MICROPARA RATIO

5. To rule out a case of meningitis due to N. meningitidis in a

25 y/o patient, which of the following specimens must be
1.​ Part of the bacterial cell that can be virulence factor collected and processed for culture?
as it prevents phagocytosis is ____ A.​ Nasopharyngeal swab
a.​ Common pili B.​ CSF
b.​ Capsule C.​ Both
c.​ Endospores D.​ Neither
d.​ AOTA
A.​ NPS is submitted to detect carrier state. To detect if
the patient possesses the normal flora
a.​ Usually equipped with pili are gram (-) organisms
and is not common to all. Common pili/somatic pili
is for attachment; used by organism for 6. Urine specimen type to be submitted for anaerobic culture
attachment/adherence to host cell – which is the first is
step in establishing infection, the reason why a.​ Clean catch midstream
common pili can be a virulence factor but DOES b.​ Catheterized
NOT prevent phagocytosis c.​ Suprapubic urine
b.​ Not all are equipped w/ capsule. Possession of d.​ Random urine
capsule CAN be VF because it prevents
phagocytosis. (Examples: S. pneumoniae, H. Anaerobic culture prevents exposure to air. During collection,
influenzae - Typeable strain (compared to the we need suprapubic urine.
Nontypeable), N. meningitidis (capsulated strain)) Clean catch midstream and catheterized samples (for those
i.​ The noncapsulated strain of N. meningitidis unable to void) are needed for detecting
is considered the normal flora. aerobes/facultative anaerobes
c.​ Not all produce endospores - only 2 groups are
spore formers: Bacillus and Clostridium. Spores are
not considered VFs. Development of such can make 7. In the processing of sputum specimens for tuberculosis

6
organisms capable to be resistant to injurious detection, which reagent may be used prior to centrifugation?
conditions–but the spores are not virulence factors. a.​ N-acetyl-L-cysteine and NaOH – *most
recommended
b.​ Zephiran and Trisodium phosphate
2. Which of the following pairs between capsule component c.​ 4% NaOH – *commonly used
and species is incorrect? d.​ All of these
a.​ Alginate capsule - P. aeruginosa
b.​ Polysaccharide capsule - N. meningitidis
02
c.​ Polyribosyl ribitol phosphate - B. anthracis
d.​ None of these
If the presence of MTB is suspected, sputum samples are
submitted. Now, there are rules when processing specimens.
Several species under Mycobacterium are not agents of
pulmonary disease. Whenever we receive specimens for
Mycobacterium detection, know if it is sterile or non-sterile.
Polysaccharide capsules in nature - S. pneumoniae, K. ●​ If spx is sterile, we do centrifguation to obtain
pneumoniae, N. meningitidis sediments
a.​ P. aeruginosa are not polysaccharide in nature ●​ If spx is non-sterile (sputum), we need to do
b.​ It is correct pairing. digestion and decontamination.
c.​ Polyribosyl ribitol phosphate is for H. influenzae ○​ Commonly used for digestion and decontam
i.​ B. anthracis is also encapsulated. But, it is is 4% NaOH which is readily available in the
for polygamma D-glutamic acid in nature lab, and is double purpose (digestant and
t2
decontaminant)

8. In negative staining using India ink or Nigrosin, Gram (+)

and Gram (-) bacteria will appear
a.​ Violet
3. As to the number of flagella, this may be b.​ Red
classified as c.​ Green
a.​ Atrichous d.​ Colorless
rm

b.​ Amphitrichous
c.​ Peritrichous
d.​ Monotrichous We do not stain the organism itself. We stain the background.
The organism, will always appear colorless.

