1. What usually includes the entire golgi apparatus?

a. The extracellular matrix.

b. The lumen.
c. The cytosol.
d. The cytoplasm.

2. What is a common property of phosphoglycerides?

a. They are symmetrically distributed on the lipid bilayer.

b. They have a polar head group and one hydrocarbon tail.
c. They are amphipathic.
d. They have two hydrophilic tails.

3. Phosphatidylserine, a phosphoglyceride, is normally present on the cytosolic face of the cell membrane.
However, when cells are dying, it can be found on the exoplasmic face. Which of the following is likely
active when cells are dying?

a. A phospholipid translocator.
b. A phospholipid redistributor.
c. An active transporter protein.
d. A passive transporter protein.

4. Which of the following best describes the protein shown on the hydropathy plot below?

a. The protein will likely be found in the lumen of the lysosome, and not in the membrane.
b. The protein will likely be found in the membrane of the endosome.
c. The protein will likely be found in the cytosol.
d. The protein has two transmembrane domains, with the middle facing the lumen of the lysosome.

5. Where are proteins anchored to the membrane by an amphipathic alpha helix most likely found?

a. Facing the nuclear intermembrane space.

b. Facing the outside of the cell.
c. On the cytosolic leaflet of the cell membrane.
d. On the exoplasmic leaflet of the golgi apparatus.

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6. A scientist is performing a FRAP experiment to verify the integrity of the intestinal epithelia. She
fluorescently labels the Na+/K+-ATPase on the basolateral side and then photobleaches the entire
basolateral side. Which FRAP data shows the healthiest intestinal epithelia?

a. The data labeled “A”.

b. The data labeled “B”.
c. The data labeled “C”.
d. The data labeled “D”.

7. The Na+/H+ exchanger is best described as…

a. an active channel protein.

b. a passive transporter protein.
c. an active transporter protein.
d. a passive channel protein.

8. A doctor believes that a patient may have ingested ouabain, a substance that inhibits the Na+/K+ pump. If
this hypothesis is true, which of the following will be observed?

a. The patient’s cells will have decreased glucose.

b. The patient’s cells will maintain a neutral pH.
c. The patient’s extracellular spaces will have an extremely high Na+ concentration.
d. The patient’s lysosomes will have a lower pH.

9. A scientist has created a liposome with only a K+ leak channel in the membrane. He then changes the
buffers and adds K+ to the outside of the liposome so that it is higher in concentration than the inside of the
liposome. He observes that K+ moves through the channel from the inside to the outside. Why might this be
the case?

a. Leak channels only allow the movement of ions in one direction, from the inside to the outside.
b. This liposome has a very positive membrane potential.
c. Leak channels require the Na+/K+ pump to function as a channel.
d. Liposome bilayers are always permeable to K+ ions.

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10. Which of the following is NOT an active transport protein?

a. The GLUT uniporter.

b. The Na+/glucose symporter.
c. Light-driven pumps.
d. V-type ATPases.

11. The E2 conformation of the Na+/K+ ATPase is best described as…

a. open on the cytosolic side and bound to ATP on the cytosolic side.
b. open on the extracellular side and bound to a phosphate group on the cytosolic side.
c. open on the cytosolic side and bound to a phosphate group on the cytosolic side.
d. open on the extracellular side and bound to ATP on the cytosolic side.

12. Under normal, physiological conditions, F-type and V-type proteins both…

a. directly use ATP.

b. synthesize ATP.
c. move H+ ions across a membrane.
d. move an ion against its electrochemical gradient.

13. A doctor suspects that a patient may have ingested a poison that destroys tight junctions. How can this
hypothesis be directly confirmed?

a. Take a sample of the patient’s intestinal epithelial cells; check the pH of the lysosome lumen.
b. Take a sample of the patient’s intestinal epithelial cells; perform immunofluorescence to detect the
location of the Na+/glucose symporter.
c. Take a sample of the patient's intestinal epithelial cells; perform immunofluorescence to detect the
presence of intermediate filaments.
d. Take a sample of the patient’s intestinal epithelial cells; perform immunofluorescence to detect the
location of the nuclear lamina.

