1. Which of the following statements best describes the cell wall?

a. The cell wall is only present in plant cells.

b. The cell wall is only present in prokaryotes.
c. The cell wall is present in some single celled organisms.
d. The cell wall is present in some multicellular animal cells.

2. Data from a FRAP experiment is shown below. Which of the following data curves best represents the
protein that is LEAST mobile within the lipid bilayer?

a. (i.)
b. (ii.)
c. (iii.)
d. (i.), (ii.), and (iii.) are equally mobile.

3. You are analyzing plasma membranes, and have discovered a new type of phospholipid that is located
on the leaflet that faces extracellular space. Where would be a logical place to look for this new
phospholipid?

a. On the side of the inner nuclear membrane that faces the inside of the nucleus.
b. On the cytosolic face of vesicles.
c. On the matrix-facing leaflet of the inner mitochondrial membrane.
d. On the exoplasmic face of the golgi apparatus membrane.

4. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. In a cell, phospholipids are synthesized on the cytosolic leaflet of the endoplasmic reticulum, and
never move to the exoplasmic leaflet.
b. In order to extract peripheral membrane proteins, one must destroy the phospholipid membrane.
c. Amphipathic alpha helices typically exist as transmembrane proteins.
d. Some transmembrane proteins do not have any alpha helices.

5. Which of the following includes ribosomes?

i. cytoplasm
ii. cytosol
iii. lumen

a. (i) only
b. (i) and (ii) only
c. (ii) only
d. (i), (ii), and (iii) only

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 6. Which of the following membrane proteins most likely corresponds to the hydropathy plot shown
below? Assume that the grey box is a phospholipid membrane. “N” represents the N-terminus, and “C”
represents the C-terminus.

7. A summer student has performed a modified FRAP experiment using a cell with a high number of GFP-
fused GPI-anchored proteins. Which of the following would cause the largest decrease in fluorescence
recovery time (after photobleaching)?

a. Increasing cholesterol concentration in the phospholipid membrane.

b. Decreasing the fatty acid tail length of the phospholipids in the membrane.
c. Increasing the saturation of the phospholipid hydrocarbon tails in the membrane.
d. Switching phosphatidylcholine to phosphatidylethanolamine.

8. Which of the following proteins use/uses passive transport?

a. The GLUT uniporter.

b. The Na+/H+ exchanger.
c. The Na+/K+ Pump.
d. Both A and B are correct.

9. You have identified a patient that contains abnormal intestinal epithelia. All the proteins are properly
distributed except for the GLUT2 uniporter. This transport protein is present on both the apical and
basolateral surfaces. Which of the following would be most likely observed in the patient?

a. An increased ability to absorb glucose from the intestinal lumen; possibly higher blood glucose.
b. A decreased ability to absorb glucose from the intestinal lumen; possibly lower blood glucose.
c. A nonfunctioning Na+/glucose symporter; possibly lower blood glucose.
d. A nonfunctioning Na+/glucose symporter; possibly higher blood glucose.

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 10. Which of the following best completes the statement below?

“Cells placed in a ___________ solution will __________.”

a. isotonic; swell
b. hypertonic; swell
c. hypertonic; shrink
d. hatotonic; shrink

11. A particular cell contains the Na+/glucose symporter and the Na+/H+ exchanger in its plasma
membrane. There is a higher concentration of Na+ and H+ in the extracellular space, and a higher
concentration of glucose within the cytosol. Which of the following will allow the Na+/glucose symporter
to continue functioning for the longest amount of time?

a. Adding more H+ to extracellular space.

b. Adding more Na+ into the cytosol.
c. Adding a chemical that inhibits Na+/H+ exchangers.
d. Adding a chemical that inhibits the Na+/K+ pump.

12. Which of the following best describes the sequence of events in a postsynaptic membrane that
experiences a nerve impulse?

The activation of….

a. chlorine ion-gated channels followed by ion-gated channels.

b. ligand-gated ion channels followed by voltage-gated ion channels.
c. voltage-gated ion channels followed by ion-gated ion channels.
d. chlorine ion-gated channels followed by voltage-gated ion channels.

