use to resolve conflicts.
b. A resolution advisory which tells the pilot which rates of turn to use to
resolve conflicts.
c. A resolution advisory which tells the pilot which rates of climb or descent to
avoid to resolve conflicts.
d. A resolution advisory which tells the pilot which way to turn to resolve
conflicts.
TCAS 48.
When TCAS indications are provided on the VSI they will include?
TCAS 49.
How does TCAS indicate other traffic that is not assessed as a threat?
a. A cyan lozenge.
b. A cyan hollow diamond.
c. A white solid diamond.
d. An amber solid square.
TCAS 50.
On what principle is TCAS I1 based?
a. Radio altimeters.
b. Two S mode transponders.
c. IRSIINS inputs to the autopilot.
d. Ground based radars.
TCAS 51.
TCAS gives RA's in the ........plane?
a. Horizontal.
b. Vertical.
C. Lateral and vertical.
d. All of the above.
TCAS 52.
A TCASZ RA is indicated by ?
a. Red circle.
b. Red square.
C. Amber circle.
d. Amber square.
TCAS 53.
TCASZ RA's are?
a. Vertical only.
b. Vertical and directional.
c. Directional only.
d. Directional only on mode C SSR.
TCAS 54.
Corrective actions given by TCAS include?
a. Descend or climb.
b. Turn right or left.
C. Accelerate or decelerate.
d. Inform ATC.
TCAS 55.
TCAS uses?
a. Transponders.
b. Radio.
c. Barometric altimeters.
d. Autopilots.
TCAS 56.
TCAS is displayed?
1. EFIS.
2. EICAS.
3. ECAM.
4. Dedicated TCAS displays.
5. Weather radar display.
TCAS 57.
From what does TCAS obtain its data?
TCAS 58.
The symbol for a TCAS RA is?
a. Red circle.
b. Red square.
c. Red diamond.
d. Red lozenge.
TCAS 59.
TCAS corrective RA's include?
a. Climb.
b. Turn left.
c. Traffic.
d. Monitor vertical speed.
TCAS 60.
If an intruder aircraft has a mode C transponder, TCAS 2 can give?
TCAS 61.
TCAS indicates proximate traffic as a?
TCAS 62.
TCAS indicates relative height as?
a. Vertical arrow.
b. Horizontal arrow.
c. The position of the symbol.
d. A + or - sign and numbers.
TCAS 63.
TCAS indicates other non-threat traffic as a?
CRP5 1.
An aircraft is flying at an indicated altitude of 16000 ft. The outside air
temperature is -30'~. What is the true altitude?
a. 16200 ft.
b. 15200 ft.
c. 18600 ft.
d. 13500 ft.
cws 2.
What is the TAS when pressure altitude = 15000 ft, OAT = - l s O c ,CAS = 145 Kts?
a. 133 Kts.
b. 148 Kts.
c. 183 Kts.
d. 198 Kts.
c w 5 3.
What is the TAS when pressure altitude = 20000 ft, OAT = -20°c, CAS = 200 Kts?
a. 194 Kts.
b. 273 Kts.
c. 239 kts.
d. 296 Kts.
CRP5 4.
Cruising at FL390, M0.84, is found to give a TAS of 499 Kts. The ISA deviation at
this level is?
c w 5 5.
The velocity of the speed of sound at sea level in the standard atmosphere is?
a. 644 kts.
b. 1059 Kts.
c. 661 Kts.
d. 332 kts.
C W 5 6.
If outside air temperature at 35000 ft is -40°c, the local speed of sound is?
a. 307 kts.
b. 247 Kts.
c. 596 Kts.
d. 686 Kts.
ClW5 7.
An aircraft is flying at 310 Kts TAS at PL290, Temperature deviation is - 6 ' ~ . The
local speed of sound is?
a. 570 Kts.
b. 583 Kts.
c. 596 Kts.
d. 563 Kts.
ClW5 8.
An aircraft flying at FL310 is cruising at a CAS of 280 Kts. If the correct outside
air temperature is -4s0c, this will give a mach number of?
CRP5 9.
The temperature at the airport is 2 3 ' ~ ,what is the local speed of sound?
a. 615 Kts,
b. 644 Kts.
c. 671 Kts.
d. 694 Kts.
CRPS 10.
An aircraft is flying at 1100 Kts TAS at FL650. A change of 0.1M gives a change of
57 Kts TAS. The temperature deviation at FL650 assuming an ISA atmosphere is?
CRPS 11.
An aircraft is flying at FL290 at 500 Kts TAS, 0.86M, the temperature deviation is?
CRPS 12.
An increase of 0.15 in mach number results in an increase of 93 Kts TAS. If
temperature deviation from ISA is +~OC,the FL is?
CRPS 13.
An aircraft is flying at FL390, temperature is - 5 6 . 5 ' ~at mach 0.85. The TAS is?
a. 561 Kts.
b. 476 Kts.
c. 485 Kts.
d. 472 Kts.
CRPS 14.
An increase of 0.15 mach results in an increase of 93 Kts TAS. The local speed of
sound is?
a. 560 Kts.
b. 685 Kts.
c. 620 Kts.
d. 580 Kts.
CRPS 15.
An increase of 0.15 mach results in an increase of 93 Kts TAS. If temperature
deviation from ISA is +~OC,the approximate flight level is?