TERRITORIAL ARMY COMMISSION

OFFICER ENTRANCE EXAMINATION

PRACTICE TEST PAPER - 1
Max Time : 2 Hours (Please Read The Instructions Carefully) Max Marks : 100
Roll No……………………….. INSTRUCTIONS

1. Paper–1 has four parts:

(a) Part I : Reasoning (25 marks)
(b) Part II: Elementary Mathematics (25 marks)
(c) Part III: English (25 marks)
(d) Part IV General Awareness (25 marks)

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2. Each section carries 25 objectives type of questions.

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3. There will be four possible answers to every question. Candidates are required to mark correct answer.
4. For each correct answer, 1 mark will be granted and 0.33 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.
5. There will be no penalty for questions left unanswered.

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PART–1 : REASONING

that will continue the same pattern.

Q1. 1, 3, 5, 7 ?
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Direction In each of the following question a number of series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative
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2 4 8 16
(a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 11 (d) 12
32 17 34 35
Q2. 2, 5, 9, ?, 20, 27
(a) 14 (b) 16 (c) 18 (d) 24
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Direction In each of the following questions, various terms of an alphabet series are given with one missing term as shown
by (?) choose the missing term out of the given alternatives.
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Q3. R, U, X, A, D, ?
(a) F (b) G (c) H (d) I

Q4. PMT, OOS, NQR, MSQ, ?

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(a) LUP (b) LVP (c) LVR (d) LWP

Q5. _ _ aba _ _ ba _ ab
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(a) abbba (b) abbab (c) baabb (d) bbaba

Q6. 2ZG, 7Y7, 14X9, 23W11. 34V13, ?

(a) 27U24 (b) 45U15 (c) 47U15 (d) 47V14
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Direction Choose the correct alternative which shows the same relationship.

Q7. Ship: Sea :: Camel : ?

(a) Forest (b) Land (c) Mountain (d) Desert

Q8. Skirmish: War :: Disease : ?

(a) Medicine (b) Patient (c) Epidemic (d) Infection

Q9. Reading: Knowledge :: Work : ?

(a) Experience (b) Engagement (c) Employment (d) Experiment

Direction Choose the correct alternative which shows the same group relationship.

Q10. Violet : Orange: Yellow : ?

(a) Purple (b) Blue (c) White (d) Pink

Q11. Root : Stem : Branch : ?

(a) Wood (b) Leaf (c) Tree (d) Fertiliser

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Direction Choose the odd one out.

Q12. Find the odd one out.

(a) Malaria (b) Plague (c) Dengue (d) Tetanus

Q13. Find the odd one out.

(a) Necklace (b) Ornament (c) Bangle (d) Ring

Directions: In each of the following questions, certain pairs of words are given, out of which the words in all pairs except
one, bear a certain common relationship. Choose the pair in which the words are diffently related

Q14. (a) Sky : Cloud (b) Purse : Wallet (c) Cupboard : Almirah (d) Chair : Stool

Q15. (a) Malaria: Protozoa (b) Yeast : Fungi (c) Typhoid: Bacteria (d) Polio : Virus

Q16. In a certain code, BASIC is written as DDULE. How in LEADER written in that code?
(a) NGCFGT (b) NHCGGU (c) OGDFHT (d) OHDGHU

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Q17. If TRUTH is coded as SUQSTVSUGI, then the code for FALSE will be
(a) EGZBKMRDE (b) EGZKMRTDF (c) EGZBKMRTDF (d) FGZBKNRTDF

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Q18. If ‘paper’ is called ‘wood’, ‘wood’ is called ‘straw’, ‘straw’ is called ‘grass’, ‘grass’ is called ‘rubber and ‘rubber’ is called
‘cloth’, what is the furniture made up of ?
(a) Paper (b) Wood (c) Straw (d) Grass

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Q19. On another planet, the local terminology for ‘earth’, water’, ‘light’, ‘air’ and ‘sky’ are ‘sky, light’, ‘air, water’ and ‘earth’
respectively. If someone is thirsty there, what would he drink?
(a) Light (b) Air (c) Sky (d) Water

on the stage related to Rashi?