a.​ Atrichous - absence of flagella

b.​ Amphitrichous - with single flagellum at both ends 9. Which of the following components in gram staining
c.​ Peritrichous - multiple flagella procedure will color M. tuberculosis?
d.​ Monotrichous - single flagellum at one end a.​ Carbolfuchsin
b.​ Crystal violet
c.​ Safranin - counterstain
4. For routine blood cultures, which of the following is used to d.​ Methylene blue
prevent complement activation, coagulation and
phagocytosis?
a.​ 0.025% SPS MTB is a gram (+) rod, Acid-fast bacilli.
b.​ Heparin
c.​ EDTA
d.​ Citrate 10. Which is commonly used as counterstain in Hot and Cold
method of acid-fast staining?
Blood culture is used for ruling out bacteremia and sepsis. A.​ Methylene blue
What is used is 0.025% SPS B.​ Malachite green
EDTA and Citrate are NOT TO BE USED in microbiology. C.​ Safranin
-​ The use of white top tube with EDTA may be D.​ 0.5% potassium permanganate
acceptable if the manner of detection is via PCR.
-​ Heparin is used for viral culture. 0.5% potassium permanganate – counterstain for Auramine
Rhodamine mtd

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11. The so-called HBT, human blood bilayer tween used for G.
vaginalis is classified as what type of culture media as to
consistency?
A.​ Solid-liquefiable 16. In which of the following dyes will the organism appear
B.​ Solid non-liquefiable colorless?
C.​ Semi-solid A.​ Carbolfuchsin
D.​ Biphasic B.​ India ink
C.​ Methylene blue
In detection of G. vaginalis, we perform Whiff test and culture D.​ Crystal violet
spx in HBT, or look for clue cells.
Biphasic media - both solid and liquid A.​ Carbolfuchsin imparts red color (primary dye)
B.​ Correct answer.
C.​ Usual counterstain in acid fast staining. When used,
12. Which of the following pairs between culture media and imparts blue color.
use is incorrect? D.​ Primary dye in gram staining. Imparts violet/purple
A.​ Enriched media - BAP color.
B.​ Selective differential - CTBA
C.​ Enrichment media - Alkaline peptone water
D.​ Biochemical test positive - TSI 17. In acid fast staining, Mycobacterium species will appear
E.​ None A.​ Violet against blue background
B.​ Red against blue background
C.​ Red against a colorless background
A.​ Type of media with blood, which is enriched. D.​ Purple against blue background
B.​ CTBA (Cystine Tellurite Blood Agar) - selective
ONLY for Corynebacterium diphtheriae
a.​ Inhibitor: Potassium tellurite
Mycobacterium species are acid-fast species. Do Acid Fast
staining (whether hot or cold method) → remember CAM ⚠️
C.​ APW is an enrichment media for Vibrio spp.

6
D.​ We use TSI to perform CHO fermentation test.
18. In Acid Fast Staining, which of the following agents that
when applied will remove the carbolfuchsin initially absorbed
13. In Mannitol fermentation test for S. aureus identification, by the organism?
the media MSA contains _____ as pH indicator A.​ Acetone
A.​ Bromthymol blue B.​ Potassium pomegranate
B.​ Phenol red
C.​ Bromcresol purple
D.​ None of these
02 C.​ HCl + ethanol
D.​ 95% alcohol

Carbolfuchsin, for it to be removed, uses acid alcohol.

7.5% NaCl = inhibitor, other bacteria cannot tolerate this level

of salt except for S. aureus. 19. Choose the incorrect pair between culture media and
●​ Detects fermentation = acid production purpose
A.​ Bromthymol blue media = HEA, TCBS, OF media, A.​ CCFA - C. diphtheriae
Simmon’s citrate agar B.​ MSA - S. aureus
B.​ Correct answer C.​ BCYE - L. pneumophila
C.​ Bromcresol purple = Moeller’s broth (for D.​ MTM - N. gonorrhoeae (enriched CAP + VCNystatin
decarboxylation), LIA + Trimethoprim lactate)
t2
CCFA is used for C. difficile
14. Development of pink zone around the colonies is reported For C. diphtheriae, use CTBA (gray-black colonies), and
as a positive result in which of the following tables? Tinsdale (black colonies w/ brown halo)
a.​ DNAse test - dye method
b.​ Coagulase test
c.​ DNAse test - HCl precipitation method 20. The key component in bacterial pathogenesis of S.
d.​ None of these epidermidis is
A.​ Protein A
rm

