LLQ1 Review Quiz
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oritolentinoLLQ1 Review Quiz
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oritolentino1. Who is considered the "Father of Microbiology"?
a. Robert Koch
b. Louis Pasteur
c. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
d. Joseph Lister
2. Which of the following statements about Koch’s postulates is FALSE?
a. The suspected pathogen must be present in every case of the disease.
b. The pathogen must be isolated and grown in pure culture.
c. The cultured organism must always cause disease in a healthy host.
d. The pathogen must be recoverable from the experimentally infected host.
3. What is the correct format for bacterial nomenclature?
a. Escherichia Coli
b. escherichia coli
c. Escherichia coli
d. Escherichia Coli
4. Which taxonomic level is the most specific?
a. Phylum
b. Order
c. Family
d. Species
5. Which bacterial shape is incorrectly matched with its example?
a. Coccus – Staphylococcus aureus
b. Bacillus – Escherichia coli
c. Vibrio – Treponema pallidum
d. Spirochete – Borrelia burgdorferi
6. The bacterial growth phase where the rate of division is at its maximum is:
a. Lag phase
b. Log phase
c. Stationary phase
d. Death phase
7. Which bacterial structure is responsible for motility?
a. Capsule
b. Pili
c. Flagella
d. Ribosome
8. Gram-positive bacteria have:
a. A thick peptidoglycan layer
b. An outer membrane with lipopolysaccharides
c. No cell wall
d. A single-layered plasma membrane
9. Which scientist developed aseptic techniques?
a. Edward Jenner
b. Joseph Lister
c. Hans Christian Gram
d. Robert Koch
10. The Gram stain differentiates bacteria based on:
a. Shape
b. Motility
c. Cell wall composition
d. Genetic material
11. Which of the following is a key characteristic of prokaryotic cells?
a. Presence of a membrane-bound nucleus
b. Absence of ribosomes
c. Circular DNA without histones
d. Presence of mitochondria
12. Which bacterial structure is primarily responsible for attachment to surfaces?
a. Flagella
b. Pili
c. Ribosomes
d. Capsule
13. Bacterial conjugation is mediated by which structure?
a. Fimbriae
b. Sex pili
c. Ribosomes
d. Capsule
14. The bacterial cell wall component responsible for Gram stain differentiation is:
a. Peptidoglycan
b. Lipopolysaccharide
c. Plasma membrane
d. Capsule
15. Which bacterial genus is acid-fast due to its mycolic acid content?
a. Escherichia
b. Mycobacterium
c. Staphylococcus
d. Clostridium
16. A bacterial cell that can survive in the presence or absence of oxygen is classified as:
a. Obligate aerobe
b. Obligate anaerobe
c. Facultative anaerobe
d. Microaerophile
17. Which bacterial phase is characterized by no significant increase in number but high
metabolic activity?
a. Lag phase
b. Log phase
c. Stationary phase
d. Death phase
18. Which of the following is an endospore-forming bacterial genus?
a. Staphylococcus
b. Bacillus
c. Escherichia
d. Neisseria
19. What is the primary function of a bacterial capsule?
a. Energy production
b. Antibiotic resistance
c. Protection against phagocytosis
d. Nutrient absorption
20. What is the primary purpose of bacterial culture media?
a. To enhance bacterial motility
b. To inhibit bacterial growth
c. To provide nutrients for bacterial growth
d. To identify bacterial viruses
21. What is the most effective method for sterilizing heat-sensitive medical equipment?
a. Autoclaving
b. Incineration
c. Ethylene oxide gas sterilization
d. Boiling
22. What is the recommended time and temperature for autoclaving to achieve
sterilization?
a. 121°C for 15-20 minutes
b. 110°C for 5 minutes
c. 200°C for 30 minutes
d. 100°C for 10 minutes
23. Which bacterial species is an obligate anaerobe?
a. Escherichia coli
b. Clostridium botulinum
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
24. Which disinfectant is most effective against spores?
a. Alcohol
b. Phenol
c. Hydrogen peroxide
d. Glutaraldehyde
25. The most important step in hand hygiene is:
a. Rinsing with water
b. Using antiseptic soap
c. Duration of washing
d. Drying hands thoroughly
26. Which biosafety cabinet provides the highest level of protection?
a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Laminar flow hood
27. What is the purpose of the Ziehl-Neelsen stain?
a. Differentiating Gram-positive from Gram-negative bacteria
b. Identifying acid-fast bacteria
c. Detecting bacterial spores
d. Staining bacterial capsules
28. A facultative anaerobe grows best in which environment?
a. Only with oxygen
b. Only without oxygen
c. Both aerobic and anaerobic conditions
d. Only at reduced oxygen levels
29. Which of the following is an example of a selective and differential medium?
a. Blood agar
b. MacConkey agar
c. Nutrient agar
d. Chocolate agar
30. Which type of hemolysis is characterized by complete lysis of red blood cells?
a. Alpha-hemolysis
b. Beta-hemolysis
c. Gamma-hemolysis
d. Delta-hemolysis
31. The most common method of bacterial reproduction is:
a. Binary fission
b. Conjugation
c. Transduction
d. Budding
32. Which of the following tests is most commonly used to differentiate Staphylococcus from
Streptococcus?
a. Coagulase test
b. Catalase test
c. Oxidase test
d. PYR test
33. What is the major virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes that inhibits phagocytosis?
a. Protein A
b. M protein
c. Streptokinase
d. Exfoliative toxin
34. Which of the following Staphylococcus species is the most virulent and commonly
associated with human infections?
a. Staphylococcus epidermidis
b. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
c. Staphylococcus haemolyticus
d. Staphylococcus aureus
35. The enzyme responsible for converting fibrinogen to fibrin, used to distinguish
Staphylococcus aureus from coagulase-negative staphylococci, is:
a. Catalase
b. Coagulase
c. Hyaluronidase
d. Hemolysin
36. What is the Lancefield classification of Streptococcus pyogenes?
a. Group A
b. Group B
c. Group C
d. Group D
37. Which of the following characteristics is true for Staphylococcus saprophyticus?
a. It is a major cause of nosocomial infections.
b. t is a coagulase-positive bacterium.
c. It is a common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs) in young women.
d. It produces beta-hemolysis on blood agar.
38. What is the recommended first-line antibiotic for treating Streptococcus pyogenes
infections?
a. Vancomycin
b. Penicillin
c. Ciprofloxacin
d. Metronidazole
39. The primary mechanism of methicillin resistance in MRSA (methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus) is due to:
a. Beta-lactamase production
b. Altered penicillin-binding protein (PBP2a)
c. Efflux pumps
d. Mutation in ribosomal RNA
40. Sample from a UTI patient was plated and colonies growing on BAP is gram stained
which revealed gram positive cocci. Catalase test was done and bubbles were formed.
Coagulase test was done and revealed no clot formed. Novobiocin sensitivity test was
done and the organism was found to be resistant. Identify the organism.
a. Streptococcus pyogenes
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Staphylococcus epidermidis
d. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