(a) Son (b) Husband lar
Q20. Pointing to a man on the stage, Rashi said, “He is the brother of the daughter of the wife of my husband.” How is the man

(c) Cousin (d) Nephew

Q21. Introducing a man, a woman said, “His wife is the only daughter of my father.” How is that man related to the woman?
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(a) Brother (b) Father–in–law ( c) Maternal uncle (d) Husband

Q22. Five persons are standing in a line. One of the two persons at the extreme ends is a professor and the other a business
man. An advocate is standing to the right of a student. An author is to the left of the business man. The student is standing
to

between the professor and the advocate, Counting from the left, the advocate is at which place?
(a) 1st (b) 2nd (c) 3rd (d) 5th

Q23. A, B, C, D and E are five friends. A is shorter than B but taller than E. C is the tallest. D is shorter than B and taller than A.
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Who has two persons taller and two persons shorter than him/her?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

Q24. Gopal starts from his house towards West. After 11 metres walking a distance of 30 metres, he turned towards right and
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walked 20 metres. He then turned left and moving a distance of 10 metres, turned to his left again and walked 40 metres.
He now turns to the left and walks 5 metres. Finally he turns to his left. In which direction is he walking now?
(a) North (b) South (c) East (d) South–west
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Q25. Raju drives 25 km North and turns left and travels 5 km and reaches point ‘O’. He, then turns right and covers another 5
km. Afterwards turns to East and drives 5 km. How much distance he has to travel to go back to the starting point?
(a) 30 km (b) 20 km (c) 25 km (d) 35 km
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 PART–II : ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS

Q1. Insert one rational numbers between 1 and 3 .

4 5
(a) 1 (b) 11 (c) 3 (d) 4
5 2 5
Q2. Fraction between 2 and 4 .
5 9
(a) 21 (b) 11 (c) 1 (d) 1
50 2 3 2
Q3. Find the value of :–
0.1 × 0.1 × 0.1+ 0.02 × 0.02 × 0.02
0.2 × 0.2 × 0.2 + 0.04 × 0.04 × 0.04
(a) 0.125 (b) 0.625 (c) 0.25 (d) 0.5

Q4. The number exceeds its one fifth by 20. The number is

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(a) 100 (b) 25 (c) 20 (d) 5

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Q5. Sum of factors of 24
(a) 50 (b) 60 (c) 40 (d) 80

If 3 x = 5 than value of x is

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Q6.
64 4
(a) 125 (b) 216 (c) 4 (d) 0

Q7.

Q8.
(a) 24 (b) 23

A number is as much greater than 10 as is less than 16

(a) 13 (b) 14
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Average of 7 consecutive numbers is 6.5. Average of smallest and greatest numbers is
(c) 22

(c) 15
(d) 13

(d) 16
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Q9. The enhanced salary of a man becomes ` 24000 after 20% increament. His previous salary was
(a) ` 21000 (b) ` 19000 (c) ` 16000 (d) ` 20000

Q10. Find the square root of :–

to

(0.064 – 0.008) (0.16 – 0.04)

(0.16 + 0.08 + 0.04) ( 0.4 + 0.2)3

(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 3

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3 3 2
Q11. The duplicate ratio of √2 : √3 is
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 4 : 9 (c) 3 : 5 (d) 16 : 25
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Q12. If x = 1 then (x + 1) is equal to

√2 + 1
(a) 2 (b) √2 – 1 (c) √2 (d) √2 + 1
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Q13. If x : y = 3 : 1 then x3 – y3 : x3 + y3
(a) 13 : 14 (b) 14 : 13 (c) 10 : 11 (d) 11 : 10
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( ) +( ) + ( )
3 3 3
x y z
Q14. If x = a (b – c), y = b (c – a), z = c (a – b) then the value of a b c

(a) xyz (b) 0 (c) 3xyz (d) 2xyz

abc abc abc
Q15. Three bells ring simultaneously at 11 a.m. They ring at regular intervals of 20 min. , 30 min., 40 min. respectively. The time
when all the three bells ring together next is
(a) 2 p.m. (b) 1 p.m. (c) 1:15 p.m. (d) 1:30 p.m.