a.​ DNAse + dye (could be methyl green or toluidine B.​ Protein M

blue) C.​ Beta-lactamase
i.​ Methyl green = clear zone around colonies D.​ Biofilm formation
ii.​ Toluidine blue = wait for pink zone to
develop A.​ Produced by S. aureus
b.​ (+) result is clot formation from rabbit’s plasma B.​ For S. pneumoniae
collected using EDTA C.​ VF of S. aureus
c.​ Uses 0.1 N HCl, (+) = clearing of agar around the
colonies
21. What is the detector reagent in PYR test?
A.​ Ethylhydrocupreine hydrochloride (optochin disk)
15. Differential tests for alpha-hemolytic Streptococci B.​ N, N-dimethylaminocinnamaldehyde
a.​ PYR and Bacitracin C.​ Tetramethyl-p-phenylenediaminedihydrochloride
b.​ Hippurate hydrolysis and CAMP test D.​ Ferric ammonium citrate
c.​ Bile solubility and Bile esculin test
d.​ Optochin Disk and Bile Solubility A.​ Optochin disk
B.​
Gamma hemolytic = Enterococci and Non-Enterococci C.​ Oxidase test
Alpha hemolytic = S. pneumoniae, Viridans Strep D.​ Indicator in bile esculin media (which is screening for
Beta hemolytic = Under lancefield group (important: Group A gamma hemolytic strep) (+) blackening of media)
Strep and Group B strep)
A.​ Used for S. pyogenes (beta)
B.​ Used for S. agalactiae (beta)
C.​ Bile esculin is a screening test for gamma.
D.​ Correct answer.

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22. Which of the following is not one of the components of
Modified Thayer Martin medium for Neisseria?
A.​ Colistin
B.​ Nalidixic acid
C.​ Nystatin 29. Which of the following culture media can be utilized for
D.​ Trimethoprim antibiotic susceptibility testing of Mycobacterium?
a.​ Middlebrook 7H10
Neisseria b.​ Wallenstein
●​ Thayer Martin = CAP + VCN c.​ ATS media
●​ MTM = CAP + VCN + Trimethoprim d.​ All of these
●​ Martin Lews = CAP + VCAnisomycin + Trimethoprim
●​ NYC = CAP + VCAmphotericin B + Trimethoprim
Usual media used is MHA.
Middlebrook 7H10 is agar-based media and will appear
23. In superoxol test for N. gonorrhoeae, this is reported as CLEAR.
B and C are opaque media because they have egg and
CANNOT be used as substitute for AST.

____
a.​ Positive 30. Kovac’s reagent containing p-dimehtylaminobenzaldehyde
b.​ Negative is added to detect the production of
c.​ Doubtful result a.​ Ammonia
b.​ Acetoin
c.​ H2O2
24. The pathogenicity of C. tetani and C. botulinum is due to NO CORRECT ANSWER
their ability to
A.​ Produce neurotoxin A.​ Ammonia is the end product of urease test.

6
B.​ Produce spores B.​ Acetoin is detected in VP test.
C.​ Resist stomach acids C.​ Kovac’s detects production of indole - do indole test,
D.​ A & B only which is part of IMVIC.

These are organisms that could trigger paralysis.

●​ Spastic paralysis - tetani 31. Cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin agar is the best medium for
●​ Flaccid - botulinum
02
-​ Neurotoxin is their VF that could trigger paralysis.
-​ Tetanospasmin = tetani
-​ Botulinum toxin = botulinum
the isolation of
a.​ Proteus spp.
b.​ Edwardisella spp.
c.​ Serratia spp.
d.​ Yersinia spp.

25. ___ are slow growing Mycobacteria which may be All are Enterobacterales. The only group positive for CIN is
pigmented when grown in the dark and when exposed to light Yersinia, specifically Yersinia enterocolitica.
and re-incubated, the pigment does not intensify Outside of Enterobacterales, org. That can produce growth is
a.​ Photochromogens Aeromonas
b.​ Scotochromogens
c.​ Non-photochromogens
d.​ Rapid growers ((+) growth in 3-5 days) 32. The ability of an organism to deaminate phenylalanine in
t2
phenylalanine agar is determined using
A.​ 1% alpha-naphthol (VP test)
26. Which reagent(s) is(are) used to detect end-product of the B.​ 2N sodium carbonate (Arysulfatase test)
Vogues Proskauer Test? C.​ 2% sulfanilamide (Nitrate reduction)
A.​ 10% ferric chloride (Deaminase test) D.​ 10% ferric chloride
B.​ 5% a-naphthol and 40% KOH
C.​ KOVAC’s or Ehrlich’s (SIM) For deaminase testing, LIA, phenylalanine agar, tryptophan
D.​ Methyl red (MR) agar are possible candidates to be used.
rm