14. What is in the membrane of a typical human cell?

a. Only one class of lipid (phospholipids) and only proteins with at least one region of 20-30 hydrophobic
amino acids.
b. A variety of different lipids and only proteins with at least one region of 20-30 hydrophobic amino
acids.
c. A variety of different proteins and only one class of lipid (phospholipids).
d. A variety of different lipids and a variety of different proteins.

15. What determines the orientation of a single-pass transmembrane protein?

a. The charges around the hydrophobic alpha helix.

b. The endoplasmic reticulum membrane potential.
c. The length of the N-terminal signal sequence.
d. The hydrophobicity of the N-terminal signal sequence.

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16. In a pancreatic exocrine cell, which of the following most likely possesses the highest percentage of total
cell membrane?

a. The plasma membrane.

b. The endosome.
c. The golgi apparatus.
d. The endoplasmic reticulum (including both RER and SER).

17. Which of the following most likely describes a lysosomal enzyme in the endosome lumen?

a. A protein that currently has an N-terminal signal sequence.

b. A protein that used to have an N-terminal signal sequence.
c. A protein that currently has an internal signal sequence.
d. None of the above. Lysosomal enzymes are not found in the endosome.

18. What is the role of SRP?

a. SRP stops translation and directly changes the conformation of the translocon so that the plug can be
removed for facilitated diffusion across the ER membrane.
b. SRP recognizes ER signal sequences and brings partially made proteins, along with ribosomes and
mRNA, to the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
c. SRP moves labeled proteins from the rough endoplasmic reticulum to the golgi apparatus, and then
finally to secretory vesicles.
d. SRP brings secreted proteins to the rough endoplasmic reticulum lumen, but does not bring proteins
that will be in the ER membrane.

19. Which of the following best describes a single pass transmembrane protein with its C-terminus facing the
outside of the cell? (Hint: Assume that “Signal” refers to an ER signal sequence, “++” refers to positively
charged amino acids, and “--” refers to negatively charged amino acids)

20. You have isolated a cell’s integral membrane proteins and phospholipids using a detergent. You then purify
a specific transmembrane protein that has one internal ER signal sequence. You incubate many copies of
this protein with phospholipids in a suitable buffer to form regular liposomes. Where would you see this
protein?
a. Inside and outside the liposome, but not in the membrane.
b. Inside the liposome, but not in the membrane and not on the outside.
c. In the membrane of the liposome; sometimes with the N-terminus facing the outside and sometimes
with the N-terminus facing the inside.
d. In the membrane of the liposome; every copy of the protein will have its N-terminus consistently
orientated in the same manner.

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21. Proteins must be unfolded if they are to be sorted to…

a. mitochondria.
b. nuclei.
c. peroxisomes.
d. any exoplasmic space.

22. Which structure is the most elastic?

a. A bundle of microtubules.
b. Microfilaments.
c. Microtubules.
d. Intermediate filaments.

23. Which drug(s) could you use to inhibit depolymerization of the mitotic spindle?

a. Phalloidin (binds actin filaments and stabilizes them).

b. Latrunculin (binds actin monomers and prevents polymerization).
c. Taxol (binds and stabilizes microtubules).
d. All of the above.

24. A microtubule protofilament always has…

a. α-tubulin at its minus end and β-tubulin at its plus end.

b. β-tubulin at its minus end and α-tubulin at its plus end.
c. β-tubulin at its minus end and γ-tubulin at its plus end.
d. α-tubulin at its minus end and γ-tubulin at its plus end.

25. Place the following in order from strongest to weakest:

i. noncovalent bonds between heterodimers on neighboring protofilaments

ii. noncovalent bonds between the tubulin subunits within a single heterodimer
iii. noncovalent bonds between heterodimers within a single protofilament

a. i, ii, iii
b. ii, iii, i
c. iii, ii, i
d. i, iii, ii

26. Which of the following best describes the microtubule GTP cap?

a. The microtubule GTP cap always consists of T form heterodimers, but changes in actual molecules.
b. The microtubule GTP cap is GTP added to the plus ends of microtubules in order to stabilize it, similar
to an mRNA cap.
c. The microtubule GTP cap is composed of GTP bound to GTP, forming dimers that are added onto the
plus ends of microtubules.
d. The microtubule GTP cap is formed by T and D form heterodimers at the plus ends of microtubules.