Q16. A father is 7 times his son's age. After 4 years the sum of their ages will be 56. Present age of son is
(a) 5 years (b) 6 years (c) 8 years (d) 9 years

Q17. Ratio of ages of Namrata and Divya is 4:3. The sum of their ages is 28. Ratio of their ages after 4 years will be
(a) 5 : 4 (b) 5 : 6 (c) 6 : 5 (d) 3 : 4

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Q18. Two numbers are in the ratio of 3 : 5. If 9 be subtracted from each then they are in the ratio of 12 : 23. Find the numbers.
(a) 15, 28 (b) 36, 115 (c) 33, 55 (d) 60, 69

Q19. A man purchased two calculators for ` 900. If he sells first at the loss of 20% and second at the gain of 20% selling prices
become same. Then cost prices of both calculators are?
(a) ` 450, ` 450 (b) ` 300, ` 600 (c) ` 200, ` 700 (d) ` 540, ` 360

Q20. The sum and product of two numbers are 11 and 18 respectively. The sum of their reciprocals is

(a) 2 (b) 11 (c) 18 (d) 11

11 2 11 18
Q21. A wire when bent in the form of a square encloses an area of 484 sq.cm. What will be the enclosed area when the same wire
is bent in the form of a circle?
(a) 125 cm2 (b) 230 cm2 (c) 550 cm2 (d) 616 cm2

Q22. If the income of Ram is 12 1 % more than that of Shyam, the income of Shyam is less than that of Ram by
2

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1 1 1 1
(a) 11 % (b) 12 % (c) 9 % (d) 11 %
9 8 11 11

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Q23. In a factory the production of cycles rose to 48400 from 40000 in 2 years. The rate of growth per annum is
(a) 105% (b) 9% (c) 8% (d) 10%

Q24. A certain sum of money becomes three times of itself in 20 years at simple interest. In how many years does it become

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double of itself at the same rate of simple interest?
(a) 8yrs (b) 10yrs (c) 12yrs (d) 14yrs

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Q25. A certain sum amounts to ` 5832 in 2 years at 8% per annum compound interest. The sum is:
(a) ` 5000 (b) ` 5200 (c) ` 5280 (d) ` 5400
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 PART–III : ENGLISH

Analyze the content of the passage and then answer the questions that follow passage.
What needs to be set right is our approach to work. It is a common sight in our country of employees reporting for duty on time
and at the same time doing little work. If an assessment is made of time they spent in gossiping, drinking tea, eating "pan" and
smoking cigarettes, it will be shocking to know that the time devoted to actual work is negligible. The problem is the standard
which the leadership in administration sets for the staff. Forgot the ministers because they mix politics and administration. What
do top bureaucrats do? What do the below down officials do? The administration set up remains week mainly because the em-
ployees do not have the right example to follow and they are more concerned about being in the good books of the bosses than
doing work.

Q1. The employees in our country

(a) are quite punctual but not duty conscious (b) are not punctual, but somehow manage to complete their work
(c) are somewhat lazy but good natured (d) are not very highly qualified

Q2. According to the writer, the administration in India

(a) is by and large effective (b) is very strict and firm

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(c) is affected by red tape (d) is more or less ineffective

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Q3. The word 'assessment' means
(a) enquiry (b) report (c) evaluation (d) summary

Q4. The leadership in administration

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(a) sets a fine example to the employees (b) is of a reasonably high standard
(c) is composed of idealists (d) is of a very poor standard

Q5. The central idea of passage could be best expressed by the following
(a) The employee outlook towards work is justified
(b) The employee must change their outlook towards work
(c) The employees would never change their work culture
(d) The employer-employee relationship is far from healthy
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Choose the word which best expresses nearly the same meaning of the given word.

Q6. APPREHEND
(a) Catch (b) Explain (c) Instant (d) Instance
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Q7. BENEVOLENCE
(a) Kind (b) Malaise (c) Kindness (d) Start
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Q8. METEORIC
(a) Dramatic (b) High (c) Remedial (d) Intrepid

Q9. MITIGATE
(a) Heighten (b) Relieve (c) Misuse (d) Pacify
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Q10. ONEROUS
(a) Amorous (b) Effortless (c) Arduous (d) Inflicting
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In each of the following question, out of the given words, one word is mis-spelt. Find the mis-spelt word.

Q11. (a) Submitted (b) Admitted (c) Comitted (d) Omitted

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Q12. (a) Brillient (b) Brillient (c) Salient (d) Radiant

Q13. (a) Recuperate (b) Regulate (c) Reinstate (d) Seperate

Choose the word which best expresses the opposite meaning of the word.