●​ VP Test requires MRVP broth for inoculation, then

incubation, then adding a-naphthol and KOH.
33. The following media can be used to detect hydrogen
sulfide production except
27. Non-fermenters produce what reaction in TSI? A.​ LIA
A.​ Alkaline slant, neutral butt B.​ HEA
B.​ Acid slant, acid butt C.​ SIM
C.​ Alkaline slant, alkaline butt D.​ MacConkey
D.​ Alkaline slant, acid butt
LIA and SIM are biochem test media used to perform
TSI contains phenol red as pH indicator. biochemical tests.
Acid = yellow, Alkaline = remains red. ●​
●​ NF = Red/red | NLF = Red/Yellow | LF = Yellow/Yellow HEA and MacConkey are isolation media
MacConkey does NOT have an indicator for H2S
production.
28. If the (-) nitrate reduction test does not change color
following the addition of powdered zinc, how is it reported REMEMBER.
a.​ Positive ●​ LIA and HEAH2S indicator = Ferric ammonium citrate
b.​ Doubtful ●​ SIM H2S indicator: Ferrous ammonium sulfate
c.​ negative

Na nitrate broth (inoculate then incubate) + add sulfanilic acid 34. A positive decarboxylation/dihydrolation reaction is
and N-n dimethyl-L naphthylamine = (+) Red. indicated by what color on Moeller’s broth?
No color change - negative; we add ZINC to confirm it is truly A.​ Red
negative B.​ Yellow
No color change after adding ZINC = report as POSITIVE C.​ Purple
red after ZINC = report as NEGATIVE
Two media are used (Moeller’s and LIA) for decarboxylase
test. (+) is purple.
Moller’s indicator = Bromcresol purple, Cresol red
LIA indicator = Bromcresol purple ONLY
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 42. How many tubes of oxidation fermentation media is/are
35. Which of the following genera is characterized by rapid inoculated and what precautions should be taken
urease activity and typical swarming ability on BAP? A.​ 1 tube, under aerobic condition
A.​ Proteus B.​ 2 tubes, 1 covered with oil so air is excluded
B.​ Providencia C.​ 3 tubes, under anaerobic condition
C.​ Yersinia D.​ 2 tubes, under aerobic condition
D.​ Hafnia

Rapid Urease = (+) in 4 hours 43. Which of the following characterizes Bacillus anthracis?
Swarming (+) a.​ Non-motile and alpha hemolytic
Deaminase (+) b.​ Motile & beta hemolytic
c.​ Non-motile and gamma hemolytic
d.​ Motile & gamma hemolytic
36. The organism known for its stormy fermentation and
double zone of beta hemolysis under anaerobic conditions
causes 44. Which of the following spore forming rods can induce
A.​ Botulism flaccid paralysis because of the release of a potent
B.​ Gas gangrene neurotoxin?
C.​ Pseudomembranous colitis A.​ Clostridium difficile
D.​ Tetanus B.​ Clostridium botulinum
E.​ None of these C.​ Clostridium tetani
D.​ Clostridium perfringens
C. perfringens
A.​ Diarrhea
B.​ Correct ans
37. All of the following growth characteristics are true of C.​ Spastic paralysis

6
Bacillus anthracis except D.​ Gas gangrene
A.​ Inverted fir tree pattern on gelatin media
B.​ Colonies appearing like “comet tail”
C.​ Colonies with beaten egg white consistency 45. Enteric bacteria are mainly classified based on their ability
D.​ None of these to ferment various sugars including lactose. Which of the
following bacteria is a non-lactose fermenter?