13. A research student is working in a membrane potential lab and remembers that the animal cell resting
membrane potential varies from -20 mV to -120 mV. If she would like to make the membrane potential
more positive, which one of the following steps should she take?

a. Add Cl- to the cytosol.

b. Add Na+ to the extracellular space.
c. Add chemicals that increase the activity of the Na+/K+ ATPase and K+ leak channel.
d. Add chemicals that inhibit the Na+/K+ ATPase and K+ leak channel.

14. Which of the following statements concerning the pumping cycle of the Na+/K+ pump is the most
accurate?

a. In the E2 conformation, the pump is bound to cytosolic ATP.

b. The pump requires 2 molecules of ATP for every 3 Na+ and 2 K+ transported.
c. In the E1 conformation, extracellular ATP is bound to the pump, along with 3 Na+.
d. The E1 conformation is followed by pocket closure and ATP hydrolysis.

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 15. Which of the following would be the LEAST likely to occur?

a. A protein moving from the endoplasmic reticulum lumen to the cytosol.

b. A protein moving from the golgi apparatus lumen to the endoplasmic reticulum lumen.
c. A protein moving from a secretory vesicle to the golgi apparatus.
d. A protein moving from the cytosol to a chloroplast.

16. A pulse chase experiment was performed with radioactive amino acids. Most of the radioactivity was
observed in the cytosol after 120 min. Which of the following explanations is most likely correct?

a. The cells make a large proportion of cytosolic proteins.

b. Pancreatic cells were used in this experiment.
c. The cells require specific stimuli to activate their secretory vesicles.
d. This observation is impossible because all eukaryotic cells have a constitutive secretory pathway.

17. Which of the following proteins will most likely be found in the membrane of the golgi apparatus?
(“START” refers to an ER signal sequence, “++” refers to a positively charged amino acid region, “--“
refers to a negatively charged amino acid region.)

18. A scientist is studying a specific lysosomal hydrolase, and identifies a variant that has its N-terminal
signal sequence deleted. Where would this protein variant most likely be located?

a. In the lysosome lumen.

b. In the cytosol.
c. In the vesicle lumen.
d. In the endoplasmic reticulum lumen.

19. The release of acetylcholine upon calcium influx is an example of which of the following?

a. Oxidative synthesis.
b. Endocytosis.
c. Constitutive secretion.
d. Regulated secretion.

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 20. In order to track the protein shown below, you have taken its DNA sequence and altered it so that it
encodes for GFP-fused protein. The GFP is fused to the C-terminal end of the protein. Where will you
find the GFP in the cell? (“START” refers to an ER signal sequence, “++” refers to a positively charged
amino acid region, “--“ refers to a negatively charged amino acid region.)

a. In the cytosol.
b. In the endoplasmic reticulum lumen.
c. Free floating in the cell exterior.
d. In mitochondria.

21. Which of the following is located on the outer mitochondrial membrane?

a. TIM 22 complex
b. TIM 23 complex
c. TOM complex
d. Toc complex

22. Which of the following is most likely bound to γ-tubulin in a very long microtubule that extends from the
cell body to the axon terminus of a nerve cell?

a. α-tubulin.
b. Kinesin.
c. β-tubulin.
d. Dynein.

23. Which of the following can be bound to actin filaments?

a. Centrosomes.
b. Hemidesmosomes.
c. Adherens junctions.
d. Desmosomes.

24. Which of the following is a similarity between microfilaments and microtubules?

a. They are both composed of heterodimers.

b. They both require ATP for assembly.
c. They are both hollow cylinders.
d. They are both composed of protofilaments.

25. Which of the following statements best describes the actin filament ATP cap?

It is only composed of…

a. radioactively-labeled actin bound to ATP, and moves with treadmilling.

b. T form heterodimers, and conversion to D form will cause destabilization.
c. T form monomers, but it is composed of different molecules over time.
d. actin monomers with a cap of ATP molecules at the plus end.

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 26. A researcher has created a treadmilling microtubule in a test tube. Which of the following will definitely
be present in the test tube?

a. actin and ATP

b. α-tubulin, β-tubulin, GTP, and GDP.
c. α-tubulin, β-tubulin, GTP, GDP, and a centrosome.
d. α-tubulin, β-tubulin, GTP, and a centrosome.

27. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Tubulin heterodimers, kinesin, and dynein all directly bind to ATP.

b. Myosin II directly binds to GTP, but kinesin and dynein directly bind to ATP.
c. Myosin II directly binds to ATP, but kinesin and dynein directly bind to GTP.
d. Kinesin and dynein directly bind to ATP, but tubulin heterodimers do not.