Q14. FERVENT
(a) Keen (b) Apathetic (c) Vehement (d) Broad

Q15. GUILELESS
(a) Wily (b) Trusting (c) Tricky (d) Sure

Q16. ENDOW
(a) Revoke (b) Provoke (c) Invoke (d) Stoke

Q17. REFULGENT
(a) Lustrous (b) Lusty (c) Dull (d) Bright

Q18. INCISIVE
(a) Dull (b) Keen (c) Sharp (d) Interesting

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Fill up the blanks with the most appropriate word from the option given below.

Q19. A five-year-old boy was___________ from his school on Monday last by his servant for a ransom of Rs 8, 000.
(a) driven (b) arrested (c) escorted (d) kidnapped

Q20. He has already made up his mind on this issue. Now it is_________ to argue with him.
(a) sympathetic (b) vague (c) futile (d) contradictory

Q21. Her uncle died in a car accident. He was quite rich. She suddenly _________ all her uncle’s money.
(a) succeeded (b) caught (c) gave (d) inherited

Q22. I am fully ________________ the problems facing the industry.

(a) alive with (b) alive to (c) alive for (d) alive on

Q23. His most striking _____________ is the enthusiasm which he brings to everything he does.
(a) factor (b) attitude (c) characteristic (d) character

In each of the following sentences find out which part of the sentence has an error.

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Q24. In a democratic society every (a)/ voter has a (b)/ responsibility to cast their vote (c)/ in the election process. (d)/ No error

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(e)/

Q25. If the employees would have (a)/ succeeded in their attempt (b)/ they would have (c)/ achieved a good target. (d)/ No
error (e)/

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 PART–IV : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Q1. When the Sun is near the horizon during the morning or evening, it appears reddish. The phenomenon that is responsible
for this observation is
(a) reflection of light (b) refraction of light (c) dispersion of light (d) scattering of light

Q2. Why is argon gas used along with tungsten wire in an electric bulb?
(a) To increase the life of the bulb (b) To reduce the consumption of electricity
(c) To make the emitted light colored (d) To reduce the cost of the bulb

Q3. Silver articles become black after some time when exposed to air because
(a) silver gets oxidized to silver oxide
(b) silver reacts with moist carbon dioxide in the air to form silver carbonate
(c) silver reacts with sulphur in the air to form a coating of silver sulphide
(d) silver reacts with nitrogen oxides in the air to form silver nitrate

Q4. The optical phenomenon that is primarily responsible for the observation of rainbow on a rainy day is
(a) diffraction (b) interference (c) dispersion (d) reflection

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Q5. Bright light is found to emit from photographer’s flashgun. This brightness is due to the presence of which one of the

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following noble gases?
(a) Argon (b) Xenon (c) Neon (d) Helium

Q6. An emulsion consists of

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(a) one liquid and one solid (b) one liquid and one gas (c) two liquids (d) two solids

Q7. The chemical properties of an element depend upon

(a) the number of isotopes of the element

Q8.
(b) the mass number of the element
(c) the total number of neutrons in the element
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(d) the number of electrons in the outermost shell of the element

What is the maximum number of states of matter?

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(a) Three (b) Five (c) Four (d) Variable

Q9. Which one of the following is the first enzyme to mix with food in the digestive tract?
(a) Trypsin (b) Cellulose (c) Pepsin (d) Amylase
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Q10. Which of the following classes of animals has/have three chambered heart?
(a) Pisces and Amphibia (b) Amphibia and Reptilia(c) Reptilia only (d) Amphibia only
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Q11. Lysosome is formed from which of the following cell organelles?

(a) Nucleus (b) Endoplasmic reticulum (c) Golgi bodies (d) Ribosomes

Q12. In which one of the following types of connective tissues in animals does fat get stored?
(a) Adipocyte (b) Chondrocyte (c) Osteocyte (d) Reticulocyte
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Q13. Which Buddhist text contains an account of the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka?
(a) Vinaya Pitaka (b) Sutta Pitaka (c) Abhidhamma Pitaka (d) Mahavamsa
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Q14. Patanjali was

(a) a philosopher of the ‘Yogachara’ school (b) the author of a book on Ayurveda
(c) a philosopher of the ‘ Madhyamika’ school (d) the author of a commentary on Panini’s San grammar
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Q15. After the death of Shivaji, there was a fight for succession between
(a) Shambhaji and the widow of Shivaji (b) Shambhaji and Bajirao
(c) Rajaram and Shambhaji (d) None of them