Capsule, with the use of microscope

02
> Bamboo pole appearance, Centrally located spores, (+)

> Develops colonies that are tenacious/viscous due to its

capsule = beaten egg white consistency
A.​ Klebsiella spp.
B.​ Salmonella spp.
C.​ Enterobacter spp.
D.​ E. coli

“LF” Klebsiella, Escherichia, Enterobacter

38. The nitrate reduction test is one of the primary
biochemical tests in identifying M. tuberculosis, which of the
following biochemical tests is useful in the identification of 46. To detect late lactose fermenters, which of the following
lipase producing M. kansasii? tests must be done?
A.​ Tween 80 hydrolysis test A.​ Gelatin hydrolysis test
B.​ Niacin test B.​ DNAse test
C.​ Tellurite reduction C.​ ONPG test
t2
D.​ Arylsufatase test
A and B are tests we use to detect the genus Serratia.
All of these can be worked up in the detection of M. kansasii, ONPG test is used to detect LLF and is used to differentiate
most useful is A. Among the mycobacterium spp., M. kansasii Citrobacter (+) from Salmonella (-)
is Tween 80 hydrolysis test (+) in 3 days.

47. Red slant/yellow butt on TSI would mean that

39. Bromthymol blue is used as indicator in which of the A.​ No sugar was fermented
following media? B.​ Only glucose was fermented
rm

1.​ XLD (netural red) C.​ Both sucrose and lactose were fermented
2.​ MacConkey Agar (phenol red) D.​ Glucose, sucrose, and lactose were fermented
3.​ SSA (neutral red)
4.​ TSI (phenol red) K/K = R/R = (-) G, L, S
K/A = R/Y = (+) G, (-) L, S
A.​ 1, 3 A/A = Y/Y = 2-3 sugars (=)
B.​ 2, 4
C.​ 1, 2, 3
D.​ 1, 2, 3, 4 48. In which of the following tests is the development of pink
E.​ None of these color reported as a positive result?
1.​ Tween 80 hydrolysis ; 2. Vogues-Proskauer test ;
​ ​ 3. Arylsulfatase Test
40. Bartonella henselae can cause which of the following
diseases? a.​ 1, 3
A.​ Q fever b.​ 2, 3
B.​ Cat scratch disease c.​ 1, 2
C.​ Rocky mountain spotted fever d.​ 1, 2, 3
D.​ Trench fever e.​ None of these

A.​ Coxiella burnetti

B.​ Correct ans 49. Which of the following culture medium for Mycobacterium
C.​ R. rickettsi is not an egg-based media?
D.​ R. quintana A.​ Petragnani’s
B.​ Middlebrook 7H11
C.​ Wallenstein
41. Mycoplasma can be differentiated from other prokaryotes D.​ Lowenstein-Jensen
in that they do not possess
A.​ A membrane bound nucleus The rest are egg-based.
B.​ A rigid cell wall
C.​ Ribosomes
D.​ DNA
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50. All members of family Enterobacteriaceae ferments
A.​ Lactose 58. Rickettsia tsutsugamushi can cause which of the following
B.​ Maltose rickettsial infections?
C.​ Glucose a.​ Epidemic typhus
D.​ A and C b.​ Rocky mountain spotted fever
E.​ None of these c.​ Scrub typhus
d.​ Murine typhus

51. Which media is used for biochemical testing of enteric 59. Fletcher’s media is a useful media for the cultivation of
bacilli? which of the following species?
1.​ LIA; 2. TSI; 3. SIM; 4. HEA a.​ Borrelia recurrentis
b.​ Leptospira interrogans
a.​ 1, 3 c.​ T. pallidum
b.​ 2, 4 d.​ C. trachomatis
c.​ 1, 2, 3
d.​ 1, 2, 3, 4 a.​ Media used: Kelly’s media
e.​ None of these b.​ Correct answer
c.​ Non culturable
LIA = deaminase, decarboxylase, TSI = CHO fermentation, d.​ Obligate intracellular “cell culture”
SIM = H2S, indole, and motility
HEA is an isolation media (plating media)
60. Culture media must contain cystine, cysteine, and
thiosulfate when cultivating which of the following species?
52. Atypical mycobacterium that can develop in the dark are a.​ B. abortus
named as b.​ B. pertussis
a.​ Photochromogens (light only) c.​ F. tularensis

6
b.​ Scotochromogens (dark and light) d.​ L. pneumophila
c.​ Non-photochromogens (no pigment)
d.​ Rapid growers (+ growth in 3-5 days) F. tularensis uses BCGA (Blood cysteine glucose agar)
A.​ Castañeda’s
B.​ Potato Blood Glycerol Agar
53. The bipolar staining of Yersinia pestis that gives it the C.​ BCGA

using which of the following stains?