28. You have three drugs that interact with components of the cytoskeleton. Phalloidin binds actin
filaments and stabilizes them; latrunculin binds actin monomers and prevents polymerization; taxol
binds and stabilizes microtubules. Which statement concerning the use of these drugs is correct?

a. Either phalloidin or latrunculin could inhibit the motility of a neutrophil that moves by crawling.
b. Only taxol could inhibit the motility of a neutrophil that moves by crawling.
c. Only phalloidin could inhibit the motility of a neutrophil that moves by crawling.
d. Only latrunculin could inhibit the motility of a neutrophil that moves by crawling.

29. Which feature of glycosaminoglycans allows the extracellular matrix in cartilage to resist compression?

a. Glycosaminoglycans are typically attached to lipids, and together these molecules help fill the
space of the extracellular matrix.
b. The negative charges on glycosaminoglycans attract cations, which in turn draw a large amount of
water into the extracellular matrix.
c. Glycosaminoglycans form stiff rods in the extracellular matrix.
d. Glycosaminoglycans are composed of proteins with extensive lysine crosslinks, allowing for
elasticity.

30. Which of the following contain claudins?

a. Desmosomes.
b. Adherens junctions.
c. Tight junctions.
d. Gap junctions.

31. Which of the following is true of epithelial tissue but not connective tissue?

a. In epithelial tissue, cells are always in contact with extracellular matrix.

b. In epithelial tissue, cells are never in contact with extracellular matrix.
c. In epithelial tissue, cytoskeletal filaments always provide resistance to mechanical stress.
d. In epithelial tissue, hyaluronan is deposited in areas between all cells.

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 32. Which of the following best describes the movement, from the beginning of synthesis to destination, of
the Na+/glucose symporter?

a. SRP moves it from cytosol to ER, dynein moves it from the ER to the golgi apparatus, and kinesin
moves if from the golgi apparatus to the cell surface.
b. SRP moves it from the cytosol to the ER, dynein moves it from the ER to the golgi apparatus, and
dynein moves it from the golgi apparatus to the cell surface.
c. Dynein moves it from the cytosol to the ER, dynein moves it from the ER to the golgi apparatus, and
dynein moves it from the golgi apparatus to the cell surface.
d. SRP moves it from the cytosol to the ER, kinesin moves it from the ER to the golgi apparatus, and
dynein moves it from the golgi apparatus to the cell surface.

33. Which of the following would be the most similar to having a lack of adherens junctions?

A lack of….

a. connexin interactions.
b. cell adhesion to the extracellular matrix.
c. claudin interactions.
d. cadherin interactions.

34. Which of the following proteins contains disulfide bonds near its C-terminus?

a. Desmoglein.
b. Collagen.
c. Elastin.
d. Fibronectin.

35. Which of the following proteins is the most important for allowing epithelial cells to adhere to the basal
lamina?

a. Occludin.
b. Integrin.
c. Desmocollin.
d. Cadherin.

36. Which of the following is “checked” at the “Start Checkpoint” of the cell cycle?

a. Whether the environment is favourable.

b. Whether DNA replication is complete.
c. Whether the chromosomes are attached to the spindle.
d. Whether organelle replication is complete.

37. How many centrioles are present in an animal cell during metaphase?

a. 2
b. 4
c. 6.
d. Greater than 2 but less than 4, due to semi-conservative replication.

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 38. A test tube contains an isolated fragment of a metaphase chromosome. Which of the following would
be the most logical way to determine whether this fragment is a centromere?

a. Check whether cohesin is present; cohesin is located at centromeres, but not at other chromosomal
regions.
b. Check whether condensin is present; condensin is located at centromeres, but not at other
chromosomal regions.
c. Check whether ATP is present; centromere regions will be associated with higher ATP
concentration than other chromosomal regions.
d. The fragment cannot be a centromere; centromeres nucleate microtubules.

39. Which of the following would be observed in cells that are permanently in G0?

a. Long kinetochore microtubules.

b. Kinesin inactivity.
c. Dephosphorylated lamins.
d. The lack of translation.

40. Which of the following is required during animal cell cytokinesis?

a. The Na+/K+ ATPase.

b. Microtubule depolymerases.
c. ATP.
d. GTP.

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