Q16. The ruins of the Vijayanagara at Hampi were brought to light in 1800 by
(a) Colonel Colin Mackenzie (b) Sir John Shore (c) Andrew Fraser (d) John Marshall

Q17. The Ghadar party, formed in the USA, was determined to start a revolt in India. Which among the following provinces
did the party choose to begin its armed revolt?
(a) Punjab (b) Bengal (c) United Provinces (d) Bihar

Q18. The social ideals of Mahatma Gandhi were first put forth in
(a) Hind Swaraj
(b) An Authobiography-The Story of My Experiments with Truth
(c) History of the Satyagraha in South Africa
(d) The Bhagavad Geeta According to Gandhi

Q19. The only inscribed stone portrait of Emperor Ashoka has been found at
(a) Sanchi (b) Amaravati (c) Kanaganahalli (d) Ajanta

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Q20. What do you mean by ‘Demographic Dividend’?
(a) A rise in the rate of economic growth due to a higher share of working age people in a population
(b)A rise in the rate of literacy due to development of educational institutions in different parts of the country
(c) A rise in the standard of living of the people due to the growth of alternative livelihood practices
(d) A rise in the gross employment ratio of country due to government policies

Q21. Most ozone gas (about 90%) is located in the atmospheric layer of
(a) ionosphere (b) troposphere (c) stratosphere (d) mesosphere

Q22. Which one of the following tribal groups found in the ‘Blue Mountains’?
(a) Lambadas (b) Gonds (c) Jarawas (d) Todas

Q23. Pir Panjal Range in the Himalayas is a part of:

(a) Shiwalik (b) Trans Himalaya (c) Central Himalaya (d) Lesser Himalaya

Q24. The ‘eye’ of the cyclone has

(a) abnormally high temperature and lowest pressure (b) abnormally low temperature and pressure

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(c) clear sky and lowest temperature (d) dense cloud cover and low pressure

Q25. A nautical mile is equal to

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(a) 5060 feet (b) 5280 feet (c) 6060 feet (d) 6080 feet

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 PART–I : REASONING
ANSWER PRACTICE TEST PAPER - 1

9 10. (b) Blue

1. (a)
32 Explanation: All are colours of a rainbow.
Explanation:
Clearly, the numerators of the fractions in the
given sequence form the series 1, 3, 5, 7, in which 11. (b) Leaf
each term is obtained by adding 2 to the previous Explanation: All are parts of a tree.
term. The denominators of the fractions form the series 2,
4, 8, 16, i.e., 2¹, 2², 23, 24. So, the numerator of the next
12. (d) Tetanus
fraction will be (7+2) i.e. 9 and the denominator will be 25
Explanation: All except Tetanus are diseases which are
i.e. 32. Thus, the next term is 9 Hence, the answer is (a).
32 transmitted by insects or mosquitoes.

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2. (a) 14
13. (b) Ornament
Explanation:
Explanation: All others are different types of ornaments.

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The pattern is + 3, + 4, + 5, + 6,..... So, missing term =
9 + 5 = 14.
14. (a) Sky : Cloud
3. (b) G Explanation: In all other pairs, the two words denote

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things which serve the same purpose.
Explanation:
+3 +3 +3 +3 +3
R U X A D G 15. (b) Yeast : Fungi

4. (a) LUP
Explanation:
L
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Explanation: In all other pairs, first is the disease caused
by the second.

(b) NHCGGU
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–1 –1 –1 –1
Ist Letter : P O N M
Explanation: The letters at the odd–numbered positions
+2 +2 +2 +2 U in the word are each moved two steps forward while those
IInd Letter : M O Q S
at the even–numbered positions are each moved three
–1 –1 –1 –1 P steps forward to obtain the corresponding letters of the
IIIrd Letter : T S R Q
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code.
5. (b) abbab
17. (c) EGZBKMRTDF
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Explanation: The series is ab/ab/ab/ab/ab/ab. Thus, the

pattern ‘ab’ is repeated. Explanation: Each letter in the word is replaced by a set
of two letters– one preceding it and the other following it
in the code. Thus, T is replaced by SU, R is replaced by
6. (c) 47U15 QS and so on.
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Explanation:
Ist Letter : 2 +5
7 +7
14 +9
23 +11
34 +13 18. (c) Straw
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47 Explanation: The furniture is made up of wood’ and as

given, wood’ is called ‘straw’. So, the furniture is made
–1 –1 –1 –1 –1 up of ‘straw’.
IInd Letter : Z Y X W Y
U
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19. (a) Light

+2 +2 +2 +2 +2
IIIrd Letter : 5 7 9 11 13 Explanation: One drinks water’ when one is thirsty.
15 Since a ‘water’ is called ‘light’ on the other planet, so one
would drink ‘light’ when one is thirsty there.