02
characteristic safety pin appearance can be demonstrated by

A.​ Malachite green (counterstain used in AF staining)

B.​ Auramine-rhodamine dye (Fluorochrome dye in AF
D.​ Buffered Charcoal Yeast Extract

61. Which of the following gram-negative bacilli is often

staining) isolated from airconditioning units?
C.​ Wayson A.​ B. bronchoseptica
D.​ Carbolfuchsin (1º dye in AF staining) B.​ F. tularensis
C.​ B. canis
If Wayson is not available, we can use Methylene blue D.​ L. pneumophila

“Legionnaire’s disease”
54. Which of the following Treponema pallidum subspecies A.​ Causes respiratory dse, is not isolated from
causes bejel? airconditioning towers
t2
A.​ T. pallidum subsp. carateum B.​ Zoonotic, causes Tularemia, ulceroglandular =
B.​ T. pallidum subsp endemicum common type
C.​ T. pallidum subsp pertenue C.​ Causes febrile disease
D.​ None of these

A.​ Causes pinta 62. What is the fermentable CHO in the Oxidative
B.​ Correct answer Fermentative Media of Hugh and Leifson?
C.​ Causes yaws/ Frambesia a.​ Sucrose
All of these are non-STDs. b.​ Glucose
rm

c.​ Lactose
d.​ All of these
55. Tertiary syphilic lesions are called
a.​ Gummas (tertiary lesions) CHO: Glucose, pH inidicator (usual): Bromthymol blue
b.​ Hunterian chancre (primary lesions) (+): Yellow, (-): Green/blue-green
c.​ Soft chancre (d/t Haemophilus ducreyi)
d.​ Condyloma latum (secondary lesions)
63. Which of the following diseases is NOT associated with P.
aeruginosa?
56. The so-called “school of fish” arrangement which can be a.​ Ecthyma gangrenosum
noted microscopically is exhibited by b.​ Erythrasma (causative agent: C. minutissimum)
A.​ H. ducreyi c.​ None of these
B.​ H. influenzae d.​ Hot tub folliculitis
C.​ H. aegypticus
A and D are also known as Whirlpool/jacuzzi hot tub
Aka “Fingerprint” appearance, Railroad track appearance, syndrome (they’re the same)= caused by PAE
School of fish PAE is also a cause of pneumonia.

57. H. influenzae, when inoculated on plated media develops 64. Primary syphilitic lesions are called
colonies that may resemble a.​ Gummas
a.​ Mercury droplets b.​ Condyloma latum
b.​ Dew drops c.​ Hunterian chancre
c.​ Water droplets d.​ None of these
d.​ Bird’s nest

a.​ B. pertussis
b.​
c.​ M. bovis
d.​ M. xenopi

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65. Gray to black colonies on Cystine tellurite blood agar 73. Observation of which of the following may indicate HPV
characterize which of the following Gram (+) bacilli? infection?
A.​ Listeria monocytogenes a.​ Tzanck cells - “VZV, HSV”
B.​ Bacillus anthracis b.​ Koilocytes
C.​ Corynebacterium diphtheria c.​ Clue cells - “G. vaginalis”
D.​ None of these d.​ Negri bodies - “Rabies”