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27. Actin filaments treadmill when…

a. a great excess of actin is provided and actin filament length is 100% (0% monomers).
b. the addition of actin-ADP at the plus end is balanced by the loss of actin-ATP at the minus end, and
there is no net change in actin filament length.
c. the addition of actin-ATP at the plus end is balanced by the loss of actin-ADP at the minus end, and
there is no net change in actin filament length.
d. a pulse-chase experiment shows that a pulse of labelled actin monomers remains at the plus end.

28. What motor protein(s) is/are required to move a transmembrane protein from the endoplasmic reticulum to
the cell membrane?

a. Kinesin only.
b. Dynein only.
c. Kinesin, dynein, and myosin II.
d. Kinesin and dynein, but not myosin II.

29. A patient has a hereditary condition in which damage to their skin epithelia not only causes death to
damaged skin cells, but also to many neighboring skin cells. Which of the following is the most logical
hypothesis?

a. The patient has a mutation in a connexin gene; his gap junctions are always closed.
b. The patient has a mutation in a connexin gene; his gap junctions are always open.
c. The patient has a mutation in a plasmodesmata gene; his plasmodesmata are always open.
d. The patient has a mutation in a gap junction gene; his gap junctions close in response to Ca++.

30. Which of the following correctly orders junctions from most apical to most basal?

a. Adherens junctions, tight junctions, desmosomes, hemidesmosomes, gap junctions.

b. Adherens junctions, tight junctions, desmosomes, gap junctions, hemidesmosomes.
c. Tight junctions, adherens junctions, hemidesmosomes, desmosomes, gap junctions.
d. Tight junctions, adherens junctions, desmosomes, gap junctions, hemidesmosomes.

31. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Actin filaments anchor to adherens junctions, which form cell-matrix anchoring junctions.
b. Intermediate filaments anchor to adherens junctions, which form cell-matrix anchoring junctions.
c. Actin filaments anchor to adherens junctions, which form adhesion belts.
d. Intermediate filaments anchor to adherens junctions, which form adhesion belts.

32. What is a proteoglycan?

a. A specific protein with either a sugar, sugar chain, or GAG (glycosaminoglycan) attached.
b. Any protein with any sugar or sugar chain attached.
c. Any protein with any GAG (glycosaminoglycan) attached.
d. Any protein with any sugar chain attached.

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33. Which of the following proteins can be found in the endoplasmic reticulum membrane?

i. occludin
ii. elastin
iii. cadherin

a. i and iii only.

b. ii only.
c. i, ii, and iii.
d. iii only.

34. Which of the following is NOT a normal part of the extracellular matrix?

a. Elastin.
b. Laminin.
c. Fibronectin.
d. Keratin.

35. Which of the following is/are TRUE in a human?

a. All cells do not divide.

b. All cells only divide when given an appropriate stimulus.
c. All cells normally divide on an ongoing basis.
d. None of the above are true.

36. What occurs at the Start Checkpoint?

i. The cell checks that all the DNA is replicated.

ii. The cell checks that the chromosomes are attached to the spindle.
iii. The cell checks that the environment is favorable

a. iii only.
b. i and iii only.
c. i only.
d. i, ii, and iii.

37. Which of the following statements regarding the mitotic spindle is FALSE?

a. There are only two centrosomes in a normal mitotic spindle.

b. Polar spindle microtubules from one centrosome interdigitate with polar spindle microtubules from the
other centrosome.
c. Astral spindle microtubules, polar spindle microtubules, and chromosomal spindle fibers all have the
same diameter.
d. Astral spindle microtubules help to position the mitotic spindle.

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38. What can nucleate microtubules?

a. Centrioles.
b. Pericentriolar material.
c. The C tubule of centrioles.
d. Cohesins.

39. Which of the following correctly completes the sentence below?

“___________ of lamins causes nuclear envelope breakdown, whereas ___________ of lamins causes
nuclear envelope reassembly.”

a. Phosphorylation; dephosphorylation
b. Dephosphorylation; phosphorylation
c. Cohesion; condensation
d. Contraction; condensation

40. Which of the following best describes kinetochore microtubule shortening as sister chromatids move
towards opposite poles?

a. Microtubule polymerization at + ends but depolymerization at - ends.

b. Microtubule depolymerization at both + and - ends.
c. Microtubule depolymerization at + ends but no change at - ends.
d. Microtubule depolymerization at - ends but no change at + ends.

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