7. (d) Desert
20. (a) Son
Explanation: Ship is the principal means of transport in
Explanation: Wife of Rashi’s husband– Rashi; Brother of
sea. Similarly, camel is the principal means of transport
daughter– Son.So, the man on the stage is Rashi’s son.
in desert.

21. (d) Husband

8. (c) Epidemic
Explanation: Only daughter of woman’s father woman
Explanation: Second is a more intense form of the first.
herself. So, the man is woman’s husband.

9. (a) Experience
22. (c) 2nd
Explanation: Second is acquired from the first.
Explanation: The advocate is to the right of the student,
who is standing between the professor and the advocate.
So, we have: Professor, Student, Advocate.

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 The author is to the left of business man. So, we have: 25. (a) 30 km
Author, Business man. Since the professor and business
Explanation: QA = QD + DA
man are at the ends, the arrangement from left to right
becomes: Professor, Student, Advocate, Author,Business = 5km + 25km = 30km
man. Clearly the advocate is third from left. So, option (a) is the answer.
P 5km
23. (d) D Q

Explanation: We have: E <A< B, A <D <B. Since C is the 5km

tallest, so we have: E <A<D B<C.
O D
Clearly, D lies in the middle. 5km

24. (a) North 25km

Explanation: The movements of Gopal are as shown in

Fig. from A to G. A

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Clearly, Gopal is finally walking in the direction FG i.e.,
North

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10m
D C
10m

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40m

G B 30m
A

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 PART–II : ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS
ANSWER PRACTICE TEST PAPER - 1

1. (a) 1 (24 – 1) (32 – 1)

2 = (2 – 1) (3 – 1)
Explanation: 15 × 8 4
1 = 0.25 3 = 0.6 = = 60
1×2
4 5 1
= 0.5 11 = 2.2 n = ap × bq × cr
5 (ap+1 –1) (bq+1 – 1) (cr+1– 1)
Sum of factors of n =
3 = 1.5 4 = 0.8 (a – 1) (b – 1) (c –1)
2 5
Clearly 0.5 lies between 0.25 and 0.6

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6. (a) 125
So, 1 lies between 1 and 3 x 5

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2 4 5 3 64 = 4

2. (a) 21 Cubing both sides

50 x = 125

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Explanation: 64 64
2 = 0.4 4 = 0.44 x = 125 × 64 = 125
5 9 64 1
21 = 0.42 1 = 0.5
50

3 4
2
1 = 0.66 1 = 0.25
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Explanation:
Let 7 consecutive numbers are
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Clearly 0.4 lies between 2 and 4 . x, x + 1, x + 2, x + 3, x + 4, x + 5, x + 6
5 9
ATQ
So, 21 lies between 2 and 4
50 5 9 x + x + 1 + x + 2 + x + 3 + x + 4 + x + 5 + x + 6 = 6.5
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3. (a) 0.125
7x + 21 = 6.5
Explanation: 7
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0.1 × 0.1 × 0.1+ 0.02 × 0.02 × 0.02 7x + 21 = 45.5

= 0.2 × 0.2 × 0.2 + 0.04 × 0.04 × 0.04
x = 45.5 – 21
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(0.1)3 + (0.02)3 7x = 24.5

= 23(0.1)3 + 23(0.02)3 3.5
x = 24.5
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(0.1)3 + (0.02)3 1 smallest number = x = 3.5

= 8((0.1)3 + (0.02)3) = 8 = 0.125
greatest number = x + 6 = 3.5 +6 = 9.5
sum of smallest and greatest number = 3.5 + 9.5
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4. (b) 25
= 13
Explanation: Let the number be x
8. (a) 13
x
x = 5 + 20 Explanation: Let the number be x
x x – 10 = 16 – x
x – 5 = 20
x + x = 16 + 10
4x 2x = 26
5 = 20
26 13
5 5 x = 2 = 13
x = 20 × = 20
4 1
1
9. (d) 20000
5. (b) 60 2 24
2 12 Explanation: Let his old salary was x
Explanation:
2 6
ATQ:
24 = 23 × 3 3 3
1 x + 20% of x = 24000
Sum of factors of 24