CTBA is a selective media for C. diphtheriae, specifically its

toxigenic strain. 74. Antigenic drift and antigenic shift can be noted in which of
the following viruses?
a.​ Corona viruses
66. Infection with which of the following organisms is most b.​ Orthomyxoviruses aka flu viruses
likely to lead to a condition simulating acute appendicitis? c.​ Retroviruses
A.​ K. pneumoniae d.​ Arenaviruses
B.​ Yersinia pestis
C.​ Y. enterocolitica
D.​ Salmonella 75. All of the following Virus families include arthropod borne
viruses–arboviruses EXCEPT:
Aka Pseudoappendicular syndrome a.​ Togaviridae (except Rubella)
A.​ Is an agent of UTI and pneumonia b.​ Bunyaviridae
B.​ Causes plague c.​ Flaviviridae (except HCV, HGV)
C.​ d.​ Filoviridae
D.​ Some causes gastroenteritis, some causes
bacteremia, some serotypes cause enteric fever.
Shigella causes bloody diarrhea. 76. The hepatotropic virus spread via fecal oral route is
a.​ HAV
b.​ HBV

6
67. A gram positive, non-spore forming rod is isolated from a c.​ HCV
wound on a farmer’s finger. Produced no change in catalase d.​ HGV
test, Blackening along the stab line in TSI and on gelatin e.​ NOTA
media, no liquefaction but (+) “bottle brush” growth. This
organism is identified as: HAV and HEV
a.​ Erysipelothrix ●​ HBV, HCV, HGV = parenteral route, blood-to-blood
b.​ Lactobacillus
c.​ Pneumococci
d.​ Listeria
02 transmission

77. Detection of Galactomannan via ELISA can be a useful

a.​ Correct answer test for the detection of which of the following?
b.​ H2S (-) ; and is vaginal flora a.​ Fusarium
c.​ S. pneumoniae b.​ Talaromyces
d.​ Listeria is catalase (+) c.​ Aspergillus
d.​ Mucorales
All are opportunistic infections.
68. Which biochemical test used in the identification of
Mycobacteria requires heavy growth of the test organism,
extraction of metabolite and the generation of a yellow color
t2
78. Viral antigenemia test that involves detection of pp65 is for
as a positive reaction? a.​ EBV
A.​ Tellurite reduction - smoke-like gray precip. / black b.​ CMV
B.​ Nitrate reaction - red (+), after zinc = no color change c.​ HHV-6
C.​ Niacin test d.​ HHV-8
D.​ Urease production - pink (+)

79. Latent infections in man may be due to viruses classified

69. In genus Vibrio, considered lactose (+) is under family ___
a.​ V. cholerae
rm

a.​ Adenoviridae
b.​ V. mimicus b.​ Paramyxoviridae
c.​ V. vulnificus c.​ Herpesviridae
d.​ None of these d.​ Picornaviridae
All Vibrio are glucose (+), lactose (-) except Vibrio vulnificus.
80. Most viruses categorized under Family Picornaviridae are
spread thru
70. Of all the Shigella species, considered as late lactose a.​ Fecal oral route
fermenter is b.​ Arthropod vectors
a.​ S. dysenteriae c.​ Sexual contact
b.​ S. sonnei d.​ All of these
c.​ S. flexneri
d.​ S. boydii
81. Which of the following may produce lesions within and
outside the GIT
71. Which of the following is used for routine cultivation of a.​ Giardia lamblia
fungi? b.​ Entamoeba histolytica
a.​ Corn meal agar - for Candida albicans c.​ Balantidium coli
b.​ Rice medium - to diff. M. canis from M. audouinii d.​ All of these
c.​ SDA
d.​ Cazapek agar - for Aspergillus Balantidium coli only produces lesions within GIT, but is still
tissue invading
●​ Causes blood in stool
72. From the choices in #71, which can be used to stimulate Giardia lamblia will never produce lesions because this is
chlamydospore formation of Candida albicans? non-tissue invading
a.​ Corn meal agar
b.​ Rice medium
c.​ SDA
d.​ Cazapek agar

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82. Which of the following is the infective stage of Balantidium c.​ None of these
coli d.​ E. vermicularis
a.​ Cyst
b.​ Trophozoite
c.​ Embryonated egg - Ascaris, Trichuris, Enterobius 92. Infective stage of N. americanus
d.​ Oocyst - Cryptosporidium parvum, Cyclospora a.​ Embryonated egg - Ascaris, Trichuris, Enterobius
cayetanensis b.​ Rhabditiform larva - can never be infective
c.​ Filariform larva
If parasite produces cysts/trophs, its infective stage is always d.​ Oocyst - not a developmental stage of helminths, but
the cyst. protozoans