11 www.territorialarmy.in
 14. (c) 0
x + 20 × x = 24000
100 Explanation:
120 x = 24000
100 x = a (b – c) y = b (c – a)
z = c (a – b)
2000
x = 24000 × 100 = 20000 x =b–c y =c–a z =a–b
120
a b c

( xa ) + ( yb ) + ( zc )
3 3 3

10. (b) 1 x + y + z =
3 a b c
= (b – c)3 + (c – a)3 + (a – b)3
Explanation b – c + c – a+ a – b
(0.064 – 0.008) (0.16 – 0.04) = 3(b – c) (c – a) (a – b) =0
(0.16 + 0.08 + 0.04) ( 0.4 + 0.2)3
= 3xyz [X3+Y3+Z3 = 3XYZ if X + Y + Z = 0]
abc
(0.43 – 0.23) (0.42 – 0.22)

n
= (0.42 + 0.2 × 0.4 + 0.22) ( 0.4 + 0.2)3
15. (b) 1p.m.
Explanation:

y.i
(0.4 – 0.2) (0.42 + 0.4 × 0.4 + 0.22) (0.42 – 0.22)
= 2 20 – 30 – 40
(0.42 + 0.2 × 0.4 + 0.22) ( 0.4 + 0.2)3
2 10 – 15 – 20
2 5 – 15 – 10

m
(0.4 – 0.2)2 (0.4 + 0.2)
= (0.4 + 0.2)3 3 5 – 15 – 5
5 5–5–5

11.
=
(0.4 – 0.2)2
0.2 1
(0.4 + 0.2)2 = 0.6 = 3

(a) 2 : 3
lar 1–1–1
LCM of 20, 30 and 40 = 2×2×2×3×5×1×1×1 = 120
Bells will ring together after 120 min. (2 hours) at 1p.m.
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Explanation:
16. (b) 6 years
Duplicate ratio of
Explanation:
√2 and √3
Let age of son = x
to

2 2
= √2 : √3
age of father = 7x
=2:3
Their ages after 4 years will be x + 4 and 7x + 4
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12. (c) √2 ATQ:

Explanation: x + 4 + 7x + 4 = 56
1 8x + 8 = 56
x=
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√2 + 1
8x = 56 – 8
1 √2 – 1 √2 – 1 8x = 48
x= × = 2 2
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√2 + 1 √2 – 1 √2 – 1 6
x = 48
√2 – 1 1 8
= = √2 – 1 Present age of son = x = 6 years
2–1
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x + 1 = √2 – 1 + 1 17. (a) 5 : 4
= √2 Explanation:
Let age of Namrata and Divya are 4x and 3x
13. (a) 13
14 ATQ

Explanation: x : y = 3 : 1 4x + 3x = 28
x = 3 7x = 28
y 1 4
x = 28
1 7
x3 – y3 = 33 – 13 = 27 – 1 Age of Namrata = 4x = 4 × 4 = 16 years
x3 + y3 33 + 13 27 + 1 Age of Divya = 3x = 3 × 4 = 12 years
13 Their ages after 4 years will be
26 = 13
2814 14 = 16 + 4, 12 + 4
= 20, 16
5 4
Ratio = 20 : 16 = 5 : 4

www.territorialarmy.in 12
18. (c) 33, 53 21. (d) 616cm2
Explanation: Explanation:
Let numbers are 3x and 5x Area of square = 484 m2
ATQ Side2 = 484
3x – 9 = 12 Side2 = 222
5x –9 23
Perimeter of square = 4 × side
23(3x – 9) = 12 (5x – 9)
= 4 × 22 = 88 cm.
69x – 207 = 60x – 108
Circum. of circle = perimeter of square
9x = 99
2πr = 88
x= 99
11
1 9 2× 22 r = 88
7
numbers are 3x and 5x = 3 × 11 and 5 × 11 44 2 1
r = 88 × × 7

n
= 33 and 55 21 22 1
r = 14

y.i
19. (d) 360 Area of circle = πr2
Explanation: 2
22 × 14 × 14 = 616cm2
Let CP of two calculators are x and 900 – x 71

m
Loss % on first calculate = 20% 22. (a) 11 1 %
4 9
SP of first calculate = 80 × x Explanation:
100

lar
5 Let Ram's income is 100
= 4 x
5 Ram's income is more that Sham's income by; 12 1 %
Gain % on second calculator = 20% 2
6 Sham's income is less than Ram's by
SP of second calculator = 120 ×(900 – x)
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1005 12 1
2 × 100
= 6 (900–x) 100 + 12 1
5 2
ATQ 1 25
× 100 = 100% = 11 1 %
to

4 x = 6 (900–x) 2259 9 9
5 5
= 2x = 3(900 – x) 23. (d) 10%
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= 2x = 2700 – 3x Explanation:
= 2x + 3x = 2700 Initial production= 40000
= 5x = 2700 Time = 2years
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540
= x = 2700
2

1 5 (
40000 1 + R
100 ) = 48400
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CP of first calculate x = `540 2

CP of second calculate = 900 – x (1 + 100

R
) = 48400
40000
2 2
= 900 – 540 = `360
(1 + 100
R
) = ( 2220 )
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20. (d) 11 R = 22 – 1 = 2
18 100 20 20
Explanation: 12
R= ×100 = 10%
Let the two number be a and b 20 1

a + b = 11 ..... (1) 24. (d) 10 years

ab = 18 ..... (2) Explanation:
Divide (1) by (2) Let principal = P
Amount = 3P
a+b = 11
ab 18 Time = 20 years S.P = 3P – P = 2P
a + b = 11 P × R × T = 2P
ab ab 18 100
1 + 1 = 11 P × R × 20 = 2P
a b 18 100
1
R = 100 × 2 = 10%
20 1

13 www.territorialarmy.in
 Now let after t years amount becomes double Rate = 8%
S.I. = 2P – P = P t

P × 10 × T = P
(
P 1+ R
100 ) =A
100
2
T = 100 = 10 years
10 (
P 1+ 8
100 ) = 5832
25. (a) 5000
P 108 × 108 = 5832
100 100
Explanation:
324 54 50
Let principal be P P = 5832 × 100 × 100 = 5000
108 108
Time = 2 years 16 12

PART–III : ENGLISH

n
ANSWER PRACTICE TEST PAPER - 1

y.i
1. (a) are quite punctual but not duty conscious 16. (a) Revoke
2. (d) is more or less ineffective 17. (c) Dull
3. (c) evaluation 18. (a) Dull

m
4. (d) is of a very poor standard 19. (d) kidnapped
5. (b) The employee must change their outlook 20. (c) futile

6.
7.
8.
towards work
(a) Catch
(a) Kind
(a) Dramatic
lar 21.
22.
23.
(d) inherited
(b) alive to
(c) characteristic
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24. (c) responsibility to cast their vote
9. (b) Relieve In a democratic society every voter has a responsibility to
cast his vote in the election process.
10. (c) Arduous
Explanation: Singular pronoun every requires a singular
11. (c) Comitted referrent his or her
to

12. (a) Brillient 25. (a) If the employees would have

13. (d) Seperate If the employees had succeeded in their attempt they
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would have achieved a good target.

14. (b) Apathetic Explanation: Conditional perfect (would have) is not
15. (a) Wily used for something that did not happen in the past.
Instead past perfect (had) is used.
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PART–IV : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

w.

ANSWER PRACTICE TEST PAPER - 1

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1. (d) scattering of light 14. (d) the author of a commentary on Panini’s San
grammar
2. (a) To increase the life of the bulb
15. (c) Rajaram and Shambhaji
3. (c) silver reacts with sulphur in the air to form a
coating of silver sulphide 16. (a) Colonel Colin Mackenzie
4. (c) dispersion 17. (a) Punjab
5. (b) Xenon 18. (a) Hind Swaraj
6. (c) two liquids 19. (c) Kanaganahalli
7. (d) the number of electrons in the outermost shell of 20. (a) A rise in the rate of economic growth due
the element to a higher share of working age people in a
population
8. (c) Four
21. (c) stratosphere
9. (d) Amylase
22. (d) Todas
10. (b) Amphibia and Reptilia
23. (d) Lesser Himalaya
11. (c) Golgi bodies
24. (a) abnormally high temperature and lowest
12. (a) Adipocyte
pressure
13. (d) Mahavamsa
25. (d) 6080 feet

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