83. A pathogenic flagellate of the small intestine 93. Which of the following is the diagnostic stage of S.
a.​ Trichomonas hominis stercoralis
b.​ Retortamonas intestinalis a.​ Embryonated egg - dx of Enterobius (ovoviparous)
c.​ Giardia lamblia b.​ Rhabditiform larva
d.​ B and C only c.​ Filariform larva
d.​ Oocyst
A and B infect the large intestine
Do stool exam - do not look for eggs but RL
If hookworms are to be detected, look for eggs
84. Which of the following protozoan cyst is usually
uninucleated?
a.​ Endolimax nana (4) 94. Visceral larva migrans is likely to be caused by which of
b.​ Entamoeba histolytica (1-4) the following
c.​ Iodamoeba butschlii (1) a.​ A. caninum
d.​ Entamoeba coli (1-8) b.​ M. streptocerca

6
c.​ T. canis
d.​ None of these
85. All of the following characterize Entamoeba histolytica
trophozoite except:
a.​ Progressive and directed motility 95. Blinding filariasis is likely to be cause by which of the
b.​ With long finger like pseudopodia following

d.​ With ingested RBC in its cytoplasm

e.​ NOTA
02
c.​ Cigar shaped chromatoidal bodies (CYST only) a.​ Loa loa
b.​ D. medinensis
c.​ O. volvulus
d.​ M. perstans

86. The haemoflagellate transmitted by Reduviid bug

a.​ Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense (Tsetse 96. Which is commonly known as the Oriental liver fluke
fly/Glossina) a.​ M. yokogawai (Yokogawa’s fluke)
b.​ Trypanosoma cruzi b.​ H. heterophyes (Von Siebold, Dwarf fluke)
c.​ Leishmania donovani (Sandfly/Phlebotomus) c.​ F. buski (Giant intestinal fluke)
d.​ Babesia microti (Transmitted thru tick bites; Ixodes) d.​ C. sinensis
t2
97. How is S. japonicum transmitted?
a.​ Ingestion
87. Species of amoeba unable to develop cyst b.​ Skin inoculation
a.​ Endolimax nana c.​ Skin penetration of cercaria
b.​ Entamoeba coli d.​ Transplacental
c.​ Iodamoeba butschlii
d.​ Entamoeba gingivalis (troph; no cyst; nonpathogenic)
98. Sabin Feldman dye test is a diagnostic sero test for____
rm

a.​ Malaria - Examination of thick and thin blood smear

88. The most common form of extraintestinal amebiasis is: b.​ Filariasis
a.​ Pulmonary c.​ Chaga’s disease
b.​ Cerebral d.​ NOTA
c.​ Hepatic
d.​ All of these Before it was considered a gold standard for Toxoplasma
detection
Lesions in the GIT spread primarily to the liver. The lesions
can go as far as the lungs and to the brain.
99. Adult fluke equipped with a cephalic cone and branched
intestinal ceca is
89. Protozoan trophozoite likely to ingest RBC in its cytoplasm a.​ F. buski (resembles hepatica, but no cephalic cone)
because of its hematophagous nature b.​ F. hepatica
a.​ E. histolytica c.​ C. sinensis
b.​ E. coli d.​ E. ilocanum
c.​ E. gingivalis (w/ WBCs and food vacuoles)
d.​ E. nana

90. True of Naegleria fowleri EXCEPT: 100. An embryo enclosed in a radially striated shell appearing
a.​ Thermophilic and can survive in warm bodies of in feces may be diagnostic of which of the following parasites
water a.​ D. latum
b.​ May cause amebic keratitis (this is due to b.​ T. solium
Acanthamoeba) c.​ H. nana
c.​ Previously an ameba now a flagellate d.​ E. granulosus
d.​ An agent of primary amebic meningoencephalitis

91. Pudoc worm is technically known as:

a.​ A. duodenale
b.​ B. malayi

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